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Acids Bases and Salts Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids Bases and Salts to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Science Chapter 2 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Science Chapter 2

Question 1.
With the help of an example explain what happens when a base reacts with a non- metallic oxide. What do you infer about the nature of non-metal oxide? (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Oxides of non-metals react with bases to form salt and water. For example, the reaction between carbon dioxide and calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, which is a base, reacts with carbon dioxide to produce salt and water.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 1
Hence, oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.

Question 2.
What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water
(i) for a short duration?
(ii) for a long duration? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) When CO2 is passed through lime water for short interval of time, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 2

(ii) If CO2 is passed for long duration through lime water, the white precipitate formed dissolves due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate and the solution becomes clear.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 3

Question 3.
2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test tube. When the content are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid.
Answer:
It is observed that active metals like zinc react with strong bases like NaOH, KOH etc. to liberate hydrogen gas and corresponding salt.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 4

The evolution of gas is confirmed by the bubble formation in soap solution.
Test to detect H2 gas: When burning matchstick is kept on the mouth of this test tube, pop sound is heard which confirms the presence of H2 gas. When Zn metal reacts with dilute solution of strong acid, H2 gas is evolved.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 5

Question 4.
Write the names of the product formed when zinc reacts with NaOH. Also write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. Write a test to confirm the presence of the gas evolved during this reaction. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 3.

Question 5.
To. a solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube, two drops of phenolphthalein are added.
(i) State the colour change observed.
(ii) If dil HCl is added dropwise to the solution, what will be the colour change?
(iii) On adding few drops of NaOH solution to the above mixture the colour of the solution reappears. Why? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(i) On adding phenolphthalein to NaOH solution, the colour becomes pink.
(ii) On adding dilute HCl solution dropwise to the same test tube, the pink colour disappears and the solution again becomes colourless.
(iii) On again adding NaOH to the above mixture, pink colour reappears because the medium becomes basic again.

Question 6.
A cloth’strip dipped in onion juice is used for testing a liquid ‘X. The liquid ‘X changes its
odour. Which type of an indicator is onion juice? The liquid ‘X turns blue litmus red. List the observations the liquid ‘X will show on reacting with the following :
(a) Zinc granules
(b) Solid sodium carbonate
Write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
Answer:
Onion juice is an olfactory indicator. Olfactory indicators give one type of odour in acidic medium and a different odour in basic medium. As the liquid ‘X’ turns blue litmus red, hence it is an acidic solution.
(a) Acids react with active metals such as zinc, magnesium etc. and evolve hydrogen gas, for example,
Zn(s) dil.H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4H2(g)

(b) Acids react with metal carbonates to give carbon dioxide with brisk effervescence.
For example, Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + CO2 + H2O

Question 7.
(a) Write the chemical name and formula of marble.
(b) It has been found that marbles of Taj are getting corroded due to development of industrial areas around it. Explain this fact giving a chemical equation.
(c) (i) What happens when CO2 is passed through lime water?
(ii) What happens when CO2 is passed in excess through lime? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) The chemical formula of marble (lime stone) is CaCO3. Its chemical name is calcium carbonate.

(b) Taj Mahal, one of the seven wonders of the world situated at Agra, is continuously losing its luster day by day due to rapid industrialisation which causes acid rain.
The sulphuric acid present in the acid rain causes the marble (CaCO3) to be washed off as calcium sulphate (CaSO4), leading to the deterioration of such a splendid piece of architecture.
CaCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CaSO4(aq) + H2Ol + CO2(g)
(c) Refer to answer 2.

Question 8.
On diluting an acid, it is advised to add acid to water and not water to acid. Explain why it is so advised? (Board Term I, 2014)
Draw a labelled diagram to show the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory.
(ii) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In which of the two cases, does the litmus paper show change in colour?
(iii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas/HCl solution.
Answer:
Diluting a concentrated acid with water is a highly exothermic process. So, when water is added to concentrated acid, large amounts of heat is liberated which changes some water to steam explosively which can splash the acid and even the glass apparatus may break due to excessive heating.

Question 9.
(i) Draw a labelled diagram to show the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in laboratory.
(ii) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In which of the two cases, does the litmus paper show change in colour?
(iii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas/HCl solution. (2020)
Answer:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 6
(ii) There is no change in the colour of ‘dry’ blue litmus paper but ‘moist’ blue litmus paper turns red if brought near the mouth of the test tube.
This shows that HCl gas does not show acidic behaviour in absence of water but it shows acidic behaviour in presence of water.

(iii) When HC1 gas dissolves in water, forms hydrochloric acid solution i.e., HCl(aq) which then produces H+(aq) or H3O+(aq) ions.
HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl
Due to the presence of H+ or H3O+ it shows acidic behaviour.

Question 10.
Complete and balance the following chemical equations :
(i) NaOH(aq) + Zn(s)
(ii) CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
(iii) HCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Answer:
(i) 2NaOH(aq) + Zn(s) → Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2(g)
(ii) CaCO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2Ol → Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
(iii) HCl(aq) + H2Ol > H3O+ Cl(aq)

Question 11.
How the following substances will dissociate to produce ions in their solutions?
(i) Hydrochloric acid
(ii) Nitric acid
(iii) Sulphuric acid
(iv) Sodium hydroxide
(v) Potassium hydroxide
(vi) Magnesium hydroxide (Board Term 1, 2017)
Answer:
Dissociation of various substances to produce ions in their solutions are :
(i) Hydrochloric acid (HCl):
HCl(aq) ⇌ H+(aq) + Cl(aq)

(ii) Nitric acid (HNO3
HNO3(aq) ⇌ + H+aq + NO3(aq)

(iii) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4):
H2SO4(aq) ⇌ 2H+(aq) + SO2-4(aq)

(iv) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH):
NaOH(aq) ⇌ Na+(aq) + OH(aq)

(v) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) :
KOH(aq)⇌ K+(aq) + OH(aq)

(vi) Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2] :
Mg(OH)2(aq) ⇌ Mg2++(aq) + 2OH (aq)

Question 12.
Sugandha prepares HCl gas in her school laboratory using certain chemicals. She puts both dry and wet blue litmus papers in contact with the gas.
(i) Name the reagents used by Sugandha to prepare HCl gas.
(ii) State the colour changes observed with the dry and wet blue litmus papers.
(iii) Show the formation of ions when HCl gas combines with water. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(i) Dense white fumes of hydrogen chloride gas are evolved on heating solid sodium chloride with concentrated sulphuric acid.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 7

(ii) Refer to answer 9(ii).
(iii) Refer to answer 9(iii).

Question 13.
(a) Illustrate an activity to investigate whether all compounds containing hydrogen are acidic.
(b) What happens when hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide are dissolved in water. Explain by giving equation of each. (Board Term 1, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Take two beakers, one containing HCl acid and other containing alcohol which is not an acid but contains hydrogen. Now, fix two iron nails on a rubber cork and insert in a beaker and connect the nail to the two terminal of 6V battery through a switch and a bulb. Pour some dilute HCl solution in beaker and switch on the current. The bulb starts glowing. This shows that acids get dissociated as H+ and Cl ions and these ions are responsible for conducting electricity.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 8
Let us now take alcohol solution in the beaker and switch on the current. The bulb does not glow in this case. This shows that alcohol does not conduct electricity.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 9
So, all acids have hydrogen but all hydrogen containing compounds are not acid.

(b) HCl dissociates in aqueous solution to give hydrogen ions (or hydronium ions) and chloride ions.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 10
NaOH when dissolved in water produces sodium ions and hydroxide ions in the solution.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 11

Question 14.
An aqueous solution ‘A’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous solution ‘B’ to ‘A’ the pink colour disappears. The following statement is true for solution ‘A’ and ‘B’:
(a) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.
(b) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.
(c) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
(d) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7. (2020)
Answer:
(c) As the aqueous solution of A turns phenolphthalein solution pink, hence A is basic in nature. On adding an acidic solution, the pink colour will disappear. Hence, B is an acid.

Question 15.
Out of HCl and CH3COOH, which one is a weak acid and why? Explain with the help of an example. (AI 2019)
Answer:
Out of HCl and CH3COOH, CH3COOH is a weak acid because it dissociates partially in the solution. This can be proved with the help of following example.

If 1 M HCl and 1 M CH3COOH are taken in the beaker as shown in the figure, greater deflection is observed in case of HCl which shows that more ions are produced by HCl in solution which produce more current.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 12

Question 16.
Explain how an antacid works. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
The acidity produced due to excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach which cause indigestion, produce pain and irritation. Milk of magnesia (chemically magnesium hydroxide) is used as an antacid. Since, it is basic in nature, reacts with the excess hydrochloric acid present in the stomach and neutralises it.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 13

Question 17.
(a) Three acidic solutions A, B and C have pH = 0, 3 and 5 respectively.
(i) Which solution has highest concentration of H+ ions?
(ii) Which solution has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?
(b) How concentrated sulphuric acid can be diluted? Describe the process. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) (i) The solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. Hence, solution ‘A’ will have highest H+ ion concentration.
(ii) Solution CC’ i.e., pH = 5 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions.

(b) Mixing of an acid with water is called dilution. This process is highly exothermic and therefore, acid is always added to the water not water to acid. The process for diluting concentrated sulphuric acid is :
(i) Take about 10 mL of water in a beaker.
(ii) Add concentrated sulphuric acid dropwise to water and swirl the beaker slowly.

Question 18.
A compound P forms the enamel of teeth. It is the hardest substance of the body. It doesn’t dissolve in water but gets corroded when the pH is lowered below 5.5.
(a) Identify the compound P.
(b) How does it undergo damage due to eating chocolate and sweets? What should we do to prevent tooth decay? (Board Term I, 2014, 2013)
Answer:
(a) The compound P is calcium phosphate, (b) Eating chocolates and sweets produce large amount of acid in the mouth which is not completely neutralised by the saliva produced in the mouth. Excess acid attacks the enamel and tooth decay starts as pH of the mouth falls below 5.5. The best way to prevent tooth decay is to clean the teeth by using toothpastes after eating food. Toothpastes which are generally basic neutralise the excess acid in the mouth.

Question 19.
Baking soda is a mixture of
(a) sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid.
Answer:
(c) : Baking soda is a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and a mild edible acid like tartaric acid or citric acid.

Question 20.
The chemical formula for plaster of Paris is
(a) CaSO4.2H2O
(b) CaSO4.2H2O
(c) CaSO4.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)H2O
(d) 2CaSO4.2H2O
Answer:
(c, d) : Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate which can be represented as,
CaSO4. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) H2O and 2CaSO4.H20.

Question 21.
“Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt”. Justify this statement. How is it converted into washing soda? (AI2019)
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) is basic in nature as on hydrolysis it gives a mixture of strong base (NaOH) and weak acid (H2CO3). Sodium hydrogen carbonate is converted to washing soda in the following way:
(i) Thermal decomposition of NaHCO3:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 14
(ii) Recrystallisation of sodium carbonate:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 15

Question 22.
Write the chemical formula of Bleaching powder. How is bleaching powder prepared? For what purpose is it used in drinking water? (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
The chemical formula of bleaching powder is CaOCl2.
It is prepared by the action of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime Ca(OH)2.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 16
The chlorine used in the above reaction is the by-product produced during the electrolysis of brine. It is used in disinfecting drinking water as chlorine liberated by it, kills the germs.

Question 23.
A student collected common names and formulae of some substances but he forgot to note which formula is for which compound. Help him to match the correct formula. (Board Term I, 2013)

(i) Caustic soda NaHCO3.
(ii) Slaked lime CaO
(iii) Baking soda NaOH
(iv) Lime Ca(OH)2.

Answer:
(i) Caustic soda → NaOH
(ii) Slaked lime → Ca(OH)2
(iii) Baking soda → NaHCO3
(iv) Lime → CaO

Question 24.
List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one important use of each. (2020)
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide is prepared by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (brine). The complete reaction can be represented as:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 17
The process of electrolysis of sodium chloride solution is called chlor-alkali process because of the products formed : chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide. The three very useful products obtained by the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution are sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen.

At anode : Cl2 gas is liberated At cathode : H2 gas is liberated.
Uses of sodium hydroxide: In the manufacture of soaps and detergents.
Uses of chlorine : As a germicide and disinfectant for sterilisation of drinking water and for water of swimming pools.
Uses of hydrogen: In the manufacture of ammonia which is used for the preparation of various fertilizers like urea, ammonium sulphate etc.

Question 25.
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which can be removed by it? (2020)
Answer:
Washing soda is prepared by recrystallisation of sodium carbonate:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 18
It is used to remove the permanent hardness of water. Hard water is treated with a calculated amount of washing soda when chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium present in hard water get precipitated as insoluble calcium and magnesium carbonates which can be easily filtered off. The water thus becomes soft.
CaCl2 + Na2CO3 → CaCO3↓ + 2NaCl
MgSO4 + Na2CO3 → MgCOsub>3↓ + Na2SO4

Question 26.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of plaster of Paris.
(ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an antacid.
(iii) On strong heating, blue coloured copper sulphate crystals turn white. (2020)
Answer:
(i) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of plaster of Paris (CaSO4. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) H2O) as one molecule of water is being shared by two molecules of calcium sulphate (CaSO4). So the effective water of crystallisation for one CaSO4 unit comes to half molecule of water.

(ii) Acidity can be neutralised by a base. Sodium hydrogen carbonate can be used as an antacid solution because it is a weak base and will react
with excess acid produced in the stomach due to hyperacidity and will neutralise it.

(iii) Blue coloured copper sulphate crystals are hydrated copper sulphate, CuSO4.5H2O. On heating blue copper sulphate crystals looses its water of crystallisation and turns into anhydrous copper sulphate which is white in colour.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 19

Question 27.
During electrolysis of brine, a gas ‘G’ is liberated at anode. When this gas ‘G’ is passed through slaked lime, a compound ‘C’ is formed, which is used for disinfecting drinking water.
(i) Write formula of ‘G’ and ‘C’.
(ii) State the chemical equations involved.
(iii) What is common name of compound ‘C’ ? Give its chemical name. (2020)
Answer:
(i) During electrolysis of brine, chlorine is obtained at anode. When chlorine is passed through slaked lime, bleaching powder is formed which is used for disinfecting drinking water. Hence, G is Cl2 and C is CaOCl2.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 20
(iii) Common name of C is bleaching powder. Its chemical name is calcium hypochlorite.

Question 28.
Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is it? When is it called rock salt? How is rock salt formed? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Sodium chloride is obtained by the neutralisation of sodium hydroxide (base) with hydrochloric acid (acid). It is a neutral salt. Common salt found in the form of solid deposits is often brown in colour due to presence of impurities which is called rock salt. Rock salt is formed by evaporation of salty water of inland lakes.

Question 29.
A white powder is added while baking cakes to make it soft and spongy. Name its main ingredients. Explain the function of each ingredient. Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is heated during baking. (AI2019)
Answer:
The white powder added while baking cakes to make it soft and spongy is baking powder. Its main ingredients are sodium hydrogen carbonate and a mild edible acid like tartaric acid or citric acid. NaHCO3 decomposes to give out CO2 which causes the cake to rise and makes it soft and spongy. The function of tartaric acid or citric acid is to neutralise sodium carbonate formed during heating which can otherwise make the cake bitter. Reaction taking place when the powder is heated:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 21

Question 30.
The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical equation for its formation. List its two uses. (2018)
Answer:
Salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3), pH = 9. On large scale, sodium bicarbonate is prepared as:
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 22
Two uses of sodium bicarbonate are as follows :
(i) It is used as an antacid in medicines.
(ii) It is used as an additive in food and drinks.
Note : In the question paper, the given pH is 14 which should be 9.

Question 31.
Write one point of difference between each of the following:
(i) A hydrated salt and an anhydrous salt.
(ii) Washing soda and soda ash.
(iii) Baking soda and baking powder. (Board Term 1,2017)
Answer:
(i)

Hydrated salt Anhydrous salt
A salt with one or more chemically combined water molecule is called hydrated salt, e.g., washing soda, Na2CO3.10H2.O A salt in which all water molecules are removed, is called anhydrous salt, e.g., soda ash, Na2.CO3.

(ii)

Washing soda Soda ash
The hydrated salt of sodium carbonate containing 10 molecules of water of crystallisation, is known as washing soda i.e., Na2CO3.10H2.O. The anhydrous sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.) which does not contain water of crystallisation, is known as soda ash.

(iii)

Baking soda Baking powder
Baking soda is sodiumhydrogen carbonate with the formula, NaHCO3. Baking powder is a mixture of NaHCO3. and tartaric acid or citric acid.

Question 32.
Complete the following table:

Sample Solution Red litmus solution Blue litmus solution Phenolp-hthalein solution
Acetic acid
Sodium hydroxide
Baking soda

Answer:

Sample solution Red litmus solution Blue Phenolp-
Acetic acid (CH3.COOH) No effect litmus hthalein
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Blue solution solution
Baking Soda (NaHCO3.) Blue Red Colourless

Question 33.
A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced chemical equation for this change. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Chemical name of the powder is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. Chemical formula of the powder is CaSO4. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) ApH2O.

(b) When water is added to plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard mass in about half an hour. The setting of plaster of Paris is due to its hydration to form crystals of gypsum which set to form a hard, solid mass.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 23

Question 34.
(a) Define an acid-base indicator. Mention one synthetic acid-base indicator.
(b) If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity after overeating, which of the following substances would you suggest as a remedy?
Lemon juice, vinegar or baking soda solution. Mention the property on the basis of which you will choose the remedy. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Acid – base indicators : The indicators which show different colours in acidic and basic medium are called acid-base indicators. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator.
(b) Acidity can be neutralised by a base. Hence, we should choose baking soda solution because it is a weak base and will react with excess acid produced in the stomach due to hyperacidity and will neutralise it.

Question 35.
Define water of crystallisation. Give the chemical formula for two compounds as examples. How can it be proved that the water of crystallisation makes a difference in the state and colour of the compounds? (2020)
Answer:
Water of crystallisation : It is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt, e.g., Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) has two molecules of water of crystallisation.
In hydrated copper sulphate (CuSO4.5H2O), there are five molecules of water of crystallisation.
Activity:
– Take few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry boiling tube. These are blue in colour.
– Heat the boiling tube by holding it with a test tube holder on the flame of the burner.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 24
Observations : You will observe that the colour of copper sulphate crystals after heating becomes white. You may also notice water droplets on the mouth side of the boiling tube which are obtained from water of crystallisation.After adding 2-3 drops of water on the white sample of copper sulphate (obtained after heating) you will observe that the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 25

Question 36.
(a) A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The evolved gas was passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water? Write balanced chemical equations for both the changes observed.
(b) State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a constituent of baking powder. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) When marble reacts with dilute HCl carbon dioxide gas is liberated.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 26
When CO2 gas is passed through lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate is formed which appears milky.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 27
(b) (i) The excess acid formed in the stomach due to various reasons (one being overeating) is neutralised by sodium hydrogen carbonate. Hence, it is used as an ingredient of antacid.
(ii) Baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) is a constituent of baking power. On heating it gives out CO2 which causes the cake to rise and make it soft and spongy.

Question 37.
(a) What are anhydrous and hydrated salts? Explain with a suitable example of each]
(b) How is plaster of Paris prepared? What reaction takes place when it sets to a hard mass? (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 31(i).
(b) It is prepared from gypsum which is calcium sulphate dihydrate (CaSO4.2H2O). Gypsum is heated in a kiln to a temperature of 100°C (373 K). At this temperature, it loses three-fourth of its water of crystallisation forming plaster of Paris.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 28
Refer to answer 33(b).

Question 38.
(a) Write the chemical formula of hydrated copper sulphate and anhydrous copper sulphate. Giving an activity illustrate how these two are interconvertible.
(b) Write chemical names and formulae of plaster of Paris and gypsum. (Board Term 1, 2016)
Answer:
(a) The chemical formula of hydrated copper sulphate is CuSO4.5H2O(s) and anhydrous copper sulphate is CuSO4(s).
For activity refer to answer 35.
(b) Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate; CaSO4.\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) H2O and Gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate;
(CaSO4.2H2O).

Question 39.
How is sodium hydroxide produced? Write the balanced chemical equation also. Why is this process called as chlor-alkali process? In this process name the products given off at:
(a) anode
(b) cathode
Write one use of each of these products. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 24.

Question 40.
What is water of crystallization? Write the common name and chemical formula of a commercially important compound which has ten water molecules as water of crystallization. How is this compound obtained? Write the chemical equation also. List any two uses of this compound. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Water of crystallization : Crystals of some salts contain certain amount of associated water.
The water associated with the crystal (or molecule) of any salt is called water of crystallisation.
The hydrated salt is known as washing soda which is sodium carbonate containing 10 molecules of water of crystallization, i.e., it is sodium carbonate decahydrate. Its molecular formula is Na2CO3.10H2O.
It can be obtained by heating baking soda followed by recrystallisation from its aqueous solution.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 29
Uses of sodium carbonate:
(i) For the manufacture of glass, soap, papers and chemicals like caustic soda (NaOH), borax, etc.
(ii) For washing purposes (laundry works).

Question 41.
(a) Name and describe giving chemical equation the process used for producing sodium hydroxide. Why is this process so named?
(b) Give one use of each of any two products obtained in this process. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 24.

Question 42.
(a) You have three solutions – A, B and C having a pH of 6, 2 and 9 respectively. Arrange these solutions in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration. Which of the three is most acidic? What happens to the hydrogen ion concentration in A as it is diluted?
(b) If someone is suffering from a stomach problem called acidity, why is a solution of baking soda offered as a remedy?
(c) Write chemical name and formula of baking soda. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) The solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. Hence, solution B (i.e., pH = 2) will have more hydrogen ion concentration.
Acids Bases and Salts Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 2 Img 30
Solution B is most acidic.
Adding water to solution A, will reduce the concentration of hydrogen ions in the solution.
(b) Refer to answer 26(ii).
(c) Refer to answer 31(iii).

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Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 Application of Integrals, Application of Integrals Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Application of Integrals Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
Using integration, find the area of ∆ ABC, the coordinates of whose vertices are A (2, 5), B(4, 7) and C(6, 2). (Delhi 2019, 2011: All India 2010C)
Answer:
Given, the vertices of ∆ABC are A(2, 5), B(4, 7) and C(6, 2).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 1
By plotting these points on the graph, we find the required region.
Equation of the line AB is given by
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 2
Now, required area = (Area under line segment AB) + (Area under line segment BC) – (Area under line segment AC)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 3

Question 2.
Using integration, find the area of triangle whose vertices are (2, 3), (3, 5) and (4, 4). (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{2}\) sq units.

Question 3.
Find the area of the region lying above X-axis and included between the circle x2 + y2 = 8x and inside the parabola y2 = 4x (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The equation of circle is
x2 + y2 = 8x …… (i)
and the equation of parabola is
y2 = 4x …… (ii)
Eq. (i) can be written as
(x2 – 8x) + y2 = 0
⇒ (x2 – 8x + 16) + y2 = 16
⇒ (x – 4)2 + y2 = (4)2 …… (iii)
which is a circle with centre C(4, 0) and radius = 4.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x2 + 4x = 8x
⇒ x2 – 4x = 0
⇒ x(x – 4) = 0
⇒ x = 0, 4
Now, from Eq. (ii), we get
y = 0, 4
∴ Points of intersection of circle (i) and parabola (ii), above the A-axis, are 0(0, 0) and P(4, 4).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 4
Now, required area = area of region OPQCO = (area of region OCPQ + (area of region PCQP)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 5

Question 4.
Using integration, prove that the curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y divide the area of the square bounded by x = 0, x = 4, y = 4 and y = 0 into three equal parts. (Delhi 2019, 2009; All India 2015)
Answer:
First, we draw a square formed by the lines x = 0, x = 4, y = 4, and y = 0 and after that, we draw given parabolas which intersect each other on the square such that the whole region divided into three parts. Now, we find separately area of each part and show that area of each part is equal.

Let OABC be the square whose sides are represented by following equations
Equation of OA is y = 0
Equation of AB is x = 4
Equation of BC is y = 4
Equation of CO is x = 0
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 6
On solving equations y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y, we get A(0, 0) and B(4, 4) as their points of intersection. Now, area bounded by these curves is given by.
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 7
Hence, area bounded by curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y is \frac{16}{3} sq units ……. (i)
Now, area bounded by curve x2 = 4y and the lines x = 0, x = 4 and X-axis
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 8
Similarly, the area bounded by curve y2 = 4x, the lines y = 0, y = 4 and Y-axis
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 9
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), it is clear that area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y divides the area of square into three equal parts.
Hence proved.

Question 5.
Using method of integration, find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (1, 0), (2, 2) and (3, 1). (All India 2019)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{2}\) sq units.

Question 6.
Using integration, find the area of the region enclosed between the two circles
x2 + y2 = 4 and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4. (All India 2019, 2010C: Delhi 2013, 2008)
Answer:
First, find the intersecting points of two circles and then draw a rough sketch of these two circles. The common shaded region is symmetrical about X-axis. So, we find area of one part only, i.e. upper part of X-axis.
After that required area is twice of that area.
Given circles are
x2 + y2 = 4 ……… (i)
and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4 …… (ii)

Eq. (i) is a circle with centre origin and radius 2, Eq. (ii) is a circle with centre C (2, 0) and radius 2.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
(x – 2)2 + y2 = x2 + y2
⇒ x2 – 4x + 4 + y2 = x2 + y2
⇒ x = 1
On putting x = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
y = ± √3
Thus, the points of intersection of the given circles are A (1, √3) and A'(1, – √3) as shown in the figure given below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 10
Clearly, required area = Area of the enclosed
region OACA’O between circles
= 2 [Area of the region ODCAO]
= 2 [Area of the region ODAO + Area of the region DCAD]
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 11

Question 7.
Using integration, find the area of the triangular region whose sides have the equations y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1 and x = 4. (All India 2019, 2011C; Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Given, equation of sides are
y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1 and x = 4
On drawing the graph of these equations, we get the following triangular region
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 12
By solving these equations we get the vertices of triangle as A(0, 1), B(4, 13) and C(4, 9).
∴ Required area = Area (OABDO) – area (OACDO)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 13

Question 8.
Find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the X-axis, the line y = x and the circle x2 + y2 = 32. (CBSE 2018; Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given the circle x2 + y2 = 32 ….. (i)
having centre (0, 0) and radius 4√2 and the line y = x ….. (ii)
Let us find the point of intersection of Eqs. (i) and (ii).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 14
On substituting y = x in Eq. (i), we get
x2 + x2 = 32
⇒ 2x2 = 32
⇒ x2 = 16
⇒ x = ± 4
Thus, the points of intersection are (4, 4) and (-4, -4). [∵ y = x]
Clearly, the required area
= Area of shaded region OABO
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 15

Question 9.
Using integration, find the area of the region : {(x, y): 0 ≤ 2y ≤ x2, 0 ≤ y ≤ x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 3}. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Given region is
{(x, y): 0 ≤ 2y ≤ x2, 0 ≤ y ≤ x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 3}
which can be represent graphically as shown below.
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 16
Now, let us find the point of intersection of y = x and y = \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\).
For this consider,
x = \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\)
⇒ x2 – 2x = 0
⇒ x(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 0 or 2
Clearly, when x = 0, then y = 0 and when x = 2, then y = 2
Thus, the points of intersection are (0, 0) and (2, 2).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 17

Question 10.
Using integration, find the area of region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (- 2, 1), (0, 4) and (2, 3). (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
4 sq units

Question 11.
Find the area bounded by the circle x2 + y2 = 16 and the line √3y = x in the first quadrant, using integration. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given equations of circle is x2 + y2 = 16 and x = √3y.
⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)x represents a line through the origin.
The line y = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)x intersects the circle
∴ x2 + \(\frac{x^{2}}{3}\) = 16
⇒ \(\frac{3 x^{2}+x^{2}}{3}\) = 16
⇒ 4x2 = 48 ⇒ x2 = 12 ⇒ x = ±2√3
when x = 2√3, then y = \(\frac{2 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 2
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 18
Required area (shaded region in first quadrant)
= (Area under the line y = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)x from x = 0 to 2√3) + (Area under the circle from x = 2√3 to x = 4)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 19

Question 12.
Using the method of integration, find the area of the ∆ABC, coordinates of whose vertices are A (4, 1), B(6, 6) and C (8, 4). (All India 2017)
Answer:
7 sq units

Question 13.
Find the area enclosed between the parabola 4y = 3x2 and the straight line 3x – 2y + 12 = 0. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given parabola is 4y = 3x2 …… (i)
represent an upward parabola with vertex (0, 0) and equation of line is 2y = 3x + 12 …… (ii)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 20
From Eqs. (j) and (ii), we get
2(3x + 12) = 3x2
⇒ 3x2 – 6x – 24 = 0
⇒ x2 – 2x – 8 = 0
⇒ (x – 4) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x = 4, – 2
when x = 4, then y = \(\frac{3 \times 4+12}{2}\) = 12 [from Eq. (ii)]
when x = – 2, then y = \(\frac{3 \times(-2)+12}{2}\) = 3
Thus, intersection points are (- 2, 3) and (4, 12).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 21

Question 14.
Using integration, find the area of the region
{(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 2ax, y2 ≥ ax;x, y ≥ 0}. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given region is
{(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 2ax, y2 ≥ ox; x, y ≥ 0}
Now, we have x2 + y2 ≤ 2ax
⇒ x2 + y2 – 2ax ≤ 0
⇒ x2 – 2ax + a2 + y2 < a2
[adding a2 both sides of inequality]
⇒ (x – a)2 + y2 < a2
which is the interior of the circle having centre (a, 0) and radius a.
Also, we have y2
which is the exterior of the parabola having vertex (0, 0) and axis is X-axis.
Now, let us find the intersection point of circle
(x – a)2 + y2 = a2 and parabola y2 = ax.
On substituting y2 = ax in the given circle, we get
(x – a)2 + ax = a2
⇒ x2 + a2 – 2ax + ax = a2
⇒ x2 – ax = 0
⇒ x(x – a) = 0
⇒ x = 0, a
When x = 0, then
y2 = 0 ⇒ y = 0
When x = a, then
y2 = a2 ⇒ y = ± a
So, the points of intersection are 0(0, 0), A (a, a) and B(a, -a). (1)
Now, draw the graph of given curve as shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 22
Clearly, the required area of region will lie in first
quadrant as x, y ≥ 0.
∴ Required area = Area of shaded region
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 23

Question 15.
Using integration, find the area of the triangular region whose vertices are (2, – 2), (4, 3) and (1, 2). (All India 2016)
Answer:
\(\frac{13}{2}\) sq units

Question 16.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = \(\sqrt{4-x^{2}}\), x2 + y2 – 4x = 0 and the x-axis. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
y = \(\sqrt{4-x^{2}}\) ……. (i)
and x2 + y2 – 4x = 0
Consider the curve
y = \(\sqrt{4-x^{2}}\) = y2 = 4 – x2
⇒ x2 + y2 = 4 which represents a circle with centre (0, 0) and radius 2 units.
Now, consider the curve x2 + y2 – 4x = 0
⇒ (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4, which also represents a circle with centre (2, 0) and radius 2 units.
Now, let us sketch the graph of given curves and find their points of intersection.
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 24
On substituting the value of y from Eq. (i) in Eq. (ii), we get
x2 + (4 – x2) – 4x = 0
⇒ 4 – 4x = 0
⇒ x = 1
On substituting x = 1 in Eq. (1). we get y = √3
Thus, the point of intersection is (1, √3).
Clearly, required area = Area of shaded region OABO
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 25

Question 17.
Using integration, find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the Y-axis, the line y = x and the circle x2 + y2 = 32. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Given, equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 32
and equation of line is
y = x
Consider x2 + y2 = 32
⇒ x2 + y2 = (4√2)2
So, given circle has centre (0, 0) and radius 4√2 units.
Now, let us sketch the graph of given curves and find their points of intersection
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 26
On substituting y = x in Eq. (i), we get
2x2 = 32 ⇒ x2 = 16 ⇒ x = ± 4
Thus, the points of intersection are (4, 4) and (-4, -4).
So, given line and the circle intersect in the first quadrant at point A(4, 4) and the circle cut the y-axis at point B (0, 4√2).
Let us draw AM perpendicular to y-axis.
Clearly, required area
= Area of shaded region OABO
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 27

Question 18.
Using integration, find the area of the triangle formed by positive X-axis and tangent and normal to the circle x2 + y2 = 4 at (1, √3). (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
First, differentiate the given curve w.r.t. x and determine the value of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at (1, √3).
Find the equations of tangent and normal at
point(1, √3) by using formula y – y1 = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)(x – x1) and y – y1 = – \(\frac{1}{d y / d x}\)(x – x1)
Further, plot the above lines on a graph paper and find the area by using integration.

Given equation of circle is
x2 + y2 = 4
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x,
we get
2x + 2y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 28
On putting y = 0 in Eq. (ii), we get
x + 0 = 4 ⇒ x = 4
∴ the tangent line x + √3y = 4 cuts the X-axis at A(4, 0).
∴ Required area = Area of shaded region OAB
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 29

Question 19.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line x – y + 2 = 0, the curve x = √y and Y-axis. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given curves are
x – y + 2 = 0 ….. (i)
and x = √y ….. (ii)
Consider x = √y ⇒ x2 = y, which represents the parabola whose vertex is (0, 0) and axis is Y-axis.
Now, the point of intersection of Eqs.(i) and (ii)
is given by x = \(\sqrt{x+2}\)
⇒ x2 = x + 2
⇒ x2 – x – 2 = 0
⇒ (x – 2) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = – 1, 2
But x = – 1 does not satisfy the Eq. (ii).
∴ x = 2
Now, putting x = 2 in Eq. (ii), we get
2 = √y ⇒ y = 4
Hence, the point of intersection is (2, 4).
But actual equation of given parabola is x = √y, it means a semi-parabola which is on right side of Y – axis.
The graph of given curves are shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 30

Question 20.
Find the area of the region {(x, y): y2 ≤ 4x, 4x2 + 4y2 ≤ 9}, using method of integration. (All India 2015C, 2013, 2008C: Delhi 2008C)
Answer:
First, find the intersection points of given curves and then draw a rough diagram to represent the required area. If it is symmetrical about X-axis or Y-axis, then we first find area of only one portion , from them and then required area is twice of that area.

Given curves are
y2 = 4x …… (i)
and 4x2 + 4y2 = 9
⇒ x2 + y2 = \(\frac{9}{4}\) …… (ii)
Eq. (i) represents a parabola having vertex (0, 0) and axis is X-axis and Eq. (ii) represents a circle having centre (0, 0) and radius \(\frac{3}{2}\).
On substituting y2 = 4x in Eq. (ii), we get
x2 + 4x = \(\frac{9}{4}\)
⇒ 4x2 + 18x – 2x – 9 = 0
⇒ 2x(2x + 9) – 1 (2x + 9) = 0
⇒ (2x + 9) (2x – 1) = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{2},-\frac{9}{2}\)
On putting x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) in Eq. (i), we get
y = ±√2
At x = –\(\frac{9}{2}\), y have imaginary values.
So, intersection points are p\(\left(\frac{1}{2}, \sqrt{2}\right)\) and p\(\left(\frac{1}{2},-\sqrt{2}\right)\).
Now, the shaded region represents the required region as shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 31
∴ Required area = 2[Area of the region ORPO + Area of the region RAPR]
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 32

Question 21.
Using integration, find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the X-axis, the line y = x and the circle x2 + y2 = 18. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
\(\frac{9 \pi}{4}\) sq units

Question 22.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x + 1| + 1, x = – 3, x = 3 and y = 0. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given curves are
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 33
Eq. (ii) represents the line parallel to Y-axis and passes through the point (- 3, 0).
Eq. (iii) represents the line parallel to Y-axis and passes through the point (3, 0).
Eq. (iv) represent X-axis.
Now, Eqs. (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv) can be represented in graph as shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 34

Clearly, required area
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 35
Hence, the required area is 16 sq units.

Question 23.
Using integration, find the area of ∆ PQR, coordinates of whose vertices are P(2, 0), Q(4, 5) and R (6, 3). (All India 2014C)
Answer:
7 sq units

Question 24.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (- 1, 2), (1, 5) and (3, 4). (All India 2014)
Answer:
4 sq units

Question 25.
Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{9}+\frac{y^{2}}{4}\) = 1 and the line \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1. (Foreign 2014)
Or
Using integration, find the area of the following region. (Delhi 2010)
\(\left\{(x, y): \frac{x^{2}}{9}+\frac{y^{2}}{4} \leq 1 \leq \frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}\right\}\)
Answer:
Given equation of ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{9}+\frac{y^{2}}{4}\) = 1
and equation of line is \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1
For the points of intersection of ellipse and line, put the value of x from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
\(\left(1-\frac{y}{2}\right)^{2}+\frac{y^{2}}{4}\) = 1
⇒ 1 + \(\frac{y^{2}}{4}\) – y + \(\frac{y^{2}}{4}\) = 1
⇒ y2 – 2y = 0
⇒ y = 0, 2
When y – 0, then x = 3 and point is A(3, 0).
When y = 2, then x = 0 and point is B{0, 2).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 36
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 37

Question 26.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines 2x + y = 4, 3x – 2y = 6 and x – 3y + 5 = 0. (All India 2014C; Foreign 2011; Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Given lines are
2x + y = 4 ……… (i)
3x – 2y = 6 ……… (ii)
and x – 3y = – 5 ……… (iii)
Clearly, the line 2x + y = 4 passes through the points (2, 0) and (0, 4), the line 3x – 2y = 6 passes through the points (2, 0) and (0, – 3) and the line x – 3y = – 5 passes through the points (-5, 0) and (0, \(\frac{5}{3}\)).
Now, the region bounded by these lines is shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 38
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii),
we get x = 2 and y = 0
So, lines 2x + y = 4 and 3x – 2y = 6 meet at the point C(2,0).
Again, solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
x = 4 and y = 3
So, lines 3x – 2y = 6 and x – 3y = – 5 meet at the point B(4, 3).
On solving Eqs. (iii) and (i), we get
x = 1 and y = 2
So, lines 2x + y = 4 and x – 3y = – 5 meet at the point A (1, 2).
Now, required area of ∆ABC
= Area of region ABNMA – (Area of ∆AMC + Area of ∆BCN)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 39

Question 27.
Using integration, find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line x = 4y – 2. (Delhi 2014C, 2013, 2010)
Answer:
Given curves are
x2 = 4y ……… (i)
and x = 4y – 2 …….. (ii)
Eq. (i) represents a parabola with vertex at origin and axis along positive direction of Y-axis. Eq. (ii) represents a straight line which meets the coordinate axes at (- 2, 0) and (0, \(\frac{1}{2}\)) respectively. To find the points of intersection of the given parabola and the line, we solve Eqs. (i) and (ii), simultaneously.
On substituting x = 4y – 2 in Eq. (i), we get
(4y – 2)2 = 4y
⇒ 16y2 + 4 – 16y = 4y
⇒ 16y2 – 20y + 4 = o
⇒ 4y2 – 5y + 1 = 0
⇒ (4y – 1) (y – 1) = 0
⇒ y = 1, \(\frac{1}{4}\)
On putting the values of y in Eq. (ii), we get x = 2, – 1
So, the points of intersection of the given parabola and the line are (2, 1) and (- 1, 1/4).
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 40
The region whose area is to be found out is shaded in figure.
∴ Required area, A is given by
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 41

Question 28.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 and y = x. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{6}\) sq units

Question 29.
Find the area of the region {(x, y):y2 ≤ 6ax and x2 + y2 ≤ 16a2}, using method of integration. (All India 2013)
Answer:
(\(\frac{4 \sqrt{3}}{3}\)a2 + \(\frac{16 a^{2} \pi}{3}\)) sq units.

Question 30.
Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x2 and the line y = |x|. (All India 2013)
Or
Find the area of the region given by {(x, y): x2 ≤ y ≤ |x|}. (Delhi 2011C; All India 2009, 2008C)
Answer:
Given curves x2 = y ……. (i)
and y = |x| …… (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x2 = |x|

Case I When x ≤ 0
Then, x2 = – x
⇒ x(x + 1) = 0
∴ x = 0, – 1
On putting the values of x in Eq. (i), we get
y = 0, 1

Case II When x ≥ 0
Then, x2 = x ⇒ x(x – 1) = 0
∴ x = 0, 1
On putting the values of x in Eq. (j), we get
y = 0, 1
So, both curves cut each other at points
A (-1, 1), 0(0, 0) and B(1, 1).
The graphs of given curves is shown below,clearly the shaded region is symmetrical about the Y-axis.
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 42
Now, area of region OPBO
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 43
Hence, required area = 2 × Area of region OPBO
[∵ region is symmetrical about Y-axis]
= 2 ×\(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\) sq unit

Question 31.
Using integration, find the area of the circle x2 + y2 = 16, which is exterior to the parabola y2 = 6x. (All India 2012C)
Answer:
Given, equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 16 ….. (i)
and equation of parabola is y2 = 6x ……. (ii)
Clearly, the given circle has centre (0, 0) and radius 4 units and the given parabola has vertex (0, 0) and axis parallel to X-axis.
Now, let us sketch the graph of given curves and find their points of intersection.
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 44
On substituting y2 = 6x in Eq. (i), we get
x2 + 6x -16 = 0
⇒ (x + 8)(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = – 8 or x = 2
Clearly, from Eq. (ii), when x = – 8, then y2 = – 48, which is not possible. So, x ≠ – 8
∴ x = 2
Now, on substituting x = 2in Eq. (ii), we get
y2 = 12 ⇒ y = ± 2√3
Thus, the points of intersection are (2, – 2√3) and (2, 2√3).
Clearly, required area = Area of shaded region
= Area of circle – Area of region OABCO
= π(4)2 – 2(Area of region OBCO)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 45

Question 32.
Using method of integration, find the area of region bounded by lines 3x – 2y + 1 = 0, 2x + 3y – 21 = 0 and x – 5y + 9 = 0. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{13}{2}\) sq units

Question 33.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines 3x – y – 3 = 0, 2x + y – 12 = 0, x – 2y – 1 = 0. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
10 sq units

Question 34.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines 5x – 2y – 10 = 0, x + y – 9 = 0 and 2x – 5y – 4 = 0. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{21}{2}\) sq units

Question 35.
Find the area of the region
{(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 4, x + y ≥ 2}. (All India 2012).
Answer:
Given region is {(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 4, x + y ≥ 2}.
The above region has a circle with equation
x2 + y2 = 4 … (i)
whose centre is (0, 0) and radius is 2, and line with equation
x + y = 2 …(ii)
Point of intersection is calculated as follows
x2 + y2 = 4
⇒ x2 + (2 – x)2 = 4 [from Eq. (ii)]
⇒ x2 + 4 + x2 – 4x = 4
⇒ 2x2 – 4x = 0
⇒ 2x (x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 0 or 2
When x = 0, then y = 2 – 0 = 2 and when x = 2, then y = 2 – 2 = 0
So, points of intersection are (0, 2) and (2, 0).
On drawing the graph, we get the shaded region as shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 46
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 47

Question 36.
Find the area of the region
{(x, y):(x2 + y2) ≤ 1 ≤ x + y}. (All India 2011; Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
\(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) sq units

Question 37.
Sketch the graph of y = | x + 3 | and evaluate the area under the curve y = |x + 3| above X-axis and between x = – 6 to x = 0. (All India 2011 )
Answer:
First, we sketch the graph of
y = |x + 3|
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 48
So, we have y = x + 3 for x ≥ – 3 and y = – x – 3 for x < – 3
A sketch of y = |x + 3| is shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 49
Here, y = x + 3 is the straight line which cuts X and Y-axes at (- 3, 0) and (0, 3) respectively.
Thus, y = x + 3 for x ≥ – 3 represents the part of line which lies on the right side of x = – 3.
Similarly, y = – x – 3, x < – 3 represents the part of line y = – x – 3, which lies on left side of x = – 3.
Clearly, required area
= Area of region ABPA + Area of region PCOP
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 50

Question 38.
Using integration, find the area of the region {(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 16, x2 ≤ 6y} (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Given region is {(x, y): x2 + y2 ≤ 16, x2 ≤ 6y}
Above region has a circle x2 + y2 = 16 whose centre is (0, 0) and radius 4 and a parabola whose vertex is (0, 0) and axis along y-axis.
First, let us sketch the region, as shown below:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 51
For finding the points of intersection of two curves, we have
x2 + y2 = 16
and x2 = 6y
On putting x2 = 6y from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
y2 + 6y -16 = 0
⇒ y2 + 8y – 2y -16 = 0
⇒ y(y + 8) – 2(y + 8) = 0
⇒ (y – 2) (y + 8) = 0
⇒ y = 2 or – 8
When y = 2, then from Eq. (ii), we get
x = ± √12 = ± 2√3
and when y = – 8, then from Eq. (ii), we get
x2 = – 48 which is not possible.
So, y = – 8 is rejected.
Thus, the two curves meet at points C(2√3, 2) and D(- 2√3, 2).
Now, required area
= Area of shaded region OCBDO
= 2 [ Area of region OACO + Area of region ABCA]
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 52

Question 39.
Find the area of circle 4x2 + 4y2 = 9 which is interior to the parabola x2 = 4y. (All India 2010)
Answer:
\(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{6}+\frac{9}{4}\) sin-1\(\left(\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{3}\right)\)sq units

Hint:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 53

Question 40.
Using integration, find the area of the following region.
{(x, y):|x – 1| ≤ y ≤ \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\)} (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
First, write the given curves separately, i.e. y = |x – 1| and y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\).
Then, sketch all the above defined functions and find the required area.
Given region is {(x, y): |x – 1| ≤ y ≤ \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\)}
Above region has two equations
y = |x – 1| and y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\)
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 54
Also, other curve is y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\)
On squaring both sides, we get
y2 = 5 – x2
⇒ x2 + y2 = 5
which represents equation of circle with centre (0, 0) and radius, r = √5.
But the actual equation of curve is y = V5- x2 which represents a semi-circle whose centre is (0, 0) and radius r = √5.
On drawing the rough sketch, we get the following graph:
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 55
For finding the points of intersection of the curves, we have
y = 1 – x … (i)
y = x – 1 …… (ii)
and y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\) ….. (iii)
On putting y = 1 – x from Eq. (i) in Eq. (iii), we get
(1 – x) = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\)
⇒ x2 + (1 – x)2 = 5
⇒ x2 + 1 + x2 – 2x = 5
⇒ 2x2 – 2x – 4 = 0
⇒ x2 – x – 2 = 0
⇒ x2 – 2x + x – 2 = 0
⇒ x(x – 2) + 1(x – 2) = 0
⇒ (x + 1) (x – 2) = 0
∴ x = – 1 or 2
Now, when x = -1, then
y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\) = \(\sqrt{5-1}\) = √4
⇒ y = 2
and when x = 2, then y = \(\sqrt{5-x^{2}}\) = \(\sqrt{5-4}\) = 1
⇒ y = 1
So, points of intersection of Eqs. (i) and (iii) are (-1, 2) and (2, 1).
Similarly, on solving Eq. (ii) and Eq. (iii), we get
x = – 1 or 2
From Eq. (iii), at x = – 1, y = 2and at x = 2, y = 1.
Hence, the two curves intersect at (-1, 2) and (2, 1).
Now, required area
Application of Integrals Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 8 56

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Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 Linear Programming, Linear Programming Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Linear Programming Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
A small firm manufactures necklaces and bracelets. The total number of necklaces and bracelets that it can handle per day is at most 24. It takes one hour to make a bracelet and half an hour to make a necklace. The maximum number of hours available per day is 16. If the profit on a necklace is ₹ 100 and that on a bracelet is ₹ 300. Formulate on L.P.P. for finding how many of each should be produced daily to maximise the profit? It is being given that at least one of each must be produced. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Let number of necklaces and bracelets produced by firm per day be x and y, respectively.
Clearly, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
∵ Total number of necklaces and bracelets that the firm can handle per day is atmost 24.
∴ x + y ≤ 24
Since it takes one hour to make a bracelet and half an hour to make a necklace and maximum number of hours available per day is 16.
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\)x + y ≤ 16
⇒ x + 2y ≤ 32
Let Z be the profit function.
Then, Z = 100x + 300y
∴ The given LPP reduces to
Maximise Z = 100x + 300y subject to,
x + y ≤ 24
x + 2y ≤ 32
and x, y ≥ 0

Question 2.
Two tailors A and B, earn ₹ 300 and ₹ 400 per day respectively. A can stitch 6 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers while B can stitch 10 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers per day. To find how many days should each of them work and if it is desired to produce at least 60 shirts and 32 pairs of trousers at a minimum labour cost, formulate this as an LPP. (All India 2017 )
Answer:
The given data can be summarised as follows
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 1
Let tailor A and tailor B works for x days and y days, respectively.
Then, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
v Minimum number of shirts = 60
6x + 10y ≥ 60 ⇒ 3x + 5y ≥ 30
Minimum number of trousers = 32
4x+ 4y ≥ 32 ⇒ x + y ≥ 8
Let Z be the total labour cost.
Then, Z = 300x + 400y
So, the given LPP reduces to Z = 300x + 400y
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 5y ≥ 30 and x + y ≥ 8

Question 3.
Solve the following LPP graphically:
Minimise Z = 5x + 10y subject to the constraints
x + 2y ≤ 120
x + y ≥ 60,
x – 2y > 0 and x, y ≥ 0 (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Our problem is to minimise
Z = 5x + 10y … (i)
Subject to constraints
x + 2y ≤ 120 …(ii)
x + y ≥ 60 …(iii)
x – 2y ≥ 0 … (iv)
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Table for line x + 2y = 120 is
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 2
Put (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y ≤ 120, we get
0 + 2x ≤ 120
⇒ 0 ≤ 120 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. Secondly, draw the graph of the line x + y = 60
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 3
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≥ 60, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 60 ⇒ 0 ≥ 60 (which is false)
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Thirdly, draw the graph of the line x – 2y = 0.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 4
On putting (5, 0) in the inequality x – 2y ≥ 0, we get
5 – 2 × 0 ≥ 0 ⇒ 5 ≥ 0 (which is true)
Thus, the half plane is towards the X-axis. Since, x, y ≥ 0
∴ The feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 5
Clearly, feasible region is ABCDA.
On solving equations x – 2y = 0 and x + y = 60,
we get D(40,20) and on solving equations
x -2y = 0 and x + 2y = 120, we get C (60, 30). The corner points of the feasible region are A (60, 0), B (120, 0), C (60, 30) and D (40, 20). The values of Z at these points are as follows

Corner point Z = 5x + 10y
A (60, 0) 300 (minimum)
8(120,0) 600
C (60, 30) 600
D (40, 20) 400

Clearly, the minimum value of Z is 300 at the points (60, 0)

Question 4.
Maximise and minimise Z = x + 2y subject to the constraints
x + 2 y ≥ 100
2x – y ≤ 0
2x+ y ≤ 200
x, y ≥ 0
Solve the above LPP graphically. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Our problem is to minimise and maximise
Z = x + 2y ……(i)
Subject to constraints,
x + 2y ≥ 100 ………..(ii)
2x – y ≤ 0 ………..(iii)
2x + y ≤ 200 ……..(iv)
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 ……….(v)

Table for line x + 2y = 100 is

x 0 100
y 50 0

So, the line x + 2y = 100 is passing through the points (0, 50) and (100, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y ≥ 100, we get
0 + 2 × 0 ≥ 100
⇒ 0 ≥ 100 (which is false)
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Table for line 2x – y = 0 is

x 0 10
y 0 20

So, the line 2x – y = 0 is passing through the points (0, 0) and (10, 20).
On putting (5, 0) in the inequality 2x – y ≤ 0, we get
2 × 5 – 0 ≤ 0
⇒ 10 ≤ 0 (which is false)
So, the half plane is towards Y-axis.
Table for line 2x + y = 200 is

x 0 100
y 200 0

So, the line 2x + y = 200 is passing through the points (0, 200) and (100, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + y ≤ 200, we get
2 × 0 + 0 ≤ 200
⇒ 0 ≤ 200 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0.
So, the region lies in the I quadrant.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 6
Clearly, feasible region is ABCDA.
On solving equations 2x – y = 0 and x + 2y = 100, we get B(20, 40).
Again, solving the equations 2x – y = 0 and 2x + y = 200, we get C(50, 100).
The comer points of the feasible region are
A(0, 50), B(20, 40), C(50, 100) and D(0, 200).
The values of Z at corner points are given below:

Comer points Z = x + 2y
A(0, 50) Z = 0 + 2 × 50 = 100
B(20, 40) Z = 20 + 2 × 40 = 100
C(50, 100) Z = 50 + 2 × 100 = 250
O(0, 200) Z = 0 + 2 × 200 = 400

The maximum value of Z is 400 at 0(0, 200) and the minimum value of Z is 100 at all the points on the line segment joining A(0, 50) and B(20, 40).

Question 5.
A manufacturer has employed 5 skilled men and 10 semi-skilled men and makes two models A and B of an article. The making of one item of model A requires
2 h work by a skilled man and 2 h work by a semi-skilled man. One item of model B requires 1 h by a skilled man and 3 h by a semi-skilled man. No man is expected to work more than 8 h per day. The manufacturer profit on an item of model A is t 15 and on an items of model B is ? 10. How many of items of each models should be made per day in order to maximize daily profit? Formulate the above LPP and solve it graphically and find the maximum profit. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let the company produce x items of A model and y items of B model.
Maximize profit is P = 15x + 10y
Now, total time spent by 5 skilled men = 2x + y
and it should be less than 40.
∴ 2x + y ≤ 40 …(i)
Also, the total time spent by 10 semi-skilled men = 2x + 3y and it should be less than 80.
∴ 2x + 3y ≤ 80 …(ii)
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0
Now, our problem is to maximise Z = 15x + 10y

Subject to the constraints
2x + y ≤ 40
2x+ 3y ≤ 80
and x, y ≥ 0
Let us draw all the 4 lines on the graph and find the common area.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 7
From above we get the region OABC is the feasible region with A (o, \(\frac{80}{3}\)) B(10, 20), C(20, 0), O(0, 0)
Since, the feasible is a bounded region, we can check the profit function at all the vertices to find the maxima.
At point A : Z = 15(0) + 10
At point B : Z = 15(10) + 10(20) = 350
At point C : Z = 15(20) + 10(0) = 300
At point O : Z = 15(0) +10(0) = 0
Thus, the maxima lies at point B having coordinates x = 10 and y = 20 and the maximum profit = ₹ 350.
Hence, the manufacturer should makes 10 items of A model and 20 items of B model for maximum profit of ₹ 350.

Question 6.
A company produces two types of goods, A and B, that require gold and silver. Each unit of type A requires 3 g of silver and 1 g of gold while that of type B requires 1 g of silver and 2 g of gold. The company can use at the most 9 g of silver and 8 g of gold. If each unit of type A brings a profit of ₹ 40 and that of type B ₹ 50, find the number of units of each type that the company should produce to maximize profit. Formulate the above LPP and solve it graphically and also find the maximum profit. (All India 2019, CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Let number of goods A = x units,
and number of goods B = y units
Now, the given LPP is to maximise profit:
P = 40x + 50y
Subject to following constraints
3x + y ≤ 9
x + 2y ≤ 8
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

To solve this LPP, we first draw the following lines
3x + y – 9 and x + 2y = 8
The line 3x + y = 9 meets the coordinate axes at A(3, 0) and B(0, 9). Join these points to obtain the line represented by 3x + y = 9.
The line x + 2y = 8 meets the coordinate axes at C(8, 0) and D(0, 4). Join these points to obtain the line represented by x + 2y = 8.
Clearly, x ≥ 0and y ≥ 0represents the first quadrant.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 8
Thus, the shaded region in figure is the feasible region of the LPP. The coordinates of the comer points of this region are 0(0, 0), A (3, 0), E(2,3) and 0(0, 4), where the point E (2, 3) is obtained by solving 3x + y = 9 and x + 2y = 8 simultaneously.(1) The value of the objective function P = 40x + 50y at the corner points of the feasible region are given in the following table:

Points (x, y) Value of the objective function P = 40x + 50y
0(0, 0) P = 40 × 0 + 50 × 0 = 0
A (3,0) P = 40 × 3 + 50 × 0 = ₹ 120
E (2, 3) P = 40 × 2 + 50 × 3 = ₹ 230
D (0, 4) P = 40 × 0 + 50 × 4 = ₹ 200

Clearly, P is maximum at x = 2 and y = 3
∴ The maximum value of P is ₹ 230.

Question 7.
A factory manufactures two types of screws A and B, each type requiring the use of two machines, an automatic and a hand-operated. It takes 4 min on the automatic and 6 min on the hand-operated machines to manufacture a packet of screw ‘A’ while it takes 6 min on the automatic and 3 min on the hand-operated machine to manufacture a packet of screw ‘B’. Each machine is available for atmost 4 h on any day. The manufacturer can sell a packet of screw A’ at a profit of 70 paise and screw ‘B’ at a profit of U.
Assuming that he can sell all the screws he manufactures, how many packets of each type should the factory owner produce in a day in order to maximise his profit? Formulate the above LPP and solve it graphically and find the maximum profit. (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
Let x be the number of packets of screw ‘A and y be the number of packets of screw ‘B’. Then, we have the following table from the given data.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 9
Now, the mathematical model of the given problem is
Maximize Z = 0.7x + y
Subject to the constraints,
4x + 6y ≤ 240
or 2x + 3y ≤ 120 …(i)
6x + 3y ≤ 240
or 2x + y ≤ 80 …(ii)
and x, y ≥ 0 …(iii)

Now let us draw the graph of inequalities (i) to (iii).
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 10
Clearly, the feasible region is the shaded region, whose comer points are O, A, B and C.
The coordinates of 0, A and C are (0, 0), (40,0) and (0, 40) respectively.

Let us find the coordinates of B which is the intersection point of 2x + y = 80 and 2x + 3y = 120.
On solving these two equations, we get x = 30 and y = 20
Thus, the coordinates of B are (30, 20).

Now, let us find the value of Z at corner points, as shown in the following table.

Comer Points Value of Z = 0.7x + y
O(0,0) 0
A (40,0) 28
B (30, 20) 41 ← maximum
C (0, 40) 40

We find that maximum value of Z is 41 at B (30, 20).
Hence, the manufacturer should produce 30 packets of screw A and 20 packets of screw B to get a maximum profit of ₹ 41.

Question 8.
A manufacturer produces two products A and B. Both the products are processed on two different machines. The available capacity of first machine is 12 h and that of second machine is 9 h per day. Each unit of product A requires 3 h on both machines and each unit of product B requires 2 h on first machine and 1 h on second machine. Each unit of product A is sold at a profit of ₹ 7 and B at a profit of ₹ 4. Find the production level per day for maximum profit graphically. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Let the manufacturer produces x units of product A and y units of product B.
Let us construct the following table.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 11
Here, total profit Z = 7x + 4y
So, our problem is to maximise Z = 7x + 4y …(i)
Subject to the constraints,
3x + 2y ≤ 12
3x + y ≤ 9
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Now, consider the given inequations as equations
3x + 2y = 12 … (ii)
3x + y = 9 …(iii)

Table for line 3x + 2y = 12 or y = \(\frac{12-3 x}{2}\) is

x 0 4
Y 6 0

It passes through the points (0, 6) and (4, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 2y ≤ 12, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 12
⇒ 0 ≤ 12 [true]

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line 3x + y = 9 or y = 9 – 3x is

x 0 3
y 9 0

It passes through the points (0, 9) and (3, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + y ≤ 9, we get
0+ 0 ≤ 9
⇒ 0 ≤ 9 [true]

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, so the region lies in 1st quadrant.
Now, on subtracting Eq. (iii) from Eq. (ii), we get
(3x + 2y) – (3x + y) = 12- 9
⇒ y = 3
Now, 3x = 12 – 2y = 12 – 2 × 3 = 6 ⇒ x = 2
Thus, the point of intersection is B(2, 3).

The graph of above inequations is shown below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 12
Here, we see that OABC is the required feasible region, whose comer points are 0(0,0), A(3, 0), B(2,3) and C(0,6).
The values of Z at these comer points are as follows

Comer points Z = 7x + 4y
O(0, 0) Z = 0 + 0 = 0
A(3, 0) Z = 7 × 3 + 0 = 21
B(2, 3) Z = 7 × 2 + 4 × 3 = 26 (maximum)
C(0, 6) Z = 7 × 0 + 4 × 6 = 24

Hence, for maximum profit, the manufacturer should produce 2 units of product A and 3 units of product B.

Question 9.
A retired person wants to invest an amount of ₹ 50000. His broker recommends investing in two types of bonds A’ and ‘B’ yielding 10% and 9% return respectively on the invested amount. He decides to invest at least ₹ 20000 in bond A’ and at least ₹ 10000 in bond ‘B’. He also wants to invest at least as much in bond A’ as in bond ‘B’. Solve this linear programming problem graphically to maximise his returns. (All Indio 2016)
Answer:
Let the amounts invested by the person in bonds A and B are respectively, ₹ x and ₹ y.
Our problem is to maximise
Z = 10% of x + 9% of y or Z = 0.1x + 0.09y
Subject to constraints, x + y = 50000
x ≥ y or x – y ≥ 0
x ≥ 20000 and y ≥ 10000

Now, consider the given inequations as equations
x + y = 50000 …(i)
x – y = 0 …….(ii)
x = 20000 …(iii)
and y = 10000 …(iv)

The table for line x + y = 50000 is

x 0 50000
y 50000 0

∴ It passes through the points (0, 50000) and (50000, 0).
The table for line x – y = 0 is

x 0 20000
Y 0 20000

∴ It passes through the points (0, 0) and (20000, 20000).
On putting (10000, 0) in the inequality x ≥ y,
we get 10000 ≥ 0 (true)
So, the half plane is towards the X-axis.

The line x = 20000 is perpendicular to the X-axis.
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x ≥ 20000, we cet
0 ≥ 20000 (false)
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

The line y = 10000 is perpendicular to the Y-axis.
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality y ≥ 10000, we get
0 ≥ 10000 (false)
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Now, draw the graph of given system of inequalities as shown below.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 13
From the graph, it is clear that feasible region lies on the line segment BF. The corner points of feasible region are B (40000,10000) and F(25000, 25000).
The values of Z at comer points are given below:

Comer Points Z = 0.1x + 0.09y
B (40000,10000) Z = 01 × 40000 + 0.09 × 10000 = 4900 (maximum)
P (25000, 25000) Z = 02 × 25000 + 0.09 × 25000 = 4750

Hence, to get a maximum returns, he has to invest ₹ 40000 in bond A and ₹ 10000 in bond B.

Question 10.
There are two types of fertilisers A and B’. A’ consists of 12% nitrogen and 5% phosphoric acid whereas B’ consists of 4% nitrogen and 5% phospheric acid. After testing the soil conditions, farmer finds that he needs at least 12 kg of nitrogen and 12 kg of phosphoric acid for his crops. If‘A’ costs 110 per kg and B’ costs ? 8 per kg , then graphically determine how much of each type of fertiliser should be used so that the nutrient requirements are met at a minimum cost? (All India 2016)
Answer:
Let the farmer uses x kg of fertiliser A and y kg of fertiliser B. The given data can be summarised as follows
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 14
The inequations thus formed based on the given problem are as follows:
\(\frac{12 x}{100}+\frac{4 y}{100}\) ≥ 12
⇒ 12x+ 4y ≥ 1200
⇒ 3x + y ≥ 300
Also, \(\frac{5 x}{100}+\frac{5 y}{100}\) ≥ 12
⇒ 5x+ 5y ≥ 1200
⇒ x + y ≥ 240
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Let Z be the total cost of the fertilisers. Then,
Z = 10x+ 8 y
The LPP can be stated mathematically as Minimise Z = lOx + 8y
Subject to constraints 3x + y ≥ 300, x + y ≥ 240, x ≥ 0,y ≥ 0
To solve the LPP graphically, let us convert the inequations into equations as follows :
3x + y = 300 …(i)
x + y = 240 …..(ii)
Table for line 3x + y = 300 is

x 0 100
y 300 0

So, it passes through (0, 300) and (100, 0).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality 3x + y ≥ 300, we get 3(0) + 0 ≥ 300 ⇒ 0 ≥ 300 (which is false)
So, the half plane is away from origin (1)
Table for line x + y = 240 is

x 0 240
y 240 0

So, it passes through (240, 0) and (0, 240).
On putting (0, 0) in x + y ≥ 240, we get 0 + 0 ≥ 240 (which is false)
So, the half plane is away from origin.
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, so the region lies in 1st quadrant.

The graph of inequations is shown below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 15
The shaded region GEC represents the feasible region of given LPP and it is unbounded.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 30 and y = 210
So, the point of intersection is B(30, 210).

Comer points Value of Z = 10x + 8y
G(0, 300) 2400
C (240,0) 2400
E (30, 210) 1980 (minimum)

From the table, we find that 1980 is the minimum value of Z at E (30, 210). Since, the region is unbounded, therefore, 1980 may or may not be the minimum value of Z. For this we have to check that the open half plane 10x + 8y < 1980 has any point common or not with the feasible region. Since, it has no point in common with the feasible region. So, the minimum value of Z is obtained at £(30, 210) and the miniumum value of Z is 1980. So, the farmer should use 30 kg of fertiliser A and 210 kg of fertiliser B.

Question 11.
In order to supplement daily diet, a person wishes to take X and Y tablets. The contents (in milligrams per tablet) of iron, calcium and vitamins in X and Y are given as below:
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 16
The person needs to supplement at least 18 milligrams of iron, 21 milligrams of calcium and 16 milligrams of vitamins. The price of each tablet of X and Y is ₹ 2 and ₹ 1, respectively. How many tablets of each type should the person take in order to satisfy the above requirement at the minimum cost? Make an LPP and solve graphically. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Let the person takes x tablets of type X and Y
tablets of type Y.
According to the given conditions, we have
6x + 2y ≥ 18 3x + y ≥ 9
3x + 3y ≥ 21 = x + y ≥ 7
2x + 4y ≥ 16x+ 2y ≥ 8
Let Z be the total cost of tablets.
Then, Z = 2x + y
Hence, the given LPP is Minimise Z = 2x + y
Subject to constraints 3x + y ≥ 9, x + y ≥ 7.
x+ 2y ≥ 8and x,y ≥ 0
To solve graphically, let us convert the inequations into equations.
3x + y = 9, x + y = 7.
x + 2y = 8, x = 0, y = 0

Table for line 3x + y = 9 is

x 0 3
y 9 0

So, it passes through (0, 9) and (3, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in 3x+ y ≥ 9, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 9 (which is false)
So, the half plane is away from origin.
Table for line x + y = 7 is

x 0 7
y 7 0

So, it passes through (0, 7) and (7, 0).
Also, the half plane of x + y ≥ 7 is away from origin.
Table for line 2x + y = 8 is

x 0 4
y 8 0

So, it passes through (0, 8) and (4, 0).
Also, the half plane of 2x + y ≥ 8 is away from origin.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 17
The shaded region AGHF represents the feasible region of the given LPP.
The point of intersection of the lines 3x + y = 9 and x + y= 7 is G(1, 6).
Also, the point of intersection of the lines x + y = 7 and x + 2y = 8 is H(6,1).
The comer points of the feasible region are A(0,9), G(1, 6), H(6, 1) and F(8, 0).

The values of the objective function at these points are given in the following table :

Comer Points Value of Z = 2x + y
A(0,9) 2 × 0 + 9 = 9
G(1,6) 2 × 1 + 6 = 8 (minimum)
H(6,1) 2 × 6 + 1 = 13
F(8,0) 2 × 8 + 0 = 16

From the table, we find that 8 is the minimum value of Z at G(1, 6). Since, the region is unbounded, therefore, 8 may or may not be the minimum value of Z. For this we have to check, that the open half plane 2x + y < 8 has any point common or not with the feasible region.

Since, it has no point in common with the feasible region. So, Z is minimum at G(1, 6) and the minimum value of Z is 8. Hence, the person should take 1 tablet of type X and 6 tablets of type Y in order to meet the requirements at the minimum cost.

Question 12.
A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It take 2 hours work on machine A and 3 hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts. It takes 3 hours on machine A and 2 hours on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of ₹ 24 per package on nuts and ₹ 18 per package on bolts. How many package of each should be produced each day so as to maximise his profit, if he operates his machines for at most 10 hours a day? Make an LPP and solve it graphically. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Let x and y respectively denotes the number of packages of nuts and bolts manufactured by the manufacturer. Then, given data can be summarised in tabular form as follows.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 18
The required LPP is
Maximize Z = 24x + 18y
Subject to constraints
2x + 3y ≤ 10, 3x + 2y ≤ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Let us consider the inequalities as equation,
2x + 3y = 10 …(i)
and 3x + 2y = 10 …(ii)
Table for line 2x + 3y = 10 is

x 0 5
y 10/3 0

So, it passes through (0, 10/3) and (5, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + 3 ≤ 10, we get 2(0) + 3(0) ≤ 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line 3x + 2y = 10 is 10/3

x 0 10/3
y 5 0

So, it passes through (0, 5) and (10/3, 0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 2y ≤ 0, we get
3 (0) + 2 (0) = 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
x = 2 and y = 2
So, the intersection point is (2, 2).

The graphical representation of the system of inequation is given below.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 19
The feasible region is OCPB and the comer points are 0(0,0), B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)), C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), o) and P(2,2).

Comer Points Value of Z = 24x + 18y
O(0, 0) 0
C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), 0) 80
P(2, 2) 84 (Maximum)
B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)) 60

Thus, profit will be maximum, when 2 packages of nuts and 2 packages of bolts are manufactured.

Question 13.
Find graphically, the maximum value of Z = 2x + 5y, subject to constraints given below
2x+ 4y ≤ 8; 3x + y ≤ 6
x + y ≤ A; x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
We have the following LPP,
Maximise, Z = 2x + 5y
Subject to the constraints
2x + 4y ≤ 8 or x + 2y ≤ 4
3x + y ≤ 6
x + y ≤ 4
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Now, considering the inequations as equations, we get
x + 2y = 4 …(i)
3x + y = 6 …(ii)
and x + y = 4 …(iii)
Table for line x + 2y = 4 is

x 4 0
y 0 2

So, the line passes through (4, 0) and (0, 2).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 2y ≤ 4, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 4 [which is true]

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line 3x + y = 6 is

x 2 0
y 0 6

So, the line passes through (2, 0) and (0, 6).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + y ≤ 6, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 6 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin. CD
Table for line x + y = 4 is

x 4 0
y 0 4

On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 4, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 4 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, so the region lies in the 1st quadrant.

The graphical representation of the above system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 20
Clearly, the feasible region is OABCO.
The intersection point of lines (i) and (ii) is B(\(\frac{8}{5}, \frac{6}{5}\))

Thus, the corner points are
0(0, 0),A(2, 0), B(\(\frac{8}{5}, \frac{6}{5}\)),C(0, 2).
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Z = 2x + 5y
0(0,0) Z = 0 + 0 = 0
A (2, 0) Z = 2 × 2 + 5 × 0 = 4
B(\(\frac{8}{5}, \frac{6}{5}\)) Z = 2 × \(\frac{8}{5}\) + 5 × \(\frac{6}{5}=\frac{46}{5}\) = 9.2
C(0, 2) Z = 2 x 0 + 5 x 2 = 10 (maximum)

Hence, the maximum value of Z is 10.

Question 14.
A company manufactures three kinds of calculators: A B and C in its two factories I and II. The company has got an order for manufacturing at least 6400 calculators of kind A 4000 of kind B and 4800 of kind C. The daily output of factory I is of 50 calculators of kind A 50 calculators of kind B and 30 calculators of kind C. The daily output of factory II is of 40 calculators of kind A 20 of kind B and 40 of kind C. The cost per day to run factory I is ₹ 12000 and of factory II is ₹ 15000. How many days do the two factories have to be in operation to produce the order with the minimum cost? Formulate this problem as an LPP and solve it graphically. All India 2015
Answer:
Let factory (I) run for x days and factory (II) run fory days. Then,
Total cost (in ₹) = 12000x + 15000y and our problem is to
Minimise Z = 12000x + 15000y
Subject to the constraints
50x + 40y ≥ 6400 or 5x + 4y ≥ 640
50x + 20y ≥ 4000 or 5x + 2y ≥ 400
30x+ 40y ≥ 4800 or 3x + 4y ≥ 480
x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0

Now, considering the inequations as equations, we get
5x + 4y = 640 …(i)
5x + 2y = 400 …(ii)
3x + 4y = 480 …(iii)

Table for line 5x + 4y = 640 is

x 128 0
y 0 160

So, the line passes through the points (128, 0) and (0, 160).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 5x + 4y ≥ 640, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 640 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

Table for line 5x + 2y = 400 is

x 80 0
y 0 200

So, the line passes through the points (80, 0) and (0, 200).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 5x + 2y ≥ 400, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 400 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

Table for line 3x + 4y = 480 is

x 160 0
y 0 120

So, the line passes through the points (160, 0) and (0, 120).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 4y ≥ 480, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 480 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
The point of intersection of lines (i) and (iii) is (80, 60) and lines (i) and (ii) is (32, 120).

The graphical representations of the above system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 21
Clearly, feasible region is ABCD (shaded region), whose comer points are 4(160,0), B (80, 60), C (32,120) and D(0, 200).
The values of Z at comer points are as follows:

Comer Points Z = 12000x + 15000y
4(160, 0) Z = 12000 × 160 + 0 = 1920000
B(80, 60) Z = 12000 × 80 + 15000 × 60 = 1860000 (minimum)
C(32, 120) Z = 12000 × 32 + 15000 × 120 = 2184000
D(0, 200) Z = 0 + 15000 × 200 = 3000000

In the table, we find that minimum value of Z is 1860000, occur at the point B(80, 60).
But we can’t say that it is a minimum value of Z as region is unbounded.
Therefore, we have to draw the graph of the inequality 12000x + 15000y < 1860000
or 12x + 15y < 1860

From the figure, we see that the open half plane represented by 12x + 15y < 1860 has no point in common with feasible region. Thus, the minimum value of Z is ₹ 1860000 attained at the point (80, 60). Hence, factory (I) should run for 80 days and factory (II) should run for 60 days to get a minimum cost.

Question 15.
Maximise Z = 8x + 9y subject to the constraints given below:
2x + 3y ≤ 6 3x – 2y ≤ 6
y ≤ 1; x,y ≥ 0. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
We have the following LPP,
Maximise Z = 8x + 9y
Subject to the constraints
2x + 3y ≤ 6
3x – 2y ≤ 6
y ≤1 and x, y ≥ 0

Now, considering the inequations as equations, we get
2x + 3y = 6 …………(i)
3x – 2y = 6 ………(ii)
and y = 1 …(iii)
Table for line 2x + 3y = 6 is

x 3 0
y 0 2

So, it passes through the points, (3, 0) and (0, 2).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality 2x + 3y ≤ 6, we get
0 ≤ 6 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line 3x – 2y = 6 is

x 2 0
y 0 -3

So, it passes through the points (2,0) and (0,-3).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality 3x – 2y ≤ 6, we get
0 ≤ 6 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin. (1)

The line y = 1 is perpendicular to Y-axis.
On putting (0,0) in the inequality y ≤ 1,
we get 0 ≤ 1 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Also, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
The point of intersection of Eqs. (i) and (ii) is and Eqs.(i) \(\frac{30}{13}, \frac{6}{13}\) Eqs. (ii) and (iii) is (\(\frac{8}{3}\), 1) and Eqs. (i) and (iii) is (\(\frac{3}{2}\), 1)

The graphical representation of the above system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 22
Clearly, feasible region is OABCDO, whose corner points are 0(0, 0), A(2, 0), B(\(\frac{30}{13}, \frac{6}{13}\)), C(\(\frac{3}{2}\), 1) and D(0, 1).

The values of Z at comer points are as follows:

Corner points Z = 8x + 9y
0(0,0) Z = 0 + 0 = 0
A(2,0) Z = 8 × 2 + 0 = 16
B\left(\frac{30}{13}, \frac{6}{13}\right) Z = 8 × \(\frac{30}{13}+\frac{9 \times 6}{13}=\frac{294}{13}\) = 22.62 (maximum)
C(\(\), 1) Z = 8 × \(\frac{3}{2}\) + 1 = 13
D(0,1) Z = 0 + 9 × 1 = 9

In the table, we find that maximum value of Z is 22.62, when x = \(\frac{30}{13}\) and y = \(\frac{6}{13}\)

Question 16.
One kind of cake requires 200 g of flour and 25 g of fat, another kind of cake requires 100 g of flour and 50 g of fat. Find the maximum number of cakes which can be made from 5 kg of flour and 1 kg of fat, assuming that there is no shortage of the other ingredients used in making the cakes. Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2015C; All India 2014C, 2011C)
Answer:
We can write the given data in tabular form as follows:

Cake Flour Fat
I kind 200 g 25g
II kind 100 g 50 g
Availability 5 kg or 5000 g 1 kg or 1000 g

Suppose the number of cakes of I kind be x and II kind be y.
Then, required LPP is max (Z) = x + y

Subject to the constraints
200x + 100y ≤ 5000 ⇒ 2x + y ≤ 50 …(i)
[dividing both sides by 100]
25x + 50y ≤ 1000 ⇒ x + 2y ≤ 40 …(ii)
[dividing both sides by 25]
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
2x + y = 50 …(iii)
and x + 2y = 40 …(iv)

Table for line 2x + y = 50 is

x 25 0
y 0 25

So, it passes through the points (25, 0) and (0, 50).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality 2x + y < 50, we get
0 ≤ 50 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line x + 2y = 40 is

x 40 0
y 0 20

So, it passes through the points (40, 0) and (0,20).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x+ 2y < 40, we get
0 ≤ 40 [which is true]

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get the intersection point is (20, 10).
Now, on drawing all the inequalities on a graph paper, we get the feasible region OAEDO, which is bounded.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 23
The corner points of feasible region are
0(0, 0), ,4(25, 0), 0(0, 20) and £'(20,10), respectively.

The values of Z at the comer points are as follows:

Corner points Value of Z = x + y
0 (0, 0) Z = 0 + 0 = 0
A(25, 0) Z = 25 + 0 = 25
D (0, 20) Z = 0 + 20 = 20
E(20, 10) Z = 20 + 10 = 30 (maximum)

From the table, maximum number of cakes is 30, which has 20 cakes of 1st kind and 10 cakes of IInd kind.

Question 17.
A dealer in rural area wishes to purchase a number of sewing machines. He has only ₹ 5760 to invest and has space for atmost 20 items for storage. An electronic sewing machine cost ₹ 360 and a manually operated sewing machine ₹ 240. He can sell an electronic sewing machine at a profit of ₹ 22 and a manually operated sewing machine at a profit of ₹ 18. Assuming that he can sell all the items that he can buy, how should he invest his money in oder to maximise his profit? Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2014,2009C; All India 2009)
Answer:
Let the dealer purchased x electronic sewing machines and y manually operated sewing machines.
Now, we can constmct the following table
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 24
Then, given LPP is maximise, Z = 22x + 18y
Subject to constraints, x + y ≤ 20
360x + 240y ≤ 5760 or 3x + 2y ≤ 48
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
x + y = 20 …(ii)
3x + 2y = 48 …(iii)
and x = 0, y = 0 …(iv)

Table for line x + y = 20 is

x 0 20
y 20 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 20) and (20, 0). On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y < 20, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 20 ⇒ 0 ≤ 20 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line 3x + 2y = 48 is

x 0 16
y 24 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 24) and (16, 0). On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 2y ≤ 48, we get
0 ≤ 48 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get x = 8 and y = 12
So, the point of intersection of the lines (ii) and (iii) is (8,12). Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
Now, on drawing all the inequalities on a graph paper and we get the feasible region OABCO, which is bounded.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 25
The corner points of the feasible region are 0(0, 0), A(16, 0), B(8,12) and C(0, 20).
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Z = 22x + 18y
O(0, 0) Z = 22(0) +18(0) = 0
A(16, 0) Z = 22 × 16 + 0= 352
B(8, 12) Z = 22 × 8 + 18 × 12 = 392 (maximum)
C(0, 20) Z = 22 × 0 + 18 × 20 = 360

From the table, maximum value of Z = ₹ 392 at point B(8,12).
Hence, dealer should purchased 8 electronic and 12 manually operated sewing machines to get maximum profit.

Question 18.
A manufacturing company makes two types of teaching aids A and B of Mathematics for class XII. Each type of A requires 9 labour hours of fabricating and 1 labour hour for finishing. Each type of B requires 12 labour hours for fabricating and 3 labour hours for finishing. For fabricating and finishing, the maximum labour hours available per week are 180 and 30, respectively. The company makes a profit of t 80 on each piece of type A and ₹ 120 on each piece of type B. How many pieces of type A and type B should be manufactured per week to get a maximum profit? Make it as an LPP and solve graphically. What is the maximum profit per week? (All India 2014)
Answer:
Let the number of pieces of two types of teaching aids A and B be x and y, respectively.
We can write the given data in tabular form as follows:
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 26
Thus, the required LPP is
Maximise, Z = 80x +120y …(i)

Subject to constraints
9x + 12y ≤ 180
x + 3y ≤ 30
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
9x + 12y = 180
or 3x + 4y = 60 ……….(ii)
x + 3y = 30 … (iii)
and x = 0,y = 0 … (iv)

Table for line 3x + 4y = 60 is

x 0 20
y 15 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 15) and (20, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 9x + 12y ≤ 180, we get
9(0) + 12(0) ≤ 180
⇒ 0 ≤ 180 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line x + 3y = 30 is

x 0 30
y 10 0

So, it passes through the points (0,10) and (30,0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + 3y ≤ 30,
we get 0 + 3(0) ≤ 30
⇒ 0 ≤ 30 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0
Thus, the feasible region lies in the first quadrant. On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get x = 12
and y = 6
So, the point of intersection is (12, 6).

The graphical representation of the above system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 27

From graph, feasible region is OABCO, whose comer points are O(0, 0), A(20, 0), B (12, 6) and C(0,10).
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Value 0f Z = 80x + 120y
O(0, 0) Z = 80(0) + 120(0) = 0
A(20, 0) Z = 80(20) + 120(0) = 1600
B(12, 6) Z = 80(12) + 120(6) = 1680 (maximum)
C(0, 10) Z = 80(0) + 120(10) = 1200

From the table, the maximum value of Z is ₹ 1680.
Hence, 12 pieces of type A and 6 pieces of type B should be manufactured per week to get a maximum profit of ₹ 1680 per week.

Question 19.
A cottage industry manufactures pedestal lamps and wooden shades, each requiring the use of a grinding/cutting machine and a sprayer. It takes 2 h on the grinding/cutting machine and 3 h on the sprayer to manufacture a pedestal lamp. It takes 1 h on the grinding/cutting machine and 2 h on the sprayer to manufacture a shade. On any day, the sprayer is available for at the most 20 h and the grinding/cutting machine for at most 12 h. The profit from the sale of a lamp is ? 25 and that from a shade is ₹ 15. Assuming that the manufacturer can sell all the lamps and shades that he produces, how should he schedule his daily production in order to maximise his profit? Formulate an LPP and solve it graphically. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Let the cottage industry manufacture x pedestal lamps and y wooden shades.
Therefore, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0.
The given information can be written in Labular form as given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 28
Then, the required LPP is
Maximise, Z = 25x + 15y
Subject to constraints
2x + y ≤ 12
3x + 2y ≤ 20
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 [non-negative constraints]

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
2x + y = 12 …(i)
3x + 2y = 20 …(ii)

Table for 2x + y = 12 is

x 0 6
y 12 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 12) and (6, 0).
On putting (0,0) in inequality 2x + y ≤ 12 we get
2(0) + 0 ≤ 12 ⇒ 0 ≤ 12 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for 3x + 2y = 20 is

x 0 20/3
y 10 0

So, it passes through the points (0,10) and (20/3,0).
On putting (0,0) in inequality 3x + 2y < 20, we get
3 (0) + 2 (0) ≤ 20⇒ 0 ≤ 20 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in first quadrant.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 4 and y = 4
So, the intersection point is (4, 4)

The graphical representation of the above system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 29
From graph, the feasible region is OABCO, whose comer points are 0(0,0), ,4(6,0), ,6(4,4) and C(0,10).

The values of Z at the corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Value of Z = 25x + 15y
O(0, 0 ) Z = 25(0) + 15(0) = 0
A(6, 0) Z = 25(6) + 15(0) = 150
B(4, 4) Z = 25 (4) + 15 (4) = 160 (maximum)
C(0, 10) Z = 25(0)+ 15 (10) = 150

From table, maximum value of Z is 160 at B(4, 4). Hence, the manufacturer should produce 4 pedestal lamps and 4 wooden shades daily to get maximum profit.

Question 20.
A decorative item dealer deals in two items A and B. He has ₹ 15000 to invest and a space to store at the most 80 pieces. Item A costs him ₹ 300 and item B costs him ₹ 150. He can sell items A and B at respective, profits of ₹ 50 and ₹ 28. Assuming he can sell all he buys, formulate the linear programming problem in order to maximise his profit and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
Let the number of items of the type A and B be x and y, respectively.
Then the required LPP is
Maximise Z = 50x + 28y
Subject to the constraints,
x + y ≤ 80, 300x + 150y ≤ 15000
or 2x + y ≤ 100, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
x + y = 80 …………..(i)
2x + y = 100 …………..(ii)
Table for line x + y = 80 is

x 0 80
y 80 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 80) and (80, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 80, we get
0+ 0 ≤ 80
⇒ 0 ≤ 80 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line 2x + y = 100

x 0 50
y 100 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 100) and (50,0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequility 2x + y ≤ 100, we get
2(0) + 0 ≤ 100
⇒ 0 ≤ 100 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 20 and y = 60 (1)
So, the point of intersection is (20,60).
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 30
The feasible region is OBPC whose corner points are 0(0,0), 5(50,0), P(20,60) and C(0, 80).

Corner Points Value of Z = 50x + 28y
0(0, 0) 0
C(0, 80) 2240
P(20,60) 2680 (Maximum)
B(50, 0) 2500

From the above table, the maximum value of Z is 2680 at P(20, 60), i.e. when 20 items of type A and 60 items of type B are purchased and sold. He get maximum profit.

Question 21.
A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts.
It takes 1 h of work on machine A and 3 h on machine B to produce package of nuts. It takes 3 h on machine A and 1 h on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of ₹ 17.50 per package : on nuts and ₹ 7 per package on bolts. How many packages of each should be produced each day so as to maximise his profits, if he operates his machines for atmost 12 h a day? Formulate above as a Linear Programming Problem (LPP) and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2012,2009C)
Answer:
Let x and y respectively denotes the number of packages of nuts and bolts manufactured by the manufacturer. Then, given data can be summarised in tabular form as follows.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 18
The required LPP is
Maximize Z = 24x + 18y
Subject to constraints
2x + 3y ≤ 10, 3x + 2y ≤ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Let us consider the inequalities as equation,
2x + 3y = 10 …(i)
and 3x + 2y = 10 …(ii)
Table for line 2x + 3y = 10 is

x 0 5
y 10/3 0

So, it passes through (0, 10/3) and (5, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + 3 ≤ 10, we get 2(0) + 3(0) ≤ 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. (1)
Table for line 3x + 2y = 10 is 10/3

x 0 0/3
y 5 0

So, it passes through (0, 5) and (10/3, 0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 2y ≤ 0, we get
3 (0) + 2 (0) = 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
x = 2 and y = 2
So, the intersection point is (2, 2).

The graphical representation of the system of inequation is given below.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 19
The feasible region is OCPB and the comer points are 0(0,0), B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)), C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), o) andP(2,2).

Comer Points Value of Z = 24x + 18y
O(0, 0) 0
C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), 0) 80
P(2, 2) 84 (Maximum)
B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)) 60

Thus, profit will be maximum, when 2 packages of nuts and 2 packages of bolts are manufactured.
Hint: Let the manufacturer produces x packages of nuts and y packages of bolts.
The required LPP is Maximize Z = 17.50x + 7y Subject to constraints x + 3y ≤ 12 3x + y ≤ 12 and x,y ≥ 0
[The manufacturer should produce 3 packages of nuts and 3 packages of bolts each day for maximum profit = ₹ 73.50]

Question 22.
A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It takes 1 hour of work on machine A and 1 hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts while it takes 3 hours on machine A and 1 hour on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of ₹ 2.50 per package of nuts and ₹ 1.00 per package of bolts. How many packages of each type should he produce each day so as to maximise his profit, if he operates his machines for at most 12 hours a day? Formulate this problem as a linear programming problem and solve it graphically. (All India 2012C)
Answer:
Let x and y respectively denotes the number of packages of nuts and bolts manufactured by the manufacturer. Then, given data can be summarised in tabular form as follows.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 18
The required LPP is
Maximize Z = 24x + 18y
Subject to constraints
2x + 3y ≤ 10, 3x + 2y ≤ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
Let us consider the inequalities as equation,
2x + 3y = 10 …(i)
and 3x + 2y = 10 …(ii)
Table for line 2x + 3y = 10 is

x 0 5
y 10/3 0

So, it passes through (0, 10/3) and (5, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + 3 ≤ 10, we get 2(0) + 3(0) ≤ 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin. (1)
Table for line 3x + 2y = 10 is 10/3

x 0 5
y 10/3 0

So, it passes through (0, 5) and (10/3, 0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + 2y ≤ 0, we get
3 (0) + 2 (0) = 10
⇒ 0 ≤ 10 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
x = 2 and y = 2
So, the intersection point is (2, 2).

The graphical representation of the system of inequation is given below.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 19
The feasible region is OCPB and the comer points are 0(0,0), B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)), C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), o) andP(2,2).

Comer Points Value of Z = 24x + 18y
O(0, 0) 0
C(\(\frac{10}{3}\), 0) 80
P(2, 2) 84 (Maximum)
B(0, \(\frac{10}{3}\)) 60

Thus, profit will be maximum, when 2 packages of nuts and 2 packages of bolts are manufactured.
Hint: Let the manufacturer produces x packages of nuts and y packages of bolts.
The required LPP is Maximize Z = 2.5x + y Subject to constraints x + 3y ≤ 12 3x + y ≤ 12 and x, y ≥ 0
[The manufacturer should produce 3 packages of nuts and 3 packages of bolts each day for maximum profit = ₹ 10.5]

Question 23.
A dietician wishes to mix two types of foods in such a way that the vitamin contents of mixture contains atleast 8 units of vitamin A and 10 units of vitamin C. Food I contains 2 units per kg of vitamin A and 1 unit per kg of vitamin C, while food II contains 1 unit per kg of vitamin. A and 2 units per kg of vitamin C. It costs ₹ 5 per kg to purchase food I and ₹ 7 per kg to purchase food II. Find the minimum cost of such a mixture. Formulate above as an LPP and solve it graphically. (All India 2012)
Answer:
The given data can be put in the tabular form as follows
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 31
Suppose the diet contains x kg of food I and y kg of food II.
Then, the required LPP is minimise (Z) = 5x + 7y
Subject to constraints 2x + y ≥ 8, x + 2y ≥ 10 and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

x 0 4
y 8 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 8) and (4, 0). On putting (0,0) in the inequality 2x + y ≥ 8, we get
0 ≥ 8 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

Table for line x + 2y = 10 is

x 10 0
y 0 5

So, it passes through the points (10, 0) and (0, 5).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x + 2y ≥ 10, we get
0 ≥ 10 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away front the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get x = 2 and y = 4
So, these lines intersect at P (2, 4).

The graphical representation of the system of inequations given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 32
From the graph, the feasible region is BPC which is unbounded.
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Value of Z = 5x + 7y
C(10,0) Z = 5(10) + 7(0) = 50
P (2, 4) Z = 5(2) + 7(4) = 10 + 28 = 38 (minimum)
B(0, 8) Z = 5(0) + 7(8) = 0 + 56 = 56

From table, the minimum value of Z is 38.
As the feasible region is unbounded, therefore 38 may or may not be the minimum value of Z. For this, we draw a dotted graph of the inequality 5x + 7y < 38 and check whether the resulting half plane has point in common with the feasible region or not.
It can be seen that the feasible region has no common point with 5x + 7y < 38.
Hence, the minimum cost is ₹ 38, when x = 2 and y = 4.

Question 24.
A dietician wishes to mix two types of foods in such a way that the vitamin contents of the mixture contains at least 8 units of vitamin A and 10 units of vitamin C. Food I contains 2 units per kg of vitamin A and 1 unit per kg of vitamin C. Food II contains 1 unit per kg of vitamin A and 2 units per kg of vitamin C. It costs ₹ 50 per kg to purchase food I and ₹ 70 per kg to purchase food II. Formulate the problem as a linear programming problem to minimise the cost of such mixture and find the minimise cost graphically. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
The given data can be put in the tabular form as follows
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 31
Suppose the diet contains x kg of food I and y kg of food II.
Then, the required LPP is minimise (Z) = 5x + 7y
Subject to constraints 2x + y ≥ 8, x + 2y ≥ 10 and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

x 0 4
y 8 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 8) and (4, 0). On putting (0,0) in the inequality 2x + y ≥ 8, we get
0 ≥ 8 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

Table for line x + 2y = 10 is

x 10 0
y 0 5

So, it passes through the points (10, 0) and (0, 5).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x + 2y ≥ 10, we get
0 ≥ 10 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away front the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get x = 2 and y = 4
So, these lines intersect at P (2, 4).

The graphical representation of the system of inequations given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 32
From the graph, the feasible region is BPC which is unbounded.
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Value of Z = 5x + 7y
C(10,0) Z = 5(10) + 7(0) = 50
P (2, 4) Z = 5(2) + 7(4) = 10 + 28 = 38 (minimum)
B(0, 8) Z = 5(0) + 7(8) = 0 + 56 = 56

From table, the minimum value of Z is 38.
As the feasible region is unbounded, therefore 38 may or may not be the minimum value of Z. For this, we draw a dotted graph of the inequality 5x + 7y < 38 and check whether the resulting half plane has point in common with the feasible region or not.
It can be seen that the feasible region has no common point with 5x + 7y < 38.
Hence, the minimum cost is ₹ 38, when x = 2 and y = 4.

Hint: Suppose the diet contains x kg of food I and y kg of food II.
Then, the required LPP is minimise (Z) = 50x + 70y
Subject to contraints
2x+ y ≥ 8, x+ 2y ≥ 10 and x ≥ 0,y ≥ 0
[The minimum cost of the mixture is X 380, when the mixture contains 2 kg of food I and 4 kg of food II]

Question 25.
A factory makes tennis rackets and cricket bats. A tennis racket takes 1.5 h of machine time and 3 h of craftman’s time in its making, while a cricket bat takes
3 h of machine time and 1 h of craftman’s time. In a day, the factory has the availability of not more than 42 h of machine time and 24 h of craftman’s time. If the profits on a racket and a bat are ₹ 20 and ₹ 10 respectively, then find the number of tennis rackets and cricket bats that the factory must manufacture to earn the maximum profit. Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The given data can be put in the tabular form as follows
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 31
Suppose the diet contains x kg of food I and y kg of food II.
Then, the required LPP is minimise (Z) = 5x + 7y
Subject to constraints 2x + y ≥ 8, x + 2y ≥ 10 and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

x 0 4
y 8 0

So, it passes through the points (0, 8) and (4, 0). On putting (0,0) in the inequality 2x + y ≥ 8, we get
0 ≥ 8 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away from the origin.

Table for line x + 2y = 10 is

x 10 0
y 0 5

So, it passes through the points (10, 0) and (0, 5).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x + 2y ≥ 10, we get
0 ≥ 10 [which is false]
So, the half plane is away front the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get x = 2 and y = 4
So, these lines intersect at P (2, 4).

The graphical representation of the system of inequations given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 32
From the graph, the feasible region is BPC which is unbounded.
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

Corner Points Value of Z = 5x + 7y
C(10,0) Z = 5(10) + 7(0) = 50
P (2, 4) Z = 5(2) + 7(4) = 10 + 28 = 38 (minimum)
B(0, 8) Z = 5(0) + 7(8) = 0 + 56 = 56

From table, the minimum value of Z is 38.
As the feasible region is unbounded, therefore 38 may or may not be the minimum value of Z. For this, we draw a dotted graph of the inequality 5x + 7y < 38 and check whether the resulting half plane has point in common with the feasible region or not.
It can be seen that the feasible region has no common point with 5x + 7y < 38.
Hence, the minimum cost is ₹ 38, when x = 2 and y = 4.

Hint: Let x be the number of tennis rackets and y be the cricket bats produced in one day in the factory.
The required LPP is
maximise (Z) = 20x + 10y Subject to constraints
1.5x + 3y ≤ 42 3x + y ≤ 24
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
[For maximum profit of X 200, 4 tennis rackets and 12 cricket bats must be produced.]

Question 26.
A merchant plans to sell two types of personal computers, a desktop model and a portable model that will cost ₹ 25000 and ₹ 40000, respectively. He estimates that the total monthly demand of computers will not exceed 250 units. Determine the number of units of each type of computers which the merchant should stock to get maximum profit, if he does not want to invest more than ₹ 70 lakh and his profit on the desktop model is ₹ 4500 and on the portable model is ₹ 5000. Make an LPP and solve it graphically. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let the merchant stocks x desktop computers and y portable computers. Now, let us construct the following table according to given data.
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 33
Then, the required LPP is maximise,
Z = 4500x + 5000y ……..(i)
Subject to constraints,
x + y ≤ 250
25000x + 40000y ≤ 7000000
or 5x + 8y ≤ 1400 [dividing both sides by 5000]
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 ……..(1)
On considering the inequalities as equations, we get
x + y = 250 ………..(ii)
and 5x + 8y = 1400 …………..(iii)

Table for line x + y = 250 is

x 0 250
y 250 0

So, this line passes through the points (0, 250) and (250, 0).
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 250, we get
0 ≤ 250 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin. (1)
Table for line 5x + 8y = 1400 is

x 280 0
y 0 175

So, this line passes through the points (280, 0) and (0, 175).
On putting (0,0) in 5x + 8y ≤ 1400, we get
⇒ 0 ≤ 1400 [which is true]
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0, so the feasible region lies in the first quadrant.
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get x = 200 and y = 50
So, the intersection point is E(200, 50).

The graphical representation of the system of inequations as given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 34
The comer points of the feasible region are O(0, 0), A (250, 0), E (200, 50) and D (0,175).

The values of Z at comer points are as follows:

Corner Points Value of z = 4500x + 5000 y
O(0,0) Z = 4500(0) + 5000 (0) = 0
A (250, 0) Z = 4500(250) + 5000(0) = 1125000
E (200, 50) Z = 4500(200) + 5000(50) = 1150000 (maximum)
D (0,175) Z = 4500(0) + 5000(175) = 875000

From the table, maximum value of Z is 1150000 at E (200,50).
Hence, the profit is maximum, i.e. ₹ 1150000, when 200 desktop computers and 50 portable computers are stocked.

Question 27.
A dealer deals in two items A and B. He has ₹ 15000 to invest and a space to store atmost 80 pieces. Item A costs him ₹ 300 and item B costs him ₹ 150. He can sell items A and B at profits of ₹ 40 and ₹ 25, respectively. Assuming that he can sell all that he buys, formulate the above as a linear programming problem for maximum profit and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
He sell 20 items of type A and 60 items of type B. Maximum profit = ₹ 2300

Question 28.
A small firm manufactures gold rings and chains. The total number of rings and chains manufactured per day is atmost 24. It takes 1 h to make a ring and 30 min to make a chain. The maximum number of hours available per day is 16. If the profit on a ring is ₹ 300 and that on a chain is ₹ 190, then find the number of rings and chains that should be manufactured per day so as to earn the maximum profit. Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Let the firm manufactures x gold rings and y chains per day. The given data can be written in tabular form as follows:

Items Time taken Profit (in₹)
Gold rings (x) 1 h 300
Chains (y) 30 min = 1/2 h 190
atmost 24 atmost 16 h

The required LPP is maximise,
Z = 300x + 190y
Subject to constraints
x + y ≤ 24
x + -y ≤ 16 or 2x + y ≤ 32
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
On considering the inequalities as equations.
we get
x + y = 24 . ..(i)
and 2x + y = 32 ………….(ii)

Table for line x + y = 24 is

x 0 24
y 24 0

So, it passes through (0, 24) and (24, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 24, we get
0 ≤ 24 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin, (1)

Again, table for line 2x + y = 32 is

x 0 16
y 32 0

So, it passes through (0, 32) and (16, 0).

On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + y ≤ 32 we get
0 ≤ 32 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get x = 8 andy = 16
So, the point of intersection is B(8, 16)

The graphical representation of the system of inequations is given below
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 35
From the graph, OABCO is the feasible region which is bounded. The comer points are 0 (0, 0), A (0, 24), B (8, 16) and C (16, 0).
The values of z at corner points are as follows:

Corner points Value of Z = 300x + 190y
0(0,0) Z =300(0) + 190(0) = 0
A( 0,24) Z = 300(0) + 190(24) = 4560
B(8,16) Z= 300(8) + 190(16) = 5440 (maximum)
C(16,0) Z = 300(16) + 190(0) = 4800

From the table, maximum value of z is 5440 at B(8, 16).
Hence, The manufacturer earns the maximum profit ₹ 5440, when he manufactures 8 gold rings and 16 chains per day.

Question 29.
A library has to accommodate two different types of books on a shelf. The books are 6 cm and 4 cm thick and weight 1 kg and 1 \(\frac{1}{2}\) kg each, respectively. The shelf is 96 cm long and atmost can support a weight of 21 kg. How should the shelf be filled with the hooks of two types in order to include the greatest number of books? Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Let number of books of two types be x and y, respectively.
The required LPP is maximise Z = x + y
Subject to constraints
6x + 4y ≤ 96 or 3x + 2y ≤ 48
x + – y ≤ 21 or 2x + 3y ≤ 42 2
and x, y ≥ 0
On considering the inequalities as equations, we get
3x + 2y = 48 …(i)
2x + 3y = 42 …(ii)
Table for line 3x + 2y = 48 is

x 0 16
y 24 0

So, it passes through (0, 24) and (16, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in 3x + 2y ≤ 48, we get 0 + 0 ≤ 48
⇒ 0 ≤ 48 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for 2x + 3y = 42 is

x 0 21
y 14 0

So, it passes through (0, 14) and (21, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in 2x+ 3y ≤ 42, we get 0 + 0 ≤ 42
⇒ 0 ≤ 42 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 12 and y = 6
Thus, the point of intersection is (12 6).
Linear Programming Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 12 36
From the graph, OABCD is the feasible region which is bounded.
The corner points are 0(0, 0), A(0, 14) 5(12, 6) and C(16, 0).
The values of Z at comer points are as follows.

Corner points Value of Z = x + y
O(0, 0) Z = 0 + 0 = 0
A( 0, 14) Z = 0 + 14 = 14
B(12, 6) Z = 12 + 6 = 18 (maximum)
C(16, 0) Z = 16 + 0 = 16

From the table, the maximum value of Z is 18 at B(12, 6).
Hence, The maximum number of books is 18 and number of books of I type is 12 and books of II type is 6.

Question 30.
One kind of cake requires 300 g of flour and 15 g of fat, another kind of cake requires 150 g of flour and 30 g of fat. Find the maximum number of cakes which can be made from 7.5 kg of flour and 600 g of fat, assuming that there is no shortage of other ingredients used in making the cakes. Make it as an LPP and solve it graphically. (All India 2010)
Answer:
The maximum number of cakes is 30 in which number of cake of first kind of cakes is 20 and second kind is 10.

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Differential Equations Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 9

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 9 Differential Equations, Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Formation of Differential Equations

Question 1.
Find the order and the degree of the differential equation. (Delhi 2019)
x2\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\left\{1+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\right\}^{4}\)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x2\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\left\{1+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\right\}^{4}\)
Since, highest order derivative occurring in the differential equation is \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) therefore order is 2 and as given equation can be expressed as a polynomial in derivatives so its degree is 1, which is the power of \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\)

Question 2.
Write the order and degree of the differential equation. (Delhi 2019, 2013)
x3\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{2}+x\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{4}\) = 0
Answer:
Order = 2 and degree = 2

Question 3.
Find the order and degree (if defined) of the differential equation. (All India 2019)
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}+x\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}=2 x^{2} \log \left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)\)
Answer:
Since highest order derivative Occuring in the differential equation is \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) therefore order is 2 and as the differential equation is not a polynomial in derivatives, therefore its degree is not defined.

Question 4.
Find the differential equation representing the family of curves y = ae2x + 5 constant. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given, y = ae2x + 5 ………(i)
Differentiating w.r.t x, we get
y’ = ae2x . 2 ⇒ ae2x = \(\frac{y^{\prime}}{2}\) ⇒ y – 5 = \(\frac{y^{\prime}}{2}\) [From Eq. (i)]
⇒ 2y – 10 = y’ ⇒ y’ – 2y + 10 = 0
Which is the required equation.

Question 5.
Find the differential equation representing the family of curves V = \(\frac{A}{r}\) + B, where A and B are arbitrary constants. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Given equation of family of curves
V = \(\frac{A}{r}\) + B, where A and B are arbitrary constants.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. r, we get
\(\frac{d V}{d r}=\frac{-A}{r^{2}}\) + 0 ⇒ \(\frac{d V}{d r}=\frac{-A}{r^{2}}\)

Now, again differentiating both sides w.r.t. r, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 1
Thus, the required differential equation is
\(\frac{d^{2} V}{d r^{2}}+\frac{2}{r} \frac{d V}{d r}\) = 0

Question 6.
Write the sum of the order and degree of the differential equation (All India 2015)
\(\frac{d}{d x}\left\{\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{3}\right\}\) = 0
Answer:
The degree of the differential equation is the degree of the highest order derivative, when differential coefficients are made free from radicals and fractions sign.
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 2
Here, order = 2 and degree = 1
∴ Sum of the order and degree = 2 + 1 = 3

Question 7.
Write the sum of the order and degree of the differential equation (Foreign 2015)
\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{2}+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{3}\) + x4 = 0
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{2}+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{3}\) + x4 = 0
Here, we see that the highest order derivative is \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) whose degree is 2.
Here, order = 2 and degree = 2
Sum of the order and degree = 2 + 2 = 4

Question 8.
Write the differential equation obtained by eliminating the arbitrary constant C in the equation representing the family of curves xy = C cos x. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Given equation of family of curves is xy = C cos x. …(i)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
1 – y + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = C (- sin x) dx
⇒ y + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = \(\left(\frac{x y}{\cos x}\right)\) sin x [from Eq. (i)]
y + x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + xy tan x = 0

Question 9.
Write the degree of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{4}+3 x \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = 0
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{4}+3 x \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = 0
Here, highest order derivative is d2y/dx2, whose degree is one. So, the degree of differential equation is 1.

Question 10.
Write the degree of the differential equation
x\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{3}\) + y\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{4}\) + x3 = 0
Answer:
The degree of differential equation is 3.

Question 11.
Write the degree of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{4}\) + 3y\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = 0 (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
The degree of differential equation is 1.

Question 12.
Write the differential equation representing the family of curves y = mx, where m is an arbitrary constant. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Given family of curves is y = mx. …(i)
On differentiating Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = m
On Putting m = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) in Eq. (i), we get
y = x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
which is the required differential equation.

Question 13.
What is the degree of the following differential equation? (Delhi 2010)
5x\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}-\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – 6y = logx
Answer:
The degree of differential equation is 1.

Question 14.
Form the differential equation representing the family of curves y = e2x(a + bx), where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are arbitrary constants. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given, y = e2x(a + bx) ………(i)
On differentiating both sides w. r.t x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = e2x\(\frac{d}{d x}\)(a + bx) + (a + bx) \(\frac{d}{d x}\)e2x
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = e2x (b) + (a + bx) .2. e2x
⇒ y’ = b. e2x + 2. e2x (a + bx)
⇒ y’ = 2y + be2x …….(ii)

Again differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
y” = 2y’ + 2be2x …(iii)
On multiplying Eq. (ii) by 2 and then subtracting from Eq. (iii), we get
y” – 2y’ = 2y’ – 4y
y” = 2y’ + 2y’ – 4y
y”- 4y’+ 4y = 0,
which is the required equation.

Question 15.
Find the differential equation of the family of curves y = Ae2x + Be-2x, where A and B are arbitrary constants. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given equation of family of curves is
y = A.e2x + B.e-2x …(i)
Differentiating Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2A . e2x – 2B . e-2x …(ii)

Again differentiating eq. (ii) w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = 4Ae2x + 4Be-2x
= 4(Ae2x + Be-2x)

⇒ \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = 4y ⇒ \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – 4y = 0
which is the required equation.

Question 16.
Find the differential equation representing the family of curves y = aebx+5, where a and b are arbitrary constants, (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have, y = aebx+5 …(i)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = a. ebx+5 . b ⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = by [using Eq. (i)] ……..(ii)

Again differentiating eq. (ii) w.r.t. x, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 3
Which is the required differential equation.

Question 17.
Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the second quadrant and touching the coordinate axes. (All India 2016,2012)
Answer:
The equation of family of circles in second quadrant, which touch the coordinate axes, is (x + a)2 + (y – a)2 = a2, where a is radius of circle. Differentiate it one time and eliminate the arbitrary constant a.

Let a be the radius of family of circles in the second quadrant, which touch the coordinate
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 4
Then, coordinates of centre of circle = (-a, a).
We know that, equation of circle whose centre (h, k) and radius r is given by
(x – h)2 +(y – k)2 = r2

Here, (h, k) = (-a, a) and r = a
Equation of family of such circles is
(x + a)2 + (y – a)2 = a2 ………..(i)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
2 (x + a) + 2 (y – a) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 dx
⇒ x + a + (y – a) . y’ = 0 [∵ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y’]
⇒ x +yy’ = -a + ay’ ⇒ a = \(\frac{x+y y^{\prime}}{-1+y^{\prime}}\)

On putting above value of a in Eq. (i), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 5
On multiplying both sides by (y’ – 1)2, we get
(xy’ + yy’)2 +(y + x)2 = (x + yy’)2
⇒ (x + y)2 (y’)2 + (x + y)2 = (x + yy’)2
∴ (x + y)2[(y’)2 + 1] = (x + yy’)2
which is the required differential equation.

Question 18.
Form the differential equation of the family of parabolas having vertex at origin and axis along positive Y-axis. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
We know that, equation of parabola having vertex at origin and axis along positive Y-axis is
x2 = day, where a is the parameter. …(i)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 6
On differentiating Eq. (i) w.r.t. ‘x’, we get
2x = 4ay’ [where y’ = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)]
⇒ 4a = \(\frac{2 x}{y^{\prime}}\) ……….(ii)

On substituting the value of 4a from Eq. (ii) to Eq. (i), we get
x2 = \(\frac{2 x}{y^{\prime}}\)y
⇒ xy’ – 2y = 0, which is the required differential equation.

Question 19.
Find the differential equation of family of circles touching Y-axis at the origin. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The equation of family of circles touching Y-axis at origin is given by (x – a)2 + y2 = a2, where a is radius of circle.
Differentiate this equation once, as one arbitrary constant is present in the equation and eliminate a.
Lat a be the radius of family of circles which touch Y-axis at origin.
∴ Centre of circle = (a, 0)
Now, equation of family of circles with centre (a, 0) and radius a is
(x – a)2 + y2 = a2
[Putting (h, k) = (a, 0) and r = 0 in (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2]
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 7
⇒ x2 + a2 – 2ax + y2 = a2
⇒ x2 – 2ax + y2 = a2 …………(i)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
2x – 2a + 2y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ a = x + y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)

On putting above value of a in Eq. (i), we get
x2 + y2 – 2(x + y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\))x = 0
⇒ x2 + y2– 2x2 – 2xy\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ 2xy\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x2 – y2 = 0
which is the required differential equation.

Question 20.
Find the differential equation of family of circles touching X-axis at the origin. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Let a be the radius of family of circles which touch X-axis at origin.
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 8
∴ Centre of circle = (0, a)
Now, equation of family of such circles is
x2 + (y – a)2 = a2
[putting (h, k) = (0, a) and r = a in (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2]
⇒ x2 + y2 – 2ay = 0 ……….(i)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
2x + 2y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – 2a\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ x + y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – a \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 [divide by 2 ]
⇒ x + yy’ – ay’ = 0 [where, y’ = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)]
⇒ a = \(\frac{x+y y^{\prime}}{y^{\prime}}\)

On putting above value of a in Eq. (i), we get
x2 + y2 – 2y\(\left(\frac{x+y y^{\prime}}{y^{\prime}}\right)\) = 0
⇒ x2y’+ y2y’ – 2xy – 2y2y’ = 0
⇒ x2y’ – 2xy – y2y’ = 0
⇒ y'(x2 – y2) = 2xy
∴ y’ = \(\frac{2 x y}{x^{2}-y^{2}}\) or \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2 x y}{x^{2}-y^{2}}\)
which is the required differential equation

Question 21.
Find the differential equation of the family of circles in the first quadrant which touch the coordinate axes. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Equation of family of circles in the first quadrant which touch the coordinate axes is (x – a)2 + (y – a)2 = a2
(x – y)2 [(y’)2 + 1] = (x + yy’)2

Question 22.
Form the differential equation representing family of ellipses having foci on X-axis and centre at the origin. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
The equation of family of ellipses having foci on X-axis and centre at origin is \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1, a > b.

Differentiate this equation two times and eliminate two arbitrary constants a and b to get the required result.

We know that, the equation of family of ellipse having foci on X-axis and centre at origin is given by x2 v2
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) =1, where a > b …(i)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 9

On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 10
Which is the required differential equation.

Solution of Different Types of Differential Equations

Question 1.
Find the integrating factor of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{e^{-2 \sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{x}}-\frac{y}{\sqrt{x}}\right) \frac{d x}{d y}\) = 1. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
First, write the given differential equation in the form of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q. Then, determine integrating dx
factor by using formula, IF = e∫pdx.
Given differential equation can be rewritten as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 11
which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\) and Q = \(\frac{e^{-2 \sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{x}}\).
∴ Integrating Factor, IF = e∫pdx = e∫\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\)dx = e2√x

Question 2.
Write the integrating factor of the following differential equation.
(1 + y2) + (2xy – cot y)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + y2) + (2xy – cot y)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0.

The above equation can be rewritten as
(cot y – 2xy)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 1 + y2
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 12
which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Px = Q, here P = \(\frac{2 y}{1+y^{2}}\) and Q = \(\frac{\cot y}{1+y^{2}}\)
Now, integrating factor = e∫pdx = e∫\(\frac{2 y}{1+y^{2}}\)
Put 1 + y2 = t
⇒ 2ydy = dt
∴ IF = e∫\(\frac{dt}{t}\) =elog|t| = t = 1 + y2

Question 3.
Write the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2-y (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2-y

On separating the variable, we get
2y = dx

On integrating both sides, we get
∫2ydy = ∫dx
⇒ \(\frac{2^{y}}{\log 2}\) = x + C1
⇒ 2y = x log 2 + C1 log 2
∴ 2y = x log 2 + C
Where C = C1 log 2

Question 4.
Find the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x3e-2y (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x3e-2y

On separating the variables, we get
e2ydy = x3dx

On integrating both sides, we get
∫e2ydy = ∫x3dx
⇒ \(\frac{e^{2 y}}{2}=\frac{x^{4}}{4}\) + C1 = 2e2y = x4 + 4C1
∴ 22y = x4 + C1, Where C = 4C1

Question 5.
Find the general solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = ex+y. (All India 2019)
Answer:
The given differential equation is \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = ex+y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) =ex.ey
⇒ dy = ex. eydx ⇒ e-ydy = exdx
⇒ ∫e-ydy = ∫exdx
⇒ -e-y = ex + C
which is the required solution.

Question 6.
Solve the differential equation
cos\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)\) = a,(a ∈ R) (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Given equation is cos\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)\) = a
which can be rewritten as \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos-1a
⇒ dy = cos-1a
⇒ ∫dy = ∫cos-1a dx
⇒ y = cos-1a. x + C
which is the required solution.

Question 7.
Solve the differential equation
(x + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2e-y – 1; y(0) = 0 (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
We have, (x + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2e-y – 1
(x + 1)dy = (2e-y – 1)dx
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 14
log|x + 1| = -log|ey – 2| + log C
log|x + 1| + log|ey – 2| = log C
⇒ log|(x + 1)(ey – 2)| = log C
⇒ [(x + 1) (ey – 2)] = C ……….(i)
It is given that y(0) = 0 i.e., y = 0 when x = 0.
Putting x = 0 and y = 0 in Eq. (i), we get
|(0+ 1)(1 – 2)| = C ⇒ C = – 1
Putting C = -1 in Eq. (i), we get
|(x+ 1)(ey – 2)1 = -1
⇒ (x + 1) (ey – 2) = ±1
⇒ ey – 2 = –\(\frac{1}{x+1}\) ⇒ ey = (2 – \(\frac{1}{x+1}\))
⇒ y = log(2 – \(\frac{1}{x+1}\))
which is the required solution.

Question 8.
Solve the following differential equation. x dy – y dx = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\) dx, given that y = 0 when x = 1. (Delhi 2019; All India 2011)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x dy – y dx = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\) dx
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 15
where A = ec
Now, as y = 0, when x = 1
0 + \(\sqrt{1^{2}+0^{2}}\) = A.1 ⇒ A = 1
Put the value of A, in Eq. (iii), we get
y + \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\) = x2,
which is the required solution

Question 9.
Solve the differential equation
(1 + x)2 + 2xy – 4x2 = 0, subject to the initial condition y(0) = 0. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + x)2 + 2xy – 4x2 = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 16

Question 10.
Solve the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}-\frac{2 x y}{1+x^{2}}\)y = 1 + x2 (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
\(\frac{d y}{d x}-\frac{2 x y}{1+x^{2}}\)y = 1 + x2
This is a linear differential equation with
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 17

Question 11.
Solve the following differential equation.
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y – x tan\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\). (All IndIa 2019)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 18

Question 12.
Solve the differential equation. (All India 2019)
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=-\left[\frac{x+y \cos x}{1+\sin x}\right]\)
Answer:
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 19

Question 13.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation ex tany dx + (2 – ex) sec2 y dy = 0, given that y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) when x = 0. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
ex tany dx + (2 – ex) sec2 y dy = 0
which can be rewritten as
ex tany dx = (2 – ex) sec2 y dy
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 20
Thus, the particular solution of the given differential equation is tan y = 2 – ex.

Question 14.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y tan x = sin x dx given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) (CBSE 2018; Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y tan x = sin x dx
which is a linear differential equation of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
Here, P = 2 tan x and Q = sin x
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e2∫tan xdx = e2log|sec x|
= elogsec2x [∵ m log n = log nm]
= sec2x [∵ elogx = x]

The general solution is given by
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF) dx + C …(i)
⇒ y sec2 x = ∫(sinx.sec2 x) dx + C
⇒ y sec2 x = ∫ sinx \(\frac{1}{\cos ^{2} x}\)dx + C
⇒ y sec2 x = ∫ tanx sec x dx + C
⇒ y sec2 x = sec x + C

Also, given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
On putting y = 0 and x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) in Eq. (ii), we get
0 × sec2 \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = sec \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) + C
⇒ 0 = 2 + C ⇒ C = – 2
On putting the value of C in Eq. (ii), we get
y sec2x = sec x – 2
∴ y = cosx – 2 cos2x
which is the required particular solution of the given differential equation.

Question 15.
Solve the differential equation (x2 – y2) dx + 2xydy = 0. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Given, differential equation is
(x2 – y2) dx+ 2xydy = 0,
which can be re-written as
(x2 – y2)dx = -2xydy
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 21
∵ In RHS, degree of numerator and denominator is same.
∴ It is a homogeneous differential equation and can be written as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 22

Question 16.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
(1 + x2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2xy = \(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}\), given that y = 0, when x = 1. (CBSE 201B C; Foreign 2011)
Answer:
First, divide the given differential equation by (x2 + 1) to convert it into the form of linear differential equation and then solve it.
Given, differential equation is
(1 + x2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2xy = \(\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}\)

On dividing both sides by (x2 + 1), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 23

Question 17.
Show that the family of curves for which
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x^{2}+y^{2}}{2 x y}\) is given by x2 – y2 = cx. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, differential equation is
(x2 – y2) dx+ 2xydy = 0,
which can be re-written as
(x2 – y2)dx = -2xydy
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 21
∵ In RHS, degree of numerator and denominator is same.
∴ It is a homogeneous differential equation and can be written as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 22

Question 18.
Prove that x2 – y2 = c(x2 + y2)2 is the general solution of the differential equation (x3 – 3xy2)dx = (y3 – 3x2y)dy, where c is a parameter. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, differential equation can be rewritten as
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x^{3}-3 x y^{2}}{y^{3}-3 x^{2} y}\) ………..(i)

This is a homogeneous differential equation, so, put y = vx
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 24
On integrating both sides, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 25

Question 19.
Solve the differential equation dy
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y = x cos x + sinx, given that y = 1 when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2017; All India 2014C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y = x cos x + sin x dx
\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x}\) = cos x + \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\) [dividing both sides by x ]

which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = \(\frac{1}{x}\) and Q = cos x + \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e∫\(\frac{1}{x}\)dx = e|log x| = x

The general solution is given by
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF)dx + C
⇒ yx = ∫(cos x + \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)) xdx + C
⇒ yx = ∫(x cosx + sinx) dx + C
⇒ xy = ∫x cosx dx + ∫sinx dx + C
⇒ xy = x∫cos x dx – ∫ (x) ∫ cos x + ∫sinx dx + C [using integration by parts]
⇒ xy = x sin x – ∫1 . sin x dx – cos x + C
⇒ xy = x sinx + cosx – cosx + C
⇒ xy = x sinx + C
⇒ y = sinx + C \(\frac{1}{x}\) …(i)
Also, given that at x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\); y = 1
On putting x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) and y = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
1 = 1 + C. \(\frac{2}{\pi}\) ⇒ C = 0

On putting the value of C in Eq. (i), we get
y = sinx
which is the required solution of given differential equation.

Question 20.
Solve the differential equation (tan-1x – y)dx = (1 + x2) dy. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, (tan-1x – y)dx = (1 + x2) dy
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 26

Question 21.
Find the general solution of the differential equation y dx – (x + 2y2)dy = 0. (All India 2017)
Answer:
We have, ydx – (x + 2y2)dy = 0
= y\(\frac{d x}{d y}\) = x + 2y2 ⇒ \(\frac{d x}{d y}-\frac{1}{y}\) x = 2y
which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d x}{d y}\) + Px = Q, here P = \(\frac{-1}{y}\) and Q = 2y.
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e∫\(\frac{-1}{y}\) = e-log y = \(\frac{1}{y}\)
Hence, required general solution of the differential equation is
x.IF = ∫(Q.IF)dy + C = x × \(\frac{1}{y}\) = ∫2y × \(\frac{1}{y}\)dy + C
⇒ \(\frac{x}{y}\) = 2y + C ⇒ x = 2y2 + Cy

Question 22.
Find the general solution of the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y = sin x. (All India 2017)
Answer:
We have, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y = sin x, which is a linear differential equation of the form
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 27

Question 23.
Find the general solution of the differential equation
(1 – y2)(1 + |log x|)dx + 2xydy = 0 given that y = 0 when x = 1. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 – y2)(1 + |log x|)dx + 2xydy = 0

On separating the variables, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 28

Question 24.
Find the general solution of the following differential equation
(1 + y2) + (x- e-1y)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + y2) + (x- e-1y)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0

It can be rewritten as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 29

Question 25.
Find the particular solution of differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=-\frac{x+y \cos x}{1+\sin x}\) given that y = 1, when x = 0. (All India 2016)
Answer:
The general solution is
y(1 + sin x) = – \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + C ………(i)

Since, y = 1, when x = 0
∴ 1(1 + sin 0) = –\(\frac{0}{2}\) + C ⇒ C = 1 + 0 = 1
On putting C = 1 in Eq. (i), we get x2
y(1 + sin x) = – \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + 1
Hence, particular solution of the given differential x2
equation is y(1 + sin x) = – \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + 1.

Question 26.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation 2yex/ydx + (y – 2xex/y)dy = 0, given that x = 0, when y = 1. (All India 2016)
or
Show that the differential equation 2yex/ydx + (y- 2xex/y)dy = 0 is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation, given that x = 0, when y = 1. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
First, replace x by Ax and y by λy in F(x, y) of given differential equation to check that it is homogeneous. If it is homogeneous, then put x = vy and \(\frac{d x}{d y}\) = v + y\(\frac{d v}{d y}\) and then solve it.

Given differential equation is
2yex/ydx + (y – 2xex/y)dy = 0

It can be written as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 30
Thus, F(x, y) is a homogeneous function of degree zero. Therefore, the given differential equation is a homogeneous differential equation.
To solve it, put x = vy
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 31
On integrating both sides, we get rdy
∫2ev dv = -∫\(\frac{d y}{y}\)
⇒ 2ev = -log |y| + C
⇒ 2ex/y + log |y| + C [Put v = \(\frac{x}{y}\)] ……..(ii)

Also, given that x = 0, when y = 1.
On substituting x = 0 and y = 1 in Eq. (ii), we get
2e° + log|1| = C ⇒ C = 2

On substituting the value of C in Eq. (ii), we get
2ex/y + log|y| = 2
which is the required particular solution of the given differential equation.

Question 27.
Solve the differential equation
y + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x – y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2016)
Answer:
We have, y + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x – y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 32

Question 28.
Solve the following differential equation y2dx + (x2 – xy + y2)dy = 0. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
We have, y2dx + (x2 – xy + y2)dy = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 33

Question 29.
Solve the following differential equation
(cot-1 y + x)dy = (1 + y2)dx. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
We have, (cot-1 y + x)dy = (1 + y2)dx
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 34
Now, the solution of linear differential equation is given by
x.IF = ∫(Q × IF) dy + C
xecot-1y = ∫\(\frac{\cot ^{-1} y}{\left(1+y^{2}\right)}\)ecot-1y dy + C ……(i)

On putting cot-1y = t ⇒ \(\frac{1}{1+y^{2}}\)dy = -dt in Eq. (i)
we get
xecot-1y = -∫tet dt + C
= -et(t – 1) + C
⇒ xecot-1y = ecot-1y(1 – cot-1y) + C [∵ t = cot-1y]
which is the required solution.

Question 30.
Solve the following differential equation. dy
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y – x + xy cotx = 0, x ≠ 0. (Delhi 2015C, Delhi 2011C, All India 2012C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y – x + xy cotx = 0, x ≠ 0

Above equation can be written as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 35
The solution of given linear differential equation is
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF) dx + C
y × x sin x = ∫1 × x sin x dx + C
⇒ y. x sin x = ∫x sin x dx + C
⇒ y. x sin x = x ∫sin x dx – ∫(\(\frac{d}{d x}\)(x). ∫sin x dx)dx + C [using integration by parts]
⇒ y x sin x = – x cos x – ∫1 (- cos x) .dx + C
⇒ y x sin x = – x cos x + ∫cos x dx + C
⇒ yx sin x = – x cos x + sin x + C

On dividing both sides by x sin x. we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 36
which is the required solution.

Question 31.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation satisfying the given condition.
x2dy + (xy + y2) dx = 0, when y( 1) = 1. (All India 2015C, 2013C: Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x2dy + (xy + y2) dx = 0
x2dy = – (xy + y2) dx = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 37
On putting the value of C in Eq. (ii), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 38
which is the required particular solution.

Question 32.
If y(x) is a solution of the differential equation \(\left(\frac{2+\sin x}{1+y}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}\) = – cos x and y(0) = 1, then find the value of y\(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\left(\frac{2+\sin x}{1+y}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}\) = – cos x
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 39
⇒ log |1 + y| + log |2 + sin x| = log C
⇒ log (|1 + y||2+ sin x|) = logC
[∵ log m + log n – log mn ]
⇒ (1 + y) (2 + sin x) = C …(i)
Also, given that at x = 0,y = 1.

On putting x = 0 and y = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
(1 + 1) (2 + sin 0) = C ⇒ C = 4

On putting C = 4in Eq. (i), we get
(1 + y) (2 + sin x) = 4
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 40

Question 33.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x(2 \log |x|+1)}{\sin y+y \cos y}\) given that y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), when x = 1. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x(2 \log |x|+1)}{\sin y+y \cos y}\)

On separating the variables, we get
(sin y + y cos dy = x(2 log |x| + 1) dx
⇒ sin y dy + y cos y dy= 2x log |x| dx + x dx

On integrating both sides, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 41
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 42
On substituting the value of C in Eq. (i), we get
y sin y = x2 log |x| + \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
which is the required particular solution.

Question 34.
Solve the following differential equation
(x2 – 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2xy = \(\frac{2}{x^{2}-1}\), x ≠ 1. (Delhi 2014: All India 2014C, 2010)
Answer:
y(x2 – 1) = log \(\left|\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right|\) + C

Question 35.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
ex\(\sqrt{1-y^{2}}\) dx + \(\frac{y}{x}\)dy = 0, given that y = 1, when x = 0. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
ex\(\sqrt{1-y^{2}}\) dx + \(\frac{y}{x}\)dy = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 43
which is the required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 36.
Solve the following differential equation
cosec x log |y| \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x2y2 = 0. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
First, separate the variables, then integrate by using integration by parts.

Given differential equation is
cosec x log |y| \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x2y2 = 0

It can be rewritten as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 44
= – x2 cos x + 2 [x sin x – ∫sin x dx]
= – x2 cos x + 2x sin x + 2 cos x + C2 …(iv)

On putting the values of I1 and I2 from Eqs.(iii) and (iv) in Eq. (ii), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 45
where, C = – C2 – C1
which is the required solution of given differential equation.

Question 37.
Solve the following differential equation.
x cos \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}\) = y cos \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) + x; x ≠ 0. (All Indio 2014C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x cos \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}\) = y cos \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) + x

which is a homogeneous differential equation as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 46
which is required particular solution of given differential equation

Question 38.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y + x cosec (\(\frac{y}{x} \)) = 0. (All Indio 2014C, 2011)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y + x cosec (\(\frac{y}{x} \)) = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 47
[multiply both sides by -1]

Also, given that x = 1 and y = 0.
On putting above values in Eq. (ii), we get
⇒ cos 0 = log |1| – C
⇒ 1 = 0 – C ⇒ C = -1
∴ cos\(\frac{y}{x}\) = log|x| + 1 [From Eq. (ii)]
which is required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 39.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 1 + x + y + xy,
given that y = 0 when x = 1. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 48
Also, given that y = 0, when x -1.
On substituting x = 1, y = 0 in Eq. (iii), we get
log |1 + 0| = 1 +\(\frac{1}{2}\) + C ⇒ C = –\(\frac{3}{2}\) [vlog 1 = 0]

Now, on substituting the value of Cin Eq. (iii), we get
log |1 + y| = x + \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}-\frac{3}{2}\)
which is the required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 40.
Solve the differential equation
(1 + x2) + y = etan-1x
Answer:
Given differential equation is a linear differential equation of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q and
its solution is given by y .(IF) = ∫Q.(IF) + C,
where IF = e∫Pdx
y etan-1x = \(\frac{e^{2 \tan ^{-1} x}}{2}\) + C

Question 41.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation log \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)\) = 3x + 4y equation, given that y = 0, when x = 0. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 49
which is the required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 42.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
x (1 + y2) dx – y (1 + x2) dy = 0, given that y = 1, when x = 0. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x (1 + y2) dx – y (1 + x2) dy = 0
⇒ x(1 + y2) dx = y (1 + x2) dy

On separating the variable, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 50
Also, given that y = 1, when x = 0.
On substituting the values of x and y in Eq. (i), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 51
which is the required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 43.
Solve the differential equation
x log |x| \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y = \(\frac{2}{x} \) log |x|. (Foreign 2014: Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
x log |x| \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y = \(\frac{2}{x} \) log |x|

On dividing both sides by x log x, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 52
Now, solution of above equation is given by
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 53
which is the required solution.

Question 44.
Solve the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cotx = 2 cos x, given that y = 0,
when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cotx = 2 cos x
which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
Here, P = cot x and Q = 2 cos x
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e∫cot x dx = elog|sin x| ⇒ IF = sinx

The general solution is given by
y × IF = ∫(IF × Q) dx + C
⇒ y sin x = ∫2 sin x cos x dx + C
⇒ y sin x = ∫sin2x dx + C
⇒ y sin x = \(-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}\) + C

Also, given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).
On putting x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) and y = 0 in Eq. (i), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 54
On putting the value of C in Eq. (i), we get
y sin x = \(-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}-\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ 2ysinx + cos2x + 1 = 0
which is the required solution.

Question 45.
Solve the differential equation
(x2 – yx2) dy + (y2 + x2y2) dx = 0, given that y = 1, when x = 1. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(x2 – yx2)dy + (y2 + x2y2) dx = 0
⇒ x2 (1 – y) dy + y2 (1 + x2)dx = 0
⇒ – x2 (1 – y)dy = y2 (1 + x2)dx
⇒ x2 (y – 1) dy = y2 (1 + x2)dx
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 55
Also, given that y = 1, when x = 1
On putting y = 1 and x = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
log |1| + 1 = -1 + 1+ C
⇒ C = 1
On putting the value of C in Eq.(i), we get
log|y| + \(\frac{1}{y}=\frac{-1}{x}\) + x + 1
which is the required solution.

Question 46.
Solve the following differential equation : x cos\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)(ydx + xdy) – y sin\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)(xdy – ydx). (All India 2013C, 2010C)
Or
Solve the following differential equation.
(x cos\(\frac{y}{x}\) + y sin\(\frac{y}{x}\))y – (y sin\(\frac{y}{x}\) – x cos \(\frac{y}{x}\))x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
First, convert the given differential equation in : homogeneous and then put y = vx.
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = v + x\(\frac{d v}{d x}\)
Further, separate the variables and integrate it,then substitute the value of v and get the required result.

Given differential equation is rewritten as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 56
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 57
which is the required solution.

Question 47.
Solve the following differential equation dy
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y = cos x, given that if x = 0, y = 1. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
We have, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y = cos x

This is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = -1 and Q = cos x
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 58

Question 48.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation, given that x = 2 , y = 1
x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y = x2, (x ≠ 0). (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
We have, x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y = x2, (x ≠ 0)
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\).y = x ……….(i)
This is lineal differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = \(\frac{2}{x}\) and Q = x.
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e∫(2/x)dx = e2logx = elogx² = x²

The general solution is given by
y . IF = ∫(IF × Q) dx + C
⇒ y.x2 = ∫x2 × xdx + C
⇒ yx2 = ∫x3dx + C
∴ y.x2 = \(\frac{x^{4}}{4}\) + C ……(iii)

On putting x = 2, y = 1 in Eq. (ii),we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 59
which is the required particular solution.

Question 49.
Find the particular solution of differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cot x = 2x + x2 cot x x ≠ 0, given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
We have, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cot x = 2x + x2 cot x, (x ≠ 0) dx
This is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q.

Here, P = cot x and Q = 2x + x2 cot x.
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e∫cot x dx = elog|sin x| = sin x

The general solution is given by
y.IF = ∫(IF × Q)dx + C
⇒ y: sin x = ∫(2x + x2 .cot x) sin x dx + C
= 2∫x sin xdx + ∫x2 cos x dx + C
= 2∫xsinxdx + x2 sin x – ∫2x sin x dx + C
⇒ y.sin x = x2 sin x + C ………..(i)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 60

Question 50.
Solve the following differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cot x = 4x cosec x, given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2012C; All India 2012: Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cot x = 4x cosec x

which is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = cot x and Q = 4x cosec x
∴IF = e∫Pdx = e∫cot x dx
= elog|sin x| = sin x [∵ elog|x| = x]

The solution of linear differential equation is given by
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF) dx + C
⇒ y x sin x = ∫4x cosec x . sinx dx + C
⇒ y sin x = ∫4x \(\frac{1}{\sin x}\) .sinx dx + C
⇒ y sin x = ∫4x dx + C
⇒ y sin x = 2x2 + C ….(i)
Also, given that y = 0, when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 61
[dividing both sides by sin x]
which is the required solution.

Question 51.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation
xy \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = (x + 2)(y + 2) ; y = – 1 when x = 1. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
We have, xy \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = (x + 2)(y + 2)

On separating the variables, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 62
⇒ y – 2log|y + 2| = x + 2log |x| + C
Given that y = -1, when x = 1

On putting x = 1 and y = -1 in Eq. (i), we get
-1 – 2log(l) = 1 + 2log|1|+ C – 1 = 1 + C
⇒ C = -2

On putting C = -2 in Eq. (i), we get
y – 2log|y + 2|= x + 2log|x| – 2
which is required particular solution.

Question 52.
Solve the following differential equation
2x2 \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – 2xy + y2 = 0. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 63
which is the required solution.

Question 53.
Solve the following differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 1 + x2 + y2 + x2y2, given that y = 1, when x = 0. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 64

Question 54.
Solve the following differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y sec x = tanx, (0 ≤ x ≤ \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)). (All India 2012C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is dy t
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y sec x = tan x dx
which is a linear differential equation of first order and is of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q …(i)

Here, P = sec x and Q = tan x CD
IF = e∫Pdx = e∫sec x dx= elog|sec x + tan x|
[v Jsecx dx = log | sec x + tanx |]
⇒ IF = sec x + tan x CD
The general solution is yx IF = ∫(Q × IF )dx + C
y (sec x + tanx) = ∫ tanx . (sec x + tan x) dx
⇒ y(sec x + tanx) = ∫secx tanx dx + ∫tan2x dx
⇒ y (sec x+ tanx) = secx + ∫(sec2x – 1) dx
⇒ y (sec x + tanx) = sec x + tan x – x + C [∵ ∫sec2x dx = tan x]

On dividing both sides by (sec x + tanx), we get
y = 1 – \(\frac{x}{\sec x+\tan x}+\frac{C}{\sec x+\tan x}\)

Question 55.
Solve the following differential equation
x(x2 – 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 1, y = 0, when x = 2. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 65
⇒ 1 = A(x – 1)(x +1) + Bx(x + 1) + Cx(x – 1)
⇒ 1 = A(x2 – 1) + B(x2 + x) + C (x2 – x)
On comparing the coefficients of x2,x and constant terms from both sides, we get
A + B + C=0
B – C = 0
and -A = 1
⇒ A = -1

On solving above equations, we get
A = -1, B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and C = \(\frac{1}{2}\),
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 66
Also, given that y = 0, when x = 2.
On putting y = 0 and x = 2 in Eq. (ii), we get
0 = – log 2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)logl + \(\frac{1}{2}\)log 3 + K
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 67
which is the required solution.

Question 56.
Solve the following differential equation (1 + x2) dy + 2xy dx = cot x dx, where x ≠ 0. (All India 2012,12C, 11)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + x2) dy + 2xy dx = cot x dx [∵ x ≠ 0]
⇒ (1 + x2) dy = (cot x – 2xy) dx

On dividing both sides by (1 + x2), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 69
The solution of linear differential equation is given by
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF) dx + C
∴ y(1 + x2) = ∫\(\frac{\cot x}{1+x^{2}}\) x (1 + x2) dx + C
⇒ y (1 + x2) = J cot x dx + C
⇒ y (1 + x2) = log |sin x| + C [∵ ∫cot x dx = log |sin x|]

On dividing both sides by (1 + x2), we get
y = \(\frac{\log |\sin x|}{1+x^{2}}+\frac{C}{1+x^{2}}\)
which is the required solution.

Question 57.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation
x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y + x sin\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) = 0, given that when x = 2 , y = π. (All India 2012)
Answer:
We have, x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – y + x sin\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) = 0
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 70
which is the required solution.

Question 58.
Solve the following differential equation.
[x sin2\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) – y] dx + x dy = 0 (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given differential equations is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 71

Question 59.
Solve the following differential equation.
(1 + y2) (1 + log |x| ) dx + x dy = 0. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + y2) (1 + log |x| ) dx + x dy = 0

On separating the variables, we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 72
which is the required solution.

Question 60.
Solve the following differential equation.
ex tany dx + (1 – ex) sec2 y dy = 0. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{e^{x}-1}{C}\right)\)

Question 61.
Show that the following differential equation is homogeneous and then solve it.
y dx + x log\(\left|\frac{y}{x}\right|\)dy – 2x dy = 0
Answer:
First, transform the given differential equation
i in the form of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = F(x, y). Now, replace x = λx and y = λy and verify whether F(λx, λy) = λn : F(x, y),n ∈ Z. If above equation is satisfied, then given equation is said to be homogeneous equation. Then, we use the substitution y=vx ‘ and solve the differential equation by using variable separable method.

Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 73
So, the given differential equation is homogeneous.
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 74
which is the required solution.

Question 62.
Solve the following differential equation.
(y + 3x2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 75
The solution of linear differential equation is given by
y × IF = ∫(Q × IF)dx + C
⇒ y × \(\frac{1}{x}\) = ∫(3x × \(\frac{1}{x}\))dx
⇒ \(\frac{y}{x}\) = ∫3x dx ⇒ \(\frac{y}{x}\) = 3x + c
∴ y = 3x2 + Cx
which is the required solution.

Question 63.
Solve the following differential equation.
xdy – (y + 2x2) dx = 0. (All India 2011)
Answer:
y = 2x2 + Cx

Question 64.
Solve the following differential equation. x dy + (y – x3) dx = 0. (All India 2011)
Answer:
y = \(\frac{x^{3}}{4}+\frac{C}{x}\)

Question 65.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
(1 + e2x)dy + (1 + y2)exdx = 0, given that y = 1, when x = 0. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(1 + e2x)dy + (1 + y2)exdx = 0

Above equation may be written as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 76
Which is the required equation.

Question 66.
Solve the following differential equation.
xy log\(\left|\frac{y}{x}\right|\)dx + [y2 – x2 log\(\left|\frac{y}{x}\right|\)]dy = 0. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 77
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 78
where C = -C1
which is the required solution.

Question 67.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation satisfying the given condition \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y tan x, given that y = 1 when x = 0. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y tan x
It can be written as \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = tan x dx

On integrating both sides, we get
∫\(\frac{d y}{y}\) = ∫tanx dx
⇒ log|y| = log |sec x| + C …(i)
[∵ ∫\(\frac{1}{y}\) dy = log |y| and ∫tanx dx = log |sec x|]

Also, given that y = 1, when x = 0.
On putting x = 0 and y = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
log 1 = log (sec 0) + C
⇒ 0 = log 1 + C [∵ sec 0 = 1 ]
⇒ C = 0 [∵ log 1 = 0]

On putting C = 0 in Eq. (i), we get
log |y| = log |secx|
∴ y = sec x
which is the required solution.

Question 68.
Solve the following differential equation.
(x2 + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2xy = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+4}\). (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(x2 + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2xy = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+4}\)

On dividing both sides by (x2 + 1), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 79
which is the required equation.

Question 69.
Solve the following differential equation.
(x3 + x2 + x + 1) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2x2 + x. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(x3 + x2 + x + 1) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2x2 + x
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 80
⇒ 2x2 + x = A(x2 + 1) + (Bx + C)(x + 1)
⇒ 2x2 + x = A (x2 + 1) + B (x2 + x) + C (x + 1)

On comparing the coefficients of x2, x and constant terms from both sides, we get
A + B = 2; B + C = 1
and A + C = 0 ⇒ A = -C

On solving above equations, we get
A = \(\frac{1}{2}\), B = \(\frac{3}{2}\) and C = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

On substitution the values of A, B and C in Eq. (ii), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 81
[Where, C = C1 + C2]
Which is the required solution

Question 70.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation (x – y)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x + 2y, given that when x = 1, y = 0. (All India 2017, 2013C)
Answer:
The general solution is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 82
which is the required particular solution.

Question 71.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x y}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\) given that y = 1, when x = 0. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
First, consider the function of differential equation as \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = F\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\). Put y = vx and convert the given differential equation in y and x.Further, integrate it and substitute y = \(\frac{y}{x}\) to get the required solution.

Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 83
which is the required equation.

Question 72.
Show that the differential equation
[x sin2\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) – y]dx + x dy = 0 is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation, given that y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\), when x = 1. (All India 2015C, 2014C, 2013)
Answer:
The solution of differential equation is
-cot\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) + log|x|= C ……(i)

Also, given that y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\), when x = 1.

On putting x = 1 and y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in Eq. (i), we get 4
-cot\(\frac{\pi}{4}\) + log 1 = C ⇒ C = -1 [∵ cot\(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = 1]

On putting this value of C in Eq. (i), we get
-cot\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)+ log |x| = -1
∴ 1 + log|x| – cot\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) = 0
which is the required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 73.
Solve the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – 3y cotx = sin 2x, given y = 2 when x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (All India 2015C)
Answer:
We have, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – 3y cotx = sin 2x ……..(i)
This is a linear differential equation of the form
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q, here P = -3 cot x and Q = sin 2x
∴ IF = e∫Pdx = e-3∫cot x dx
⇒ IF = e-3log|sin x| = elog|sin x|-3 = |sin x|-3

∴ The general solution of differential equation is given by
y × IF = ∫(IF × Q)dx + C
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 84
⇒ C = 4
∴ y = -2sin2x + 4sin3x, which is required particular solution.

Question 74.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation (tan-1 y – x) dy = (1 + y2) dx, given that x = 1 when y = 0. (All India 2015)
Answer:
The solution of differential equation is
xetan-1y = etan-1y(tan-1 y – 1) + C

Also, it is given that x = 1, when y = 0.
Therefore, we have 1 . e° = e° (0 – 1) + C
⇒ 1 = – 1 + C ⇒ C = 2

Hence, the required solution is
xetan-1y = etan-1y(tan-1y – 1) + 2

Question 75.
Show that the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y^{2}}{x y-x^{2}}\) is homogeneous and also solve it. (All India 2015)
Answer:
First, consider \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) as equal to F(x, y). Then, replace x by λx and y by λy on both sides, we get
F(x,y) = λ°F(x,y).
Put y = vx and convert the given equation in terms of v and x, then separate the variables and integrate it. Further put v = \(\frac{y}{x}\) and simplify it to get the required result.

Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 85
which is the required solution.

Question 76.
Solve the following differential equation. \(\sqrt{1+x^{2}+y^{2}+x^{2} y^{2}}\) + xy\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (Foreign 2015, All India 2010)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 86
which is the required solution.

Question 77.
Solve the following differential equation.
[y – x cos\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)]dy + [y cos\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) – 2x sin\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)]dx = 0. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 87
[divide numerator and denominator by x]
which is a homogeneous differential equation as
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = F\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 88

Question 78.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
(3xy + y2) dx + (x2 + xy) dy = 0, for x = 1 and y = 1. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
(3xy + y2) dx + (x2 + xy) dy = 0

It can be rewritten as
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 89

Again, put v2 + 2v = z ⇒ (2v + 2)dv = dz
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 90
∴ y2x2 + 2yx3 = 3
which is the required particular solution.

Question 79.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation given that y = 0, when x = 1: (x2 + xy)dy = (x2 + y2)dx. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
We have, (x2 + xy)dy = (x2 + y2)dx
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\left(\frac{x^{2}+y^{2}}{x^{2}+x y}\right)\) ………..(i)

This is a homogeneous differential equation.
On putting y = vx ⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = v . 1 + x\(\frac{d v}{d x}\) in Eq. (1), we get
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 91
⇒ -v – 2 log (1 – y) = log |x| + log C
⇒ -v = 21og(1 – v) + log |x| + logC
⇒ -v = log(1 – v)2+log{C|x|} [∵ logm + logn = logmn]
⇒ -v = log{C|x|(1 – v)2}
⇒ C|x|(1 – v)2 = e-v
⇒ C|x|(1 – \(\frac{y}{x}\))2 = e-y/x [∵ v = \(\frac{y}{x}\)]

On putting x = 1 and y = 0 in Eq. (ii), we get
C.1(1 – 0) = e° ⇒ C = 1
Thus, the required solution is
|x|(1 – \(\frac{y}{x}\))2 = e-y/x ⇒ (x – y)2 = |x|e-y/x
which is the required particular solutions.

Question 80.
Show that the differential equation
x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) sin \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) + x – y sin\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) = 0 is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation, given that x = 1, when y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 92
Also, given that x = 1, when y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).
On putting x = 1 and y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) Eq. (ii), we get
-cos\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) = -log|1| + C ⇒ -0 = -0 + C ⇒ C = 0
On putting the value of Cin Eq. (ii), we get
cos\(\frac{y}{x}\) = log|x|
which is the required solution.

Question 81.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x cot y = 2y + y2 cot y, (y ≠ 0), given that x = 0, when y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (All India 2013)
Answer:
Given differential equation is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x cot y = 2y + y2 cot y, (y ≠ 0)

which is a linear differential equation of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Px = Q, here P = cot y and Q = 2y + y2 cot y
Differential Equations Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 93
Also, given that x = 0, when y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).
On puttrng x = 0 and y = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) in Eq. (i). we get
o = (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) sin\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) + C ⇒ C = –\(-\frac{\pi^{2}}{4}\). [sin\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) = 1]
On putting the value of C in Eq. (i), we get
x siny = y2siny – \(\frac{\pi^{2}}{4}\) = x = y2 – \(\frac{\pi^{2}}{4}\) cosec y
which is required particular solution of given differential equation.

Question 82.
Find the particular solution of the differential equation
(tan-1 y – x)dy = ( 1 + y2) dx, given that x = 0, when y = 0. (All India 2013)
Answer:
x = tan-1 y – 1 + e-tan-1y

The post Differential Equations Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 9 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Metals and Non-Metals Class 10 Science Chapter 3 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Metals and Non-Metals Class 10 Science Chapter 3

Question 1.
Reverse of the following chemical reaction is not possible:
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Justify this statement with reason. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
If a strip of zinc metal is put in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate fades gradually due to the formation of colourless zinc sulphate solution and reddish-brown copper metal is deposited on zinc strip.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 1

In this reaction, zinc metal being more reactive than copper displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. If however, a strip of copper metal is placed in zinc sulphate solution, then no reaction occurs. This is because copper metal is less reactive than zinc metal and hence, cannot displace zinc from its salt solution.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 2

Question 2.
Name a metal which:
(a) is the best conductor of heat.
(b) has a very low melting point.
(c) does not react with oxygen even at high temperature.
(d) is most ductile. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Metal which is the best conductor of heat is silver.
(b) Gallium has a very low melting point.
(c) Silver and gold do not react with oxygen even at high temperature.
(d) Gold is the most ductile metal.

Question 3.
What is meant by amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from the following :
Na2O, ZnO, CO2, Al2O3, H2O (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Amphoteric oxides are those which show acidic as well as basic character, i.e., they react with bases as well as acids. ZnO and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxides.

Question 4.
Complete the following equation with balancing: (Board Term I, 2013)
(i) Al + HCl →
(ii) Mg + HNO3
Answer:
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 3

Question 5.
Compare in tabular form the reactivities of the following metals with cold and hot water: (2020)
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
Answer:
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 4

Question 6.
Give reason for the following:
(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most of the metals react with nitric acid.
(ii) Zinc oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(iii) Metals conduct electricity. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when most metals react with nitric acid. It is because HNO3 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO, NO2).

(ii) ZnO reacts both with acids as well as bases to form salt and water. Thus, ZnO is an amphoteric oxide.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 5

(iii) Metals conduct electricity due to the flow of free electrons present in them.

Question 7.
(a) Why does calcium start floating when it reacts with water? Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
(b) Name two metals which do not react with water. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 6
The bubbles of hydrogen gas produced stick to the surface of calcium and hence, it starts floating on the surface of water.

(b) Gold and silver do not react with water.

Question 8.
State what would happen if:
(i) some zinc pieces are placed in blue copper sulphate solution.
(ii) some’copper pieces are placed in green ferrous sulphate solution.
(iii) an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate for some time. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 1.

(ii) Cu + FeSO4 No Reaction
Cu is less reactive than Fe, thus, it cannot displace Fe from FeSO4 solution.

(iii) When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate fades gradually and a reddish brown coating is formed on the iron nail.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 7
As iron is more reactive than copper, it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Question 9.
Give reason:
(a) Aluminium is a reactive metal but is still used for packing food articles.
(b) Calcium starts floating when water is added to it. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Aluminium is a strong and cheap metal. It is also a good conductor of heat. But it is highly reactive. When it is exposed to moist air, its surface is covered with a thin impervious layer of aluminium oxide (Al2O3). This layer does not allow moist air to come in contact with the fresh metal and hence, protects the metal underneath from further damage or corrosion. Thus, after the formation of this protective layer of Al2O3, aluminium becomes resistant to corrosion. It is because of this reason that although aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is still used in food packaging.

(b) Refer to answer 7(a).

Question 10.
(a) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
(i) Al2O3 + HCl →
(ii) K2O + H2O →
(iii) Fe + H2O →
(b) An element ‘X’ displaces iron from the aqueous solution of iron sulphate. List your observations if the element ‘X’ is treated with the aqueous solutions of copper sulphate, zinc sulphate and silver nitrate. Based on the observations arrange X, Zn, Cu and Ag in increasing order of their reactivities. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
(ii) K2O + H2O → 2KOH
(iii) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

(b) As X displaces iron from its salt solution hence X is more reactive than iron. It will also displace copper from copper sulphate and silver from silver nitrate as both are less reactive than iron. As zinc is more reactive than iron hence, X can be more or less reactive than zinc. Then the order of their reactivities can be
Ag < Cu < Fe < Zn < X or Ag < Cu < Fe < X < Zn.

Question 11.
A metal ‘X’ combines with a non-metal ‘Y’ by the transfer of electrons to form a compound Z.
(i) State the type of bond in compound Z.
(ii) What can you say about the melting point and boiling point of compound Z?
(iii) Will this compound dissolve in kerosene or petrol?
(iv) Will this compound be a good conductor of electricity? (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
X being a metal loses electrons and Y being a non-metal gains electrons to form Z.
(i) The chemical bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another is known as an ionic bond. Hence, Z is an ionic compound.
(ii) Compound Z is an ionic compound thus, it has high melting and boiling points.
(iii) Ionic compounds are insoluble in non-polar solvents such as kerosene or petrol.
(iv) As Z is an ionic compound, it does not conduct electricity in the solid state because movement of ions in the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure. But it conducts electricity in the molten state or in aqueous solution due to the movement of ions freely.

Question 12.
(i) By the transfer of electrons, illustrate the formation of bond in magnesium chloride and identify the ions present in this compound.
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids. Give reasons.
(iii) With the help of a labelled diagram show the experimental set up of action of steam on a metal. (2020)
Answer:
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 8
(ii) Ionic compounds are solids because the particles which make up ionic compounds are held together by strong electrostatic bonds.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 9

Question 13.
(a) (i) Write two properties of gold which make it the most suitable metal for ornaments.
(ii) Name two metals which are the best conductors of heat.
(iii) Name two metals which melt when you keep them on your palm.
(b) Explain the formation of ionic compound CaO with electron-dot structure. Atomic numbers of calcium and oxygen are 20 and 8 respectively. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) The malleability and ductility properties of gold make it suitable for ornaments.
(ii) Silver and gold.
(iii) Gallium and caesium have so low melting points that they melt even on keeping them on palm.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 10

Question 14.
(i) Write down the electronic configuration
of magnesium and oxygen.
(ii) Give two general properties of the compound formed by combination of magnesium and oxygen.
(iii) Show the formation of this compound by the transfer of electrons. (Board Term 1,2014)
Answer:
(i) Atomic number of magnesium (Mg) = 12
∴ Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
Atomic number of oxygen = 8
Electronic configuration of oxygen = 2, 6

(ii) Magnesium (Mg) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form magnesium oxide (MgO).
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
Properties of MgO are :
(a) It involves ionic bonding.
(b) It has high melting point due to strong electrostatic forces of attraction between Mg2+ and O2- ions.

(iii) In the formation of magnesium oxide, two electrons are transferred from magnesium atom to oxygen atom as represented :
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 11

Question 15.
An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of ore with one example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved in the process. (AI 2019)
Answer:
The ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence hence, it must be a carbonate ore. Calamine (ZnCO3) is an important carbonate ore of zinc.
Steps required to obtain metal from the enriched carbonate Are:
(a) Conversion of the carbonate ore into metal oxide : This is done by calcination (for carbonate ores).
Calcination is the process of heating the ore strongly in the absence or limited supply of air. The zinc carbonate on heating decomposes to form zinc oxide as shown :
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 12

(b) Reduction of the metal oxide to metal : As zinc is moderately reactive, zinc oxide cannot be reduced by heating alone. Hence, it is reduced to zinc by using a reducing agent such as carbon.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 13
The reduction of metal oxides by heating with coke is called smelting.

Question 16.
(i) Carbonate of metal ‘2T is abundant in earth crust and its hydroxide is used in ‘white washing’. Identify metal ‘XI
(ii) How will you convert this carbonate into its oxide? Name the process and write its equation. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(i) Calcium carbonate is abundant in earth’s crust and calcium hydroxide is used in white washing. Hence, metal X is calcium (Ca).
(ii) CaCO3 is strongly heated in the absence of air to get the metal oxide. This process is called calcination.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 14

Question 17.
Zinc is a metal found in the middle of the activity series of metals. In nature, it is found as a carbonate ore, ZnCO3. Mention the steps carried out for its extraction from the ore. Support with equations. (Board Term 1,2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 15.

Question 18.
Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals. Why? Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained form their ores? Take an example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations. (2020)
Answer:
Sodium, magnesium and aluminium have higher affinity towards oxygen than that of carbon because these are highly reactive metals. Hence, carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals. These metals are placed at the top of the reactivity series. The highly reactive metals like Na, Mg, Al, etc. are extracted by electrolytic reduction of their molten chlorides or oxides. Electrolytic reduction is brought about by passing electric current through the molten state. Metal gets deposited at the cathode.
NaCl ⇌ Na+ + Cl
At cathode : Na+ + e → Na
At anode : 2Cl → Cl2 + 2e

Question 19.
Write balanced chemical equations to explain what happens, when
(i) Mercuric oxide is heated.
(ii) Mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide is heated.
(iii) Aluminium is reacted with manganese dioxide.
(iv) Ferric oxide is reduced with aluminium.
(v) Zinc carbonate undergoes calcination. (2020)
Answer:
(i) On heating, mercuric oxide decomposes to give mercury .and oxygen.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 15

(ii) On heating mixture of cuprous oxide and cuprous sulphide, copper and sulphur dioxide are produced.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 16

(iii) When aluminium is heated with manganese dioxide, manganese and aluminium oxide are formed.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 17

(iv) Ferric oxide reacts with aluminium to produce aluminium oxide and iron.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 18

(v) On calcination, zinc carbonate produces zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 19

Question 20.
(a) List in tabular form three chemical properties on the basis of which we can differentiate between a metal and a non¬metal.
(b) Give reasons for the following :
(i) Most metals conduct electricity well.
(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide [Fe2O3] with heated aluminium is used to join cracked machine parts. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:

s.no. Chemical property Metals Non-metals
1. Nature of oxides Metals generally form basic oxides. Non-metals generally form acidic oxides.
2. Reaction with water Metals which lie above hydrogen in the reactivity series displace hydrogen from water. Non-metals (except F) do not react with water.
3. Oxidising or reducing character. Metals generally behave as reducing agents. Non-metals generally behave as oxidising agents.

(b) (i) Refer to answer 6 (iii).

(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide, Fe2O3 with aluminium is highly exothermic and the iron produced melts. This molten iron is used to join cracked iron parts of machines and railway tracks.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 20

Question 21.
(a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore? Explain the various steps supported by chemical equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Extraction of metals of medium reactivity:
The metals in the middle of the reactivity series are zinc, iron, lead, etc. The carbonate ores first need to get converted to oxides as it is easier to get metal from their oxides.
Refer to answer 15.

(b) Copper glance (Cu2S) when heated in air gets partially oxidised to copper oxide which further reacts with the remaining copper glance to give copper metal.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 21

Question 22.
Draw a schematic diagram of the various steps involved in the extraction of metals from ores for metals of medium reactivity and for metals of low reactivity. (Board Term I, 2018)
Answer:
Various steps involved in the extraction of a metal from its ore followed by refining of the metal is called ‘metallurgy’. The steps involved are summarised as follows :
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 22

Question 23.
(a) Describe an activity to show that metals are good conductors of electricity.
(b) Account for the following :
(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
(ii) For storing sodium metal, it is kept immersed in kerosene.
(iii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide with aluminium is used to join cracked iron parts of machines. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Activity : (i) Set up an electric circuit as shown in the figure.
(ii) Place the metal to be tested (Cu, Al, Ag, Fe, etc.) in the circuit, between the terminal A and B.
(iii) Switch on the battery.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 23

Observations : Bulb begins to glow.
Conclusion : This indicates that the current is flowing through the metal wire. Hence, metals are good conductors of electricity.
(b) (i) Refer to answer 6(i).
(ii) Sodium reacts vigorously with air and catches fire. Also, sodium reacts with water and the hydrogen gas is evolved which catches fire. Therefore, sodium is kept under kerosene.
(iii) Refer to answer 20(b) (ii).

Question 24.
How is copper obtained from its ore (Cu2S)?
Write only the chemical equations. How is copper thus obtained refined? Name and explain the process along with a labelled diagram. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 21(b).
Copper obtained is refined by electrolytic refining.
Electrolytic refining of crude copper :
Thick block of impure metal acts as anode and a thin strip of pure copper metal acts as cathode. The electrolyse used is aqueous solution of copper sulphate containing a small amount of sulphuric acid. On passing electric current through the electrolyte, the metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte. An equivalent amount of copper metal from copper sulphate solution gets deposited on cathode.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 24

Question 25.
(a) Copper produced by heating the ore in air is not very pure. Describe the method used for refining impure copper. Draw labelled diagram of the process.
(b) Write chemical equations for the reactions taking place when :
(i) zinc sulphide is heated in air.
(ii) zinc carbonate is calcined. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 24.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 25

Question 26.
Assertion (A) : The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R) : Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) : Metals and alloys have free electrons in them which can move freely inside them, so they conduct electricity very easily. Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it is a very good conductor of electricity.

Question 27.
Name first discovered alloy. Give its composition also. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Bronze is the first discovered alloy. Its composition is copper (90%) and tin (10%).

Question 28.
List three differentiating features between the processes of galvanisation and alloying.
Answer:

Galvanisation Alloying
1. It is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to steel or iron, to prevent rusting. 1. It is the process of combining two or more metals or a metal and a non-mental.
2. It is done through electrolysis. 2. It is done by heating the primary metal and adding other elements in definite proportions and then cooling it down to room temperature.
3. The properties of inner metal are not changed. 3. The properties like strength, conductivity etc. are changed.

Question 29.
Describe an activity to find out the conditions under which iron rusts. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Activity:
(i) Take three test tubes and put clean nails in each of the three tubes. Label them as A, B and C.
(ii) Pour some water in test tube A and cork it.
(iii) In tube B, pour some boiled distilled water along with some turpentine oil and cork it.
(iv) In test tube C, add some anhydrous calcium chloride and cork it.
(v) Look these test tubes properly and keep them undisturbed for a few days.

Observation : Only in test tube A, iron nails get rusted since the nails in this test tube are exposed to both air and water.
Conclusion : Both air and water are required for rusting of iron.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 26

Question 30.
Why some metal surfaces acquire a dull appearance when they are exposed to moist air? Write colour acquired by the surfaces of copper and silver in such situation and also write the chemical names of the substances due to which it happens. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
When a metal has been kept exposed to air for a long time, then it gets a dull appearance. The metals lose their shine or brightness due to the formation of a thin layer of oxide, carbonate or sulphide on their surface and thus, the metal surface gets corroded. The surface of copper gets coated with a green layer in moist air due to the formation of basic copper carbonate, silver articles acquire a blackish tinge due to the formation of silver sulphide.

Question 31.
(a) Name the following :
(i) Metal that can be cut by knife
(ii) Lustrous non-metal
(iii) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature
(iv) Most malleable and ductile metal
(v) Metal that is best conductor of electricity
(vi) Non-metal that can exist in different forms
(b) How are alloys better than metals? Give composition of solder and amalgam.
Answer:
(a) (i) Sodium
(ii) Iodine
(iii) Mercury
(iv) Gold
(v) Silver
(vi) Carbon

(b) Alloys are stronger than the metals from which they are made, more resistant to corrosion, have lower melting point, have lower electrical conductivity. Solder is an alloy of lead and tin. An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with another metal.

Question 32.
(a) Define corrosion.
(b) What is corrosion of iron called?
(c) How will you recognise the corrosion of silver?
(d) Why corrosion of iron is a serious problem?
(e) How can we prevent corrosion of iron? (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) The process of slowly eating up of metals due to their conversion into oxides, carbonates, sulphides, etc., by the action of atmospheric gases and moisture is called corrosion.
(b) The corrosion of iron is called rusting.
(c) Silver articles become black after sometime when exposed to air. This is due to formation of a coating of black silver sulphide (Ag2S) on its surface by the action of H2S gas present in the air.
(d) Corrosion of iron is a serious problem. Every year large amount of money is spent to replace damaged iron articles. Corrosion causes damage to car bodies, bridges and iron railings, ships and to all objects made of metals specially those of iron.
(e) Corrosion of iron is prevented by coating it with a layer of oil. The reason being that the layer of oil does not allow air and water to react the surface of iron. Corrosion of iron can also be prevented by painting, greasing, galvanising, anodising, electroplating or making alloys.

Question 33.
Give reason for the following :
(a) Ionic compounds have higher melting point and higher boiling point.
(b) Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene.
(c) Reaction of calcium with water is less violent.
(d) Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air.
(e) Prior to reduction the metal sulphides and carbonates must be converted into metal oxides for extracting metals. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Due to strong forces of attraction, the ions are bound to each other very firmly. As a result, the electrovalent or ionic solids have high melting and boiling points.
(b) Refer to answer 23(b) (ii).
(c) Calcium reacts with cold water but the reaction is less violent. The heat evolved is not sufficient for the hydrogen to catch fire.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 27
(d) Refer to answer 32(c).
(e) The reduction of metal oxides to metal is easier than the reduction of metal sulphides and metal carbonates. Hence, these are first reduced to their corresponding metal oxides.

Question 34.
(a) Metals like iron, silver and copper get corroded on exposure to air. Write the chemical name of the substance deposited on their surface respectively with it’s colour, in each case.
(b) List four ways by which rusting can be prevented. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Iron gets corroded and forms ferric oxide which is rust, it is reddish brown in colour. For silver and copper, refer to answer 30.

(b) The various methods used for preventing the rusting of iron are given below:
(i) By applying paint : Materials like railings, iron gates, iron bridges, bodies of cars, buses and trucks, etc. are all painted to protect them from rusting. Painting the metal surface does not allow them to come in contact with the moist air and thus, prevents rusting.
(ii) Greasing and oiling : When some grease or oil is applied on the surface of an iron object, then moisture and air cannot come in contact with it and hence, rusting is prevented.
(iii) Galvanization : It is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of zinc. The iron coated with zinc is called galvanized iron.
(iv) Electroplating : It is another technique used to prevent articles from rusting. In this process, metals like tin, nickel and chromium which do not corrode are electroplated on iron.

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks]-Year 2015

35.Write one example of each of
(i) a metal which is so soft that, it can be cut with knife and a non-metal which is the hardest sustance.
(ii) a metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid at room temperature.
Answer.
(i) Sodium, carbon (diamond).
(ii)Mercury is liquid metal, bromine is liquid non-metal.

36.Mention the names of the metals for the following:
(i) Two metals which are alloyed with iron to make stainless steel.
(ii) Two metals which are used to make jewellary.
Answer.
(i) Nickel and chromium.
(ii) Gold and platinum.

CBSE Class 10 Science – More Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Science
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers  Class 10 Science Important Questions

Short Answer Type Question[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2013

37.Give reason for the following:
(a) School bells are made up of metals.
(b) Electric wires are made up of copper.
Answer.
(a) It is because metals are sonorous, i.e. they produce sound when struk with a hard substance.
(b) It-is because copper is good conductor of electricity.

Short Answer Type Question[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2013

38. Suggest a method of reduction for the following metals during their metallurgical processes:
(i) metal ‘A’ which is one of the last, second or third position in the reactivity.
(ii) metal ‘B’ which gives vigorous reaction even with water and air.
(iii) metal ‘C’ which is kept in the middle df activity series.
Answer.
(i) ‘A’ can be obtained by chemical reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide as reducing agent.
(ii) ‘B’ can be obtained by electrolytic reduction.
(iii) ‘C’ can be reduced by reducing agent like ‘Al’.

Very Short Answer Type Question [1 Mark] -Year 2012

39.A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a week in a bathroom. What could this green substance be?
Answer. It is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate [CuC03.Cu(0H)2].

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2012

40.Name the following:
(a) A metal, which is preserved in kerosene.
(b) A lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) A metal, which can melt while kept on palm.
(d) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer.
(a) Sodium is preserved in kerosene.
(b) Iodine is lustrous coloured non-metal.
(c) Gallium. ‘
(d) Lead.

41. Give reason for the following:
(a) Aluminium oxide is considered as an amphoteric oxide.
(b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state.
Answer.
(a) It is because it reacts with acids as well as bases to produce salts and water.’Al’ is less electropositive metal. So, it forms amphoteric oxide which can react with acid as well as base.
(b) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity in molten state because ions ’ become free to move in molten state.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2012

42. A metal ‘X’ acquires a green colour coating on its surface on exposure to air.
(i) Identify the metal ‘X’ and name the process responsible for this change.
(ii)Name and write chemical formula of the green coating formed on the metal.
(iii) List two important methods to prevent the process.
Answer.
(i) Metal is copper. The process is corrosion.
(ii)Basic copper carbonate [CuCO3.Cu(0H)2].
(iii)
• It should be coated with tin
• It should be mixed with other metals to form alloys.

43.What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the following oxides:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
Answer.Those oxides which reacts with acids as well as bases to produce salts and water are called amphoteric oxides, e.g. Na2O, ZnO, are amphoteric oxides among given oxides.

44.Define the terms:
(i) mineral
(ii) ore, and
(iii) gangue.
Answer.
(i) Mineral: It is a naturally occurring substance from which metal may or may not be extracted profitably or economically, e.g. A1 cannot be extracted profitably from mica.
(ii)Ore: It is a rocky material which contains sufficient quantity of mineral so that metal can be extracted profitably, e.g. zinc blende is an ore of zinc from which zinc can be extracted profitably.
(iii) Gangue: It is a rocky material which is present along with the mineral in the ore, e.g. FeO is gangue in extraction of copper.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks] -Year 2012

45. (a) Write the chemical name of the coating that forms on silver and copper articles when these are left exposed to moist air.
(b) Explain what is galvanisation. What purpose is served by it?
(c) Define an alloy. How are alloys prepared? How do the properties of iron change when:
(i) small quantity of carbon,
(ii) nickel and chromium are mixed with it.
Answer.
(a) Ag2S (silver sulphide) is formed on silver, basic copper carbonate CuCO3. CU(OH)2 is formed on copper.
(b) The process of coating zinc over iron is called galvanisation. It is used to prevent rusting of iron.
(c) Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals. One of them can be non-metal. Alloys are prepared by melting two or more metals together.
(?) Iron does not rust on adding small,quantity of carbon.
(ii) When we form alloy of iron with nickel and chromium, we get stainless steel which is malleable and does not get rusted.

46.(a) Carbon cannot be used as reducing agent to obtain Mg from MgO. Why?
(b) How is sodium obtained from molten sodium chloride? Give equation of the reactions.
(c) How is copper obtained from its sulphide ore? Give equations of the reactions.
Answer.
(a) It is because ‘Mg’ is stronger reducing agent than carbon.
(b) Sodium is obtained from molten NaCl by electrolysis.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 28
Blister Copper is purified by electrolytic refining.

47.Give reasons for the following:
(i) Silver and copper lose their shine when they are exposed to air. Name the substance formed on their surface in each case.
(ii) Tarnished copper vessels are cleaned with tamarind juice.
(iii) Aluminium is more reactive than iron yet there is less corrosion of aluminium as compared to iron when both are exposed to air.
Answer.
(i) These metals get corroded. Silver forms black Ag2S (silver sulphide) and copper form greenish layer of basic copper carbonate CuCO3. CU(OH)2 .
(ii) Tamarind contains acid which reacts with basic copper carbonate and product gets dissolved and removed from copper vessel.
(in) Aluminium forms oxide layer on its surface which does not further react with air.

48. What are alloys? How are they made? Name the constituents and uses of brass, bronze and solder.
Answer. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals. One of them can be a non-metal also. They are made by melting a metal which is in large amount first and then adding the other metal. ,
Brass contains copper and zinc. It is used for making decorative articles. Bronze contains copper and tin. It is used for making statues and medals. Solder contains lead and tin. It is used for soldering purposes.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2011

49. A non-metal X exists in two different forms Y and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance, whereas Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, Y and Z.
Answer. ‘X’ is carbon, ‘Y’ is diamond as it is the hardest natural substance and ‘Z’ is graphite as it is good conductor of electricity.

50. Why does calcium float in water?
Answer. It is because hydrogen gas is formed which sticks to surface of calcium, therefore it floats. –

51.Name a non-metal which is lustrous and a metal which is non-lustrous. Iodine is a non-metal which is lustrous,
Answer.lead is a non-lustrous metal.

52.Which gas is liberated when a metal reacts with an acid? How will you test the presence of this gas?
Answer. Hydrogen gas is formed. Bring a burning matchstick near to it, H2 will burn explosively with ‘pop’ sound.

53.Name the metal which reacts with a very dilute HNOs to evolve hydrogen gas.
Answer. Magnesium

54.Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Answer.(i) Gold (ii) Silver

Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2011

55.The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and iron react with air and water is an indication of their relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’. Is this statement true ? Justify your answer with examples.
Answer.Yes, sodium reacts explosively even with cold water, it is most reactive. Magnesium reacts with hot water, it is less reactive than Na. Iron reacts only with steam which shows it is least reactive among the three.

56. X + YSO4——-> XSO4+ Y
Y + XSO4 ——–> No reaction
Out of the two elements, ‘X’ and ‘Y’, which is more reactive and why?
Answer. ‘X’ is more reactive than ‘Y’ because it displaces ‘Y’ from its salt solution.

57.What is an alloy? State the constituents of solder. Which property of solder makes it suitable for welding electrical wires?
Answer. Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals. One of them can be a non-metal also. Solder consists of lead and tin. It has low melting point which makes it suitable for welding electrical wires.

58. Write chemical equations that shows aluminium oxide reacts with acid as well as base.
Answer.
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 29

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks] -Year 2011

59.(a) How can the metals at the top of the reactivity series be extracted from their ores? Explain with an example.
(b) Name any one alloy made from
(i) a metal and a non-metal, and
(ii) two metals.
Answer.
(a) These metals are extracted by electrolytic reduction, e.g. aluminium is obtained from bauxite by electrolytic reduction.
(b) (i) Steel is made up of iron and carbon.
(ii) Brass is made up of copper and zinc.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2010

60.What is the valency of silicon with atomic number 14?
Answer. Its valency is equal to 4.

61.What is the valency of phosphorus with atomic number 15?
Answer. Phosphorus has valency 3.

62.What is the valency of an element with atomic number 35?
Answer. Its valency is 1.

Short Answer Type Question[I] [2 Marks] -Year 2010

63.Elements magnesium and oxygen respectively belong to group 2 and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table. If the atomic numbers of magnesium and oxygen are 12 and 8 respectively, draw their electronic configurations and show the process of formation of their compound by transfer of electrons.
Answer.(Mg)=2,8,2
Metals and Non-Metals Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 30

Very Short Answer Type Question [1 Mark] -Year 2009

64. Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity: Na, K, Cu, Ag.
Answer. K > Na > Cu > Ag

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2009

65. Give reasons for the following observations:
(i) Ionic compounds in general have high melting and boiling points.
(ii) Highly reactive metals cannot be obtained from their oxides by heating
them with carbon.
(iii) Copper vessels get a green coat when left exposed to air in the rainy season.
Answer. (i) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points due to strong force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.
(ii) It is because these metals themselves are strong reducing agents. Therefore, cannot be reduced by reducing agent like carbon.
(iii) Copper vessels react with CO2, O2 and moisture to form green-coloured basic copper carbonate
[CuCO3.Cu(OH)2].

66. State reasons for the following observations:
(i) The shining surface of some metals becomes dull when exposed to air for a long time.
(ii) Zinc fails to evolve hydrogen gas on reacting with dilute nitric acid.
(iii) Metal sulphides occur mainly in rocks but metal halides occur mostly in sea and lake waters.
Answer.
(i) It is because metal reacts with substances present in atmosphere to form surface compounds which make it dull.
(ii) It is because dil. HNOs is an oxidising agent therefore zinc gives NO and notH2 with dil. HNOs.
(iii) It is because sea water contains sodium chloride due to which metal halides are formed, whereas sulphur is found below rocks. Therefore, metal – sulphides are formed in rocks.

67. State reasons for the following:
(i) Electric wires are covered with rubber like material.
(ii)From dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc can liberate hydrogen gas but copper cannot.
(iii) Sulphide ore of a metal is first converted to its oxide to extract the metal from it.
Answer.
(i) It is because rubber is an insulator and does not allow current to flow through it.
(ii) Zinc is more reactive than hydrogen. Therefore, it can displace hydrogen from dilute HCl whereas copper cannot, because it is less reactive than hydrogen. ,
(iii) It is because it is easier to reduce oxide ore as compared to sulphide ore.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks] -Year 2009

68.(a) What is meant by corrosion? Name any two methods used for the prevention
of corrosion.
(b) Suppose you have to extract metal M from its enriched sulphide ore. If M is in the middle of the reactivity series, write various steps used in extracting this metal.
Answer. (a) Corrosion is a process in which metal reacts with substances present in the environment to form surface compounds.
Prevention:
(i) Galvanisation is a process to prevent corrosion of iron.
(ii)Electroplating is also used to prevent corrosion.
(b)(i) Concentration of ores: Sulphide ore will be concentrated by froth- floatation process. Sulphide ore will be collected in froth whereas gangue will be left behind.
(ii) Roasslng: Sulphide ore is heated strongly in the presence of O2 to form metal oxide and sulphur dioxide.
2MS + 3O2 ————- ► 2MO + 2SO2
(iii) Reduction: MO reacts with carbon (acts as reducing agent) to form metal and CO.
MO + C —-> M + CO
(iv) Electrolytic refining: Impure metal ‘M’ is purified by electrolytic refining. Impure metal is taken as anode, pure metal is taken as cathode, soluble salt of metal is taken as electrolyte. Impure metal forms metal ions which gain electrons and form pure metal at cathode.

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Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 Probability, Probability Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Probability Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
If P(not A) = 0.7, P(B) = 0.7 and P(B/A) = 0.5, then find P(A/B). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 1

Question 2.
A die marked 1, 2, 3 in red and 4, 5, 6 in green is tossed. Let A be the event ‘number is even’ and B be the event ‘number is marked red’. Find whether the events A and B are independent or not. (Delhi 2019)
Or
A die, whose faces are marked 1,2, 3 in red and 4, 5, 6 in green , is tossed. Let A be the event “number obtained is even” and B be the event “number obtained is red”. Find if A and B are independent events. (All India 2017)
Answer:
When a die is thrown, the sample space is
S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
⇒ n(S) = 6
Also, A: number is even and B: number is red.
∴ A = {2, 4, 6} and B = {1, 2, 3} and A ∩ B = {2}
⇒ n(A) = 3, n(B) = 3 and n(A ∩ B) = 1
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 2
Thus, A and B are not independent events.

Question 3.
A black and a red die are rolled together. Find the conditional probability of obtaining the sum 8, given that the red die resulted in a number less than 4. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Let us denote the numbers on black die by B1, B2, ……., B6 and the numbers on red die by R1, R2, ….., R6.
Then, we get the following sample space.
s = {(B1, R1) ,(B1, R2), ……., (B1, R6), (B2, R2), ………, (B6, B1), (B6, B2), ……., (B6,R6)
Clearly, n(S) = 36
Now, let A be the event that sum of number obtained on the die is 8 and B be the event that red die shows a number less than 4.
Then, A = {(B2, R6), (B6,R2), (B3,R5), (B5,R3), (B4,R4)}
and B = {(B1, R1), (B1,R2), (B1,R3), (B2,R1), (B2,R2), (B2,R3) ,…….., (B6,R1), (B6,R2), (B6,R3)}
⇒ A ∩ B = {(B6, R2), (B5, R3)}
Now, required probability,
p\(\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)\) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{\frac{2}{36}}{\frac{18}{36}}=\frac{2}{18}=\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 4.
Evaluate P(A ∪ B), if 2P (A) = P(B) = \(\frac{5}{13}\) and P(A/ B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\). (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 3

Question 5.
Prove that if E and F are independent events, then the events E and F’ are also independent. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, E and F are independent events, therefore
⇒ PE( ∩ F) = P(E) P(F) …….. (i)
Now, we have,
P(E ∩ F’) + P(E ∩ F) = P(E)
P(E ∩ F’) = P(E) – P(E ∩ F)
P(E ∩ F’) = P(E) – P(E ) P(F) [using Eq. (i))
P(E ∩ F’) = P(E) [1 – P(F)]
P (E ∩ F’) = P(E ) P(F’)
∴ E and F ‘are also independent events.
Hence proved.

Question 6.
A and B throw a pair of dice alternately. A wins the game, if he gets a total of 7 and B wins the game, if he gets a total of 10. If A starts the game, then find the probability that B wins. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Here, n(S) = 6 × 6 = 36
Let A = Event of getting a sum of 7 in pair of dice = {(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (6, 1), (5, 2), (4, 3)}
⇒ n(A) = 6
and B = Event of getting a sum of 10 in pair of dice = {(4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4)} ⇒ n(B) = 3
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 4
Now, the probability that if A start the game, then B wins
P(B wins) = P(Ā ∩ B) + P (Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā ∩ B) + P(Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā ∩ B) + …
= P(Ā) P(B) + P(Ā)P(B̄)P(Ā)P(B) + P(Ā)P(B̄)P(Ā)P(B̄)P(Ā) P(B) + ….. (1)
[∵ events are independent]
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 5

Question 7.
A and B throw a pair of dice alternately, till one of them gets a total of 10 and wins the game. Find their respective probabilities of winning, if A starts first. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Here, n(s) = 6 × 6 = 36
Let E = Event of getting a total 10
= {(4, 6), (5, 5), (6,4)}
∴ n(E) = 3
∴ P(getting a total of 10) = P(E) = \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{36}=\frac{1}{12}\)
and P(not getting a total of 10) = P(Ē)
1 – P(E) = 1 – \(\frac{1}{12}\) = \(\frac{1}{11}\)
Thus, P(A getting 10) = \(\frac{1}{12}\) and P(B getting 10) and P(A is not getting 10) = P(B is not getting 10) = \(\frac{11}{12}\)
Now, P(A winning) = = P(Ā ∩ B) + P (Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā) + P(Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā ∩ B̄ ∩ Ā) + …
= P(Ā) + P(Ā)P(B̄)P(A) + P(Ā)P(B̄)P(Ā)P(B̄)P(A) + ……..
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 6

Question 8.
Probabilities of solving a specific problem independently by A and B are \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{1}{3}\), respectively. If both try to solve problem independently, then find the probability that
(i) problem is solved.
(ii) exactly one of them solves the problem. (All India 2015C, Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The problem is solved means atleast one of them solve it. Also, use the concept A and B are independent events, then their complements are also independent.
Let P(A) = Probability that A solves the problem
P(B) = Probability that B solves the problem
P(Ā) = Probability that A does not solve the problem
and P(Ā) = Probability that B does not solve the problem.
According to the question, we have
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 7

(i) P (problem is solved)
= P (A ∩ B̄) + P(Ā ∩ B) + P (A ∩ B)
= P(A) ∙ P(B̄) + P(Ā) ∙ P(B) + P(A) ∙ P(B)
[∵ A and B are independent events]
= \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)\)
= \(\frac{2}{6}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Hence, probability that the problem is solved, is \(\frac{2}{3}\).

(ii) P (exactly one of them solve the problem)
= P (A solve but B do not solve) + P (A do not solve but B solve)
= P(A ∩ B̄) + P(Ā ∩ B)
= P(A) ∙ P(B̄) + P(Ā) ∙ P(B)
= \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)\) = \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}\right)\) = \(\frac{2}{6}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Alternate Method
P (problem is solved)
= 1 – P (none of them solve the problem)
= 1 – P(Ā ∩ B̄)
= l – P(Ā) ∙ P(B̄) = 1 – \(\left(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}\right)\)
∵ P(Ā) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(B̄) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

(ii) P (exactly one of them solve the problem)
= P(A) + P(B) – 2P(A ∩ B)
= P(A) + P(B) – 2P(A) × P(A)
= \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-2 \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{3}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
A couple has 2 children. Find the probability that both are boys, if it is known that
(i) one of them is a boy.
(ii) the older child is a boy. (Delhi 2014C, All India 2014, 2010)
Answer:
Firstly, write the sample space of given data. Then, use concept of conditional probability
P(A / B) = \(\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}\) to get the desired result.

Let B and b represent older and younger boy child. Also, let G and g represent older and younger girl child. The sample space of the given question is S = {Bb, Bg, Gg, Gb}
∴ n(S) = 4
Let A be the event that both children are boys.
Then, A = {Bb}
∴ n(A) = 1

(i) Let B : Atleast one of the children is a boy
∴ B = {Bb, Bg, Gb} and n(B) = 3
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 8

(ii) Let C : The older child is a boy.
Then, C = {Bb, Bg}
∴ n(C) = 2
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 9

Question 10.
Assume that each born child is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. If a family has two children, then what is the conditional probability that both are girls? Given that
(i) the youngest is a girl?
(ii) atleast one is a girl? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Let B and b represent elder and younger boy child. Also, G and g represent elder and younger girl child. If a family has two children, then all possible cases are
S = {Bb, Bg, Gg, Gb}
∴ n(S) = 4
Let us define event A : Both children are girls, then A = {Gg} ⇒ n(A) = 1
(i) Let E1 : The event that youngest child is a girl.
Then, E1 = {Bg, Gg} and n(E1) = 2
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 10

(ii) Let E2: The event that atleast one is girl.
Then, E2 = {Eg, Gg, Gb} ⇒ n(E2) = 3,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 11

Question 11.
A speaks truth in 75% of the cases, while B in 90% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact? Do you think that statement of B is true? (All India 2013)
Answer:
Let AT: Event that A speaks truth
and BT: Event that B speaks truth.
Given, P(AT) = \(\frac{75}{100}\), then P(ĀT) = 1 – \(\frac{75}{100}\)
[∵ P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)]
= \(\frac{25}{100}\)
and P(BT) = \(\frac{90}{100}\)
Then, P(B̄T) = 1 – \(\frac{90}{100}\) = \(\frac{10}{100}\)
Now, P (A and B are contradict to each other)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 12
∴ Percentage of P (A and B are contradict to each other) = \(\frac{3}{10}\) × 100 = 30%
Since, B speaks truth in only 90% (i.e. not 100%) of the cases, therefore we think, the statement of B may be false.

Question 12.
P speaks truth in 70% of the cases and Q in 80% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to agree in stating the same fact? Do you think, when they agree, means both are speaking truth? (All India 2013)
Answer:
Let pT: Event that P speaks truth
and QT: Event that Q speaks truth.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 13
No, agree does not mean that they are speaking truth.

Question 13.
A speaks truth in 60% of the cases, while B in 90% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact? In the cases of contradiction do you think, the statement of B will carry more weight as he speaks truth in more number of cases than A? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
42% Yes

Question 14.
If A and B are two independent events such that P(Ā ∩ B) = \(\frac{2}{15}\) and (A ∩ B̄) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), then find P (A) and P (B). (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Given, A and B are two independent events with
P(Ā ∩ B) = \(\frac{2}{15}\) and P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{1}{6}\).
We know that, if A and B are independent, then Ā, B and A, B̄ are independent events.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 14

Question 15.
Consider the experiment of tossing a coin. If the coin shows head, toss it again, but if it shows tail, then throw a die. Find the conditional probability of the event that ‘the die shows a number greater than 4’, given that ‘there is atleast one tail’. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
The sample space S of the experiment is given as
S = {(H, H), (H, T), (T, 1), (T, 2), (T, 3), (T, 4), (T, 5), (T, 6)}
The probabilities of these elementary events are
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 15
The outcomes of the experiment can be represented in the following tree diagram.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 16
Consider the following events:
A = the die shows a number greater than 4 and
B = there is atleast one tail.
We have, A = {(T, 5), (T, 6)},
B = {(H, T), (T, 1), (T, 2), (T, 3), (T, 4), (T, 5), (T, 6)}
and A ∩ B = {(T, 5), (T, 6)}
∴ P(B) = P((H, T)) + P((T, 1)) + P((T, 2)) + P((T, 3)) + P((T, 4)) + P((T, 5)) + P((T, 6))
⇒ P(B) = \(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{3}{4}\)
and P(A ∩ B) = P((T, 5)) + P((T, 6)) = \(\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{1}{6}\)
∴ Required probability
= \(P\left(\frac{A}{B}\right)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{1 / 6}{3 / 4}=\frac{4}{18}=\frac{2}{9}\)

Topic 2: Baye’s Theorem and Probability Distributions

Question 1.
Find the probability distribution of X, the number of heads in a simultaneous toss of two coins. (All India 2019)
Answer:
When two coins are tossed, there may be 1 head, 2 heads or no head at all. Thus, the possible values of X are 0, 1, 2.
Now, P(X = 0) = P (Getting no head) = P(TT) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
P(X = 1) = P (Getting one head) = P(HT or TH) = \(\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)
P(X = 2) = P (getting two heads) = P(HH) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Thus, the required probability distribution of X is
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 17

Question 2.
The random variable X has a probability distribution P(X) of the following form, where ‘k’ is some number.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 18
Determine the value of ‘k’. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 19
Making it in tabular format, we get the following
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 20
Since, sum of all probabilities is equal to 1. (112)
ΣP(X = x) = 1
⇒ P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + 0 + 0 + ……. = 1
⇒ k + 2k + 3k = 1
⇒ 6k = 1 ⇒ k = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 3.
Suppose a girl throws a the. If she gets 1 or 2, she tosses a coin three times and notes the number of tails. If she gets 3, 4, 5 or 6, she tosses a coin once and notes whether a ‘head’ or ‘tail’ is obtained. If she obtained exactly one ‘tail’, what is the probability that she threw 3, 4, 5 or 6 with the die? (C8SE 2019)
Answer:
Let E1 be the event that the girl gets 1 or 2.
E2 be the event that the girl gets 3, 4, 5 or 6
and A be the event that the girl gets exactly a ‘tail’.
Then, P(E1) = \(\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)
and P(E2) = \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)
\(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{1}}\right)\) = P (getting exactly one tail when a coin is tossed three times) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)
\(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{2}}\right)\) = P (getting exactly a tail when a coin is tossed once) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Now, required probability
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 21

Question 4.
Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from the first five positive integers. Let X denotes the larger of the two numbers obtained. Find the mean and variance of X. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Total number of possible outcomes
= 5P2 = \(\frac{5 !}{3 !}\) = 5 × 4 = 20
Here, X denotes the larger of two numbers obtained.
∴ X can take values 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Now, P(X = 2) = P (getting ( 1. 2) or (2, 1)) = \(\frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10}\)
P(X = 3) = P (getting (1, 3) or (3, 1) or (2, 3) or (3, 2) = \(\frac{4}{20}=\frac{2}{10}\)
P(X = 4) = P(getting(1,4) or (4, 1)or (2, 4) or (4, 2) or (3, 4) or (4, 3)) = \(\frac{6}{20}=\frac{3}{10}\)
and P(X = 5) = P (getting (1, 5) or (5, 1) or (2, 5) or (5, 2) or (3, 5) or (5, 3) or (4, 5) or (5, 4))
= \(\frac{8}{20}=\frac{4}{10}\)
Thus, the probability distribution of X is
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 22
Now, mean of X is E(X) = Σ X ∙ P(X)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 23

Question 5.
Two groups are competing for the positions of the Board of Directors of a corporation. The probabilities that the first and second groups will win are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. Further, if the first group wins, the probability of introducing a new product is 0.7 and the corresponding probability is 0.3 if the second group wins. Find the probability that the new product introduced way by the second group. (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Let E1 and E2 denote the events that first and second group will win. Then,
P(E1) = 0.6 and P(E2) = 0.4
Let E be the event of introducing the new product.
Then, P\(\left(\frac{E}{E_{1}}\right)\) = 0.7 and P\(\left(\frac{E}{E_{2}}\right)\) = 0.3
Now, we have to find the probability that new product is introduced by second event.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 24

Question 6.
The random variable X can take only the values 0, 1, 2, 3. Given that
P(X = 0) = P(X = 1) = p and
P(X = 2) = P (X = 3) such that
Σpixi2 = 2Σpixi, find the value of P. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, X = 0, 1, 2, 3 and
P(X = 0) = P(X = 1) = p, P(X = 2) = P(X = 3)
such that Σpixi2 = 2Σpixi
Now, Σpi = 1
⇒ p0 + p1 + p2 + p3 = 1
⇒ p + p + x + x = 1
[let P(X = 2) = P(X = 3) = x]
⇒ 2p + 2x = 1
⇒ 2x = 1 – 2p
⇒ x = \(\frac{1-2 p}{2}\)
The probability distribution of X is given by
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 25

Question 7.
There are 4 cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7, one number on one card. Two cards are drawn at random without replacement. Let X denote the sum of the numbers on the two drawn cards. Find the mean and variance of X. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Here, S = {(1, 3), (1, 5), 1, 7), (3, 1), (3, 5), (3, 7), (5, 1), (5, 3), (5, 7), (7,1), (7, 3), (7, 5)}
⇒ n(S) = 12
Let random variable X denotes the sum of the numbers on two cards drawn. So, the random variables X may have values 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12.
At X = 4, P(X) = \(\frac{2}{12}=\frac{1}{6}\)
At X = 6, P(X) = \(\frac{2}{12}=\frac{1}{6}\)
At X = 8, P(X) = \(\frac{4}{12}=\frac{1}{3}\)
At X = 10, P(X) = \(\frac{2}{12}=\frac{1}{6}\)
At X = 12, P(X) = \(\frac{2}{12}=\frac{1}{6}\)
Therefore, the required probability distribution is as follows
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 26

Question 8.
Three persons A, B and C apply for a job of Manager in a private company. Chances of their selection (A, B and C) are in the ratio 1:2:4. The probabilities that A, B and C can introduce changes to improve profits of the company are 0.8, 0.5 and 0.3, respectively. If the change does not take place, find the probability that it is due to the appointment of C. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Let us define the following events
A = selecting person A
B = selecting person B
C = selecting person C
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 27

Question 9.
A bag X contains 4 white balls and 2 black balls, while another bag Y contains 3 white balls and 3 black balls. Two balls are drawn (without replacement) at random from one of the bags and were found to be one white and one black. Find the probability that the balls were drawn from bag Y. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Let us define the following events:
E1 : Bag X is selected
E2 : Bag Y is selected
and E: Getting one white and one black ball in a draw of two balls.
Here, P(E1) = P(E2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
[∵ probability of selecting each bag is equal]
Now, \(P\left(\frac{E}{E_{1}}\right)\) = Probability of drawing one white and one black ball from bag X
= \(\frac{{ }^{4} C_{1} \times{ }^{2} C_{1}}{{ }^{6} C_{2}}=\frac{4 \times 2}{\frac{6 \times 5}{2 \times 1}}=\frac{16}{6 \times 5}=\frac{8}{15}\)
and \(P\left(\frac{E}{E_{2}}\right)\) = Probability of drawing one white and one black ball from bag Y
= \(\frac{{ }^{3} C_{1} \times{ }^{3} C_{1}}{{ }^{6} C_{2}}=\frac{3 \times 3}{\frac{6 \times 5}{2 \times 1}}=\frac{3}{5}\)
∴ The probability that the one white and one black balls are drawn from bag Y,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 28

Question 10.
In a game, a man wins ₹ 5 for getting a number greater than 4 and loses ₹ 1 otherwise, when a fair die is thrown. The man decided to throw a die thrice but to quit as and when he gets a number greater than 4. Find the expected value of the amount he wins/loses. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Let X be a random variable that denotes the amount received by the man. Then, X can take values 5, 4, 3 and – 3.
Now, P(X = 5) = P (getting a number greater than 4 in the first throw) = \(\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)

P(X = 4) = P (getting a number less than or equal to 4 in the first throw and getting a number greater than 4 in the second throw) = \(\frac{4}{6} \times \frac{2}{6}=\frac{2}{9}\).

P(X = 3) = P (getting a number less than or equal to 4 in first two throws and getting a number greater than 4 in the third throw) = \(\frac{4}{6} \times \frac{4}{6} \times \frac{2}{6}=\frac{4}{27}\)

and P(X = – 3) = P (getting a number less than or equal to 4 in all three throws)
= \(\frac{4}{6} \times \frac{4}{6} \times \frac{4}{6}=\frac{8}{27}\)
Thus, the probability distribution of X is

Question 11.
A bag contains 4 balls. Two balls are drawn at random (without replacement) and are found to be white. What is the probability that all the balls in the bag are white? (All India 2016, 2014C)
Answer:
Let A : Two drawn balls are white
E1 : All the balls are white
E2 : Three balls are white
E3 : Two balls are white
Since, E1, E2 and E3 are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events.
∴ P(E1) = P(E2) = P(E3) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 29

Question 12.
Let X denote the number of colleges where you will apply after your results and P(X = x) denotes your probability of getting admission in x number of colleges. It is given that
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 30
where k is a positive constant. Find the value of k. Also, find the probability that you will get admission in
(i) exactly one college
(ii) at most 2 colleges
(iii) at least 2 colleges. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
We have,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 31
We know that, sum of ah the probabilities of a distribution is always 1.
∴ P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + …….. = 1
⇒ 0 + k + 4k + 2k + k + 0 + 0 + ………. = 1
⇒ 8k = 1 ⇒ k = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 32
∴ (i) P (getting admission in exactly one college)
= P(X = 1) = \(\frac{1}{8}\) [using (i)]

(ii) P(getting admission in at most 2 colleges)
= P(X ≤ 2)
= P(X= 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)
= 0 + \(\frac{1}{8}+\frac{2}{4}=\frac{5}{8}\)

(iii) P (getting admission in at least 2 colleges)
= P(X ≥ 2) = 1 – P(X < 2)
= 1 – [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1))
= 1 – [0 + \(\frac{1}{8}\)] = 1 – \(\frac{1}{8}=\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 13.
A bag A contains 4 black and 6 red balls and bag B contains 7 black and 3 red balls. A die is thrown. If 1 or 2 appears on it, then bag A is chosen, otherwise bag B. If two balls are drawn at random (without replacement) from the selected bag, find the probability of one of them being red and another black. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Given, bag A = 4 black and 6 red balls
bag B = 7 black and 3 red balls.
Let E1 = The event that die show 1 or 2
E2 = The event that die show 3 or 4 or 5 or 6
E = The event that among two drawn balls, one of them is red and other is black
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 33

Question 14.
Three machines E1, E2 and E3 in a certain factory producing electric bulbs, produce 50%, 25% and 25% respectively, of the total daily output of electric bulbs. It is known that 4% of the bulbs produced by each of machines E1 and E2 are defective and that 5% of those produced by machine E3 are defective. If one bulb is picked up at random from a day’s production, calculate the probability that it is defective. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Let A1 : Event that the bulb is produced by machine E1
A2 : Event that the bulb is produced by machine E2
A3 : Event Chat the bulb is produced by machine E3
A: Event that the picked up bulb is defective
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 34

Question 15.
Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from positive integers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7. Let X denote the larger of the two numbers obtained. Find the mean and variance of the probability distribution of X. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given, X denotes larger of the two numbers be obtained.
Obviously X can values 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.
Now,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 35
Therefore, required probability distribution is as follows
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 36
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 37

Question 16.
From a lot of 15 bulbs which include 5 defectives, a sample of 2 bulbs is drawn at random (without replacement). Find the probability distribution of the number of defective bulbs. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
It is given that out of 15 bulbs, 5 are defective.
∴ Number of non-defective bulbs = 15 – 5 = 10
Let X be the random variable which denotes the defective bulbs. So, X may take values 0, 1, 2
P(X = 0) = P (No defective bulb)
= \(\frac{10}{15} \times \frac{9}{14}=\frac{90}{210}=\frac{9}{21}\)
[∵ bulb is drawn without replacement]
P(X = 1) = P (One defective bulb and one non defective bulb)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 38

Question 17.
Three cards are drawn at random (without replacement) from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability distribution of number of red cards. Hence, find the mean of the distribution. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Let X be a random variable that denotes number of red cards in three draws.
Here, X can take values 0, 1, 2, 3.
Now, P(X = 0) = P (getting all black cards)
= \(\frac{{ }^{26} C_{3}}{{ }^{52} C_{3}}=\frac{26}{52} \times \frac{25}{51} \times \frac{24}{50}=\frac{2}{17}\)
P(X = 1) = P (getting one red card and two black cards)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 39

Question 18.
A class has 15 students whose ages are 14, 17, 15, 14, 21, 17, 19, 20, 16, 18, 20, 17, 16, 19 and 20 years. One student is selected in such a manner that each has the same chance of being chosen and the age X of the selected student is recorded. What is the probability distribution of the random variable XI Find the mean of X. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Firstly, find the probability of respective ages and make a probability distribution tabLe then using the formula
Mean (X) = ΣX ∙ P(X), calculate mean.
Here, total students = 15
The ages of students in ascending order are
14, 14, 15, 16, 16, 17, 17, 17, 18, 19, 19, 20, 20, 20 and 21.
Now,
P(X = 14) = \(\frac{2}{15}\),
P(X = 15) = \(\frac{1}{15}\),
P(X = 16) = \(\frac{2}{15}\),
P(X = 17) = \(\frac{3}{15}\),
P(X = 18) = \(\frac{1}{15}\),
P(X = 19) = \(\frac{2}{15}\),
P(X = 20) = \(\frac{3}{15}\),
P(X = 21) = \(\frac{1}{15}\)
Therefore, the probability distribution of random variable X is as follows
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 40
∴ Mean(X) = ΣX ∙ P(X)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 41

Question 19.
A bag contains 3 red and 7 black balls. Two balls are selected at random one by one without replacement. If the second selected ball happens to be red, what is the probability that the first selected ball is also red? (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let E1: First ball is red, E2: First ball is black
A: Second ball is red (1)
Total number of balls is 10.
Then, P(E1) = \(\frac{3}{10}\), P(E2) = \(\frac{7}{10}\)
∴ \(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{1}}\right)=\frac{2}{9}\) and \(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{2}}\right)=\frac{3}{9}\)
Then, by Baye’s theorem, probability of second selected ball is red when first selected ball is also red is given by
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 42
Hence, the probability that the first selected ball is red, is \(\frac{2}{9}\).

Question 20.
An urn contains 4 white and 6 red balls. Four balls are drawn at random (without replacement) from the urn. Find the probability distribution of the number of white balls. (Delhi 2012c)
Answer:
Let X be a random variable that denotes the number of white balls in a draw of 4 balls. Then, X can take values of 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Clearly, P (X = 0) = P (getting no white ball)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 43

Question 21.
Two cards are drawn simultaneously (without replacement) from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the mean and variance of number of red cards. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Firstly, find the pobability distribution table of number of red cards. Then, using this table, find the mean and variance.
Let X be the number of red cards. Then, X can take values 0, 1 and 2.
Now, P(X = 0) = p (having no red card)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 44
Now, we know that, mean = Σx ∙ P(x)
and variance = Σx2 ∙ P(x) – [Σx ∙ P(X)]2
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 45
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 46

Question 22.
Find the mean number of heads in three tosses of a coin. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, we write the probability distribution table for the given experiment. Then, we find mean by using formula
Mean = ΣXiP(xi).
Let X = Number of heads when a corn is tossed three times.
Sample space of given experiment is
S = {HHH, TTT, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, HTT}
X can take values 0, 1, 2 and 3.
Now, P(X = 0) = P (no head occur) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
P(X = 1) = P (one head occur) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)
P(X = 2) = P (two heads occur) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)
P(X = 3) = P (three heads occur) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
∴ The probability distribution is as follows
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 47
Now, for finding mean
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 48

Question 23.
A random variable X has following probability distributions:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 49
Find (i) k (ii) P(X < 3) (iii) P(X > 6) (iv) P (0 < X < 3). (All India 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, use the result that sum of all the probabilities of an experiment is one. Find k and then find other values by using this value of k.
(i) We know that, the sum of a probability distribution of random variable is one,
i.e. ΣP(X) = 1
0 + k + 2k + 2k + 3k + k2 + 2k2 + 7k2 + k = 1
10k2 + 9k – 1 = 0
10k2 + 10k – k – 1 = 0
10k(k + 1) – 1(k + 1) = 0
(10k -1) (k + 1) = 0
k = \(\frac{1}{10}\) or – 1
But k = – 1 is rejected because probability cannot be negative.
∴ k = \(\frac{1}{10}\)

(ii) P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)
= 0 + k + 2k = 3k
= \(3\left(\frac{1}{10}\right)\) [∵ k = \(\frac{1}{10}\)]
= \(\frac{3}{10}\)

Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 50

Question 24.
Find the probability distribution of number of doublets in three tosses of a pair of dice. (All India 2011C; Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
We know that, when a pair of dice is thrown, then total number of outcomes = 36
Also, probability of getting a doublet in one throw = \(\frac{6}{36}\) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)
[∵ doublets in pair of dice are (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5) and(6, 6)]
∴ Probability of not getting a doublet
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Let X = Number of doublets in three tosses of pair of dice
So, X can take values 0, 1, 2 and 3.
Now, P(X = 0) = P (not getting a doublet)
= \(\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6}=\frac{125}{216}\)
P(X = 1) = P (getting a doublet once only)
= (getting a doublet in 1st throw) + P (getting a doublet in 2nd throw) + P (getting a doublet in 3rd throw)
= \(\left(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6}\right)+\left(\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6}\right)+\left(\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{1}{6}\right)\)
= \(\frac{25}{216}+\frac{25}{216}+\frac{25}{216}=\frac{75}{216}\)
P(X = 2) = P (getting a doublet two times)
= P (doublet in 1st and 2nd throw) + P (doublet in 2nd and 3rd throw) + P (doublet in 1st and 3rd throw)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 51

Question 25.
Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of number of aces. (Delhi 2011c)
Answer:
Let X = Number of aces
Since, two cards are drawn, so X can take values 0, 1 and 2.
Now, probability of getting an ace = \(\frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{13}\) and probability of not getting an ace
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 52

Question 26.
Two cards are drawn simultaneously (without replacement) from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of number of aces. Also, find the mean of distribution. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Let X denotes the number of ace cards. Since, two cards are drawn, so X can take values 0, 1 and 2.
We know that, probability of getting an ace card
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 53
The probability distribution is as follows
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 54

Question 27.
There are two bags, bag I and bag II. Bag I contains 4 white and 3 red balls while another bag II contains 3 white and 7 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and it is found to be white. Find the probability that it was drawn from bag I. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Let E1 be the event that Bag I is chosen,
E2 be the event that Bag II is chosen,
and A be the event that the drawn ball is white.
Then, P (E1) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
P(E2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
p(A/E1) = \(\frac{4}{7}\),
and P(A/E2) = \(\frac{3}{10}\),
Now, (required probability = P(E1/A)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 55

Question 28.
There are three coins. One is two-headed coin, another is biased coin that comes up heads 75% of the time and the third is an unbiased coin. One of three coins is chosen at random and tossed. If it shows heads, what is the probability that it is the two-headed coin? (All India 2019)
Answer:
Let E1 event of selecting two headed coin
E2 = event of selecting biased coin
E3 = event of selecting unbiased coin
A event of getting head
Then, P(E1) = P(E2) = P(E3) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 56

Question 29.
A bag contains 5 red and 4 black balls, a second bag contains 3 red and 6 black balls. One of the two bags is selected at random and two balls are drawn at random (without replacement) both of which are found to be red. Find the probability that the balls are drawn from the second bag. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Let E1, E2 and A denote the following events
E1 = first bag is chosen, E2 = second bag is chosen and A = two balls drawn at random are red.
Since, one of the bag is chosen at random.
∴ P(E1) = P(E2) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
If E1 has already occurred, i.e. first bag is chosen.
Therefore, the probability of drawing two red balls in this case
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 57

Question 30.
A manufacturer has three machine operators A, B and C. The first operator A produces 1% of defective items, whereas the other two operators B and C produces 5% and 7% defective items respectively. A is on the job for 50% of the time, B on the job 30% of the time and C on the job for 20% of the time. All the items are put into one stockpile and then one items is chosen at random from this and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it was produced by A? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let A: Event that item produced by operator A
B: Event that item produced by operator B
C: Event that item produced by operator C
D: Event that item produced is defective
We need to find out the probability that item is produced by operator A if it is defective, i.e. P(A/D)
so,
P(A/D) = \(\frac{P(A) \cdot P(D / A)}{P(A) \cdot P(D / A)+P(B) \cdot P(D / B)+P(C) \cdot P(D / C)}\) ….. (i)
[by Baye’s theorem]
P(A) = Probability of item is produced by operator A
= 50% = \(\frac{50}{100}\) = 0.5
P(B) = Probability of item is produced by operator B
= 30% = \(\frac{30}{100}\) = 0.3
P(C) = Probability of item is produced by operator C
= 20% = \(\frac{20}{100}\) = 0.2
P(D/A) = Probability of a defective item produced by operator A
= 1% = \(\frac{1}{100}\) = 0.01
P(D/B) = Probability of a defective item produced by operator B
= 5% = \(\frac{5}{100}\) = 0.05
P(D / C) = Probability of a defective item produced by operator C
= 7% = \(\frac{7}{100}\) = 0.07
Putting these values in the Eq.(i), we get
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 58
Therefore, required probability = \(\frac{5}{34}\).

Question 31.
Two cards are drawn simultaneously (or successively without replacement) from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the mean and variance of the number of kings. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let X be the number of kings obtained.
We can get 0, 1 or 2 kings.
So, value of X is 0, 1 or 2.
Total number of ways to draw 2 cards out of 52
i.e. Total ways = 52C2 = 1326
P(X = 0)
i.e. Probability of getting 0 king
Number of ways to get 0 king
= Number of ways to select 2 cards out of non-king cards
= Number of ways to select 2 cards out of (52 – 4)
= 48 cards = 48C2 = 1128
P(X = 0) = \(\frac{\text { Number of ways to get } 0 \text { king }}{\text { Total number of ways }}\) = \(\frac{1128}{1326}\)
P(X = 1) i.e. Probability of getting 1 king
Number of ways to get 1 king
= Number of ways to select 1 king out of 4 king cards × Number of ways to select 1 card from 48 non-king cards
= 4C1 × 48c1 = 4 × 48 = 192;
P(X = 1) = \(\frac{\text { Number of ways to get } 1 \text { king }}{\text { Total number of ways }}\) = \(\frac{192}{1326}\)
P(X = 2), i.e. Probability of getting 2 kings
Number of ways to get 2 king
= Number of ways of selecting 2 kings out of 4 king cards
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 59

Question 32.
Three numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from first six positive integers. Let X denotes the largest of the three numbers obtained. Find the probability distribution of X. Also, find the mean and variance of the distribution. (All India 2016)
Answer:
We have, first six positive integers as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and let X denotes the largest of the three positive integers.
So, the random variable X may have values 3, 4, 5 or 6.
P(X = 3) = P [getting 3 and two numbers less than 3]
= \(\frac{{ }^{1} C_{1} \times{ }^{2} C_{2}}{{ }^{6} C_{3}}=\frac{1}{20}\)
P(X = 4) = P [getting 3 and two numbers less than 4]
= \(\frac{{ }^{1} C_{1} \times{ }^{3} C_{2}}{{ }^{6} C_{3}}=\frac{3}{20}\)
P(X = 5) = P [getting 3 and two numbers less than 5]
= \(\frac{{ }^{1} C_{1} \times{ }^{4} C_{2}}{{ }^{6} C_{3}}=\frac{6}{20}\)
P(X = 6) = P [getting 3 and two numbers less than 6]
= \(\frac{{ }^{1} C_{1} \times{ }^{5} C_{2}}{{ }^{6} C_{3}}=\frac{10}{20}\)
∴ The probability distribution is shown below
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 60

Question 33.
Bag A contains 3 red and 5 black balls, while bag B contains 4 red and 4 black balls. Two balls are transferred at random from bag A to bag B and then a ball is drawn from bag B at random. If the ball drawn from bag B is found to be red, find the probability that two red balls were transferred from A to B. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 61
Let us define the following events:
E1 = one red and one black ball is transferred
E2 = two red balls are transferred
E3 = two black balls arc transferred
E = drawn ball is red.
Then,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 62

Question 34.
In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 30%, 50% and 20% of the bolts. Of their outputs, 3%, 4% and 1% respectively are defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random from the product and is found to be defective. Find the probability that this is not manufactured by machine B. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Let E1 : Event that the selected bolt is manufactured by machine A.
E2 : Event that the selected bolt is manufactured by machine B,
E3 : Event that the selected bolt is manufactured by machine C,
and E : Event that the selected bolt is defective.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 63

Question 35.
In answering a question on a multiple choice test, a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let \(\frac{3}{5}\) be the probability that he knows the answer and \(\frac{2}{5}\) be the probability that he guesses.
Assuming that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with probability \(\frac{1}{3}\), what is the probability that the student knows the answer given that he answered it correctly? (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Let E1: Event that the student knows the answer
E2: Event that the student guesses the answer
E: Event that the answer is correct
Here, E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events.
∴ P(E1) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and P(E2) = \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Now, \(P\left(\frac{E}{E_{1}}\right)\) = P (the student answered correctly, given he knows the answer) = 1
\(P\left(\frac{E}{E_{2}}\right)\) = P (the student answered correctly, given he guesses) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
The probability that the student knows the answer given that he answered it correctly is given by \(P\left(\frac{E_{1}}{E}\right)\).
By using Baye’s theorem, we get
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 64

Question 36.
A bag contains 4 red and 4 black balls, another bag contains 2 red and 6 black balls. One of the two bags is selected at random and two balls are drawn at random without replacement from the bag and are found to be both red. Find the probability that the balls are drawn from the first bag. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
\(\frac{6}{7}\)

Question 37.
Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from the first six positive integers. Let X denotes the larger of the two numbers obtained. Find the probability distribution of the random variable X and hence, find the mean of the distribution. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 65
and mean = \(\frac{14}{3}\)

Question 38.
There are three coins. One is a two headed coin (having head on both faces), another is a biased coin that comes up heads 75% of the times and third is also a biased coin that comes up tails 40% of the times. One of the three coins is chosen at random and tossed and it shows head. What is the probability that it was the two headed coin? (All India 2014)
Answer:
\(\frac{20}{47}\)

Question 39.
In a game, a man wins rupees five for a six and loses rupee one for any other number, when a fair die is thrown. The man decided to throw a die thrice but to quit as and when he gets a six. Find the expected value of the amount he wins/loses. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
0

Question 40.
An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and 6000 truck drivers. The probabilities of an accident for them are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15 respectively. One of the insured persons meets with an accident. What is the probability that he is a scooter driver or a car driver? (Foreign 2014; All India 2009C)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Insured person is a scooter driver
E2 : Insured person is a car driver
E3 : Insured person is a truck driver
A : Insured person meets with an accident
Then, n(E1) = 2000, n(E2) = 4000 and n(E3) = 6000
Here, total insured person, n(S) =12000
Now, P(E1) = Probability that the insured person is a scooter driver = \(\frac{n\left(E_{1}\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{2000}{12000}=\frac{1}{6}\)
n(S) 12000 6 (1)
P(E2) = Probability that the insured person is a car driver = \(\frac{n\left(E_{2}\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{4000}{12000}=\frac{1}{3}\)
and P(E3) = Probability that the insured person is a truck driver = \(\frac{n\left(E_{3}\right)}{n(S)}=\frac{6000}{12000}=\frac{1}{2}\)
Also, P(A/E1) = Probability that scooter driver meets with an accident 0.01
P(A/E2) = Probability that car driver meets with an accident = 0.03
and P(A/E3) = Probability that truck driver meets with an accident = 0.15
The probability that the person met with an accident was a scooter driver,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 66
The probability that the person met with an accident was a car driver, P(E2 / A)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 67

Question 41.
A man is known to speak the truth 3 out of 5 times. He throws a die and reports that it is ‘1’. Find the probability that it is actually 1. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let E1 = Event that 1 occurs in a die
E2 = Event that 1 does not occur in a die
A = Event that the man reports that 1 occur in a die
Then, P(E1) = \(\frac{1}{6}\) and P(E2) = \(\frac{5}{6}\)
∴ P (man reports that I occurs when 1 occur) = \(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{1}}\right)=\frac{3}{5}\)
and P (man reports that 1 occur but 1 does not occur)
= \(P\left(\frac{A}{E_{2}}\right)=\frac{2}{5}\)
Thus, by Baye’s theorem, we get
P(get actually 1 when he reports that 1 occur)
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 68

Question 42.
A card from a pack of 52 playing cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack three cards are drawn at random (without replacement) and are found to be all spades. Find the probability of the lost card being a spade. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Let us define the following events:
E1 = lost card is a spade card
E2 = lost card is not a spade card
A = drawn cards are spade cards
Then,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 69

Question 43.
Assume that the chances of a patient having a heart attack is 40%. Assuming that a meditation and yoga course reduces the risk of heart attack by 30% and prescription of certain drug reduces its chance by 25%. At a time, a patient can choose anyone of the two options with equal probabilities. It is given that after going through one of the two options, the patient selected at random suffers a heart attack. Find the probability that the patient followed a course of meditation and yoga. Interpret the result and state which of the above stated methods, is more beneficial for the patient? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Let E1 : The patient follows meditation and yoga.
E2 : The patient uses drug.
Then, E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive
and P(E1) = P(E2) = 1/2
Also, let E : The selected patient suffers a heart attack.
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 70
yoga course and meditation are more beneficial for the heart patient.

Question 44.
An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and 6000 truck drivers, the probability of their meeting an accident respectively are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15. One of the insured persons meets with an accident. What is the probability that he is a car driver? (All India 2012C)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{26}\)

Question 45.
Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and bag II contains 4 red and 5 black balls. Two balls are transferred at random from bag I to bag II and then a ball is drawn from bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be red in colour. Find the probability that the transferred balls were both black. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{4}{17}\)

Question 46.
Among the students in a college, it is known that 60% reside in hostel and 40% are day scholars (not residing in hostel). Previous year results report that 30% of all students who reside in hostel attain A grade and 20% of day scholars attain A grade in their annual exams. At the end of year, one student is chosen at random from the college and he has A grade, what is the probability that the student is a hosteler? (Delhi 2012,2011C)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Students reside in a hostel
E2 : students are day scholars
A : Students get A grade
Then.
P(E1) = Probability that student reside in a hostel
= 60% = \(\frac{60}{100}\)
and P(E2) = Probability that students are day scholars = 1 – \(\frac{60}{100}=\frac{40}{100}\)
Also, P(A/E1) = Probability that hostelers get A grade = 30% = \(\frac{30}{100}\)
and P(A/E2) = Probability that students having day scholars get A grade = 20% = \(\frac{20}{100}\)
∴ The probability that the selecting student is a hosteler having A grade,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 71

Question 47.
Suppose a girl throws a die. If she gets 5 or 6, then she tosses a coin 3 times and note the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4, she tosses a coin once and note whether a head or tail is obtained. If she obtained exactly one head, then what is the probability that she throw 1, 2, 3 or 4 with the die? (All India 2012)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Girl gets 5 or 6 on a die
E2 : Girl gets 1, 2, 3 or 4 on a die
A: She gets exactly one head
Now, P(E1) = Probability of getting 5 or 6 on a die = \(\)
and P(E2) = Probability of getting 1, 2, 3 or 4 on a die = \(\)
Also, P(A/E1) = Probability that girl gets exactly one head when she throws coin thrice = \(\)
[∵ {HHH, TTT, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, TTH)]
P(A/E2) = Probability that girl gets exactly one head when she throws coin once
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)
The probability that she throws 1, 2, 3 or 4 with the die for getting exactly one head,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 72

Question 48.
A girl throws a die. If she gets a 5 or 6, she tosses a coin three times and notes the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4, she tosses a coin two times and notes the number of heads obtained. If she obtained exactly two heads, what is the probability that she threw 1,2,3 or 4 with the die? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{4}{7}\)

Question 49.
Suppose 5% of men and 0.25% of women have grey hair. A grey haired person is selected at random. What is the probability of this person being male? Assume that there are equal number of males and females. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Person selected is a male
E2 : Person selected is a female
A: Person selected has grey hair
Now, P(E1) = P (person selected is a male) = 1/2
and P(E2) = P (person selected is a female) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
[∵ there are equal number of males and females] Now, P(A/E1) = Probability of selecting a person having grey hair is male = \(\frac{5}{100}\)
and P(A/E2) = Probability of selecting a person having grey hair is female = \(\frac{0.25}{100}\)
The probability of selecting person is a male having grey hair,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 73

Question 50.
Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and bag II contains 5 red and 6 black balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and is found to be red. Find the probability that it was drawn from bag II. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
\(\frac{35}{68}\)

Question 51.
A man is known to speak truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports that it is a six. Find the probability that it is actually a six. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 52.
A factory has two machines A and B. Past record shows that machine A produced 60% of items of output and machine B produced 40% of items. Further, 2% of items, produced by machine A and 1% produced by machine B were defective. All the items are put into a stockpile and then one item is chosen at random from this and this is found to be defective. What is the probability that it was produced by machine B ? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 53.
There are three identical boxes I, II and III, each containing two coins. In box I, both coins are gold coins, in box II, both are silver coins and in box III, there is one gold and one silver coin. A person chooses a box at random and take out a coin. If the coin is of gold, then what is the probability that the other coin in box is also of gold? (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Box I is selected
E2 : Box Ills selected
E3 : Box III is selected
A: The drawn coin is a gold coin
Since events E1, E2 and E3 are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events.
∴ P(E1) = P(E2) = P(E3) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Now, P(A/E1)
= Probability that a gold coin is drawn from box I = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1 [∵ box II contain both gold coins] P(A/E3) = Probability that a gold coin is drawn from box II = 0 [∵ box II has both silver coins I and P(A / E3) = Probability that a gold coin is drawn from box III = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

[∵ box III contains I gold and 1 silver coin] The probability that other coin in box is also of gold = The probability that the drawing gold corn from bag I,
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 74
Hence, the required probability is \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 54.
There are three coins. One is a two tailed coin (having tail on both faces), another is a biased coin that comes up heads 60% of the times and third is an unbiased coin. One of the three coins is chosen at random and tossed and it shows tail. What is the probability that it is a two tailed coin? (All India 2011C)
Answer:
\(\frac{10}{19}\)

Question 55.
In a class, 5% of boys and 10% of girls have an IQ of more than 150. In the class, 60% are boys and rest are girls. If a student is selected at random and found to have an IQ of more than 150, then find the probability that the student is a boy. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Let us define the events as
E1 : Boy is selected
E2 : Girl is selected
A: The student has an ¡Q of more than 150 students.
Now, P(E1) = 60% = \(\frac{60}{100}\)
Now, P(E2) = 40% = \(\frac{40}{100}\)
[∵ in the class 60% students are boys, so 40% arc girls, given ]
Now, P(A/E1) = Probability that boys has an IQ of more than 150 = 5% = \(\frac{5}{100}\)
and P(A/E2) = Probability that girls has an IQ of more than 150 = 10% = \(\frac{10}{100}\)
The probability that the selected boy having IQ more than 150 is
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 75
Hence, the required probability is 3/7.

Question 56.
In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C manufacture 25%, 35% and 40% of total production, respectively. Out of their total output, 5%, 4% and 2% are defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it is manufactured by machine B ? (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
\(\frac{28}{69}\)

Question 57.
A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn at random and are found to both of clubs. Find the probability of the lost card being of clubs. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
\(\frac{11}{50}\)

Question 58.
From a lot of 10 bulbs, which includes 3 defectives, a sample of 2 bulbs is drawn at random. Find the probability distribution of number of defective bulbs? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Probability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 13 76

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Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Carbon and its Compounds Class 10 Science Chapter 4 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Carbon and its Compounds Class 10 Science Chapter 4

Question 1.
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling point. Why? (2020)
Answer:
Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points because the forces of attraction between molecules of covalent compounds are very weak. On applying a small amount of heat these molecular forces break.

Question 2.
What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three characteristic properties. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Covalent compounds are those compounds which are formed by sharing of valence electrons between the atoms e.g., hydrogen molecule is formed by mutual sharing of electrons between two hydrogen atoms.
They are different from ionic compounds as ionic compounds are formed by the complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another e.g., NaCl is formed when one valence electron of sodium gets completely transferred to outer shell of chlorine atom. The characteristic properties of covalent compounds are:
(i) They are generally insoluble or less soluble in water but soluble in organic solvents.
(ii) They have low melting and boiling points.
(iii) They do not conduct electricity as they do not contain ions.

Question 3.
What are covalent bonds? Show their formation with the help of electron dot structure of methane. Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity? (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Covalent bonds are those bonds which are formed by sharing of the valence electrons between two atoms. Electron dot structure of methane is shown in the figure.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 1
Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors ol electricity because they do not have tree electrons or ions.

Question 4.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii) Diamond has high melting point.
(iii) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. (3/5, Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) As carbon has four valence electrons and it can neither loose nor gain lour electrons thus, it attains noble gas configuration only by sharing of electrons. I bus, it forms covalent compounds.
(ii) In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid three-dimensional structure. This makes diamond the hardest known substance. Thus, it has high melting point.
(iii) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds in the same plane giving a hexagonal array. Thus, only three valence electrons are used for bond formation and hence, the fourth valence electron is free to move. As a result, graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 5.
What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this compound. Why are such compounds
(i) poor conductors of electricity and
(ii) have low melting and boiling points?
What happens when this compound burns in oxygen? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Methane is the first member of alkane series having formula CH4.
Refer to answer 3.

(ii) Refer to answer 1.
When methane is burnt in presence of oxygen then carbon dioxide will be produced.
CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat + light

Question 6.
Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas electronic configuration by either gaining or losing electrons from their valence shells. Explain giving reason why carbon cannot attain such a configuration in this manner to form its compounds. Name the type of bonds formed in ionic compounds and in the compounds formed by carbon. Also explain with reason why carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity. (Foreign 2015, AI 2014)
Answer:
Ionic compounds are formed either by gaining or losing electrons from the outermost shells, but carbon which has four electrons in its outermost shell cannot form ionic bonds because
1. If carbon forms ionic bonds by gaining four electrons to attain a noble gas configuration then it would be difficult for six protons in the nucleus to hold ten electrons.
2. If carbon forms ionic bonds by loss of four electrons then it would require a lot of energy to remove these electrons from outermost shell.

Due to these reasons carbon forms covalent bonds by sharing the valence electrons.
Type of bonds formed in ionic compounds are called electrovalent bonds and the type of bonds formed in carbon compounds are called covalent bonds.
Refer to answer 3.

Question 7.
State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4- anions, but forms covalent compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds :
(i) are bad conductors of electricity?
(ii) have low melting and boiling points? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 6.
(i) Refer to answer 3.
(ii) Refer to answer 1.

Question 8.
Name a cyclic unsaturated carbon compound. (2020)
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 2

Question 9.
Assertion (A) : Following are the members of a homologous series :
CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R) : A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by -CH2 unit is called homologous series.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2020)
Answer:
(a): The given compounds are members of homologous series of alcohol.

Question 10.
Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional group -Cl. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having -Cl functional group are CH3Cl and CH3CH2Cl.

Question 11.
Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having functional group -OH. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having -OH functional group are CH3OH and CH3CH2OH.

Question 12.
Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is ethene. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Homologous series of alkenes have general formula, CnH2n whose first member is ethene.
2nd member of homologous series of alkenes is C3H6 i.e., propene.
3rd member of homologous series of alkenes is C4H8 i.e., butene.

Question 13.
Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is methane. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Methane, CH4 is an alkane. Alkanes have general formula, CnH2n+2.
2nd member of homologous series of alkanes is C2H6 i.e., ethane.
3rd member of homologous series of alkanes is C3H8 i.e., propane.

Question 14.
Write the next homologue of each of the following:
(i) C2H4
(ii) C4H6 (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(i) C2H4 belongs to alkene series having general formula, CnH2n.
Thus, next homologue will be C3H2×3 = C3H6
(ii) C4H6 belongs to alkyne series having general formula, CnH2n-2.
Thus, next homologue will be C5H2×5-2 = C5H8

Question 15.
Name the following compounds :
(a) CH3 – CH2 – OH
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 3
Answer:
(a) CH3 – CH2 – OH : Ethanol
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 4

Question 16.
Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following : C3H6; C5H10; C4H10; C6H14; C2H4
Answer:
Saturated hydrocarbons have general formula, CnH2n+2.
Among the given compounds only C4H10 and C6H14 satisfy the above formula. Thus, these are saturated hydrocarbons.

Question 17.
Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule. (AI 2016)
Answer:
An alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule is propanol. The structure of propanol is
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 5

Question 18.
Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule. (AI 2016)
Answer:
An alcohol with four carbon atoms is butanol and its structure is :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 6

Question 19.
Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule. (AI 2016)
Answer:
An aldehyde with four carbon atoms is butanal and its structure is.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 7

Question 20.
Which element exhibits the property of catenation to maximum extent and why? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules. This property is called catenation. Carbon shows catenation due to its small size and Stronger carbon-carbon bond strength.

Question 21.
Write the name and molecular formula of the fourth member of alkane series. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
The general formula of the alkane series is CnH2n+2. For fourth member of alkane series, n = 4
∴ C4H2×4+2 = C4H10 i.e., butane.

Question 22.
What is homologous series of carbon compounds? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
A homologous series is the family of organic compounds having the same functional group, similar chemical properties but the successive (adjacent) members of the series differ by a -CH2 unit or 14 mass units.

Question 23.
Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 12.

Question 24.
Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n+2. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 13.

Question 25.
Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general formula CnH2n-2. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
General formula, CnH2n-2 belongs to alkyne series. The second member of this series is propyne i.e., (C3H4) or CH3 – C ≡ CH.

Question 26.
Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane. (AI2015, Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The structural formula of ethane (C2H6) is
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 8
There are total 7 covalent bonds. Six C – H covalent bonds and one C – C covalent bond.

Question 27.
Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4H10. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Butane (C4H10) has the following structural formula as:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 9
Total number of covalent bonds is 13 in which there are 10 C – H and 3 C – C covalent bonds.

Question 28.
Write the name of each of the following functional groups: (Foreign 2015, Delhi 2013)
(a) -OH
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 10
Answer:
(a) -OH : Alcohol
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 11

Question 29.
Write the name and molecular formula of the first member of the homologous series of alkynes. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
General formula for alkyne is CnH2n-2
First member of homologous series of alkyne has the formula, C2H2×2-2 = C2H2 i.e., ethyne.

Question 30.
Define the term functional group. Identify the functional group present in
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 12
Answer:
An atom or a group of atoms present in a molecule which largely determines its chemical properties, is called functional group.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 13

Question 31.
Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i) C2H5Cl
(ii) C2H5OH (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) C2H5Cl contains -Cl (chloro) group which belongs to halo functional group.
(ii) C5H5OH contains -OH group which belongs to alcoholic functional group.

Question 32.
Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having functional group -OH. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Those having -OH as functional group belong to alcohol family. Second member of this family is ethanol, C2H5OH.

Question 33.
Write the name and formula of the first member of the series of carbon compounds having functional group (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Carbon compound containing
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 14
group is called carboxylic acid. The first member of this family is methanoic acid (HCOOH).

Question 34.
Butanone is a four-carbon per molecule compound. Name the functional group present in it. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 15

Question 35.
State two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds. (2/5, AI 2011)
Answer:
Carbon forms a large number of carbon compounds like long chains which may be straight or branched chains or ring of different sizes due to its tetravalency ahd unique property of catenation. Carbon due to its small size forms exceptionally stable compounds by forming strong bonds.

Question 36.
Carbon, a member of group 14, forms a large number of carbon compounds estimated to be about three million. Why is this property not exhibited by other elements of this group? Explain. (2020)
Answer:
Refer to answer 20.
As we move down the group, the element-element bond energies decrease rapidly. For this reason other elements of this group show little or no catenation property.

Question 37.
(a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Due lo catenation, carbon forms covalent bonds with the constituent elements in the carbon compounds, hence it does not have mobile electrons and carbon compounds do not dissociate themselves into ions and hence, they are poor conductor of electricity.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 16
Name: Cyclopentane
Number of single bonds : 15

Question 38.
An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write their structures and name them. State the relation between the two in the language of science. (AI 2016)
Answer:
The aldehyde and ketone represented by the
molecular formula, C3H6O.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 17
In the language of science, they are called as isomers because both have same molecular formula but different structural formulae (having different functional groups.)

Question 39.
What is meant by isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane, C4H10. Explain why we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series. (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Isomers are those molecules which have the same molecular formula but different structural formula i.e., show different properties.
The structures of possible isomers of butane (C4H10) are:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 18
The first three members of alkane series are :
(i) CH4 (methane)
(ii) C2H6 (ethane)
(iii) C3H8 (propane)
In the above members of alkane series, it is not possible to have different arrangements of carbon atoms. Thus, we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.

Question 40.
Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw their electron-dot structures:
(i) Ethane
(ii) Ethene
(iii) Ethyne (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Molecular formula of ethane is C2H6.
Its electron dot structure is :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 19

(ii) Molecular formula of ethene is C2H4. Its electron dot structure is :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 20

(iii) Molecular formula of ethyne is C2H2. Its electron dot structure is :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 21

Question 41.
What is meant by functional group in carbon compounds? Write in tabular form the structural formula and the functional group present in the following compounds :
(i) Ethanol
(ii) Ethanoic acid (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 22

Question 42.
Why is homologous series of carbon compounds so called? Write the chemical formula of two consecutive members of any homologous series and state the part of these compounds that determines their (i) physical and (ii) chemical properties. (Foreign 2015, AI2014, Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 22.
Consecutive members of the homologous series of alcohols are:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 23
The physical properties are determined by alkyl group/hydrocarbon part/part other than the functional group.
The chemical properties are determined by functional group such as -OH group.

Question 43.
State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in (i) ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30 and 41.

Question 44.
State the meaning of the functional group in an organic compound. Write the formula of the functional group present in alcohols, aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.
The formulae for different functional groups are : alcohols : -OH group
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 24

Question 45.
What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general formula of (i) alkenes, and (ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each series to show the bonding between the two carbon atoms. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 22.
The general formula for alkenes is CnH2n and for alkynes is CnH2n-2
First member of alkene is ethene, C2H4 and its structure is
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 25
First member of alkyne is ethyne, C2H2 and its structure is H – C ≡ C – H

Question 46.
Define the term structural isomerism’. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this property. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C4H10. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Two or more organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures, are called structural isomers and the phenomenon is known as structural isomerism.
There is no possible isomers for propane as it contains three carbon atoms and it is not possible to have different arrangements of these carbon atoms.
Refer to answer 39.

Question 47.
(a) What is a homologous series of compounds? List any two of its characteristics. (Foreign 2011)
(b) What is the next higher homologue of C3H7OH? What is its formula and what is it called? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 22.
Two characteristics of homologous series are :
(i) The successive compounds of the homologous series differ by -CH2 unit i.e. 14 mass units.
(ii) Each homologous series belongs to similar class of compounds which shows the same chemical properties.
(b) Next higher homologue of C3H7OH is C4H9OH i.e., butanol.

Question 48.
(a) State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4- anions, but forms covalent bonds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds
(i) are bad conductors of electricity
(ii) have (ow melting and boiling points.
(b) Write the structural formula of benzene, C6H6. (AI2019)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 6.
(i) Refer to answer 3.
(ii) Refer to answer 1.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 26

Question 49.
Explain why carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bond. Explain in brief two main reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Why does carbon form strong bond with most other elements? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answers 6 and 35.
Due to the small size of carbon atom, its nucleus holds the shared pair of electrons between atoms strongly. Thus, carbon forms strong covalent bonds with elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and other elements.

Question 50.
What are hydrocarbons? Distinguish alkanes from alkenes and each of them from alkynes, giving one example of each. Draw the structure of each compound cited as example to justify your answer. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Hydrocarbons are the compounds of carbon and hydrogen atoms. Those hydrocarbons which contain only single carbon-carbon bonds are called alkanes (saturated hydrocarbons) while those having double and triple bonds are called alkenes and alkynes respectively (unsaturated hydrocarbon).

Alkanes Alkenes Alkynes
1. General formula = CnH2n+2 General formula = CnH2n General formula = CnH2n-2
2. Contain C – C single bonds Contain C = C double bonds Contain C ≡ C triple bonds
3. e.g., methane (CH4) e.g., ethene (C2H4) e.g., ethyne (C2H2)

Structures of the above examples are:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 27
C2H2 (ethyne): H – C ≡ C – H

Question 51.
(a) Define the term‘isomers’.
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write their names.
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above two compounds. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 39.
(b) Two possible isomers of the compound, C3H6O are:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 28
(c) The electron dot structures of propanone and Propanal are
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 29

Question 52.
Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C4H10. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Isomers are those compounds which have same molecular formula but different structures. The phenomenon of existing these isomers are called isomerism.
Four characteristics of isomers are :
(i) They have same molecular formula but different structures.
(ii) For hydrocarbons, isomers is possible only with hydrocarbons having four or more carbon atoms.
(iii) Due to isomerism, a given molecular formula can represent two or more different compounds.
(iv) Due to isomerism, the different compounds have different properties.
Refer to answer 39.

Question 53.
Name the process by which unsaturated fats are changed to saturated fats. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Hydrogenation is the process in which unsaturated fats are changed to saturated fats.

Question 54.
Write the chemical equation to show what happen when methane is treated with chlorine in the presence of sunlight ? (1/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
When methane is treated with chlorine in the presence of sunlight then substitution reaction takes place. In this, chlorine replaces the hydrogen atom of methane.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 30

Question 55.
Write the respective chemical reaction to show what happens when methane is burnt in presence of oxygen? (1/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
When methane is burnt in presence of oxygen then carbon dioxide will be produced.
CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat + light

Question 56.
Write one chemical equation to represent the following type of reaction of organic substances: substitution. (1/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Substitution : In this type of reaction one or more hydrogen atoms of a hydrocarbon is replaced by some other atoms.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 31

Question 57.
Give reason for the following : Acetylene burns with a sooty flame. (1/5, Foreign 2011)
Answer:
The formula of acetylene is HC ≡ CH. It is an unsaturated hydrocarbon where carbon content is more than the hydrogen content. Hence, carbon is not completely burnt and the unburnt carbon deposits as a soot.

Question 58.
Give reason for the following : Kerosene does not decolourise bromine water while cooking oils do. (1/5, Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Cooking oils (unsaturated compounds) decolourise bromine water due to formation of addition products whereas kerosene (saturated compound) does not decolourise bromine water.

Question 59.
What happens when 5% alkaline KMnO4 solution is added drop by drop to warm ethanol taken in a test tube? State the role of alkaline KMnO4 solution in this reaction. (2/3, Foreign 2016)
Answer:
When 5% alkaline KMnO4 solution is added drop by drop to warm ethanol then it gets oxidised to ethanoic acid.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 32
Here, alkaline KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent i.e., the substance which is capable of adding oxygen to others. Thus, alkaline KMnO4 provides oxygen to ethanol to form ethanoic acid.

Question 60.
3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline potassium permanganate is added first drop by drop to this solution, then in excess.
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared?
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What happens on adding it in excess?
(iii) Write chemical equation of this reaction. (2020)
Answer:
(i) 5% solution of KMnO4 is prepared by adding 5 g of KMnO4 in 95 g of water.
(ii) Here alkaline KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent. It oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid by donating nascent oxygen. If excess of KMnO4 is added the purple colour will persist indicating no more alcohol is left and there is no reaction.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 33

Question 61.
Two carbon compounds X and Y have the molecular formula C4H8 and C5H12 respectively. Which one of these is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Also give the chemical equation to explain the process of addition reaction in this case. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
All unsaturated hydrocarbons (containing double or triple bonds) have tendency to get converted to saturated hydrocarbons (single bonds) by adding small molecules such as hydrogen (H2), halogens (X2), etc. Such reactions are called addition reactions.

Compound X i.e., C4H8 belongs to alkene series (CnH2n) while compound Y i.e., C5H12 belongs to alkane series (CnH2n+2). Thus, compound X will undergo addition reaction.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 34

Question 62.
The molecular formula of two carbon compounds are C4H8 and C3H8. Which one of the two is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Also give the chemical equation to explain the process of addition reaction in this case. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
C3H8 belongs to alkane series (CnH2n+2) Refer to answer 61.

Question 63.
What is an oxidising agent? What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain with the help of a chemical equation. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
The substance that supply oxygen in a reaction for oxidation is called oxidising agent e.g., potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, etc.
When propanol is heated with alkaline KMnO4, it gets oxidised to propanoic acid.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 35

Question 64.
Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose? (AI 2015)
Answer:
The formula for ethyne is C2H2 and its electron dot structure is :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 36
A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding so that complete oxidation of ethyne takes place. If in place of oxygen, air is taken which contains less amount of oxygen then incomplete combustion of oxygen takes place and temperature required for welding will not be attained.

Question 65.
Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction. (AI 2015, Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Alkenes, having general formula as CnH2n and alkynes, having general formula as CnH2n-2 are the class of hydrocarbons in which addition reaction is possible.
The essential conditions for addition reaction are :
(i) Presence of unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(ii) Presence of catalyst such as Ni/Pt/Pd.
Let us take an example of ethene. It undergoes addition reaction with hydrogen when it is heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane. The reaction is known as hydrogenation.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 37

Question 66.
Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary conditions for the reaction to occur. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Refer to answers 50 and 65.

Question 67.
What are hydrocarbons? Write the name and general formula of
(i) saturated hydrocarbons
(ii) unsaturated hydrocarbons, and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of each type. How can an unsaturated hydrocarbon be made saturated? (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50.
Unsaturated hydrocarbons can be made to saturated hydrocarbons by hydrogenation reaction using nickel (Ni) as a catalyst.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 38

Question 68.
(a) With the help of a suitable example, explain the process of hydrogenation mentioning the conditions of the reaction and any one change in physical property with the formation of the product. (Delhi 2015, 2013, Foreign 2012)
(b) How does a saturated hydrocarbon react with chlorine? Write chemical equation for it. What type of reaction is it called and why? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 39
groups that can be hydrogenated.
Hydrogenation is the addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon to obtain a saturated hydrocarbon.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 40
Here R can be any alkyl group.
There is the change of unsaturated compound from the liquid state to saturated compound in the solid state thus, melting point increases.

(b) Saturated hydrocarbon reacts with chlorine to form a substituted product, e.g.,
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 41
This reaction is called substitution reaction as here one hydrogen of methane is substituted by one chlorine atom.

Question 69.
Assertion (A) : Esterification is a process in which a sweet smelling substance is produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide, an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid are obtained.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2020)
Answer:
(b): When an ester reacts with the base saponification reaction occurs.

Question 70.
Assertion (A) : Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid.
Reason (R) : The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes during winters in cold climates.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2020)
Answer:
(a): Pure ethanoic acid or acetic acid freezes below room temperature into white crystals that resemble glaciers.

Question 71.
Draw the structure for ethanoic acid molecule, CH3COOH. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Structure of ethanoic acid is
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 42

Question 72.
A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess cone, sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction. (2018)
Answer:
As X reads with cone. H2SO4 to give an alkene so it should be an alcohol as cone. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent. The reaction of X with Na also confirms that it is an alcohol because alcohols react with Na metal to evolve colourless hydrogen gas.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 43
Here, conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent i.e., helps in the removal of water.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 44

Question 73.
Write the chemical equations to show what happens when
(i) an ester reacts with a base?
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of sulphuric acid? (2/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(i) When an ester reacts with the base then it gives sodium salt of carboxylic acid and an alcohol. It is known as saponification reaction.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 45

(ii) Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric acid to form pleasant smelling esters. This reaction is called esterification reaction.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 46

Question 74.
Write the respective chemical equations to show what happens when
(i) ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K ?
(ii) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid acting as a catalyst? (2/3, Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 47
(ii) Refer to answer 73(ii).

Question 75.
Write one chemical equation to represent each of the following types of reactions of organic substances:
(i) Esterification
(ii) Saponification (2/3, Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 73(ii).
(ii) Refer to answer 73(i).

Question 76.
Complete the following chemical equations : (Delhi 2017)
(i) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH →
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH →
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 48
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 49

Question 77.
Complete the following chemical equations: (Delhi 2017)
(i) C2H5OH + O2
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 50
(iii) CH3COOH + NaHCO3
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 51
(ii) Refer to answer 74(i).
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 52

Question 78.
Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of cone. H2SO4 at 443 K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of cone. H2SO4 in this reaction. (AI 2017, Delhi 2015, 2013)
Answer:
The structural formula of ethanol (C2H5OH) is
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 53
When ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K then it looses a water molecule to form unsaturated alkene (ethene) as a product.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 54
Here conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent i.e., helps in the removal of water.

Question 79.
What happens when (write chemical equation in each case)
(a) ethanol is burnt in air?
(b) ethanol is heated with excess cone. H2SO4 at 443 K?
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? (AI 2017)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 77(i).
(b) Refer to answer 74(i).
(c) When a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol then hydrogen gas is liberated which burns with a pop sound.
2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa+ + H2

Question 80.
Distinguish between esterification and saponification reaction with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. (AI 2017, Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 55
Use of esters: They are used for making perfumes or used as artificial flavouring substances.
Use of saponification process : This process is used in making soaps.

Question 81.
Explain esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show esterification. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Refer to answer 80.
Aim : To demonstrate esterification process using ethanol and acetic acid.
Materials required : Beaker, water, test tube, ethanol, acetic acid, cone. H2SO4, tripod stand, burner, wire gauze, etc.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 56
Procedure:
– Take 2 mL of ethanol in a test tube.
– Take 2 mL of ethanoic acid (acetic acid) into it.
– Add few drops of cone. H2SO4
– Warm it in a beaker containing water.
– Observe the smell of the products formed. Observations: Pleasant fruity smelling compound (called ester) is formed.

Chemical reaction:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 57

Conclusion : Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in presence of cone. H2SO4 which acts as a dehydrating agent to form esters.

Question 82.
When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of cone. H2S04, a substance with fruity smell is produced. Answer the following:
(i) State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical equation for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
(ii) State the role of cone. H2SO4 in this reaction. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(i) When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of cone. H2SO4, ethyl ethanoate is formed which belongs to the class of ester compounds, having fruity smell.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 58

(ii) The above reaction is called esterification which occurs in presence of cone. H2SO4 which acts as a dehydrating agent and helps in the removal of water. Cone. H2SO4 also acts as a catalyst to speed up the reaction.

Question 83.
Name the compound formed when ethanol is heated in excess of cone, sulphuric acid at 443 K. Also write the chemical equation of the reaction stating the role of cone, sulphuric acid in it. What would happen if hydrogen is added to the product of this reaction in the presence of catalyst such as palladium or nickel? (Delhi 2016, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 78.
If hydrogen is added to ethene in presence of palladium or nickel catalyst then one atom of hydrogen adds to each carbon atom of ethene to form ethane.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 59

Question 84.
Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following :
(a) Sodium;
(b) Sodium hydroxide;
(c) Ethanol
Write the name of one main product of each reaction. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium as well as sodium hydroxide to form sodium ethanoate.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 60

(b) Refer to answer 76(ii).
(c) Refer to answer 76(iii).

Question 85.
On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone, sulphuric acid. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Ethanol reacts with sodium to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is liberated which burns with a pop sound.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 61
Thus, compound X is ethanol and gas Y is hydrogen gas.
When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid then it gets dehydrated to form ethene.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 62

Question 86.
Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate. Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Ethanoic acid reacts with Na2CO3 to form sodium ethanoate and CO2 gas is liberated.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 63
With sodium hydrogen carbonate it forms sodium ethanoate.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 64
With NaOH it forms sodium ethanoate.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 65

Question 87.
Write the nam e and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed with ‘ol’ and having two carbon atoms in its molecule. Write balanced chemical equation to indicate what happens when this compound is heated with excess cone. H2SO4 and the narpe of main product formed. Also state the role of cone. H2SO4 in the reaction. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Those organic compounds having suffix ‘oF are alcohols. As the alcohol is having two carbon atoms in its molecule so, it is ethanol.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 66
Refer to answer 78.

Question 88.
An organic compound ‘P’ is a constituent of wine. ‘P’ on reacting with acidified K2Cr2O7 forms another compound ‘Q’. When a piece of sodium is added to ‘Q’, a gas ‘R’ evolves which burns with a pop sound. Identify P, Q and R and write the chemical equations of the reactions involved. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
‘P’ is ethanol which is a constituent of wine. Ethanol on reacting with acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) solution gives ethanoic acid ‘Q’.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 67

When a piece of sodium is added to ethanoic acid then sodium salt of ethanoic acid is formed with the liberation of hydrogen gas which burns with a pop sound.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 68

Question 89.
List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe how these tests are performed. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Tests for distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid are :
(i) Litmus test : When we place a drop of carboxylic acid on blue litmus paper it turns red while alcohol will not change the colour of blue litmus paper.

(ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate test/sodium carbonate test: If a pinch of NaHCO3 or Na2CO3 is added to two test tubes containing alcohol and carboxylic acid respectively, then test tube containing carboxylic acid will show the evolution of colourless gas with brisk effervescence while test tube containing alcohol does not show any reaction.

Question 90.
What are esters? How are they prepared? List two uses of esters. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Esters are generally volatile liquids which have pleasant fruity smell.
Esters are prepared when a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of small amount of concentrated H2SO4. For example, when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol it forms an ester (i.e. ethyl ethanoate).
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 69

Uses of ester:
1. It is used in making perfumes.
2. It is used in making artificial flavours and essences used in ice-creams, sweets and cold drinks.

Question 91.
A carboxylic acid (molecular formula, C2H4O2) reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst to form a compound ‘X’. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid C2H4O2. Write the name and structure of (i) carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ‘X’ (AI 2014)
Answer:
The molecular formula of carboxylic acid is C2H4O2. Thus, it should be acetic acid (ethanoic acid).
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 70

It reacts with alcohol in presence of acid catalyst to give compound ‘X’.
As alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives the same acid i.e. ethanoic acid, hence alcohol must contain two carbon atoms. Thus, formula for alcohol is CH3CH2OH i.e. ethanol.
Reactions involved are:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 71

(i) Structure of ethanoic acid :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 72

(ii) Structure of ethanol:
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 73

(iii) Structure of ethyl ethanoate (X):
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 74

Question 92.
Write the chemical equation to explain what happens when ethanol is heated with alkaline solution, of potassium permanganate. Mention two physical properties and two uses of ethanol. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
When ethanol is heated with alkaline solution of potassium permanganate then oxidation of ethanol takes place to form ethanoic acid.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 75
Two physical properties of ethanol are:
1. It is liquid at room temperature.
2. It is soluble in water in all proportions.

Two uses of ethanol are :
1. It is used as a liquor for drinking purpose.
2. It is a good solvent and hence, it is used in medicines such as tincture of iodine, cough syrup and many tonics.

Question 93.
Write chemical equations to describe two examples of different oxidations of ethanol. List two uses of ethanol. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Addition of oxygen to any substance is called oxidation.
Ethanol gets oxidised to ethanoic acid as :
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 76
Refer to answer 92.

Question 94.
Write the chemical equations to show what happens when
(i) sodium hydroxide is added to ethanoic acid?
(ii) solid sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to ethanoic acid?
(iii) ethanol reacts with sodium? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 76(ii).
(ii) Refer to answer 77(iii).
(iii) Refer to answer 79(c).

Question 95.
Write chemical equations for what happens when
(i) sodium metal is added to ethanoic acid?
(ii) solid sodium carbonate is added to ethanoic acid?
(iii) ethanoic acid reacts with a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide? (AI 2011)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 84(a).
(ii) Refer to answer 86.
(iii) Refer to answer 76(ii).

Question 96.
(a) What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.
(b) Define the following terms giving one example of each.
(i) Esterification (ii) Addition reaction (2020)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 22.
For example, alkane series has general formula CnH2n + 2.
First member of homologous series of alkane is .methane, i.e., CH4.
Second member of homologous series of alkane is ethane, i.e., C2H6.
Third member of homologous series of alkane is propane i.e., C3H8.

(b) (i) Refer to answer 73(ii).
(ii) Addition reactions : Those reactions in which atoms or group of atoms are simply added to a double or triple bond without the elimination of any atom or molecule, are known as addition reactions.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 77

Question 97.
(a) Carry out following conversions :
(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Ethanol to ethanoic acid
(b) Differentiate between addition reaction and substitution reaction. Give one example of each. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) When ethanol is heated with cone. H2SO4 at 443 K, ethene is obtained due to dehydration of ethanol.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 78

(ii) When 5 % alkaline KMnO4 solution is added drop by drop to warm ethanol then it gets oxidised to ethanoic acid.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 79
(b) Refer to answer 96(ii).

Substitution reactions : The reactions which involve the displacement or substitution of an atom or a group of atoms in an organic compound by another atom or group of atoms, are known as substitution reactions.

Saturated hydrocarbons are fairly unreactive and inert in the presence of most of the reagents. However, in presence of sunlight, hydrocarbons undergo rapid substitution reactions, e.g.,
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 80

Question 98.
Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. List its two uses. Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when this compound reacts with
(i) sodium metal
(ii) hot concentrated sulphuric acid. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Ethanol having chemical formula C2H5OH is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks.
Uses of ethanol:
1. Ethanol is widely used in industry as a solvent.
2. Ethanol is used as an antiseptic for wounds in the form of rectified spirit.
Chemical equations:
(i) Refer to answer 79(c).
(ii) Refer to answer 74(i).

Question 99.
(a) Define the term isomer.
(b) Two compounds have same molecular formula C3H6O. Write the name of these compounds and their structural formula.
(c) How would you bring the following conversions:
(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Propanol to propanoic acid? (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 39.
(b) Refer to answer 51 (b).
(c) (i) Refer to answer 97(a)(i).
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 81

Question 100.
A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess cone. H2SO4 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’ One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved. (AI 2016)
Answer:
When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated H2SO4 it gets dehydrated to form ethene.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 82
When ethene is heated with hydrogen in presence of nickel catalyst it forms ethane.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 83
Ethane on oxidation gives two moles of carbon dioxide and three moles of water.
CH3CH3 + \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 }\) O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O + heat + light

Question 101.
List in tabular form three physical and two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid can be differentiated. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:

Ethanoic acid (Physical properties) Ethanol (Physical properties)
(i) It has moderate melting point (290 K) and boiling point (391 K). It has very low melting point (156 K) and low boiling point (351 K).
(ii) It has a sour taste. It has a burning taste.
(iii) It has a pungent smell. It has a distinct smell.

(ii)

Chemical properties Chemical properties
(i) It is acidic in nature and turns blue litmus to red. It is neutral in nature and thus, it does not turn blue litmus to red or vice-versa.
(ii) Ethanoic acid reacts with Na2CO3 or NaHCO3 to give brisk effervescence of CO2 gas. 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + CO2 ↑+ H2O Ethanol does not react with Na2CO3 or NaHCO3, C2H5OH + Na2CO3 → No reaction

Question 102.
(a) In a tabular form, differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid under the following heads:
(i) Physical state
(ii) Taste
(iii) NaHCO3 test
(iv) Ester test
(b) Write a chemical reaction to show the dehydration of ethanol. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a)
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 84

(b) Refer to answer 97(a)(i).

Question 103.
Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near A. (2020)
Answer:
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.

Question 104.
Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Why are micelles not formed when soap is added to ethanol? (3/5, AI 2011)
Answer:
A soap molecule has two ends with different properties, one end is polar i.e., water soluble or hydrophilic while other end is non-polar i.e., water insoluble or hydrophobic. When soap is added to water, the polar ends get dissolve in water and non-polar ends get dissolved in each other and directed towards the centre. As a result, a spherical ionic molecule known as micelles, formation takes place. Since, soaps are soluble in ethanol, therefore, micelles formation does not occur.

Question 105.
Soaps and detergents are both, types of salts. State the difference between the two. Write the mechanism of the cleansing action of soaps. Why do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water? Mention any two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps. (Delhi 2017, AI 2015)
Answer:
Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids. The ionic group in soaps is -COONa+.
On the other hand, synthetic detergents are the sodium salts of a long chain alkylbenzenesulphonic acids or long chain alkyl hydrogen sulphates. The ionic group in synthetic detergents is
-SO3 Na+ or -OSO3 Na+

Cleansing action of soap :
A soap molecule contains a polar part (COONa+) called polar end and a non-polar part consisting of a long chain carbon atoms. This part is called hydrocarbon end.
The polar end is water soluble whereas hydrocarbon part is water-repellent and oil soluble.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 85
When an oily (dirty) piece of cloth is put into soap solution, the hydrocarbon part of the molecule attaches itself to the oily drop and the -COO end orients itself towards water. Na+ ions in solution arrange themselves around the -COO ions. The negatively charged micelle so formed entraps the oily dirt. The negatively charged micelle repel each other due to the electrostatic repulsion. As a result, the tiny oily dirt particles do not come together and get washed away in water during rinsing.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 86

In hard water, soap does not form lather as hard water contains Ca2+and Mg2+ ions. Soap reacts with these ions to form insoluble calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 87
Two problems which arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps are :
(i) Synthetic detergents are non-biodegradable and hence, cause water pollution.
(ii) Synthetic detergents also cause skin related problems.

Question 106.
What are micelles? Why does it form when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also? State briefly how the formation of micelles help to clean the clothes having oily spots. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 104.
Refer to answer 105.

Question 107.
(a) You have three unlabelled test tubes containing ethanol, ethanoic acid and soap solution. Explain the method you would use to identify the compounds in different test tubes by chemical tests using litmus paper and sodium metal.
(b) Give the reason of formation of scum when soaps are used with hard water. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) The tests may be tabulated as below:

s.no. Solution Blue litmus paper Red litmus paper Sodium Metal
1. Ethanol No change No change Hydrogen gas
2. Ethanoic acid Turns red No change Hydrogen gas
3. Soap solution No change Turns blue No reaction

(b) Hard water contains hydrogen carbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium. When soap is added to hard water it reacts with these salts to form scum which is insoluble in water and floats on the top of the water surface. The scum is formed due to the formation of insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids.
Carbon and its Compounds Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science Img 88

Question 108.
What is the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents, chemically? Explain the cleansing action of soaps. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 105.

Question 109.
What is the difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents? State in brief the action of soaps in removing an oily spot from a shirt. Why are soaps not considered suitable for washing where water is hard? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answers 105 and 107(b).

Question 110.
What are detergents chemically? List two merits and two demerits of using detergents for cleansing. State the reason for the suitability of detergents for washing, even in the case of water having calcium and magnesium ions. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate or sulphate salts of long chain carboxylic acids. The more common detergents are sodium salts of long chain alkyl benzene sulphonic acids.
Merits of using detergents :
(i) Detergents are very strong cleansing agents.
(ii) They can form lather well even in hard water as they do not form insoluble calcium or magnesium salts.

Demerits of using detergents :
(i) As detergents are sodium salts of long chain alkyl benzene sulphonic acids which are very bulky molecules, are not easily degraded by bacteria and hence, they are non-biodegradable.
(ii) They are highly basic in nature and cause damage to skin.

Synthetic detergents can be used even in hard water because they do not react with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water. They do not form curdy white precipitates (scum) of calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids.

Question 111.
What are soaps and detergents chemically? Explain the action of cleaning by soaps. State the reason why we can wash our clothes even in hard water using detergents. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answers 105 and 110.

Question 112.
(a) What is a soap? Why are soaps not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard?
(b) Explain the action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 105 and 107(b).
(b) Refer to answer 105.

Question 113.
(a) What is a detergent? Name one detergent.
(b) Write two advantages and two dis-advantages of using detergents over soaps.
(c) Why, by using a detergent, can we wash clothes even in hard water?
Answer:
(a) Detergents are ammonium or sulphonate or sulphate salts of long chain hydrocarbons containing 12-18 carbon atoms e.g., dodecyl benzene sulphonate.
(b) Refer to answer 110.
(c) Refer to answer 110.

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Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Periodic Classification of Elements Class 10 Science Chapter 5 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Periodic Classification of Elements Class 10 Science Chapter 5

Question 1.
State Mendeleev s Periodic law.
Answer:
Medeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic masses.

Question 2.
Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in the Periodic table?
Answer:
Mendeleev left some gaps in the periodic table for yet to be discovered elements. Mendeleev predicted the properties of these elements on the basic of their positions. For example, he predicted the properties of gallium (eka-aluminium) and germanium (eka-silicon) which were unknown at that time.

Question 3.
If the letter ‘R’ was used to represent any of the elements in the group, then the hydride and oxide of carbon would respectively be represented as
(a) RH4, RO
(b) PH4, RO2
(c) RH2, RO2
(d) RH2, RO
Answer:
(b) CH4 is written for hydride and CO2 is written for oxide of carbon.

Question 4.
Isotopes are
(a) atoms of an element with similar chemical properties but different atomic masses
(b) atoms of different elements with similar chemical properties but different atomic masses
(c) atoms of an element with different chemical properties but same atomic masses
(d) atoms of different elements with different chemical properties but same atomic masses. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Isotopes have same atomic number, hence similar chemical properties and different atomic masses.

Question 5.
How many metals are present in second period of periodic table? (2020)
Answer:
Two metals (lithium and beryllium) are present in second period of periodic table.

Question 6.
On the basis of electronic configuration of \(_{5}^{9}\)X, the group number and period of the element ‘X’ is
(a) group 15 period 2
(b) group 13 period 2
(c) group 9 period 5
(d) group 13 period 5. (2020)
Answer:
(b) For element X of atomic number 5, the electronic configuration is 2,3. So, it has 3 valence electrons and hence it belongs to group 13. As five electrons are filled in two shells, so it belongs to 2nd period.

Question 7.
An element ‘X’ with atomic number 11 forms a compound with element ‘Y’ with atomic number 8. The formula of the compound formed is
(a) XY
(b) X2Y
(c) XY2
(d) X2Y3 (2020)
Answer:
(b): The electronic configuration of X is 2, 8, 1. Hence, it belongs to group 1. Its valency is 1.
The electronic configuration of Y is 2, 6. Hence, it belongs to group 16. Its valency is 2
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 1

Question 8.
Define electropositivity. (2020)
Answer:
Electropositivity is the measure of the ability of elements (mainly metals) to donate electrons to form positive ions.

Question 9.
The atomic radii of first group elements are given below:

Group-I element Atomic Radii (pm)
Na 86
K 231
Rb 244
Cs 282

State the reason behind the observed trend in the above elements. (2020)
Answer:
On moving down the group, the new shells are being added. This increase the distance between outermost shell and nucleus, hence the atomic radii of elements increase gradually down the group in spite of the increase in nuclear change.

Question 10.
An element ‘X’ is forming an acidic oxide. Its position in modern periodic table will be
(a) group 1 and period 3
(b) group 2 and period 3
(c) group 13 and period 3
(d) group 16 and period 3. (2020)
Answer:
(d) : As the element X forms an acidic oxide, hence ‘X is a non-metal. Hence, X is sulphur.

Question 11.
Consider the following statements about an element ‘X with number of protons 13.
(A) It forms amphoteric oxide.
(B) Its valency is three.
(C) The formula of its chloride is XCl3.
The correct statements is/are
(a) only (A)
(b) only (B)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (C). (2020)
Answer:
(d) The number of protons in X is 13. Hence, its atomic number is 13. The electronic configuration of X is 2, 8, 3. Hence, it is a group 13 element i.e., X is aluminium. Aluminium forms amphoteric oxide, its valency is 3 and formula of aluminium chloride is AlCl3.

Question 12.
Write the number of valence electrons present in a nitrogen atom (\({ }_{7}^{14}\)N). (2020)
Answer:
The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Its electronic configuration is 2, 5. The number of valence electrons in it is five.

Question 13.
Write the number of vertical columns in the Modern Periodic Table. What are these columns called? (Delhi 2014, 2013)
Answer:
There are 18 vertical columns in the Modern periodic table which are called groups.

Question 14.
Write the number of horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table. What are these rows called? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
There are seven horizontal rows of elements in the Modern periodic table which are known as periods.

Question 15.
Write any one difference in the electronic configurations of group 1 and group 2 elements. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Group 1 elements have one electron in their outermost shell while group 2 elements have two electrons in their outermost shell.

Question 16.
List any two properties of the elements belonging to the first group of the Modern Periodic Tablet (AI 2014)
Answer:
Two properties of the elements belonging to the first group:
(i) As the elements belong to group 1, so they have one electron in their outermost shell hence, valency of these elements is one.
(ii) Alkali metals (group 1 elements) are electropositive in nature.

Question 17.
Write the atomic numbers of two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ having electronic configurations 2, 8, 2 and 2, 8, 6 respectively. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 2
∴ Atomic number = 2+ 8 + 2 = 12 Similarly,
Electronic configuration of Y = 2, 8, 6
∴ Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 6 = 16

Question 18.
The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 12, 18 and 20 respectively. State giving reason, which two elements will show similar properties. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Atomic number of A = 12
∴ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
Similarly, for B(18) = 2, 8, 8
for C(20) = 2, 8, 8, 2
As elements A and C contain two valence electrons in their outermost shell (group-2) they will show similar properties.

Question 19.
State the Modern periodic law of classification of elements. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Question 20.
Out of the three elements P, Q and R having atomic numbers 11, 17 and 19 respectively, which two elements will show similar properties and why? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Atomic number of P = 11 Electronic configuration of P = 2, 8,1 Electronic configuration of Q(17) = 2, 8, 7 and for 11(19) = 2, 8, 8, 1
Thus, from electronic configurations of P and R, it is observed that they belong to group 1 as both have one valence electron and have valency equal to 1. Thus, P and R will have similar properties.

Question 21.
Write the formula used to determine the maximum number of electrons which a shell in an atom can accommodate. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell, is given by the formula 2n², where ‘n is the number of the shell.

Question 22.
How it can be proved that the basic structure of the Modern Periodic Table is based on the electronic configuration of atoms of different elements? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of an element decides its position in Modern periodic table.
Lets take an example of sodium (Na).
Atomic number of sodium =11 Thus, electronic configuration of Na = 2, 8, 1 As Na contains 1 electron in its outermost shell, it belongs to group 1. Sodium contains 3 shells so, it belongs to period number 3.
Thus, we can conclude that
Group number = Number of valence electrons
(When valence electrons are 1 and 2) and group number = 10 + valence electrons
(When valence electrons are 3 and above) Period number = Number of shells in which electrons are filled.

Question 23.
The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 4. State its
(a) group and period in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) name and write its one physical property. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(a) The element belongs to group 14 and 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) The element is silicon. It is non-lustrous.

Question 24.
An element X has atomic number 13 :
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) State the group to which ‘X’ belongs?
(c) Is ‘X a metal or a non-metal?
(d) Write the formula of its bromide. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
X has atomic number = 13
(a) Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 3
(b) As X contains 3 valence electrons in its outermost shell, it belongs to group 13.
(c) X is a metal as it contains 3 valence electrons which can be lost easily.
(d) Formula of X with bromine will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 2

Question 25.
How can the valency of an element be determined if its electronic configuration is known? What will be the valency of an element of atomic number 9(nine)? (Delhi 2012, 2011)
Answer:
Valency of an element is determined by the number of electrons present in its outermost shell. For elements having outermost electrons 1 to 4, valencies are equivalent to their respective valence electrons.
For elements having outermost electrons 5 to 8, valency is calculated as;
Valency = 8 – (Number of valence electrons)
For element having atomic number = 9
Electronic configuration = 2, 7
Valency = 8 – 7 = 1

Question 26.
Choose from the following :
6C, 8O, 10Ne, 11Na, 14Si
(i) Elements that should be in the same period.
(ii) Elements that should be in the same group.
State reason for your selection in each case. (AI 2012)
Answer:
The electronic configurations of the given elements are:
6C = 2, 4
8O = 2, 6
10Ne = 2, 8
11Na = 2, 8,1
14Si = 2, 8, 4
(i) 6C, 8O, 10Ne, all contain two shells hence, they belong to same period i.e., second period.
11Na, 14Si both contain three shells hence, they belong to third period.
(6C, 8O, 10Ne) ⇒ period number 2
(11Na, 14Si) ⇒ period number 3

(ii) 6C and 14Si belong to the same group as they both contain 4 electrons in their outermost shell. Thus, 6C and 14Si belong to group 14.

Question 27.
An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 17 of the periodic table. State its
(i) electronic configuration, (ii) valency Justify your answer with reason. (AI 2012)
Answer:
As element X belongs to group 17, it will have 7 electrons in its outermost shell. Moreover, X belongs to period number 3 so, it will have 3 shells.
(i) Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7
(ii) Valency of element X
= 8 – (Number of valence electrons) = 8 – 7 = 1

Question 28.
Choose from the following :
4Be, 9F, 19K, 20Ca
(i) The element having one electron in the outermost shell.
(ii) Two elements of the same group. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
The electronic configurations of the given elements are:
4Be = 2, 2
9F = 2, 7
19K = 2, 8, 8,1
20Ca = 2, 8, 8, 2
(i) Potassium (K) has one electron in its outermost shell.
(ii) Be and Ca have two electrons in their outermost shells hence, they belong to same group.

Question 29.
An element has atomic number 13.
(a) What is the group and period number to which this element belongs?
(b) Is this element a metal or a non-metal? Justify your answer. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Atomic number of element = 13
Thus, its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3
(a) From the electronic configuration, it can be easily seen that there are 3 electrons in the outermost shell which indicates that it belongs to group number 10 + 3 = 13.
Moreover, the element has 3 shells in which electrons are filled thus, it belongs to period number 3.
(b) As the element contains 3 valence electrons which can be easily lost thus, it is a metal.

Question 30.
How does the electronic configuration of an
atom of an element relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table? Explain with one example. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 22.

Question 31.
How does the valency of elements vary (i) in going down a group, and (ii) in going from left to right in a period of the periodic table? (AI 2011)
Answer:
(i) When we go down the group the valency of elements remains same.
(ii) When we move along the period from left to right, the valency of elements first increases and then decreases.

Question 32.
In the Modern Periodic Table, the element calcium (atomic number = 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these elements has physical and chemical properties resembling those of calcium and why? (AI 2011)
Answer:
From the given data, the electronic configuration of different elements can be written as:
Calcium (20) = 2, 8, 8, 2
Element with atomic number 12 = 2, 8, 2
Element with atomic number 19 = 2, 8, 8,1
Element with atomic number 21 = 2, 8, 8, 3
Element with atomic number 38 = 2, 8,18, 8, 2

It can be easily seen that elements with atomic numbers 12 and 38 have two electrons in their outermost shell thus, they belong to same group as that of calcium. So, they will show the physical and chemical properties resembling those of calcium.

Question 33.
In the periodic table, how does the tendency of atoms to loose electrons change on going from
(i) left to right across a period?
(ii) top to bottom in a group? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) Tendency of atoms to loose electrons decreases from left to right in a period due to increase in effective nuclear charge.
(ii) Tendency of atoms to loose electrons increases down the group due to increase in atomic radii.

Question 34.
What is meant by periodicity of properties of elements? Why are the properties of elements placed in the same group of the periodic table similar? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
When elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers, elements with similar chemical properties are repeated at definite intervals. Ibis is known as periodicity of properties of elements.
Elements placed in the same group of the periodic table have similar properties because they have same number of outermost electrons and hence, show same valency. Thus, they all will form similar type of compounds.

Question 35.
The position of three elements A, B and C in the modern periodic table is as follows :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 3
(a) Write formula of compound formed between:
(i) B and A (ii) B and C
(b) Is any of the three elements a metal? Give reason to justify your answer. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) B belongs to group 1, hence its valency is 1.
A belongs to group 17, hence its valency is also 1.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 4

(ii) C belongs to group 16, hence, its valency is 2.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 5

(b) As B belongs to group 1, it contains one valence electron which can be easily lost. Hence, B is a metal.

Question 36.
Three elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) Arrange them in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.
(b) Which of the three is most electronegative? Why?
(c) Write the formula of compound formed between
(i) X and Y (ii) X and Z (2020)
Answer:
For element X of atomic number 7, the electronic configuration is 2, 5 so it has 5 valence electrons and hence, it belongs to group 15. As seven electrons are filled in two shells so, it belongs to 2nd period.
Similarly, for 7(8), electronic configuration = 2, 6
Period number = 2, Group number = 16 and for Z(9) = 2, 7
Period number = 2, Group number = 17

(a) As size of the atoms decreases on moving from left to right in a period so, the order of atomic radii will be : X > Y > Z.
(b) As electronegativity increases in moving left to right in a period so, the most electronegative element will be Z.
(c) (i) Formula of the compound when X combines with Y
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 6

(ii) Formula of the compound when X combines with Z:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 7

Question 37.
Based on the group valency of elements write the molecular formula of the following compounds giving justification for each:
(i) Oxide of first group elements
(ii) Halide of the elements of group thirteen, and
(iii) Compound formed when an element, A of group 2 combines with an element, B of group seventeen. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(i) Oxides of group 1 elements :
Let the element be A.
As A belongs to group 1 of the periodic table, it will have valency = 1.
So, chemical formula of its oxide will be A O
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 8

(ii) Halides of the element of group-13 :
Let the element be D.
As D belongs to group 13, it will have valency = 3 Halide X has the valency = 1
So, chemical formula will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 9

(iii) Valency of A = 2
Valency of B = 1
Chemical formula of the compound will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 10

Question 38.
Write the names given to the vertical columns and horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table. How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving down a vertical column? How does the size of atomic radius vary on moving left to right in a horizontal row? Give reason in support of your answer in the above two cases. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
In Modern periodic table, there are 18 vertical columns called groups and 7 horizontal rows called periods.
The elements which have a greater tendency to loose electrons are more metallic thus, the metallic character of elements increases down the group as their tendency to loose electrons increases. Atomic radius decreases as we move from left to right in a horizontal row. At each successive element, the electron enters to the same shell due to which there is increase in nuclear charge and the electrons are pulled with greater attractive force. Hence, the atomic size decreases.

Question 39.
An element P (atomic number 20) reacts with an element Q (atomic number 17) to form a compound. Answer the following question giving reason:
Write the position of P and Q in the Modern Periodic Table and the molecular formula of the compound formed when P reacts with Q. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Atomic number of P = 20
∴ Electronic configuration of P = 2, 8, 8, 2
Atomic number of Q = 17
∴ Electronic configuration of Q = 2, 8, 7 As P contains 4 shells, it belongs to 4th period and due to presence of two valence electrons, it belongs to 2nd group.
Similarly, Q contains 3 shells and 7 valence electrons thus, it belongs to 3rd period and 17th (10 + 7) group.
The molecular formula of compound formed when P reacts with Q will be :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 11

Question 40.
Write the number of periods and groups in the Modern Periodic Table. How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving (i) from left to right in a period, and
(ii) down a group? Give reason to justify your answer. (AI 2017)
Answer:
In the Modern periodic table, there are 18 vertical columns called groups and 7 horizontal rows called periods.
Trend of metallic character :
(i) Along the period from left to right: Metallic character of elements decreases as we move from left to right in a period. Metallic character depends on the electropositive character (tendency to loose electrons) of the elements. As we go across the period from left to right, one electron is added to same shell at every stage which increases the effective nuclear charge and hence, valence electrons becomes more and more closer to the nucleus. Due to this, the tendency of atoms to loose valence electrons and form positive ions decreases. Hence, electropositive character decreases resulting in decrease of metallic character.

(ii) Down the group : Metallic character of elements increases on moving down the group as the electropositive character increases down the group.

Question 41.
Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd periods of the Modern Periodic Table having group number 1,2 and 13 respectively. Which one of these elements has the
(a) highest valency, (b) largest atomic radius, and (c) maximum chemical reactivity? Justify your answer stating the reason for each. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Period number of Na, Mg and Al = 3
Group numbers of Na, Mg and Al are 1, 2 and 13 respectively.
(a) Aluminium (Al) will show highest valency of +3 as it belongs to group number 13 (valency = 13 – 10 = 3). Moreover, along the period from left to right valency first increases to maximum (+4) and then decreases.
(b) Sodium (Na) will have the largest atomic radius because as we move along the period from left to right, the atomic radius decreases.
(c) Sodium (Na) will have maximum chemical reactivity because as we move along the period from left to right, chemical reactivity of metals decreases.

Question 42.
Calcium is an element with atomic number 20. Stating reason answer each of the following questions:
(i) Is calcium a metal or non-metal?
(ii) Will its atomic radius be larger or smaller than that of potassium with atomic number 19?
(iii) Write the formula of its oxide. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given that, atomic number of calcium is 20.
So, its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2 .
(i) As, it has 2 valence electrons in the outermost shell which can be easily lost, so it is a metal.
(ii) Atomic number of K (potassium) is 19 so, it is placed before Ca(20) in the same period.
On moving from left to right in a period, the atomic radius decreases.
Hence, atomic radius of Ca(20) will be smaller than that of K(19).
(iii) The valency of calcium as well as oxygen is 2 thus, the formula of the oxide will be CaO.

Question 43.
An element M with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) combines separately with (NO\(_{3}^{-}\)), (SO\(_{4}^{2-}\)) and (PO\(_{4}^{3-}\)) radicals. Write the formula of the three compounds so formed. To which group and period of the Modern Periodic Table does the element M belong? Will M form covalent or ionic compounds? Give reason to justify your answer. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of M is 2, 8, 2 which shows that it belongs to group 2 and period 3 of the Modern periodic table.
As it has 2 valence electrons, so the valency of element M will be 2.
The chemical formulae of the compounds formed will be
M(NO3)2,MSO4, M3(PO4)2
As M has two valence electrons, it can easily loose these electrons to attain a noble gas configuration. Hence, M will form ionic compounds.

Question 44.
Name any two elements of group one and write their electronic configurations. What similarity do you observe in their electronic configurations? Write the formula of oxide of any of the aforesaid element. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Two elements of group 1 are sodium (Na) and potassium (K).
Electronic configuration of Na (11) = 2, 8, 1
Electronic configuration of K (19) = 2, 8, 8, 1
From the electronic configuration, we observe that both (Na and K) have one electron in outermost shell due to which they have valency equal to one.
Thus, formula of their oxides are, Na2O and K2O.

Question 45.
Two elements A and B belong to the 3rd period of Modern Periodic Table and are in group 2 and 13 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form.
(a) Number of electrons in their atoms
(b) Size of their atoms
(c) Their tendencies to loose electrons
(d) The formula of their oxides
(e) Their metallic characters
(f) The formula of their chlorides (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of A = 2, 8, 2 i.e., Mg
Electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 3 i.e., Al

Characteristics A B
(a) No. of electrons in their atoms 12 13
(b) Size of their atoms Bigger Smaller
(c) Tendency to loose electrons More Less
(d) Formula of their oxides AO B2O3
(e) Metallic character More Less
(f) Formula of their chlorides ACl2 BCl2

Question 46.
An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X
(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot structure.
(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic. (AI 2016)
Answer:
(a) As the element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period so, it will have three energy shells. Moreover, it belongs to 16th group, so it will have six valence electrons.
∴ Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 6
Thus, valence electrons = 6 and valency = 8 – 6 = 2

(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when X reacts with hydrogen = H2X The electron dot structure is as :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 12

(c) The element X is sulphur and it is a non-metal.

Question 47.
An element ‘X’ has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic configuration of ‘X’ Also write group number, period number and valency of X. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Mass number of X = 35
Number of neutrons = 18
∴ Number of electrons = Number of protons – (Mass number – Number of neutrons)
= 35 – 18 = 17
Number of electrons of X = Atomic number of X= 17
Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7 As it has 7 electrons in the outermost shell, so it belongs to 17th group. Moreover the electrons are present in three shells, so it belongs to 3rd period. Valency of X = 8 – 7 = 1

Question 48.
Three elements ‘X\ ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) State their positions (group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.
(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when X’ combines with ‘Z’. (AI 2016)
Answer:
(a) For element X of atomic number 7, the electronic configuration is 2, 5 so it has 5 valence electrons and hence, it belongs to group 15. As seven electrons are filled in two shells so, it belongs to 2nd period.
Similarly, for Y(8), electronic configuration = 2, 6
Period number = 2, Group number = 16 and for Z(9) = 2, 7
Period number = 2, Group number = 17

(b) As size of the atoms decreases on moving from left to right in a period so, the order of atomic radii will be : X > Y > Z

(c) Formula of the compound when X combines with Z:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 13

Question 49.
The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

Period No
2 Li (3) Be (4)
3 Na (11) Mg (12)
4 K (19) Ca (20)
5 Rb (37) Sr (38)

Write the electronic configuration of Ca.
(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.
(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?
(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal?
(v) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?
(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms. (AI 2016)
Answer:
(i) Atomic number of Ca = 20
∴ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2
(ii) Rb (37), electronic configuration = 2, 8, 18, 8, 1
Thus, number of valence electrons = 1
(iii) As Sr (38) belongs to period number 5 so, it will have 5 shells.
(iv) As K(19) = 2, 8, 8, 1
s0, it has 1 valence electron which can be easily lost to attain the noble gas configuration. Hence, potassium (K) is a metal.
(v) Size of the atom increases down the group and decreases from left to right along a period. Thus, Rb (37) will be the largest atom among given elements.
(vi) Increasing order of atomic size is Be < Mg < Ca < Rb

Question 50.
An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8)
(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine. (AI 2016)
Answer:
(a) As X belongs to group 13 so, it will have three valence electrons and valency of X will be 3.
(b) Atomic number of Y = 8
∴ Electronic configuration = 2, 6
Valency of Y = 8 – 6 = 2
Molecular formula of the compound when X reacts with element Y:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 14
(c) As X belongs to 3rd period and group number 13, so it will be aluminium (Al).
For chlorine (17), electronic configuration = 2,8,7
∴ Valency of Cl = 8 – 7 = 1
∴ Formula of the compound :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 15

Question 51.
State the main aim of classifying elements. Which is the more fundamental property of elements that is used in the development of Modern Periodic Table? Name and state the law based on this fundamental property. On which side of the periodic table one can find metals, non-metals and metalloids? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
The main aim of classifying elements is the prediction of their properties with more precision (systematic study of known elements).
– When the elements are arranged on the basis of increasing atomic number then it is easier to predict their properties. This led to the development of Modern periodic table.
– Modern periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
– In Modern periodic table, the metals like sodium and magnesium are towards left hand side while the non-metals like sulphur and chlorine are found on the right hand side. Elements like silicon, germanium, etc. which lie along the border line (group 13 to groupl6) are semi-metals or metalloids because they exhibit some properties of both metals and non-metals.

Question 52.
An element ‘X’ (atomic number 20) burns in the presence of oxygen to form a basic oxide.
(a) Identify the element and write its electronic configuration.
(b) State its group number and period number in the Modern Periodic Table.
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction when this oxide is dissolved in water. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) Atomic number of element X is 20 so, it is calcium (Ca).
Electronic configuration of Ca = 2, 8, 8, 2
(b) As calcium has two valence electrons in its outermost shell, so it belongs to group 2.
Moreover, it has four shells which indicates that it belongs to period number 4.
(c) Calcium forms a basic oxide having the formula:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 16
When calcium oxide is treated with water then calcium hydroxide is formed.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 17

Question 53.
An element ‘X’ belongs to third period and second group of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) Is it a metal or non-metal? Why?
(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element
(i) Y of electronic configuration 2, 6 and
(ii) Z of electronic configuration 2, 8, 7. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Third period indicates that it has three shells while group 2 indicates that it has two valence electrons in its outermost shell.
Thus, X must be magnesium (Mg).
(a) Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
(b) As X has two valence electrons in its outermost shell which can be easily lost to form a noble gas configuration, so it is a metal.
(c) (i) Electronic configuration of Y = 2, 6 Hence, valency of Y = 8 – 6 = 2
Formula of compound formed when X reacts with Y is
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 18
(ii) Electronic configuration of Z = 2, 8, 7
Hence, valency of Z = 8 – 7 = l
Formula of compound formed when X reacts with Z is
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 19

Question 54.
The atomic number of an element X is 19.
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) To which period of the Modern Periodic Table does it belong and what is its valency?
(c) If ‘X’ burns in oxygen to form its oxide, what will be its nature – acidic, basic or neutral?
Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction when this oxide is dissolved in water. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Atomic number of X = 19
(a) Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 8,1
(b) X has four shells so, the period number of X = 4. Moreover, it has one electron in its outermost shell, so the valency of X will be equal to one.
(c) Electronic configuration of X shows that it is a metal and metals form basic oxides.
(d) When oxide of X is dissolved in water then its hydroxide will be formed.
X2O + H2O → 2XOH

Question 55.
How does the tendency of the elements to loose electrons change in the Modern Periodic Table in (i) a group, (ii) a period and why? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(i) Tendency of the elements to loose electrons increases down the group. The reason being that at each succeeding element down a group, the number of shells increases. So, the distance of the valence shell from the nucleus increases due to which the effective nuclear charge decreases on the last shell of electrons. So, it becomes easier for the atom to loose electrons.

(ii) Tendency of the elements to loose electrons decreases in a period from left to right. The reason being that as the electron enters to the same shell at each successive element the effective nuclear charge on the valence shell electron increases, the attraction between the valence electrons and nucleus increases so, it becomes difficult to loose electrons.

Question 56.
How many groups and periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table? How do the atomic size and metallic character of elements vary as we move:
(a) down a group and
(b) from left to right in a period? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the Modern periodic table.
– Atomic size increases down the group, while moving from left to right in a period it decreases.
– Metallic character of elements increases down the group while moving from left to right in a period it decreases.

Question 57.
Na, Mg and A1 are the elements of the same period of Modern Periodic Table having one, two and three valence electrons respectively. Which of these elements (i) has the largest atomic radius, (ii) is least reactive? Justify your answer stating reason for each case. (Delhi 2015, AI2012)
Answer:
Na, Mg and A1 belong to same period of Modern periodic table.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 20
(i) Sodium (Na) will have the largest atomic radius because as we move from left to right in a period, atomic size decreases due to increase in effective nuclear charge which pulls the outermost electrons more closer to the nucleus.

(ii) Aluminium (Al) is least reactive because on moving from left to right in the periodic table the nuclear charge increases, so the valence electrons are pulled more closer to the nucleus. Therefore, the tendency to loose electrons decreases and hence, reactivity decreases.

Question 58.
From the following elements :
4Be; 9F; 19K; 20Ca
(i) Select the element having one electron in the outermost shell.
(ii) Two elements of the same group.
Write the formula and mention the nature of the compound formed by the union of 19K and element X (2, 8, 7). (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 28.
The, formula of compound when K combines with X is
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 21
As K has one electron in its outermost shell, so it transfers this electron to outermost shell of X and hence, an ionic compound is formed.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 22

Question 59.
Write the number of periods the Modern Periodic Table has. State the changes in valency and metallic character of elements as we move from left to right in a period. Also state the changes, if any, in the valency and atomic size of elements as we move down a group. (Delhi 2015, 2013)
Answer:
There are 7 periods in the Modern periodic table.
As we move along the period from left lo right then valency of the elements first increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to 0.
On moving from left to right in a period the metallic character of elements decreases as the electropositive character of elements decreases across the period.
On moving down the group, the valency of the elements remains the same while atomic size increases. This is due to addition of new shell of electrons at every successive step.

Question 60.
Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the Modern Periodic Table and are in Group-1 and Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:
(a) The number of electrons in their atoms.
(b) The sizes of their atoms.
(c) Their metallic character.
(d) Their tendencies to loose electrons.
(e) The formula of their oxides.
(f) The formula of their chlorides. (AI 2015)
Answer:
The given characteristics can be tabulated as follows:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 23

Question 61.
Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the atom of an element relates to its position in the Modern Periodic Table and how valency of an element is calculated on the basis of its atomic number. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Atomic number of the element = 16
Thus, electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
Since, this element contains 3 shells hence, it belongs to period number 3.
As the element has 6 valence electrons, group number = 10 + 6 = 16
The valency of an element is determined by the number of electrons present in the outermost shell.
∴ Valency of the element = 8 – valence electrons
= 8 – 6 = 2

Question 62.
Given below are some elements of the Modern Periodic Table. Atomic number of the element is given in the parentheses : A(4),B(9),C(14),D(19),£(20)
(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also write the electronic configuration of this element.
(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reason for your answer.
(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger atomic radius? (AI 2015)
Answer:
The electronic configuration of the given elements will be as follows :
A(4) = 2, 2
B(9) = 2, 7
C(14) = 2, 8,4
D(19) = 2, 8, 8,1
E(20) = 2, 8, 8, 2

(a) Element D will have one electron in its outermost shell.
(b) Elements A and E will belong to same group as both of them have same electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) A and B belong to period number 2 (two shells). A has bigger atomic radius than B.
D and E belong to period number 4 (four shells). D has bigger atomic radius than E.

Question 63.
The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 20.
(i) Determine the position of the element X in the periodic table.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’) reacts/combines with another elements ‘Y’ (atomic number 8).
(iii) What would be the nature (acidic or basic) of the compound formed? Justify your answer. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 52.

Question 64.
An element X is placed in the 3rd group and 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table. Answer the following questions stating reason for your answer in each case :
(a) Write the electronic configuration of the element X.
(b) Write the formula of the compound formed when the element X reacts with another element ‘Y’ of atomic number 17.
(c) Will the oxide of this element be acidic or basic? (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
X is placed in 3rd group (IIIA) and 3rd period of the Modern periodic table then it must be aluminium (Al).
As it belongs to 3rd group so it will have 3 electrons in its outermost shell.
Also it belongs to 3rd period, so it will have 3 shells.
(a) Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 3
(b) Atomic number of Y = 17
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
Valency of V = 8 – 7 = 1
Formula of compound formed when X reacts with Y:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 24
(c) Al2O3 is amphoteric in nature i.e., acidic as well as basic oxide.

Question 65.
Four elements P, Q, R and S belong to the third period of the Modern Periodic Table and have respectively 1, 3, 5 and 7 electrons in their outermost shells. Write the electronic configurations of Q and R and determine their valencies. Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when P and S combine. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
P, Q, R and S all belong to 3rd period so, all of them will have 3 shells and the number of electrons in their outermost shell is 1, 3,5 and 7 respectively.
∴ Electronic configuration of Q = 2, 8, 3 and its valency = 3
Similarly, electronic configuration of R = 2, 8, 5
and its valency = 8 – 5 = 3
Electronic configuration of P = 2, 8, 1
Thus, valepcy of P = 1
Electronic configuration of S = 2, 8, 7
Thus, valency of S = 8 – 7 = 1
Molecular formula of the compound :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 25

Question 66.
In the following table, the positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are given as they are in the Modern Periodic Table :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 26
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of B and C, whose atomic radius is bigger and why?
(v) Write the cbmmon name for the family to which the elements D and F belong. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Element E will form only covalent compounds because it has 4 electrons in the outermost shell so, it can neither loose nor gain 4 electrons, hence E forms compounds by sharing of electrons.
(ii) Element E is a metal having valency 3 as it belongs to group 13.
(iii) C is a non-metal with valency (8 – 5 = 3).
(iv) Out of B and C, B will be bigger in size because as we move along the period from left to right, the atomic radius decreases due to addition of electrons in the same shell at each successive element. Hence, nucleus pulls electrons more towards the centre.
(v) D and E belong to group 18 and are called noble gases.

Question 67.
Based on the group valency of elements state the formula for the following giving justification for each:
(i) Oxides of 1st group elements,
(ii) Halides of the elements of group-13, and
(iii) Compounds formed when an element of group-2 combines with an element of group-16. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 37(i).
(ii) Refer to answer 37(ii).
(iii) Compounds formed when element of group-2 combines with an element of group-16 :
Let the group-2 element be X and group-16 element be Y.
Valency of X = 2
Valency of Y = 2
Chemical formula of the compound will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 27

Question 68.
(a) Define the following terms :
(i) Valency; (ii) Atomic size
(b) How do the valency and the atomic size of the elements vary while going from left to right along a period in the Modern Periodic Table? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) (i) Valency: It is defined as the combining capacity of the element which is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell of its atom.
(ii) Atomic size : It is defined as the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated atom.

(b) On moving from left to right in the period, the valency of elements increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to 0.
This is because the elements in a period do not have the same number of valence electrons hence, they do not show same valency.
The atomic size decreases on moving from left to right along a period due to increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.

Question 69.
Consider two elements X (atomic number 17) and Y (atomic number 20).
(i) Write the positions of these elements in the Modern Periodic Table giving justification.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed by the combination of X and Y.
(iii) Draw the electron-dot structure of the compound formed and state the nature of the bond formed between the two elements. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Atomic number of X = 17
Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7
Atomic number of Y = 20
Electronic configuration of Y = 2, 8, 8, 2
(i) From the electronic configurations, we can easily observe that X contains 3 shells so, it belongs to period 3 and it contains 7 electrons in the outermost shell so, it belongs to group-17. Similarly for Y, it has 4 shells which implies that it belongs to period 4 and Y contains two electrons in the outermost shell so, it belongs to group-2.

(ii) Valency of X = 1
Valency of Y = 2
Thus, formula of the compound formed will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 28

(iii) Electron dot structure of the compound will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 29

As two electrons present in the outermost shell of Y are donated to two different atoms of X thus, it will be an ionic bond (formed by the complete transfer of electrons).

Question 70.
Consider two elements ‘A’ (Atomic number 17) and ‘B’ (Atomic number 19).
(i) Write the positions of these elements in the Modern Periodic Table giving justification.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘A’ combines with ‘B’.
(iii) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound and state the nature of the bond formed between the two elements. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Atomic number of A = 17
Electronic configuration of A = 2, 8, 7
Atomic number of B = 19
Electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 8, 1
(i) From the electronic configuration of A, it can be easily observed that A contains three shells which indicates that it belongs to period 3. Moreover, it has seven valence electrons in its outermost shell which indicates that it belongs to group 17.
Similarly for B, it has 4 shells so, it belongs to period 4 and it has one electron in outermost shell so, it belongs to group 1.

(ii) The molecular formula of the compound when A combines with B will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 30
As A contains 7 electrons in the outermost shell so, it is an electropegative element that is why A is placed after B.

(iii) The electron dot structure will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 31
The one electron present in the outermost shell of B gets transferred to the outermost shell of A and hence, ionic bond is formed.

Question 71.
The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in the three shells having 1, 3, 5 and 7 electrons in the outermost shell respectively. State the period in which these elements can be placed in the Modern Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms of A and D and the molecular formula of the compound formed when A and D combine. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 65.

Question 72.
Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are in the Modern Periodic Table :
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 32
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and why?
(v) Write the common name for the family to which the elements C and F belong. (AI 2014)
Answer:
(i) Element E will form only covalent compounds because it has 4 electrons in the outermost shell so, it can neither loose nor gain 4 electrons, hence E forms compounds by sharing of electrons.
(ii) Element D is a metal having valency 3 as it belongs to group 13.
(iii) B is a non-metal with valency (8 – 5 = 3).
(iv) Out of D and E, D will be bigger in size because as we move from left to right in a period there is addition of extra electron in the same shell due to which electrons are pulled more closer to the nucleus.
(v) C and F belong to group 18 and are called noble gases.

Question 73.
What is meant by ‘group’ in the Modern Periodic Table? How do the following change on moving from top to bottom in a group?
(i) Number of valence electrons.
(ii) Number of occupied shells.
(iii) Size of atoms.
(iv) Metallic character of elements.
(v) Effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons. (AI 2014)
Answer:
The vertical columns in the Modern periodic table are called groups. There are total 18 groups in the Modern periodic table.
(i) In a particular group, the number of valence electrons remains the same.
(ii) On moving down the group, there is addition of an extra shell successively. Flence, number of occupied shells increases.
(iii) Due to addition of extra shells down the group, the size of the atoms i.e.. the distance between nucleus and the outermost shell also increases.
(iv) Down the group as atomic size increases, the outermost electron is pulled by nucleus to lesser extent and lienee, tendency to loose electrons increases i.e., metallic character increases.
(v) Effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons decreases down the group due to increase in size of atoms.

Question 74.
The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two electrons in their outermost shells are in periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the Modern Periodic Table. Answer the following questions, giving justification in each case:
(i) Write the group to which these elements belong.
(ii) Name the least reactive element.
(iii) Name the element having largest atomic radius. (AI 2014)
Answer:
(i) As Be, Mg and Ca have two electrons in their outermost shell so, they all belong to group 2.
(ii) Be will be least reactive element, as down the group the reactivity of the metals increases. Be being smaller in size as compared to others will have less tendency to loose electrons and hence, is less reactive.
(iii) As we move down the group, atomic radius increases hence, calcium will have the largest atomic radius.

Question 75.
What are groups and periods in the periodic table? Two elements X and Y belong to group 1 and 2 respectively and are in the same period of the periodic table. How do the following properties of X and Y vary?
(i) Size of their atoms.
(ii) Their metallic character.
(iii) Their valencies in forming oxides.
(iv) Molecular formula of their chlorides. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called periods. There are seven periods in the long form of periodic table.
The vertical columns in a periodic table are called groups. There are 18 groups in the long form of periodic table.
X belongs to group-1 while Y belongs to group-2 of the same period hence, valency of X will be 1 and valency of Y will be 2.
(i) As we move along the period from left to right the size of the atoms decreases. Hence, X will be bigger than Y.
(ii) Across the period from left to right, the metallic character decreases. Hence, X is more metallic than Y.
(iii) The valency of X in its oxide will be 1 and that of Y in its oxide will be 2.
(iv) Molecular formula of their chlorides will be
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 33

Question 76.
Write the number of groups and periods in the Modern Periodic Table. Mention the criteria of placing elements in the (i) same group and (ii) same period. Illustrate your answer with an example for each case. (Foreign 2014, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the Modern periodic table.
(i) For elements to be in the same group, they should have same number of electrons in their outermost shells. For example, sodium and potassium have one electron in their outermost shells, so they belong to same group i.e., group 1.

(ii) For elements to be in the same period, they should have same number of shells. For example, magnesium (12) and aluminium (13) contain three shells so, they belong to period 3.
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 34

Question 77.
Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are in the Modern Periodic Table :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 35
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which will form only covalent compounds.
(ii) Which element is a metal with valency one?
(iii) Which element is a non-metal with valency two?
(iv) Out of D and E, which has a bigger atomic radius and why?
(v) Write the formula of the compound formed when B combines with D.
Answer:
(i) Element E will form only covalent compounds.
(ii) Element D is a metal with valency one as it belongs to group 1.
(iii) Element B is a non-metal with valency 2 as it belongs to group 16 (valency = 8-6 = 2).
(iv) Out of D and E, D will have bigger atomic radius because as we move along the period from left to right there is decrease in atomic radius.
(v) Valency of B = 2 Valency of D = 1
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 36

Question 78.
The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 8, 1.
(i) State its group number and period number in the Modern Periodic Table.
(ii) State whether this element is a metal or a non-metal.
Give reason for the justification of your answer in each case. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of element = 2, 8, 8, 1
(i) It contains one electron in its outermost shell thus, it belongs to group 1. Moreover, the element has 4 shells, so it belongs to period 4.
(ii) As the element contains one electron in its outermost shell which can be easily lost hence, it acts as a metal.

Question 79.
Given below are some elements of the Modern Periodic Table:
4Be, 9F, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca
(i) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell and write its electronic configuration.
(ii) Select two elements that belong to the same group. Give reasons for your answer.
(iii) Select two elements that belong to the same period. Which one of the two has bigger atomic size? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(i), (ii) Refer to answer 28.
(iii) Be and F belong to the same period (period 2). K and Ca belong to the same period (period 4). Among Be and F, Be will be bigger in size and among K and Ca, K will be bigger in size.

Question 80.
An element ‘X’ belongs to the third period and group one of the Modern Periodic Table. Find (i) the number of its valence electrons (ii) its valency, and (iii) whether X is a metal or a non-metal. State reasons to justify your answer in each case. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
As element X belongs to group 1, thus it will have one electron in its outermost shell. Moreover, it belongs to period 3 which implies that X has 3 shells.
(i) Electronic configuration of X will be 2, 8,1 Hence, number of valence electrons = 1
(ii) Valency of X will be 1.
(iii) As X contains 1 valence electron which can be easily lost hence, it is a metal.

Question 81.
F, Cl and Br are the elements each having seven valence electrons. Which of these (i) has the largest atomic radius, (ii) is most reactive? Justify your answer stating reason for each. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) F, Cl and Br all have seven valence electrons so, they belong to the same group. On moving down the group, the atomic size of the elements increases due to addition of extra shell at each successive element. Due to this the average distance between nucleus and outermost electrons increases. Thus, Br is largest in size among F, Cl and Br.

(ii) Fluorine is the most reactive element because the chemical reactivity of non-metals decreases on going down a group as the size of the atoms goes on increasing. Hence, the attraction of incoming electrons decreases. Therefore, the tendency of atoms to gain electrons decreases due to which their reactivity decreases.

Question 82.
(a) How many periods are there in the Modern Periodic Table of elements?
(b) How do atomic radius, valency and metallic character vary down a group?
(c) How do the atomic size and metallic character of elements vary as we move from left to right in a period? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 56.
Valency remains the same in a group, as the number of valence electrons are same. Valency first increases from 1 to 4 in a period and then decreases to 0.

Question 83.
The atomic number of an element is 16. Predict
(i) the number of valence electrons in its atom
(ii) its valency
(iii) its group number
(iv) whether it is a metal or a non-metal
(v) the nature of oxide formed by it
(vi) the formula of its chloride. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Atomic number of element (E) = 16
∴ Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
(i) Number of valence electrons in the atom = 6
(ii) Valency =8-6 = 2
(iii) As there are 6 valence electrons thus, its group number is 10 + 6 = 16
(iv) This element is a non-metal.
(v) The nature of oxide formed by this element is acidic.
(vi) The formula of the chloride of non-metal ‘E‘
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 37

Question 84.
The positions of three elements A, B and C in the periodic table are indicated below :

Group 16 Group 17
(First period)
A (Second period)
(Third period)
B C (Fourth period)

(a) State whether element C would be a metal or a non-metal? Why?
(b) Which is the more active element A or C? Why?
(c) Which type of ion (cation or anion) will be formed by the element C? Why?
Answer:
(a) C belongs to group 17 and hence, it will have 7 valence electrons in the outermost shell and has a tendency to gain electrons thus, it is a non-metal.
(b) Among A and C, A will be more reactive as the reactivity decreases down the group in case of non-metals. So, A has more tendency to gain electrons.
(c) C will form negatively charged ion which is known as anion because group 17 elements have seven electrons in their outermost shell so, they have strong tendency to gain an electron to attain the noble gas configuration.

Question 85.
The position of certain elements in the modern periodic table are shown below :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 38
Using the above table answer the following
questions giving reasons in each case :
(i) Which element will form only covalent compounds?
(ii) Which element is a non-metal with valency 2?
(iii) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(iv) Out of H, C and F which has largest atomic size? (2020)
(v) To which family does H, C and F belong?
Answer:
(i) Element E will form only covalent compounds because it has 4 electrons in the outermost shell so, it can neither loose nor gain 4 electrons, hence E forms compounds by sharing of electrons.
(ii) Element B is a non-metal with valency 2 as it belongs to group 16 (valency = 8 – 6 = 2).
(iii) Element D is a metal with valency two as it belongs to group 2.
(iv) Atomic size increases down the group hence F is largest in size.
(v) H, C and F belongs to noble gas as these are in group-18.

Question 86.
Define atomic size. Give its unit of measurement. In the modern periodic table what trend is observed in the atomic radius in a group and a period and why is it so? (2020)
Answer:
Atomic size : The distance from the center of the nucleus of an isolated atom from outermost shell containing electrons is known as atomic size. The unit of measurement is Angstrom (Å).
Refer to answer 56.

Question 87.
(a) How does metallic character of elements in Modern Periodic Table vary on moving from
(i) left to right in a period
(ii) top to bottom in a group?
Explain with the help of an example in each case.
(b) If an element X is placed in group-14, what will be the nature of bond in its chloride? Write the chemical formula of the compound formed.
(c) An element X has mass number = 35 and number of neutrons = 18. What is the atomic number of X? Write electronic configuration of X and determine its valency. (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 40.
Examples:
Variation of metallic character across the period :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 39
Variation of metallic character down the group :
Periodic Classification of Elements Chapter Wise Important Questions Class 10 Science 40

(b) Since element ‘X’ is placed in group 14, therefore, its valency is 14 – 10 = 4. Further, since it is difficult to either lose all the four valence electrons or gain four more electrons, therefore, it prefers to share these four electrons to acquire the stable electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas. Thus, the nature of the chloride of element ‘X is covalent and the chemical formula is XCl4.

(c) Refer to answer 47.

Question 88.
(a) The modern periodic table has been evolved through the early attempts of Dobereiner, Newlands and Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of all the three attempts.
(b) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass.
(c) State modern periodic law.
Answer:
(a) Advantage of Dobereiner’s triads : It recognised a relationship between properties of elements and their atomic weights.
Limitation of Dobereiner’s triads : Dobereiner could identify only three triads. He was not able to prepare triads of all the known elements.
Advantage of Newland’s law of octaves : This law provided a basis for the classification of elements into groups of elements having similar properties.
Limitation of Newlands’ law of octaves : This law worked only for the lighter elements. All the element discovered at that time could not be classified into octaves.
Advantage of Mendeleev’s periodic table : He classified all the 63 elements discovered at that time on the basis of similarities in their properties.
Limitation of Mendeleev’s periodic table : Increasing order of atomic masses could not be maintained in all cases e.g., cobalt with higher atomic mass was placed before nickel.

(b) Henry Moseley, an English physicist, showed that atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass.
(c) Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers.

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Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Life Processes Class 10 Science Chapter 6 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Life Processes Class 10 Science Chapter 6

Question 1.
Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) stomach
(d) large intestine. (2020)
Answer:
(a) small intestine

Question 2.
Mention the raw materials required for photosynthesis. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Raw materials required for photosynthesis are carbon dioxide (CO2), water, light and chloroplast.

Question 3.
State the location and function of gastric glands. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Gastrifc glands are present in the wall of the stomach. They secrete gastric juices containing mucus, protein digesting enzymes pepsin, rennin and hydrochloric acid (HCl).

Question 4.
Name the glands present in the wall of the stomach that release secretions for digestion of food. Write the three components of secretion that are released by these glands. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Stomach’s muscular wall contains gastric glands. These glands secrete gastric juices which contain dilute hydrochloric acid, mucus and two protein digesting enzymes rennin and pepsin.

Question 5.
Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions.
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 1
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 2

a – Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
b – Protein digesting enzyme pepsin
c – Mucus
d – HCl makes medium acidic for the activation of an enzyme pepsin.
e – Pepsin acts in acidic medium which breaks down proteins into peptones.
f – Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from corroding action of HCl.

Question 6.
(a) State the role played by the following in the process of digestion :
(i) Enzyme trypsin
(ii) Enzyme lipase-
(b) List two functions of finger-like projections present in the small intestine. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Enzyme trypsin : This enzyme is produced by the pancreas in an inactive form called trypsinogen. Trypsin converts remaining proteins into peptones and the peptones into peptides and amino acids.
(ii) Enzyme lipase : It is secreted by pancreas and small intestine. Lipase converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

(b) Internally, the wall of the small intestine is provided with long finger-like projections called villi. Two functions of villi are :
(i) The villi greatly increase the absorptive surface area of the inner lining of small intestine.
(ii) The large surface area of small intestine helps in rapid absorption of digested food.

Question 7.
Explain the significance of photosynthesis. Writd the balanced chemical equation involved in the process. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Photosynthesis is important for a number of reasons:
(i) Food : By photosynthesis, green plants synthesise food from simple raw materials like CO2 and H2O. Thus, it sustains life on earth.
(ii) Oxygen : Oxygen released during the process of photosynthesis is needed by animals and humans for respiration. It is also required for respiration of microbes. Oxygen also supports combustion of fuels.
(iii) Fuels : Fossil fuels like coal, oil and natural gas are forms of stored solar energy synthesised millions of years ago through photosynthesis. Balanced chemical equation involved in the process of photosynthesis is given as :
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 3

Question 8.
Differentiate between autotrophs and hetero- trophs and give one example of each. (Board Term 1,2017)
Answer:
Differences between autotrophs and hetero- trophs are as follows:

Autotrophs Heterotrophs
(i) These organisms are able to form organic substances from simple inorganic substances such as CO2 and H2S and water. They cannot produce organic compounds from inorganic sources and therefore completely rely on consuming other organisms for its food requirement.
(ii) They have chlorophyll to trap solar energy. Chlorophyll is absent, so they cannot trap solar energy.
(iii) They can be chemoautotroph and photoautotroph. They can be saprophytic, parasitic and holozoic in mode of nutrition.
(iv) Autotrophs are placed at the bottom of the food chain as producers. Heterotrophs are placed above autotrophs in the food chain as consumers.
(v) Green plants, some bacteria and some protists like Euglena are examples of autotrophs. Mushrooms, Euglena, cow, goat, etc., are examples of heterotrophs.

Question 9.
Explain with the help of neat and well labelled diagrams the different steps involved in nutrition in Amoeba. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. The process of obtaining food by Amoeba is called phagocytosis.

  1. Amoeba ingests food by using its finger-like projections called pseudopodia.
  2. The food is engulfed with a little surrounding water to form a food vacuole inside the Amoeba. The food is digested inside food vacuole by digestive enzymes.
  3. Food is absorbed directly into the cytoplasm of Amoeba by diffusion.
  4. Food is used to obtain energy and growth of Amoeba.
  5. When considerable amount of undigested food collects inside Amoeba then its cell membrane ruptures at any place to throw out this undigested food.

Diagrammatic representation of different stages in the holozoic nutrition (feeding) of Amoeba is as follows:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 4

Question 10.
(a) What is peristaltic movement?
(b) ‘Stomata remain closed in desert plants during daytime’. How do they do photosynthesis? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) The relaxation of gut muscles to move the partially digested food downwards throughout the alimentary canal is called peristaltic movement.
(b) In desert plants, stomata open at night and take in carbon dioxide (CO2). Stomata remain closed during daytime to prevent the loss of water by transpiration. They store the CO2 in their cells until the sun comes out so that they can carry on with photosynthesis during the daytime.

Question 11.
(a) Why is nutrition necessary for the human body?
(b) What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
(c) Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
(d) What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands? (2020)
Answer:
(a) Human body continuously require energy for their life activities like respiration, circulation, excretion, etc. Energy is required even we are sleeping because a number of biological processes keep on occurring. All these processes require energy and this energy is obtained from nutrition. Nutrition is also needed for growth and repair of human body.

(b) The wall of alimentary tract contains muscles which can contract and expand alternately. The contraction and expansion movement of the walls of foodpipe is called peristaltic movement. The peristaltic movement moves the partially digested food in all the digestive organs throughout the alimentary canal.

(c) Herbivores eat plants which is rich in cellulose. Cellulose takes longer time for complete digestion by the enzymes present in symbiotic bacteria. Therefore, they have longer small intestine. Carnivores, feed on flesh which is easier to digest and do not contain cellulose also. Therefore, they have shorter intestine for digestion of food eaten by them.

(d) Gastric glands secrete HCl, mucus, rennin and pepsin enzymes. Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from the action of HCl and enzymes. In the absence of mucus, there would be erosion of inner lining of stomach leading to acidity and ulcers.

Question 12.
(a) State the form in which the following are stored:
(i) Unused carbohydrates in plants.
(ii) The energy derived from food in humans,
(b) Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba with the help of diagram. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) (i) Unused carbohydrates in plants are stored in the form of complex sugar known as starch. They are later broken down into simple sugars (glucose) when energy is needed.
(ii) The assimilated food molecules hold energy in their chemical bonds. Their bond energy is released by oxidation in the cell. This energy is trapped by forming bonds between ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate (Pi) to synthesise ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) molecules. These bonds are later broken by enzymatic hydrolysis and the energy released is utilised for cellular processes.

(b) Amoeba is a unicellular animal. Amoeba eats tiny (microscopic) plants and animals which float in water. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. The process of obtaining food by Amoeba is called phagocytosis. When a food particle comes close to Amoeba, it ingests the food particle by forming temporary finger-like projections called pseudopodia around it. The food is engulfed with a little surrounding water to form a food vacuole inside the Amoeba. The food is digested inside food vacuole by digestive enzymes and absorbed directly into the cytoplasm of Amoeba cell by diffusion. A part of absorbed food is used to obtain energy and the remaining part is utilised for growth of Amoeba. When considerable amount of undigested food collects inside Amoeba then its cell membrane ruptures at any place to throw out this undigested food. This process is called egestion.

Refer to answer 9 for figure.

Question 13.
Anaerobic process
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation
(b) takes place in the presence of oxygen
(c) produces only energy in the muscles of human beings
(d) produces ethanol, oxygen and energy. (2020)
Answer:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation

Question 14.
Diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirement of multicellular organisms like human. State reason. (Board Term 1,2017)
Answer:
Due to higher metabolic rate and the volume of human body is so large that oxygen cannot diffuse into all cells of the body quickly as oxygen will have to travel large distances to reach each and every cell. So diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen demand of multicellular organisms.

Question 15.
Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body. Write the products formed in each case. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The two different ways by which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in human body are:
(i) Aerobic respiration : The end products in aerobic respiration are carbon dioxide, water and energy.
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 5

Question 16.
(a) In the process of respiration, state the function of alveoli.
(b) Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that in terrestrial organisms. Give reasons.
(c) Complete the following pathway showing the breakdown of glucose.
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 6
Answer:
(a) Functions of alveoli are :
(i) They increase the surface area for exchange of gases.
(ii) The thin walls of alveoli facilitate rapid exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood.

(b) Aquatic animals like fishes obtain oxygen from water present in the dissolved form through their gills. The amount of dissolved oxygen is quite small as compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. Therefore, to obtain required oxygen from water, aquatic animals have to breathe much faster than the terrestrial organisms.
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 7

Question 17.
Write three points of difference between breathing and respiration. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Differences between breathing and respiration are as follows:

Breathing Respiration
(i) It is a physical process. It involves inhalation of fresh air and exhalation of foul air. It is a biochemical process. It involves exchange of respiratory gases and also oxidation of food.
(ii) It is an extracellular process. It is both an extracellular as well as intracellular process.
(iii) It does not involve enzyme action rather two types of muscles are involved in this process. It involves a number of enzymes required for oxidation of food.
(iv) It does not release energy, infact it consumes energy. It releases energy.
(v) It is confined to certain organs only. It occurs in all the cells of the body.

Question 18.
Draw a flow chart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Breakdown of glucose by various pathways:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 8

Question 19.
Write three points of difference between respiration in plants and respiration in animals. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Differences between respiration in plants and animals are as follows:

Plant respiration Animal respiration
(i) All parts of plants, like roots, stem and leaves, perform respiration individually. Animal performs respiration as a single unit.
(ii) There is little transport of respiratory gases from one part to the other during respiration. Respiratory gases are usually transported over long distance inside an animal during respiration.
(iii) Respiration occurs at a very slow rate. It is a fast process in animals.
(iv) There is no special gas transport system. Gases are transported by specialised blood vascular system.
(v) Respiratory organ in plants are generally stomata in leaves, lenticels in stem and general surface of roots. Respiratory organ in animals are generally lungs and gills.

Question 20.
(a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic organisms and terrestrial organisms? Explain
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label – pharynx, trachea, lungs, diaphragm and alveolar sac on it. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Terrestrial organisms inspire atmospheric oxygen, while aquatic organisms thrive on the dissolved oxygen present in water. Air contains about 21% of oxygen while water has less than 1% oxygen in dissolved state. Oxygen diffuses through water at a much slower rate as compared to air. A terrestrial organism has the advantage of utilising greater amount of oxygen at a faster rate with lesser effort whereas, aquatic organisms have to put more effort to obtain the same amount of oxygen, therefore breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than the terrestrial organisms.

(b) The labelled diagram of human respiratory system is a follows :
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 9

Question 21.
(a) State reasons for the following:
(i) Herbivores need a longer small intestine while carnivores have shorter small intestine.
(ii) The lungs are designed in human beings to maximise the area for exchange of gases.
(b) The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms’is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms. (Board Term 1,2016)
Answer:
(a) (i) Herbivores need a longer small intestine than that of carnivores because their diet is mostly grass and plants, that contains more fibres and cellulose which are hard to digest. Longer small intestine also hosts many small bacteria that process and break down cellulose into glucose which is a source of energy. Carnivores diet is not rich in cellulose so, they do not need to harbour bacteria for cellulose digestion.

(ii) Human lungs have a highly branched network of respiratory tubes. A primary bronchus divides into secondary bronchus, which in turn forms tertiary bronchus. Tertiary bronchus divides repeatedly into bronchioles which finally terminate into alveoli. Alveoli are small, rounded polyhedral pouches which are extremely thin- walled and possess a network of capillaries, for the exchange of gases. Due to vast surface area of alveoli, exchange of gases becomes a fast and effective process. Oxygen diffuses from alveoli into pulmonary blood capillaries and CO2 diffuses out from capillaries into alveoli.

(b) Refer to answer 20(a).

Question 22.
Draw a flow chart showing the three different pathways involved in the breakdown of glucose in different organisms. Name the respiratory pigment present in human beings. State the function of rings of cartilage present in our throat. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 18.
Respiratory pigment present in human beings is haemoglobin.
Rings of cartilage are C in shape, stacked one on top of the other. These cartilaginous rings prevent the trachea from collapsing and blocking the airway.

Question 23.
(a) Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label: Trachea, Bronchi and Diaphragm.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Lungs always contain residual volume.
(ii) Nostrils are lined with mucus. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 20(b).

(b) (i) Lungs always contain residual volume so that during the breathing cycle, when air is inhaled and exhaled, there must be sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released. It is also important as it prevents the lungs from collapsing.
(ii) Mucus and hair present in nostrils help in filtration of inhaled air. It traps harmful substances and germs present in air.

Question 24.
Which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen – rich and oxygen – deficient blood gets mixed in the heart. (2020)
Answer:
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.

Question 25.
Name the vein which brings blood to left atrium from lungs. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to left atrium of heart.

Question 26.
Define translocation in reference to plants. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
The transport of food prepared in the leaves, by the process of photosynthesis, to various parts (roots, stem, branches, etc.) of the plant is called translocation.

Question 27.
Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The three types of blood vessels in human body are: (i) arteries, (ii) veins and (iii) capillaries.
(i) Arteries are the blood vessels which carry blood from heart to various parts of the body. The walls of arteries are thick, elastic and muscular that enables them to dilate but not rupture when the heart contracts and forces blood into them.

(ii) Veins are thin walled blood vessels which bring blood from the body back to the heart. They are larger and hold more blood than the arteries. The lumen of veins are provided with valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

(iii) Capillaries are thin walled and extremely narrow blood vessels which occur at the terminals of artery and vein. The wall of capillaries are permeable to water and dissolved substances so that the exchange of materials between the blood and body cells can take place.

Question 28.
(a) Write two water conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter continuously into the root xylem?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Xylem tracheids and vessels are two water conducting tissues present in plants that help in rapid movement of water. In xylem tissue, vessels and tracheids of the roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to form a continuous system of water conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant.

Minerals and water needed by the plants are absorbed by root hairs from the soil by the process of osmosis and take in minerals by the process of diffusion. Thus, a difference in concentration of ions is created between the roots and the soil which enables the water to enter into roots to compensate the difference in concentration. The water, alongwith dissolved minerals from root hairs, passes into xylem vessels through cells of the cortex, endodermis and pericycle and then ascent of sap (i.e., upward movement of water and mineral salts from roots to the aerial parts of the plant against the gravitational force) takes place from xylem of the roots to the xylem of stem and leaves through vessels and tracheids. Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of leaves creates a suction pressure which pulls the water from xylem cells.

(b) Plants are autotrophic and do not have to move from one place to another in search of their food. Movements in a plant are usually at the cellular level and hence they required less amount of energy. Whereas animals are heterotrophic and locomote in search of food and other activities, hence require higher amount of energy than of plants.

Question 29.
Explain how the translocation of materials in phloem tissue in plants is achieved by utilising energy. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
The phloem cells transport the soluble food materials to all parts of plant. The transport of food from leaves to different parts of plant is termed as translocation. Components of phloem are sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres. The food is manufactured in the mesophyll cells (or photosynthetic cells) of a leaf. The manufactured food enters into sieve tubes of the phloem and is transported as a dilute aqueous solution either in upward or downward direction. Food is transported to all non-green parts of the plant for their growth and metabolic activities. Besides food molecules, phloem also transports amino acids, hormones synthesised in the shoot tips and root tips and other metabolites.

In this process, glucose is transferred to phloem tissue using energy from ATP. This increases the osmotic pressure of the tissue causing the water to move into it (endosmosis). Soluble material is then transferred from phloem tissue to other tissues which have less pressure than in the phloem. Thus, according to plants requirement, the material is translocated from higher osmotic pressure areas to lower osmotic pressure areas.

Question 30.
What do the following transport?
(i) Xylem
(ii) Phloem
(iii) Pulmonary vein
(iv) Vena cava
(v) Pulmonary artery
(vi) Aorta (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(i) Xylem is a specialised plant conducting tissue that transports water and minerals from roots to all aerial parts of plants which occurs against gravitational force with the help of ascent of sap.
(ii) Phloem transports food that is prepared in the leaves, through photosynthesis, to various parts of plant. This process is called translocation. Phloem also transports amino acids, hormones synthesised in the shoot tips and root tips and other metabolites.
(iii) Pulmonary vein present in human circulatory system brings oxygenated blood from lungs to the left atrium of heart.
(iv) Vena cava transport deoxygenated blood collected by all veins of body except pulmonary vein and pass it to the right atrium of heart.
(v) Pulmonary artery transports deoxygenated blood from right atrium of heart to lungs for oxygenation.
(vi) Aorta transports oxygenated blood from left atrium to systemic arteries which further take the blood to various body parts and organs.

Question 31.
Explain giving any three reasons the significance of transpiration in plants. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Significance of transpiration in plants:
(i) The absorbed water is transported from roots to leaves through xylem vessels which is greatly influenced by transpiration pull.
(ii) The water stream moving upwards carries dissolved minerals with it. Transpiration also helps in distributing these minerals throughout the plant.
(iii) The evaporation of water during transpiration provide cooling effect to the leaves.

Question 32.
List in tabular form three differences between arteries and veins. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Differences between arteries and veins are as follows:

Arteries Veins
(i) Arteries are the blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart for distribution to the body. Veins are blood vessels which bring blood from the body back to the heart.
(ii) Arteriei walls are thick and valves are absent. Their walls are thin and valves are present to prevent back flow of blood.
(iii) Blood passing through narrow lumen of arteries is mostly oxygenated and has a considerable pressure. The blood passing through wide lumen of veins is deoxygenated (except in pulmonary veins) and has low pressure.
(iv) More elastic and placed deeply. Less elastic and superficially placed.

Question 33.
Give reasons:
(a) Ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is slow.
(c) Circulation of blood in aquatic vertebrates differs from that in terrestrial vertebrates.
(d) During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as compared to the night.
(e) Veins have valves whereas arteries do not. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs with high pressure, they have thicker walls than atria.
(b) Transport system in plants is less elaborate than in animals, as plants are less active, so their cells do not need to be supplied with materials so quickly.
(c) The aquatic vertebrates like fish have gills to oxygenate blood. The flow of blood in a fish is single circulation because the blood passes through the heart only once in one complete cycle of body. The terrestrial vertebrates like birds and humans have double circulation as the blood travels heart twice in one complete cycle of blood and they have lungs for oxygenation of blood.
(d) It is because during daytime rate of transpiration is higher.
(e) The lumen of veins have valves, which allow the blood in them to flow in only one direction. Thus prevent back flow of blood.

Question 34.
(a) “Blood circulation in fishes is different from the blood circulation in human beings”. Justify the statement.
(b) Describe “blood circulation” in human beings. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Fishes have only two chambers in their heart, the blood is pumped to the gills to get oxygenated blood and from there it passes directly to rest of the body. Thus, the blood goes only once through the heart during one cycle of passage through the body. This type of circulation is termed as single circulation.

In human beings, during circulation blood travels twice through the heart in one complete cycle of the body and is called double circulation. The pathway of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called pulmonary circulation and the pathway of blood from the heart to the rest of the body and back to heart is called systemic circulation.

(b) Deoxygenated blood from the body tissues is poured into right atrium. Contraction of heart forces it into right ventricle. From right ventricle, deoxygenated blood flows to the lungs through pulmonary artery. Oxygenated blood from lungs is returned into left atrium and then into left ventricle. The left ventricle forces the oxygenated blood to the whole body. Thus, for making one complete round or circulation circuit around all body parts, the blood passes through the heart twice. This is known as double circulation of blood.

Question 35.
(a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Two components of blood are blood plasma and blood corpuscles.
(b) Deoxygenated blood gets oxygenated in the lungs, from there it moves to heart and pumped to different parts of the body. Its path can be traced out as
Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left atrium of heart → Aorta → Arteries → Body parts
(c) When blood is pumped, valves prevent back flow of blood between ventricles and atria. They open and allow the right amount of blood to flow from one chamber to the other.
(d) Structural difference between veins and arteries is as follows:
Veins:
Veins have thin, less elastic and less muscular walls. They have valves to prevent back flow of blood.

Arteries:
Arteries have thick, elastic and muscular walls with no valves.

Question 36.
Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters on it. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Diagram of human excretory system is as follows:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 10

Question 37.
Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label on it:
(i) Left kidney
(ii) Urinary bladder. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 36.

Question 38.
Describe the structure and function of nephron with the help of diagram. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Structure of nephron is as follows:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 11
The function of nephron is filtration of blood and elimination of waste material from it. Blood is filtered from the blood capillaries into Bowmans capsule and pour the filtrate into the renal tubule. In this part, large amount of water and useful substances like glucose, amino acid, minerals ions, etc., are reabsorbed. Nitrogenous waste along with little amount of water is sent to the urinary bladder, which later expels the urine to the outside through urethra.

Question 39.
(a) Name four types of metabolic wastes produced by humans.
(b) Name any two human excretory organs other than kidney. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Four types of metabolic wastes produced by human are urea, carbon dioxide, water and salts.

(b) Two human excretory organs other than kidneys are:
(i) Lungs : They help to eliminate carbon dioxide.
(ii) Liver : It is an excretory organ as it converts harmful amino acids to harmless urea and haemoglobin of worn out RBCs to bilirubin and biliverdin that can be excreted out of the body.

Question 40.
(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Excretory system (Urinary system) in human beings consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.

(b) In the kidney, the wastes are converted to urine by three processes :
(i) Ultrafiltration : In it, large amount of water along with certain harmful substances like urea, uric acid, K+, ammonium salts, creatinine, etc., and certain useful substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+, etc., pass through glomerular capillaries and glomerular membrane into cavity of Bowman’s capsule of nephrons under pressure. The filtrate so formed is called nephric filtrate which is moved towards ureter.

(ii) Selective reabsorption : In it, large amount of water and sodium, whole of glucose and amino acids and small amount of urea are passed back from nephric filtrate into blood capillaries. It occurs either by back diffusion (i.e., water and urea) or active transport (i.e., Na+, glucose and amino acids). It generally occurs in PCT (Proximal convoluted tubule) of nephrons.

(iii) Tubular secretion : In this, certain harmful chemicals like uric acid, creatinine, K+, etc., are passed from blood capillaries surrounding the nephron into nephric filtrate by active transport. It generally occurs in DCT (Distal convoluted tubule) of nephrons. Now, the fluid is termed as urine and is excreted out of the excretory organs.

Question 41.
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which perform following functions:
(i) form urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney
(iii) store urine until it is passed out. (2018)
Answer:
(a) The biological process involved in the removal of wastes, produced during various metabolic activities in the body from the body of an organism is called excretion. The wastes are non-gaseous nitrogenous wastes like ammonia, urea, uric acid, etc., along with excess of water, salts and pigments.

(b) Basic filtration unit present in kidney is nephron.

(c) Refer to answer 36.
(i) Kidney
(ii) Ureter
(iii) Urinary bladder

Question 42.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of the human excretory system and label following parts:
(i) Urethra
(ii) Kidney
(iii) Ureter
(iv) Urinary bladder
(b) What are nephrons ? How is a nephron involved in the filtration of blood and formation of urine? (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 36 for figure.

(b) Nephrons are the functional unit of kidney. Each kidney has about one million nephrons. Each nephron consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Bowman’s capsule leads into tubular structure which ultimately joins the transverse collecting tubule.
Filtration of blood and formation of urine in nephron involves the following steps:
(i) The blood along with waste and excess water is brought to kidney by renal arteries. Blood is filtered from the blood capillaries into Bowmans capsule.
(ii) As the nephric filtrate passes through the tubular part of nephron, useful substances like glucose, amino acid, mineral ions, water, etc., are reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding the nephron.
(iii) Tubular secretion occurs mainly in the renal tubule and the collecting duct of the nephron where additional wastes are excreted from the blood stream into the filtrate.
(iv) The fluid that flows through collecting tubule is urine which consists of water, urea, uric acid, mineral ions like sodium, potassium, chloride, phosphates, etc.

Question 43.
(a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of structural and functional unit of kidney.
(b) Explain the mechanism of the urine formation. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Structural and functional unit of kidney is nephron. Its structure is as follows:
Life Processes Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 Img 12

(b) Main function of nephron is to form urine. The three main processes involved in the urine formation are:
(i) Ultrafiltration: It is the filtration of body fluids and solutes from the blood, out of the glomerular capillaries into the Bowmans capsule due to the pressure of the glomerulus. All substances from the blood are filtered out except the large protein molecules and blood corpuscles. This fluid in the glomerular capsule is called glomerular filtrate. It consists of water, urea, salts, glucose and other plasma solutes.

(ii) Selective reabsorption : Glomerular filtrate contains a lot of useful materials like water, glucose and salts such as sodium. These substances are reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding the nephron from the renal tubule at various levels and to various extents.

(iii) Tubular secretion : This occurs mainly in the renal tubule and the collecting duct of the nephron. It is a process performed by the cells of the cuboidal epithelium lining the tubules which excrete additional wastes from the blood stream into the filtrate by active transport. In this process substances like potassium, hydrogen, creatinine and certain drugs like phenol, penicillin, etc., are directly excreted by the tubular cells from the blood. The fluid which now flows through collecting tubule is urine which consists of water, urea, uric acid, mineral ions like sodium, potassium, chloride, phosphates, etc.

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Application of Derivatives Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 6

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 6 Application of Derivatives, Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Rate Measure, Increasing-Decreasing Functions and Approximation

Question 1.
The total cost C(x) associated with the production of x units of an item is given by C(x) = 0.005x3 – 0.02x2 + 30x + 5000. Find the marginal cost when 3 units are produced, where by marginal cost we mean the instantaneous rate of change of total cost at any level of output. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have, C(x) = 0.005x3 – 0.02x2 + 30x + 5000
Clearly, the marginal cost, MC (x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\)C(x)
= \(\frac{d}{d x}\)(0.005x3 – 0.02x2 + 30x + 500)
= 0.005 × 3x2 – 0.02 × 2x + 30 + 0
= 0.015x2 – 0.04x + 30

Now, marginal cost when 3 units arei produced
MC(3)= 0.015(9) – 0.04(3) + 30
= 0135 – 0.12 + 30= 30.015

Question 2.
The total revenue received from the sale of x units of a product is given by R(x) = 3x2 + 36x + 5 in rupees. Find the marginal revenue when x = 5, where by marginal revenue we mean the rate of change of total revenue with respect to the number of items sold at an instant. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Marginal Rcvcnuc (MR) = \(\frac{d R}{d x}=\frac{d}{d x}\)(3x2 + 36x + 5)
= 6x + 36
∴ When x = 5
Marginai Revenue (MR) = 6 × 5 + 36 = 66

Question 3.
The volume of a sphere is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3/s. Find the rate at which its surface area is increasing when the radius of the sphere is 12 cm. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Let r be the radius, V be the volume and S be the surface area of sphere.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 1

Question 4.
Show that the function f(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 100 is increasing on R. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 100
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = 3x2 – 6x + 6 = 3x2 – 6x + 3 + 3
= 3(x2 – 2x + 1) + 3 = 3(x – 1)2 + 3 > 0
∴ f'(x) > 0
This show that function f(x) is increasing on R.
Hence proved.

Question 5.
The volume of a sphere is increasing at the rate of 3 cubic centimeter per second. Find the rate of increase of its surface area, when the radius is 2 cm. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Let r be the radius of sphere and V be its volume. Then,
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 2
Now, let S be the surface area of sphere, then
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 3

Question 6.
Show that the function f(x) = 4x3 – 18x2 + 27x – 7 is always increasing on R. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
We have, f(x) = 4x3 – 18x2 + 27x – 7
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f(x) = 12x2 – 36x + 27
⇒ f'(x) = 3(4x2 -12x + 9)
⇒ f'(x) = 3(2x – 3)2
⇒ f(x) > 0
⇒ For any x ∈ R, (2x – 3)2 > 0
Since, a perfect square number cannot be negative.
∴ Given function f(x) is an increasing function on R.

Question 7.
The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3/s. How fast is the surface area increasing when the length of its edge is 12 cm? (All India 2019)
Answer:
Let x be the length of an edge of the cube, V be the volume and S be the surface area at any time t.
Then, V = x3 and S = 6x2.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 4

Question 8.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = \(\frac{x^{4}}{4}\) – x3 – 5x2 + 24x + 12 is
(i) strictly increasing
(ii) strictly decreasing. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have, f(x) = \(\frac{x^{4}}{4}\) – x3 – 5x2 + 24x + 12
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f(x) = x3 – 3x2 – 10x + 24
= (x – 2) (x2 – x – 12)
= (x – 2) (x2 – 4x + 3x – 12)
= (x – 2) (x(x – 4) + 3(x – 4)
= (x – 2) (x – 4) (x + 3)
Now, put f'(x) = 0, which gives x = 2, 4 and -3 The points x = -3 x = 2 and x = 4 divides the whole real line into four disjoint intervals namely, (-∞,-3), (-3, 2), (2, 4), (4, ∞)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 5
Note that,
for x ∈ (-∞, – 3), f'(x) < 0 for x ∈ (-3, 2), f(x) > 0
for x ∈ (2, 4), f'(x) < 0 and for x ∈ (4, ∞), f'(x) > 0
∴ f(x) is strictly increasing in the intervals (-3, 2) and (4, ∞), and strictly decreasing in the intervals (-∞, -3) and (2, 4).

Question 9.
Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = -2x3 – 9x2 – 12x + 1 is
(i) strictly increasing
(ii) strictly decreasing, (CBSE 201B C)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = -2x3 – 9x2 – 12x + 1
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = – 6x2 – 18x – 12
⇒ f'(x) = – 6(x2 + 3x + 2)
⇒ f'(x) = – 6(x2 + 2x + x + 2)
⇒ – 6 [x(x + 2) + 1 (x + 2)]
⇒ – 6 (x + 2) (x + 1)

Now, put f'(x) = 0
⇒ -6(x + 2)(x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = – 2, -1
The points, x = – 2 and x = – 1 divide the real line into their disjoint intervals (-∞,- 2), (- 2, -1) and (- 1, ∞),
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 6
The nature of function in these intervals are given below:

Interval Sign of f'(x)
F’(x) = -6(x + 2)(x + 1)
Nature of function
(-∞, -2) (-) (-) (-) = (-) < 0 Strictly decreasing
(-2, -1) (-) (+) (-) = (+) > 0 Strictly increasing
(-1, ∞) (-) (+) (+) = (-) < 0 Strictly decreasing

Hence, f(x) is strictly increasing in the interval (- 2, -1) and f(x) is strictly decreasing in the interval (- ∞, – 2) ∪ (-1, ∞).

Question 10.
The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/min and the width y is increasing at the rate of 4 cm/min. When x = 8 cm and y = 6 cm, find the rate of change of
(i) the perimeter.
(ii) area of rectangle. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Using the relation, perimeter of rectangle, P = 2(x + y) and area of rectangle, A = xy, differentiate both sides with respect to t and put them in rate of change value and get the result.
Given that length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/min.
∴ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = – 5cm/min ………..(i)
Also, the breadth y of rectangle is increasing at the rate of 4 cm/min.
∴ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 4 cm/min ……(ii)

(i) Here, we have to find rate of change of perimeter, i.e. dP/dt
and we know that, perimeter P = 2 (x + y)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. t, we get
\(\frac{d P}{d t}\) = 2\(\left(\frac{d x}{d t}+\frac{d y}{d t}\right)\)
⇒ \(\frac{d P}{d t}\) = 2(-5 + 4) = 2(-1) = -2cm/min [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
Hence, perimeter of rectangle is decreasing at the rate 2 cm/min.

(ii) Here, we have to find rate of change of area \(\frac{d A}{d t}\)
We know that, area of rectangle A = xy
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. t, we get
\(\frac{d A}{d t}=x \cdot \frac{d y}{d t}+y \cdot \frac{d x}{d t}\)
[by using product rule of derivative]

Now, we have x = 8 cm and y = 6 cm
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 7
Hence, the area of rectangle is increasing at the rate 2 cm/min.

Question 11.
The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 2 cm/s. At what rate is its area increasing, when the side 22. of the triangle is 20 cm? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Let a be the side of an equilateral triangle and A be the area of an equilateral triangle.
Then, \(\frac{d a}{d x}\) = 2 cm/s

We know that, area of an equilateral triangle,
A = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)a2

On differentiating both sides w.r.t, t, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 8
Thus, the rate of area increasing is 20√3 cm2/s

Question 12.
Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = 3x4 – 4x3 – 12x2 + 5 is
(i) strictly increasing.
(ii) strictly decreasing. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
First, find the first derivative and put equal to zero, we get different values of x and then divide the real line into disjoint intervals. Further check sign of f(x) in a given interval, if f'(x) > 0, then it is strictly increasing and if f'(x) < 0, then it is strictly decreasing.
f(x) = 3x4 – 4x3 – 12x2 + 5
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = 12x3 -12x2 – 24x
For strictly increasing or strictly decreasing, put f'(x) = 0, we get
12x3 – 12x2 – 24x = 0
⇒ 12x [x2 – 2x + x – 2] = 0
12x (x + 1) (x – 2) = 0
∴ x = 0, -1 or 2
Now, we find intervals in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.

Interval f’(x) = 12x(x + 1)(x – 2) Sign of f’(x)
x < – 1 (-) (-) (-) – ve
– 1 < x < 0 (-) (+) (-) + ve
0 < x < 2 (+) (+) (-) – ve
x > 2 (+) (+) (+) + ve

We know that, a function f(x) is said to be strictly increasing , if f'(x) > 0 and it is said to be strictly decreasing , if f'(x) < 0. So, the given function f(x) is
(i) strictly increasing on the intervals (-1, 0) and (2, ∞).
(ii) strictly decreasing on the intervals (-∞, -1) and (0, 2).

Question 13.
Find the intervals in which the function given by ;
f(x) = \(\frac{3}{10}\) x4 – \(\frac{4}{5}\)x3 – 3x2 + \(\frac{36x}{5}\) + 11 is
(i) strictly increasing.
(ii) strictly decreasing. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
(i) Strictly increasing in (-2, 1) and (3, ∞).
(ii) Strictly decreasing in (-∞,- 2) and (1, 3).

Question 14.
The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at the rate of 2 cm/s. Find the rate at which the area increases, when the side is 10 cm? (All India 2014C)
Answer:
10√ 3 cm2/s

Question 15.
Find the value(s) of x for which y = [x(x – 2)]2 is an increasing function. (All India 2014; Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given function is y = [x(x – 2)]2 = [x2 – 2x]2.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2(x2 – 2x) – (x2 – 2x)
= 2(x2 – 2x) (2x – 2) = 4x(x – 2) (x -1)

On putting \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0, we get
4x(x – 2)(x – 1) = 0 ⇒ x = 0, 1 and 2

Now, we find interval in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.

Interval \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 4x(x – 2)(x – 1) Sign of f’(x)
(-∞, 0) (-) (-) (-) – ve
(0, 1) (-) (+) (-) + ve
(1, 2) (+) (+) (-) – ve
(2, ∞) (+) (+) (+) + ve

Hence, y is strictly increasing in (0, 1) and (2, ∞). Also, y is a polynomial function, so it continuous at x = 0, 1 and 2. Hence, y is increasing in [0, 1] ∪ [2, ∞).

Question 16.
Using differentials, find the approximate value of (3.968)3/2. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let y = f(x) = (x)3/2
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Let x = 4 and x + Δx = 3.968
Then, Δx = -0.032
Now, f(x+ Δx)3/2 ≈ f(x) + f'(x)Δx
(x+ Δx)3/2 ≈ (x)3/2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\).(x)1/2.(-0.032)
⇒ (4 – 0.032)3/2 ≈ (4)3/2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\)(4)1/2(-0.032) [put x = 4]
⇒ (3.968)3/2 ≈ 8 + \(\frac{3}{2}\) .2.(-0.032)
⇒ (39368)3/2 ≈ 8 – 0.096
⇒ (3.968)3/2 ≈ 7.904

Question 17.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = \(\frac{3}{2}\) x4 – 4x3 – 45x2 + 51 is
(i) strictly increasing.
(ii) strictly decreasing. (Foreign 2014C)
Answer:
(i) Strictly increasing in (-3, 0) and (5, ∞).
(ii) Strictly decreasing in (-∞,- 3) and (0,5).

Question 18.
Find the approximate value of f(3.02), upto 2 places of decimal, where
f(x) = 3x2 + 15x + 3. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
First, split 3.02 into two parts x and Ax, so that x + Δx = 3.02 and f(x + Δx) = f(3.02)
Now, write f(x + Δx) = f(x) + Δx . f'(x) and use this result to find the required value.
Given function is f(x) = 3×2 + 15x + 3
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get f'(x) = 6x + 15
Let x = 3 and Δx = 0.02
So that f(x + Δx) – f(302)
By using f(x + Δx) ~ f(x)+ Δx f'(x), we get
f(x + Δx) = 3x2 + 15x + 3 + (6x + 15) Δx
f(3 + 0.02) = 3(3)2 + 15(3) + 3+ [6(3) + 15] (0.02)
= 27 + 45 + 3 + 33(0.02)
= 75 + 0.66
= 75.66
Hence, f (3.02) ≈ 75.66

Question 19.
Using differentials, find approximate value of \(\sqrt{49.5}\). (Delhi2012)
Answer:
First, divide 49.5 into two parts as x = 49 and ∆x = 0.5. Now, let y = √x and find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). Finally, find Δy using the formula dy = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\).Δx
Let x = 49, ∆x = 0.5 and y = √x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 9
Hence, approximate value of \(\sqrt{49.5}\) is 7.035

Question 20.
A ladder 5 m long is leaning against a wall. Bottom of ladder is pulled along the ground away from wall at the rate of 2 m/s. How fast is the height on the wall decreasing, when the foot of ladder is 4 m away from the wall? (All India 2012)
Answer:
First, draw a rough figure of a right angled triangle, then use Pythagoras theorem. Further differentiate the relation between sides with respect tof and ; simplify it
Let AC be the ladder, BC = x and height of the wall, AB = y.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 10
As the ladder is pulled along the ground away
from the wall at the rate of 2 m/s.
So, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2m/s
To find ,when x = 4.
In right angled MBC, by Pythagoras theorem, we get
(4)2 + (BC)2 =(AC)2
x2 + y2 = 25
(4)2 + y2 = 25
16 + y2 = 25
y2 = 9
y = √9 [taking positive square root]
∴ y = 3
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. t, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 11
Hence, height of the wall is decreasing at the rate of \(\frac{8}{3}\)m/s.
Note: In a rate of change of a quantity, +ve sign shows that it is increasing and – ve sign shows that it is decreasing.

Question 21.
Show that y = log(1 + x) – \(\frac{2 x}{2+x}\), x > – 1 is an increasing function of x, throughout its domain. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Given Function is y = log(1 + x) – \(\frac{2 x}{2+x}\)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 12
Now, x2, (2 + x)2 are always positive, also 1 + x > 0 for x > -1
From Eq. (i), \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) > 0 for x > – 1
Hence, function increases for x > -1.

Question 22.
Find the intervals in which the function given by f(x) = sin x + cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π is
(i) increasing
(ii)decreasing. (Delhi 2012c)
Answer:
Given function is f(x) = sin x + cos x.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = cos x – sin x
Now, put f'(x) = 0 ⇒ cos x – sinx = 0
⇒ tan x = 1 ⇒ x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{5 \pi}{4}\), as 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π
Now, we find the intervals in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 13
Note that, f'(x) > 0 in (0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)), f'(x) < 0 in, \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{5 \pi}{4}\right)\) and f'(x) > 0 in (\(\frac{5 \pi}{4}\), 2π).
Since, f(x) is a trigonometric function, so it is
continuous at x = 0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{5 \pi}{4}\) and 2π.

Hence, the function is
(i) increasing in [0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)] and [\(\frac{5\pi}{4}\), 2π]
(ii) decreasing in \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{5 \pi}{4}\right]\)

Question 23.
Find the intervals in which the function given by f(x) = x4 – 8x3 + 22x2 – 24x + 21 is
(i) increasing,
(ii) decreasing. (All Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
Given function is
f(x) = x4 – 8x3 + 22x2 – 24x + 21
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f(x) = 4x3 – 24x2 + 44x – 24
= 4(x3 – 6x2 + 11 x – 6)
= 4(x – 1) (x2 – 5x + 6)
= 4(x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3)
Put f'(x) = 0
⇒ 4(x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = 1, 2, 3
So, the possible intervals are (-∞, 1), (1, 2), (2, 3) and (3, ∞).
For interval (- ∞, 1), f'(x) < 0 For interval (1, 2), f'(x) > 0
For interval (2, 3), f'(x) < 0 For interval (3, ∞), f'(x) > 0.

Also, as f(x) is a polynomial function, so it is continuous at x = 1, 2, 3…………. Hence,
(i) function increases in [1, 2] and [3, ∞).
(ii) function decreases in (-∞, 1 ] and [2, 3]

Question 24.
Sand is pouring from the pipe at the rate of 12 cm3/s. The falling sand forms a cone on a ground in such a way that the height of cone is always one-sixth of radius of the base. How fast is the height of sand 5 cone increasing when the height is 4 cm? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let V be the volume of cone, h be the height and r be the radius of base of the cone.
Given, \(\frac{d V}{d t}\) = 12 cm3/s ……(i)

Also, height of cone = \(\frac{1}{6}\) × (radius of base of cone)
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{6}\)r or r = 6h ………..(ii)

We know that, volume of cone is given by
V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr2h …(iii)

On putting r = 6h from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (iii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 14
Hence, the height of sand cone is increasing at the rate of 1/48π cm/s.

Question 25.
If the radius of sphere is measured as t 9 cm with an error of 0.03 cm, then find the approximate error in calculating its surface area. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let S be the surface area, r be the radius of the sphere.
Given, r = 9 cm
Then, dr = Approximate error in radius r = 0.03 cm
and dS = Approximate error in surface area
Now, we know that surface area of sphere is given by
S = 4πr2
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. r, we get
\(\frac{d S}{d r}\) = 4π × 2r = 8πr
dS = 8πr × dr
⇒ dS = 8π × 9 × 0.03 [∵ r = 9 cm and dr = 0.03 cm ]
⇒ dS = 72 × 0.03π
∴ dS = 2.16π cm2/cm
Hence, approximate error in surface area is 2.16π cm2/cm.

Question 26.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = sin x + cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π is strictly l increasing and strictly decreasing. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Strictly increasing in the intervals [0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)) and (\(\frac{5 \pi}{4}\), 2] strictly decreasing in the intervals \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{5 \pi}{4}\right)\)

Question 27.
Show that the function f(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x, x ∈ R is increasing on R. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
We know that, a continuous function y = f(x) is said to be increasing on R, if \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) ≥ 0, ∀ x ∈ R.
Given, y = x3 – 3x2 + 3x

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 15
Now, 3(x – 1)2 ≥ 0 for all real values of x, i.e. ∀ x ∈ R.
Hence, the given function is increasing on R.

Question 28.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = (x – 1 )3 (x – 2)2 is
(i) increasing,
(ii) decreasing. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = (x – 1 )3 (x – 2)2

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = (x – 1)3.\(\frac{d}{d x}\)(x – 2)2 + (x – 2)2.\(\frac{d}{d x}\)(x – 1)3
⇒ f'(x) = (x – 1)3 – 2(x – 2)+ (x – 2)2 3(x – 1)2
= (x – 1)2(x – 2)[2(x – 1) + 3(x – 2)]
= (x – 1)2 (x – 2) (2x – 2 + 3x – 6)
⇒ f’(x) = (x – 1)2(x – 2){3x – 8)

Now, put f'(x) = 0
⇒ (x – 1)2 (x – 2) (5x – 8) = 0
Either (x – 1)2 = 0 or x – 2 = 0 or 5x – 8 = 0
∴ x = 1, \(\frac{8}{5}\), 2
Now, we find intervals and check in which interval f(x) is strictly increasing and strictly decreasing.

Interval f’(x) = (x – 1)2(x – 2)(5x – 8) Sign of f’(x)
x < 1 (+) (-) (-) +ve
1 < x < \(\frac{8}{5}\) (+) (-) (-) + ve
\(\frac{8}{5}\) < x < 2 (+) (-) (+) – ve
x > 2 (+) (+) (+) + ve

We know that, a function f(x) is said to be an strictly increasing function, if f'(x) > 0 and strictly decreasing, if f'(x) < 0. So, the given function f(x) is increasing on the intervals (-∞, 1) (1, \(\frac{8}{5}\)) and (2, ∞) and decreasing on continuous at x = 1, -, 2 Hence, f(x) is
(i) increasing on intervals I
(ii) decreasing on interval
Note: Every strictly increasing (strictly decreasing) function is incresing (decreasing) but converse need not be true.

Question 29.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = 2x3 + 9x2 + 12x + 20 is
(i) increasing
(ii) decreasing. (Delhi 2011c)
Answer:
Given function is f(x) = 2x3 + 9x2 + 12x + 20
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get f(x) = 6x2 + 18x + 12
Put f'(x) = 0, we get
6x2 + 18x + 12 = 0
⇒ 6(x2 + 3x + 2) = 0
⇒ 6 (x + 1) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ (x + 1) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x + 1= 0 or x + 2 = 0
x = – 2, -1
Now, we find intervals and check in which interval f(x) is strictly increasing and strictly decreasing.

Interval f’(x) = 6(x + 1)(x + 2) Sign of f’(x)
x < -2 (+) (-) (-) + ve
-2 < x < -1 (+) (-) (+) – ve
x > -1 (+) (+) (+) + ve

We know that, a function f(x) is said to be an strictly increasing function, if f'(x) > 0 and strictly decreasing, if f'(x) < 0. So, given function is increasing on intervals (-∞,- 2) and (-1, ∞) and decreasing on interval (-2, -1).
Since, f(x) is a polynomial function, so it is continuous at x = -1, – 2.
Hence, given function is
(i) increasing on intervals (-∞, – 2] and [-1, ∞).
(ii) decreasing on interval [-2,-1 ].

Question 30.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = 2x3 – 9x2 + 12x -15 is
(i) increasing.
(ii) decreasing. (Delhi 2011c)
Answer:
(i) The function increasing on intervals (- ∞, 1]and [2, ∞).
(ii) The function decreasing on interval [1, 2]

Question 31.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 17 is increasing or decreasing. (All India 2010c)
Answer:
The function increasing on (- ∞, 2] and [3, ∞) and decreasing on [2, 3]

Question 32.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = 2x3 – 9x2 + 12x + 15 is
(i) increasing.
(ii) decreasing. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
(i) The function increasing on (- ∞,1] and [2, ∞).
(ii) The function decreasing on [1, 2]

Question 33.
Prove that y = \(\frac{4 \sin \theta}{2+\cos \theta}\) – θ is an increasing function in (0, \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)). (All India 2016, 2011)
Answer:
To prove that given function is increasing, prove that \(\frac{d y}{d \theta}\) ≥ 0 for all θ.
Given function is y = \(\frac{4 \sin \theta}{2+\cos \theta}\) – θ
We know that, a function y = f(x) is said to be an increasing function, if \(\frac{d y}{d \theta}\) ≥ 0, for all values of x.
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. θ, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 16
Hence Proved.

Question 34.
Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = sin 3x – cos 3x, 0 < x < π, is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = sin 3x – cos 3x, 0 < x < π
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = 3cos 3x + 3sin 3x

On putting f'(x) = 0, we get
sin 3x = -cos 3x ⇒ tan 3x = – 1
⇒ 3x = \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}, \frac{7 \pi}{4}, \frac{11 \pi}{4}\) [∵ tan θ is negative in IInd and IVth quadrants]
⇒ x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{7 \pi}{12}, \frac{11 \pi}{12}\)
Now, we find intervals and check in which intervals f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 17
Here, we see that f(x) > 0, for 0 < x < \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) and \(\frac{7\pi}{12}\) < x < \(\frac{11 \pi}{12}\) so f(x) is strictly increasing in the intervals (0, \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)) and \(\left(\frac{7 \pi}{12}, \frac{11 \pi}{12}\right)\)

While f'(x) < 0 in \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) < x < \(\frac{7\pi}{12}\) and \(\frac{11 \pi}{12}\) < x < π
So, f(x) is strictly decreasing in the intervals \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{7 \pi}{12}\right)\) and (\(\frac{11 \pi}{12}\), π)

Question 35.
Prove that the function f defined by f(x) = x2 – x + 1 is neither increasing nor decreasing in (-1, 1). Hence, find the intervals in which f(x) is
(i) strictly increasing.
(ii) strictly decreasing. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given function is f(x) = x2 – x + 1.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get f'(x) = 2x – 1
On putting f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Now, we find intervals in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.

Interval f'(x) = (2x – 1) Sign of f'(x)
x < \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-) -ve
x > \(\frac{1}{2}\) (+) +ve

Here, f(x) is strictly increasing on (\(\frac{1}{2}\), ∞) and f(x) is strictly decreasing on (- ∞, \(\frac{1}{2}\))
⇒ f(x) is strictly increasing on (\(\frac{1}{2}\), 1) and f(x) is strictly decreasing on (-1, \(\frac{1}{2}\))
∴ f'(x) does not have same sign throughout the interval (-1, 1).
Thus, f(x) is neither increasing nor decreasing in (-1, 1).

Question 36.
Find the intervals in which the function
f(x) = 20 – 9x + 6x2 – x3 is
(i) strictly increasing.
(ii) strictly decreasing. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given function is f(x) = 20 – 9x + 6x2 – x3.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get f'(x) = – 9 + 12x – 3x2
On putting f'(x) = 0, we get
-9 + 12x – 3x2 = 0
⇒ -3(x2 – 4x + 3) = 0
⇒ -3(x – 1)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x – 1)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ x – 1 = 0 or x – 3 = 0 ⇒ x = 1 or 3
Now, we find intervals in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.

Interval F(x) = – 3 (x -1) (x – 3) Sign of f'(x)
x < 1 (-) (-) (-) – ve
1< x < 3 (-) (+) (-) + ve
x > 3 (-) (+) (+) – ve

We know that, a function f(x) is said to be strictly increasing when f'(x) > 0 and it is said to be strictly decreasing, if f'(x) < 0. So, the given function f(x) is (i) strictly increasing on the interval (1, 3) and (ii) strictly decreasing on the intervals (-∞, 1) and (3, ∞).

Question 37.
Find the intervals in which the function given by f(x) = sinx – cosx, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given function is f(x) = sin x – cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get f'(x) = cos x + sin x
On putting f'(x) = 0, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 18
Now, we find the intervals in which f(x) is strictly increasing or strictly decreasing.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 19
We know that, a function f(x) is said to be strictly increasing in an interval when f’(x) > 0 and it is said to be strictly decreasing when f’(x) < 0.
So, the given function f(x) is strictly increasing in intervals (o, \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)) and (\(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\), and it is strictly decreasing in the interval \(\left(\frac{3 \pi}{4}, \frac{7 \pi}{4}\right)\)

Tangents and Normals

Question 1.
Find the equation of tangent to the curve y = \(\sqrt{3 x-2}\) which is parallel to the line 4x – 2y + 5 = 0. Also, write the equation of normal to the curve at the point of contact. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let (x1, y1) be the point on curve from which tangent to be taken. We know that, slope of tangent is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 20
On squaring both sides, we get
9 = 16(3x1 – 2)
⇒ 3x1 = \(\frac{9}{16}\) + 2 ⇒ x1 = \(\frac{41}{48}\)

Since, point (x1, y1) is on the curv, therefore y1 = \(\sqrt{3 x_{1}-2}\)
⇒ y1 = \(\sqrt{3 \times \frac{41}{48}-2}=\frac{3}{4}\)
Hence, the point is (x1, y1)

Now, equation of the tangent is given by
y – y1 = m(x – x1)
⇒ y – \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 2(x – \(\frac{41}{48}\))
⇒ \(\frac{4 y-3}{4}=\frac{48 x-41}{24}\)
⇒ \(\frac{24}{4}\)(4y – 3) = 48x – 41
⇒ 6(4y – 3) = 48x – 41
⇒ 48x – 41 – 24y + 18 = 0
⇒ 48x – 24y = 23,
which is the required equation of the tangent.

Now, equation of the normal is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 21
which is the required equation of the normal.

Question 2.
Find the equation of the normal to the curve x2 = 4y, which passes through the point (-1, 4). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given curve is x2 = 4y
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 22

On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
2x = 4\(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2 x}{4}=\frac{x}{2}\)

Slope of normal = \(-\frac{1}{\frac{d y}{d x}}=-\frac{1}{\frac{x}{2}}=-\frac{2}{x}\)
Let (h, k) be the point where normal and curve intersect.

Then, slope of normal at (h, k) = – \(\frac{2}{h}\)
Equation of normal passing through (h, k) with slope – \(\frac{2}{h}\) is h
y – k = – \(\frac{2}{h}\) (x – h)
Since normal passes through (-1, 4). It will satisfy its equation
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 23

Question 3.
Find the equations of the tangent and the normal to the curve 16x2 + 9y2 = 145 at the point (x1, y1), where x1 = 2 and y1 > 0. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is 16x2 + 9y2 = 145
Clearly, when x = 2, then
16(2)2 + 9y2 =145
9y2 = 145 – 64
⇒ 9y2 = 81
⇒ y2 = 9
⇒ y = ±3
[taking square root on both sides]
But it is given that y1 > 0
y = 3

Thus, the point of contact (x1, y1) = (2, 3)
Now, on differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 24
Now, equation of tangent at point (2, 3) is
(y – 3) = \(\frac{-32}{27}\)(x – 2)
⇒ 27y – 81 = -32x + 64 ⇒ 32x + 27y = 145
and equation of normal at point (2, 3 )is
(y – 3) = \(\frac{27}{32}\)(x – 2)
⇒ 32y – 96 = 27x – 54
⇒ 27x – 32y = -42

Question 4.
Find the angle of intersection of the curves x2 + y2 = 4 and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4, at the point in the first quadrant. (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Given curves are x2 + y2 = 4 and (x – 2)2 + y2 = 4
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x2 + 4 – 4x + y2 = 4
⇒ 4 – 4x = 0 ⇒ x = 1

On putting value of x in Eq. (i), we get
y = √3
[since point taken in first quadrant]
∴ Point of intersection is (1, √3).
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 25
∴ Angle of intersection between the curves is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\).

Question 5.
Show that the equation of normal at any point t on the curves x = 3 cos t – cos3 t and y = 3 sin t – sin3t is 4 (y cos3t – x sin3t) = 3 sin 4t. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
x = 3cost – cos3t and
y = 3sint – sin3t
On differentiating w.r.t. t, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 26
∴ Equation of normal is
y – (3 sin t – sin3t) = –\(-\frac{1}{-\cot ^{3} t}\) [x – (3cos t – cos3t)] [∵ y – y1 = –\(-\frac{1}{d y / d x}\)(x – x1)
⇒ (y – 3sinf + sin3t) = (x – 3cos t + cos3t)
⇒ ycos3t – 3sin t cos3t + sin3t cos3 t
⇒ xsin3t – 3sin3t cos t + sin3t cos3t
⇒ y cos3t – xsin3t = 3sin t cos3t – 3sin3t cost
⇒ y cos3 t – xsin3 t = 3sint cos t(cos2t – sin2t)
= 3sint cost(cos2t) × \(\frac{2}{2}\) [∵ cos2t – sin2t = cos 2t]
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)sin 2t × cos 2t [∵ 2sin t cos t = sin 2t]
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)sin 2t × cos 2t × \(\frac{2}{2}\)
= \(\frac{3}{2}\)sin 4t [∵ 2sin 2t cos 2t = sin 4t]
∴ 4(y cos3t – x sin3t) = 3 sin 4t
Hence Proved.

Question 6.
Find the equation of tangents to the curve y = x3 + 2x – 4 which are perpendicular to the line x + 14y – 3 = 0. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is
y = x3 + 2x – 4

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2 + 2

∴ The slope of required tangent is
m1 = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2 + 2

Now, slope of line x + 14y – 3 = 0
or y = \(-\frac{x}{14}+\frac{3}{14}\)
is m2 = \(-\frac{1}{14}\)

Since, the required tangent is perpendicular to the line x + 14y -3=0.
∴ m1m2 = -1
⇒ (3x2 + 2) × \(\left(-\frac{1}{14}\right)\) = -1
⇒ 3x2 + 2 = 14
⇒ 3x2 = 12 ⇒ x2 = 4
⇒ x =± 2

When x = 2, then
y = 23 + 2 × 2- 4= 8 + 4 – 4 = 8

When x = – 2, then
y = (-2)3 + 2 × (-2) – 4
= -8 – 4 – 4 = -16
∴ Points of contact are (2, 8) and (- 2, -16).

Now, equation of tangent at point (2, 8) is
⇒ y – 8 = \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)_{(2,8)}\) (x – 2)
⇒ y – 8 = ( 3 × 22 + 2)(x – 2)
⇒ y – 8 = 14(x – 2)
⇒ y = 14x – 20

and equation of tangent at point (- 2, -16) is
⇒ y + 16 = \(\frac{d y}{d x}_{(-2,-16)}\) (x + 2)
⇒ y + 16 = [3 (- 2)2 + 2](x + 2)
⇒ y + 16 = 14 (x + 2)
⇒ y = 14x + 12
Hence, the required equation of tangents are y = 14x – 20 and y = 14x + 12

Question 7.
The equation of tangent at (2, 3) on the curve y2 = ax3 + b is y = 4x – 5. Find the values of a and b. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is y2 = ax3 + b . and equation of tangent is y = 4x – 5
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 27
But, from Bq. (ii), we have slope of tangent = 4
∴ 2a = 4 ⇒ a = 2 (1)
Since, (2, 3) lies on the curve, therefore from Eq. (i), we get
9 = 8a+b (1)
⇒ 9 = 16+ b
⇒ b = – 7 [∵ a = 2]
Hence, a = 2 and b = -7

Question 8.
Find the point on the curve 9y2 = x3, where the normal to the curve makes equal intercepts on the axes. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given curve is 9y2 = x3 …(i)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
9 × 2y\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2 ⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{3 x^{2}}{18 y}=\frac{x^{2}}{6 y}\)
Let (x1, y1) be the required point on the curve (i).

Then, slope of normal to the curve (i) at point (x1, y1)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 28
Hence, required points are (4, \(\frac{8}{3}\)) and (4, \(\frac{-8}{3}\))
Note that x1 ≠ 0, as x1 = 0, then y1 = 0. So, normal will pass through (0, 0), which is not possible.

Question 9.
Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the curves x = a sin3θ and y = a cos3θ at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given, x = a sin3θ
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. θ, we get
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = a(3sin2θ cos θ)
⇒ \(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = 3a sin2θ cos θ
and y = a cos3θ

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. θ, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 29

Question 10.
Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the curves \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1 at the point (√2a, b). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given equation of curves is \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{2 x}{a^{2}}-\frac{2 y}{b^{2}} \cdot \frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 ⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{b^{2} x}{a^{2} y}\)

Slope of the tangent at point (√2a, b) is
\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)_{(\sqrt{2} a, b)}=\frac{\sqrt{2} a b^{2}}{b a^{2}}=\frac{\sqrt{2} b}{a}\)

Hence, the equation of the tangent at point (√2a, b) is
y – b = \(\frac{\sqrt{2} b}{a}\)(x – √2a)
⇒ a (y- b) = √2 b (x – √2a)
⇒ ay – ab = √2 bx – 2ab
⇒ √2bx – ay – ab = 0

Now, the slope of the normal at point (√2a, b)
= \(\frac{-1}{\text { Slope of tangent }}=\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2} b / a}\)

Hence, the equation of the normal at point(√2a, b) is
(y – b) = \(-\frac{a}{\sqrt{2} b}\)(x – √2a)
⇒ √2b(y – b) = -a (x – √2a)
⇒ √2 by – √2 b2 = -ax + √2 a2
∴ ax + √2by – √2 (a2 + b2) = 0

Question 11.
Find the points on curve y = x3 – 11x + 5 at which equation of tangent is y = x – 11. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
First, find the slope of tangent to the given curve and of given equation of tangent, then equate them to get value of x. Put value of x in given curve to find required points.

Given, equation of curve is
y = x3 – 11x + 5 ………(i)

Slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) is given by \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x – 11 ………….(ii)

Also, slope of the tangent y = x – 11 is 1.
∴ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 1
⇒ 3x2 – 11 = 1 [frpm Eq. (i)]
⇒ 3x2 = 12 ⇒ x2 = 4 ⇒ x = ±2

When x = 2, then y = (2)3 -11(2) + 5
= 8 – 22 + 5 = – 9
When x = – 2, then y = (-2)3 -11 (-2) + 5
= -8 + 22 + 5 = 19
Since, the points (-2, 19) does not lies on the line y = x – 1
Hence, the required points on the curve are (2, -9).

Question 12.
Find the points on the curve x2 + y2 – 2x – 3 = 0 at which tangent is parallel to X-axis. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
As tangent is parallel to X-axis, put \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 and find value of x from it. Then, put this value of x in the equation of the given curve and find value of y.

Given equation of curve is
x2 + y2 – 2x – 3 = 0

On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 30
We know that, when a tangcnt to the curve is parallel to X-axis, then \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0.

On putting \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0, we get
1 – x = 0 ⇒ x = 1
Now, on putting x = 1 in Eq. (i), we get
1 + y2 – 2 – 3 = 0
y2 = 4 ⇒ y = ±2
Hence, the required points are (1, 2) and (1, -2).

Question 13.
Find the points on the curve y = x3 at which the slope of the tangent is equal to y-coordinate of the point. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
First, determine the derivative and put \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y and then find the value of x from it. Further, put this value of x in the equation of the given curve and find the value of y.

Given equation of curve is y = x3. …….(i)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2

∴ Slope of tangent at any point (x, y) is
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2

Now, given that Slope of tangent = y-coordinate of the point
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y
⇒ 3x2 = y [∵\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2]
⇒ 3x2 = x3 [∵ y = x3]
⇒ 3x2 – x3 = 0 ⇒ x3(3 – x) = 0
⇒ Either x2 = 0 or 3 – x = 0
x = 0, 3

Now, on putting x = 0 and 3 in Eq. (i), we get
y = (0)3 = 0 [at x = 0]
and y = (3)3 = 27
Hence, the required points are (0, 0) and (3, 27).

Question 14.
Find the equation of tangent to curves
x = sin 3t, y = cos 2t at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (All India 2011C)
Answer:
We know that, the equation of tangent at the point (x1, y1) is y – y1 =m(x – x1) …….(i)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 31
Also, to find (x1, y1), we put t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in given curves.
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 32

Question 15.
Find the equations of tangents to the curve y = (x2 – 1) (x – 2) at the points, where the curve cuts the X-axis. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
The curve cuts the X-axis, so put y = 0 and get the corresponding values of x. Further, differentiate and determine the slopes at different points. And then use the equation of tangent : y – y1 = m(x – x1).
Given equation of the curve is
y = (x2 -1) (x – 2) …(i)
Since, the curve cuts the X-axis, so at that point y- coordinate will be zero.
So, on putting y = 0, we get
(x2 – 1) (x – 2) = 0 ⇒ x2 = 1 or x = 2
∴ x = ±1 or 2 ⇒ x = -1, 1, 2
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 33
We know that, equation of tangent at the point (x1, y1) is given by y – y1 = m(x – x1).
Here, we get three equations of tangents.
Equation of tangent at point (-1, 0) having slope (m1) = 6, is
y – 0 = 6 (x + 1)
⇒ y = 6x + 6 ⇒ 6x – y = -6
Equation of tangent at point (1, 0) having slope (m2) = – 2, is
y – 0 = -2(x – 1)
⇒ y = – 2x + 2
⇒ 2x + y = 2
and equation of tangent at point (2, 0) having slope (m3) = 3 is
y – 0 = 3(x – 2)
⇒ y = 3x – 6
∴ 3x – y = 6

Question 16.
Find the equation of tangent to the curve 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 at the point (3 cos θ, 2 sin θ). (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is 4x2 + 9y2 = 36
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
8x + 18y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 34
Now, equation of tangent at the point (3 cos θ, 2 sin θ) having slope, m = \(-\frac{2 \cos \theta}{3 \sin \theta}\) is
y – 2 sin θ = \(-\frac{2 \cos \theta}{3 \sin \theta}\)(x – 3 cos θ) [∵ y – y1 = m(x – x1)]
⇒ 3y sin θ – 6 sin2 θ = – 2x cos θ + 6 cos2 θ
⇒ 2x cos θ + 3y sin θ – 6 (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) = 0
⇒ 2x cos θ + 3y sin θ – 6 = 0 [∵ sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1]
which is the required equation of tangent.

Question 17.
Find the equation of tangent to the curve y = x4 – 6x3 + 13x2 – 10x + 5 at point x = 1, y = 0. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is
y = x4 – 6x3 + 13x2 – 10x + 5

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 4x3 – 18x2 + 26x – 10

Slope of a tangent at point (1, 0) is
m = \(\left[\frac{d y}{d x}\right]_{x=1}\) = 4 – 18 + 26 – 10 = 2

∴ Equation of tangent at point (1,0) having slope 2 is
y – 0 = 2(x – 1)
⇒ y = 2x – 2
Hence, required equation of tangent is 2x – y = 2

Question 18.
Find the points on the curve
y = [x(x – 2)]2, where the tangent is parallel to X-axis. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
We have to find the points on the given curve where the tangent is parallel to X-axis. We know that, when a tangent is parallel to X-axis, then
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{d}{d x}\)(x2 – 2x)2 = 0
⇒ 2(x2 – 2x)(2x – 2) = 0
⇒ x = 0, 1, 2
When x = 0, then y = [0(-2)]2 = 0
When x = 1, then y = [1 – 2(1)]2 = 1
When x = 2, then y = [22 – 2 × 2]2 = 0
Hence, the tangent is parallel to X-axis at the points (0, 0), (1, 1) and (2, 0).

Question 19.
Find the equation of tangent to the curve y = \(\frac{x-7}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\) at the point, where it cuts the X-axis. (All India 2010C, 2010)
Answer:
Given equation of curves is
y = \(\frac{x-7}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\) ……….(i)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 35
[dividing numerator and denominator by x2 – 5x + 6]
Also, given that curve cuts X-axis, so its y-coordinate is zero.
Put y = 0 in Eq. (i), we get
\(\frac{x-7}{x^{2}-5 x+6}\) = 0
⇒ x = 7
So, curve passes through the point (7, 0).
Now, slope of tangent at (7, 0) is
m = \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)_{(70)}=\frac{1-0}{49-35+6}=\frac{1}{20}\)

Hence, the required equation of tangent passing through the point (7, 0) having slope 1/20 is
y – o = \(\frac{1}{20}\)(x – 7)
⇒ 20y = x – 7
∴ x – 20y = 7

Question 20.
Find the equations of the normal to the curve y = x3 + 2x + 6, which are parallel to line x + 14y + 4 = 0. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
First, find the slope of normal to curve, i.e. \(\frac{-1}{d y / d x}\) and put them equal to the slope of line, simplify them and find the values of x and y. Further, use the equation y – y1 = Slope of normal (x – x1).

Given equation of curve is
y = x2 + 2x + 6 ……..(i)
and the given equation of line is
x + 14y + 4= 0

On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 3x2 + 2
Slope of normal = \(\frac{-1}{\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)}=\frac{-1}{3 x^{2}+2}\)

Also, slope of the line x + 14y + 4 = 0 is – \(\frac{1}{14}\) [∵ slope of the line Ax + By + C = 0 is – \(\frac{A}{B}\)]
We know that, if two lines are parallel, then their slopes are equal.
∴ \(-\frac{1}{3 x^{2}+2}=-\frac{1}{14}\)
⇒ 3x2 + 2 = 14
⇒ 3x2 = 12 ⇒ x2 = 4
⇒ x = ± 2

When x = 2, then from Eq. (i),
y = (2)3 + 2(2) + 6 = 8 + 4 + 6 = 18
and when x = – 2, then from Eq. (i),
y = (-2)3 + 2(-2) + 6 = -8 – 4 + 6 = – 6

∴ Normal passes through (2, 18) and (-2, -6).
Also, slope of normal = – \(\frac{1}{14}\)
Hence, equation of normal at point (2, 18) is
y – 18 = – \(\frac{1}{14}\)(x – 2)
⇒ 14y – 252 = – x + 2
⇒ x + 14 y = 254

and equation of normal at point (-2, -6) is
y + 6 = – \(\frac{1}{14}\) (x + 2)
⇒ 14y + 84 = -x – 2
⇒ x + 14y = -86
Hence, the two equations of normal are
x + 14y = 254 and x + 14y = – 86.

Question 21.
Find the angle of intersection of the curves y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4by. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
y2 = 4ax …(i)
and x2 = 4 by … (ii)
Clearly, the angle of intersection of curves (i) and (ii) is the angle between the tangents to the curves at the point of intersection.
So, let us first find the intersection point of given curves.

On substituting the value of y from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
\(\left(\frac{x^{2}}{4 b}\right)^{2}\) = 4ax
⇒ \(\frac{x^{4}}{16 b^{2}}\) = 4ax ⇒ x4 = 64ab2x
⇒ x4 – 64ab2x = 0
⇒ x(x2 – 64ab2) = 0
x = 0 or x = 4a1/3b2/3
Clearly, when x = 0, then from Eq. (i), y = 0 and when x = 4a1/3b2/3, then from Eq. (i),
y2 =16a4/3b2/3 ⇒ y = 4a2/3b1/3

Thus, the points of intersection are (0, 0) and (4a1/3b2/3, 4a2/3b1/3).
Now, let us find the angle of intersection at (0, 0) and (4a1/3b2/3, 4a2/3b1/3).
Let be the slope of tangent to the curve (i) and m2 be the slope of tangent to the curve (ii).

Angle of intersection at (0, 0)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 36
⇒ Tangent to the curve (i) is parallel to 7-axis and tangent to the curve (ii) is parallel to X-axis.
∴ Angle between these curves two is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).
⇒ The angle of intersection of the curves is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Angle of intersection at (4a1/3b2/3, 4a2/3b1/3)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 37

Question 22.
Find the equation of tangents to the curve y = cos(x + y), -2π ≤ x ≤ 2π that are parallel to the line x + 2y = 0. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is y = cos(x + y), -2π ≤ x ≤ 2π …………(i)
and equation of line is x + 2y = 0 …….(ii)
⇒ y = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)x
Clearly, slope of tangents to the curve is –\(\frac{1}{2}\).
Let (x1, y2) be the point of contact, then we have
y1 = cos(x1 + y1) [from Eq. (i)] …(iii)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 38
⇒ 1 + sin(x1 + y1) = 2sin(x1 + y1)
⇒ sin(x1 + y1) = 1 …(iv)

On squaring and adding Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get
cos2(x1 + y1) + sin2(x1 + y1) = 1 + y12
1 + y21 = 1 ⇒ y21 = o ⇒ y1 = o

On putting y1 = 0 in Eq. (iii), we get cosx1 = 0
⇒ x1 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}, \frac{-\pi}{2}, \frac{-3 \pi}{2}\) [∵ -2π ≤ x ≤ 2π]
But only x1 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) and \(\frac{-3 \pi}{2}\) satisfy Eq. (iv).

Hence, the points of contact are (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\), o) and (\(\frac{-3 \pi}{2}\), 0)
∴ Equations of tangents are
y – 0 = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)(x – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\))
and y -0 = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)(x + \(\frac{-3 \pi}{2}\))

Question 23.
Find the value of p for which the curves x2 = 9p (9 – y) and x2 = p (y + 1) cut each other at right angles. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
x2 = 9p (9 – y) …….(i)
and x2 = p (y + 1) ………….(ii)

As, these curves cut each other at right angle, therefore their tangent at point of intersection are perpendicular to each other.
So, let us first find the point of intersection and slope of tangents to the curves.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
9p(9 – y) =p(y + 1)
∴ 9(9 – y) = y + 1
[∵ p ≠ 0, as if p = 0, then curves becomes straight, which will be parallel]
⇒ 81 – 9y = y + 1 ⇒ 80 = 10y ⇒ y = 8

On substituting the value of yin Eq. (i),we get
x2 = 9p ⇒ x = + 3
Thus, the point of intersection are (3√p, 8) and (-3√p, 8)

Now, consider Eq.(i),we get
\(\frac{x^{2}}{9 p}\) = 9 – y ⇒ y = 9 – \(\frac{x^{2}}{9 p}\)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{-2 x}{9 p}\) ……(iii)

From Eq. (ii), we get \(\frac{x^{2}}{p}\) = y + 1
⇒ y = \(\frac{x^{2}}{p}\) – 1

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2 x}{p}\) ………(iv)

Now, for intersection point (3√p, 8), we have slope of tangent to the first curve
= \(\frac{-2(3 \sqrt{p})}{9 p}=\frac{-6 \sqrt{p}}{9 p}\) [using Eq. (iii)]

and slope of tangent to the second curve
= \(\frac{2(3 \sqrt{p})}{p}=\frac{6 \sqrt{p}}{p}\) [using Eq. (iv)]

∵ Tangents are perpendicular to each other.
Then,
Slope of first curve x Slope of second curve = -1
∴ \frac{-6 \sqrt{p}}{9 p} \times \frac{6 \sqrt{p}}{p}\(\) = -1 ⇒ \(\frac{4}{p}\) = 1 ⇒ p = 4

And for intersection point (3√p, 8), we have slope of tangent to the first curve
= \(\frac{-2(-3 \sqrt{p})}{9 p}=\frac{6 \sqrt{p}}{9 p}\) [using Eq. (iii)]

and slope of tangent to the second curve
= \(\frac{2(-3 \sqrt{p})}{p}=\frac{-6 \sqrt{p}}{p}\) [using Eq. (iv)]

Tangents are perpendicular to each other. Then,
\(\frac{6 \sqrt{p}}{9 p} \times \frac{-6 \sqrt{p}}{p}\) = -1 [∵ m1m2 = -1]
⇒ \(\frac{4}{p}\) = 1 ⇒ p = 4
Hence, the value of p is 4.

Question 24.
Find the equations of the tangent to the curve y = x2 – 2x + 7 which is
(i) parallel to the line 2x – y + 9 = 0.
(ii) perpendicular to the line 5y – 15x = 13. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is
y = x2 – 2x + 7

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2x – 2

(i) Given, equation of the line is 2x – y + 9 = 0
⇒ y = 2x + 9
which is of the form y = mx + c.

∴ Slope of the line is m = 2
If a tangent is parallel to the line, then slope of tangent is equal to the slope of the line.
Therefore, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = m ⇒ 2x – 2 = 2 ⇒ x = 2
When x = 2, then from Eq. (i), we get
y = 22 – 2 × 2 + 7 ⇒ y = 7
The point on the given curve at which tangent is parallel to given line is (2, 7) and the equation of the tangent is
y – 7 = 2(x – 2) [∵ y – y1 =m(x- x1)]
⇒ 2x – y + 3 = 0
Hence, the equation of the tangent line to the given curve which is parallel to line 2x – y + 9 = 0 is y – 2x – 3 = 0.

(ii) The equation of the given line is 5y – 15x = 13
⇒ y = \(\frac{15 x+13}{5}\) = 3x + \(\frac{13}{5}\)
which is of the form y = mx + c

∴Slope of the given line is 3.
If a tangent is perpendicular to the line 5y – 15x = 13.
Then, the slope of the tangent = –\(\frac{1}{3}\)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 39
Hence, the equation of the tangent line to the given curve which is perpendicular to the line 5y – 15x = 13 is 36y + 12x – 227 = 0.

Question 25.
Find the equation of the normal at a point on the curve x2 = 4y, which passes through the point (1, 2). Also, find the equation of the corresponding tangent. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given curve is x2 = 4y.
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x,we get
2x = 4\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) ⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
Let (h, k) be the coordinates of the point of contact of the normal to the curve x2 = 4y. Then, slope of the tangent at (h, k) is given by
\(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)_{(h, k)}=\frac{h}{2}\)
and slope of the normal ay (h, k) = \(\frac{-1}{d y / d x}=\frac{-2}{h}\)

Therefore, the equation of normal at (h, k) is
y – k = \(\frac{-2}{h}\)(x – h) ………….(i)
[∵ Equation of normal in slope form is y – y1 = \(\frac{-1}{m}\)(x – x1)]
Since, it passes through the point (1, 2), so on putting x =1 and y = 2, we get
2 – k = \(\frac{-2}{h}\)(1 – h)
⇒ k = 2 +
Since, (h, k) also lies on the curve x2 = 4y, therefore h2 = 4k ………(iii)

On solving Eqs.(ii) and (iii), we get
h = 2 and k = 1

Substituting the values of h and k in Eq.(i), the required equation of normal is
y – 1 = \(\frac{-2}{2}\)(x – 2) ⇒ x + y = 3

Now, equation of tangent at (h, k) is
y – k = \(\frac{h}{2}\)(x – h)

On putting h = 2 and k = 1, we get
y – 1 = \(\frac{2}{2}\)(x – 2) ⇒ y – 1 = x – 2
∴ y = x – 1

Question 26.
Find the equations of tangents to the curve 3x2 – y2 = 8, which passes through the point [\(\frac{4}{3}\), 0 ]. (All India 2013)
Answer:
First, differentiate the given curve with respect to x and determine \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). Then, find the equation of tangent at (x-,, y,}. Now, as this equation is passes through given point (x0, y0), so this point will satisfy the tangent and curve also. Further, simplify it and get the required equations of tangent.

Given equation of curve is
3x2 – y2 = 8

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 40
Also, the point (h, k) satisfy the Eq. (i), so we get
3h2 – k2 = 8 ……(iv)

Now, on solving Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get
4h = 8
⇒ h = 2

On putting h = 2 in Eq. (iv), we get
3 (2)2 – k2 = 8
⇒ k2 = 4
⇒ k = ±2

Now, putting the values of h and k in Eq. (h), we get
⇒ y = (±2) = \(\frac{3(2)}{\pm 2}\)(x – 2)
⇒ y + 2 = ±3(x – 2)
⇒ y = ± 3(x – 2) ± 2
⇒ y = ± {3(x – 2) + 2}
⇒ y = ± (3x – 6 + 2)
⇒ y = ± (3x – 4)
Hence, y = – 3x + 4 and y = 3x – 4 are two required equations of tangent.

Question 27.
Find all the points on the curve y = 4x3 – 2x5 at which the tangent passes through the origin. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Given curve is y = 4x3 – 2x5. ………(i)

Let any point on the curve be (x1 ,y1). So, it satisfies Eq. (i).
∴ y1 = 4x13 – 2x15 ………(ii)

On differentiating both sides of Eq. (i), we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 12x2 – 10x4

Equation of tangent at point (x1, y1) is
y – y1 = \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)_{\left(x_{1}, y_{1}\right)}\) (x – x1)
⇒ y – y1 = [12(x1)2 – 10(x1)4](x – x1)

Since, it passes through the origin.
∴ 0 – y1 = (12x12 – 10x14)(0 – x1)
⇒ y1 = (12x12 – 10x14)x1 ………(iii)

From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
(12x21 – 10x41)x1 = 4x13 – 2x15
⇒ 2x13(6 – 5x12) = 2x13(2 – x12)
⇒ 2x13(4 – 4x12) = 0
⇒ x1 = 0 or 4 – 4x12 = 0
∴ x1 = 0 or x1 = 1

On putting the values of x, = 0,1 and -1 respectively in Eq. (ii), we get
At x1 = 0, y1 = 0
At x1 = 1, y1 = 4(1)3 -2(1)5 = 4 – 2 = 2
and at x1 = (-1),
y1 = 4(-1)3 – 2(-1)5
= 4 (-1) – 2 (-1) = -4+ 2 = -2
Hence, all points on the curve at which the tangent passes through origin, are (0, 0), (1, 2) and (-1,-2).

Question 28.
Prove that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut at the right angles, if 8k2 = 1. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
x = y2 …(i)
and xy = k …(ii)

Let the curves (i) and (ii) cut at right angle.
Let us first find the point of intersection of given curves.
On substituting the value of x from Eq. (i) in Eq. (ii), we get
y3 = k => y = k1/3
On substituting y = k1/3 in Eq. (ii), we get
x = k2/3
Thus, the point of intersection is (k1/3, k2/3).
Now, let m1 be the slope of tangent to the curve (i) and m2 be the slope of tangent to the curve (ii).
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 41
Since, the curves (i) and (ii) cut at right angle.
∴ Angle between the tangents to the curves at the point of intersection is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), i.e. tangents to the curves are perpendicular to each other.
⇒ m1.m2 = -1
⇒ \(\left(\frac{1}{2 k^{1 / 3}}\right)\left(\frac{-1}{k^{1 / 3}}\right)\) = -1
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2 k^{2 / 3}}\)= 1 ⇒ 2k2/3 = 1

On cubing both sides, we get
8k2 = 1
Hence Proved.

Question 29.
Prove that all normals to the curves x = a cos t + at sin t and y = a sin t – at cos t are at a constant distance ‘a’ from the origin. (All India 2013C)
Answer:
Given equations of curves are
x = a cost + at sin t and y = asin t – at cost

On differentiating x and y separately w.r.t. t, we get
\(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = -asin t + a(t cost + sin t)
= -a sin t + a tcos t+ a sin t = at cost
and \(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = acos t – a[t(-sin t) + cos t)]
= a cost + at sin t – acost = at sin t

Now \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\frac{d y}{d t}}{\frac{d x}{d t}}=\frac{a t \sin t}{a t \cos t}\) = tan t
= Slope of normal at any point t = \(\frac{-1}{\tan t}\) = -cot t

Now, equation of normal at any point t is given by
y – (asin t – at cos t) = – cot t[x – (a cos t + atsint)]
⇒ y – asin t + at cos t = \(\frac{-\cos t}{\sin t}\) (x – acost – at sin t)
⇒ y sint – a sin2t + at cost sint = -x cost + acos2t + at sint cost
⇒ x cost + y sint = a(cos2t + sin2t)
⇒ x cost + ysint = a [∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1]
∴ xcos t + ysin t – a = 0
Now, the distance of normal from the origin is given by
\(\frac{|0 \cdot \cos t+0 \cdot \sin t-a|}{\sqrt{\cos ^{2} t+\sin ^{2} t}}=\frac{|-a|}{\sqrt{1}}\) = a

Question 30.
Find the equations of tangent and normal to the curve x = 1 – cos θ, y = θ – sin θ at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
First, differentiate the given curve with respect to and then determine \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). Further, use the formula, equation of tangent at (x1, y1) is y – y1 = m(x – x1)
and equation of normal at (x1, y1) is
y – y1 = –\(\frac{1}{m}\) (x – x1).

Given curves are x = 1 – cos θ and y = θ – sin θ.
On differentiating x and y separately w.r.t. θ, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 42
We know that, equation of tangent at (x1, y1) having slope m, is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 43
Hence, the equation of tangent is
x(√2 – 1) – y = \(\frac{12-8 \sqrt{2}-\sqrt{2} \pi+4}{4 \sqrt{2}}\)
⇒ x(8 – 4√2) – 4√2y = (16 – √2π – 8√2)

Also, the equation of normal at (x1, y1) having slope –\(\frac{1}{m}\) is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 44

Maxima and Minima

Question 1.
An open tank with a square base and vertical sides is to be constructed from a metal sheet so as to hold a given quantity of water. Show that the cost of material will be least when depth of the tank is half of its width. If the cost is to he borne by nearby settled lower income families, for whom water will be provided. (CBSE 2018; All India 2010 C)
Answer:
Let x be the length of a side of square base and y be the length of vertical side. Also, let V be the given quantity of water.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 45
Then, V = x2y …(i)
[∵ volume of cuboid = L × B × H]
Clearly, the surface area, S = 4xy + x2
= 4x.\(\frac{V}{x^{2}}\) + x2 [using Eq. (i)]
⇒ S(x) = \(\frac{4 V}{x}\) + x2

Now, on differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 46
Thus, the cost of material will be least when depth of the tank is half of its width.

Question 2.
The sum of the perimeters of a circle and square is k, where k is some constant. Prove that the sum of their areas is least, when the side of the square is double the radius of the circle. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let r be the radius of circle and x be the side of a square. Then, given that
Perimeter of square + Perimeter of circle
= k (constant)
i.e. 4x + 2πr = k ⇒ x = \(\frac{k-2 \pi r}{4}\) ……(i)

Let A denotes the sum of their areas.
∴ Area, A = area of a square + area of circle
∴ A = x2 + πr2 …(ii)

On putting the value of x from Eq. (i) in Eq.(ii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 47
i.e. Side of square = double the radius of circle
Hence, sum of area of a circle and a square is least, when side of square is equal to diameter of circle or double the radius of circle.
Hence Proved.

Question 3.
A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed, so that its depth is 2 m and volume is 8 m3. If building of tank cost ₹ 70 per sq m for the base and ₹ 45 per sq m for sides. What is the cost of least expensive tank? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let x m be the length, y m be the breadth and h=2m be the depth of the tank.
Let ₹ H be the total cost for building the tank. Now, given that h = 2 m and volume of tank = 8 m3.
Clearly, area of the rectangular base of the tank
= length × breadth = xy m2

and the area of the four rectangular sides
= 2 (length + breadth) × height
= 2 (x + y) × 2= 4 (x + y) m2

∴ Total cost, H = 70 × xy + 45 × 4 (x + y)
⇒ H = 70xy + 180 (x + y) …………(i)

Also, volume of tank = 8 m3
⇒ l × b × h = 8 ⇒ x × y × 2 = 8 ⇒ y = \(\frac{4}{x}\) …..(ii)

On putting the value of y from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 48
⇒ H is least at x = 2.
Also, the least cost = 280 + 180(2 + \(\frac{4}{2}\))
[put x = 2in Eq. (iii) to get least cost H]
= 280 + 180 × 4 = 280 + 720 = ₹ 1000
Hence, the cost of least expensive tank is ₹ 1000

Question 4.
Prove that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is \(\frac{2 R}{\sqrt{3}}\). Also, find the maximum volume. (All India 2019,2014,2012C, 2011: Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Let h be the height and a be the radius of base of cylinder inscribed in the given sphere of radius (R).
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 49
In ΔABC, AB2 = AC2 + BC2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 50
⇒ V is maximum.
Hence, the required height of cylinder is V
Hence proved.
Now, maximum volume of cylinder, V
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 51

Question 5.
Find the point on the curve y2 = 4x, which is nearest to the point (2, – 8). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given, equation of curve is y2 = 4x.
Let P(x, y) be a point on the curve, which is nearest to point A(2, – 8).
Now, distance between the points A and P is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 52
Thus, z is minimum when y = – 4.
Substituting y = -4 in equation of the curve y2 = 4x; we obtain x = 4.
Hence, the point (4, – 4) on the curve y2 = 4x is nearest to the point (2, – 8).

Question 6.
Show that the altitude of the right circular cone of maximum volume that can he inscribed in a sphere of radius r is \(\frac{4r}{3}\)
Also, find the maximum volume in terms of volume of the sphere. (Delhi 2019, 2016)
Or
Show that the altitude of the right circular cone of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius r is \(\frac{4r}{3}\). Also, show that the maximum volume of the cone is \(\frac{8}{27}\) of the volume of the sphere. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Let R be the radius and h be the height of the cone, which inscribed in a sphere of radius r.
∴ OA = h – r

In ΔOAB, by Pythagoras theorem, we have
r2 = R2 + (h – r)2
⇒ r = R2 + h2 + r2 – 2rh
⇒ R2 = 2rh – h2 ……….(i)

The volume of sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 53
and the volume V of the cone,
V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) πR2h
⇒ V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) πh (2rh – h2) [from Eq. (i)]
⇒ V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) π (2rh2 – h3) …..(ii)

On differentiating both sides of Eq, (ii) w.r.t. h, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 54
⇒ V is maximum at h = \(\frac{4r}{3}\).
Hence proved.

On substituting the value of h in Eq. (ii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 55
Hence, maximum volume of the cone is \(\frac{8}{27}\) of the volume of the sphere.

Question 7.
A window is of the form of a semi-circle with a rectangle on its diameter. The total perimeter of the window is 10 m. Find the dimensions of the window to admit maximum light through the whole opening. (CBSE 2018 C; All India 2017,2011; Foreign 2014)
Or
A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening. The total perimeter of the window is 10 m. ,Find the dimensions of the window to ‘ admit maximum light through the whole j opening. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Let 2x be the length and y be the width of the window.
Then, radius of semicircular opening = x m
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 56
Since, perimeter of the window is 10 m.
∴ 2x + y + y + \(\frac{2 \pi x}{2}\) = 10
⇒ 2x + 2y + πx = 10
⇒ x(π + 2) + 2y = 10
⇒ y = \(\frac{10-x(\pi+2)}{2}\) ……(i)

Note that, to admit maximum light, area of window should be maximum.
Here, area of window
A = area of rectangle + area of semicircular region
= 2x × y + \(\frac{1}{2}\)πx2
⇒ A = 2x\(\left(\frac{10-x(\pi+2)}{2}\right)\) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) πx2 [from Eq. (i)]
⇒ A = 10x – x2(π + 2) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) πx2

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get dA
\(\frac{d A}{d x}\) = 10 – 2x (π + 2) + πx
= 10- 2x π – 4x + πx
= 10 – πx – 4x ……(iii)

For maximum, Put \(\frac{d A}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ 10 = πx + 4x
⇒ x = \(\frac{10}{\pi+4}\)

Again, on differentiating both sides of Eq. (ii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 57

Thus, area is maximum when x = \(\frac{10}{\pi+4}\)
Now, on substituting the value of x in Eq. (i), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 58
Hence, length of window = \(\frac{20}{\pi+4}\)m and width of windows = \(\frac{10}{\pi+4}\)m, to admit maximum light through the whole opening.

Question 8.
Show that the surface area of a closed cuboid with square base and given volume is minimum, when it is a cube. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Let V be the fixed volume of a closed cuboid with length x, breadth x and height y.
Then, V = x × x × y
⇒ y = \(\frac{V}{x^{2}}\) …………(i)

Let S be its surface area.
Then, S = 2(x2 + xy + xy)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 59
So, S is minimum
when length = x, breadth = x and height = x, when it is cube.

Question 9.
AB is the diameter of a circle and C is any point on the circle. Show that the area of AABC is maximum, when it is an isosceles triangle. (All India 2017, 2014C)
Answer:
Let AC = x,BC = y and r be the radius of circle.
Also, ∠C= 90° [v angle made in semi-circle is 90°]
In ΔABC, we have
(AB)2 = (AQ)2 + (BQ)2
⇒ (2r)2 = (x)2 + (y)2
⇒ 4r2 = x2 + y2 ….(i)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 60
We know that,
Area of ΔABC,(A) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)x.y
On squaring both sides, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 61
Hence, area is maximum when triangle is an isosceles.
Hence proved

Question 10.
If the sum of lengths of the hypotenuse and a side of a right angled triangle is given, show that the area of the triangle is maximum, when the angle between them is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (Delhi 2017; All India 2014)
Answer:
Let us consider a right angled triangle with base = x and hypotenuse =y.
Let x + y = k, where k is a constant.
Let θ be the angle between the base and the hypotenuse.
Let A be the area of the triangle, then
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 62
Hence, the area of triangle is maximum, when θ = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\).
Hence proved.

Question 11.
A metal box with a square base and vertical sides is to contain 1024 cm3. The material for the top and bottom costs ₹ 5 per cm2 and the material for the sides costs ₹ 2.50 per cm2. Find the least cost of the box. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, volume of the box= 1024 cm3. Let length of the side of square base be x cm and height of the box be y cm.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 63
Volume of the box, V = x2.y = 1024
⇒ x2y = 1024
⇒ y = \(\frac{1024}{x^{2}}\)

Let C denotes the cost of the box.
C = 2x2 × 5 + 4xy × 2.50
= 10x2 + 10xy = 10x (x + y)
= 10x(x + \(\frac{1024}{x^{2}}\))
= 10x2 + \(\frac{10240}{x}\) ……..(i)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 64
For x = 8, cost is minimum and the corresponding least cost of the box
C (8) = 10. 82 + \(\frac{10240}{8}\) = 640 + 1280 = 1920
Hence, least cost of the box is ₹s 1920.

Question 12.
Show that the semi-vertical angle of the cone of the maximum volume and of given slant height is cos-1 1/√3. (All India 2016; Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Let θ be the semi-vertical angle of the cone.
It is clear that θ ∈ (0, \(\frac{\pi}{2}\))
Let r, h and l be the radius, height and the slant height of the cone, respectively.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 65
Since, slant height of the cone is given, so consider it as constant.
Now, in ΔABC, r = l sin θ and h = l cos θ
Let V be the volume of the cone.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 66
⇒ sin3θ = 2sinθ cos2θ
⇒ tan2θ = 2
⇒ tan θ = √2
⇒ θ = tan-1√2

Now, when θ = tan-1√2, then tan2θ = 2
⇒ sin2θ = 2cos2θ

Now, we have
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 67
Hence, for given slant height, the semi-vertical angle of the cone of maximum volume is cos-1\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\).

Question 13.
Prove that the least perimeter of an isosceles triangle in which a circle of radius r can be inscribed, is 6√3r. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Let ABC be the given isosceles triangle, with AB = AC.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 68
Clearly, OD ⊥ BC, OF ⊥ AC, OE ⊥ AB [∵ radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact]
and BD = BE, CD = CF, AE = AF [∵ tangents from an external point to a circle are equal in length]
Since, AD is an altitude of isosceles ΔABC, Therefore, BD = CD [∵ in an isosceles triangle, altitude from common vertex of equal sides bisect the third side]
⇒ BD = BE = CF = CD [∵ BE = BD and CD = CF]

Now, perimeter (P) of ΔABC = AB + BC + AC
= AE + BE + BD + DC + AF + FC
= (AE +AF) + (BE + BD + DC + FC)
= 2AE + 4BD …(i)

Consider ΔOEA, in this we have
AE = \(\frac{O E}{\tan \theta}=\frac{r}{\tan \theta}\) and OA = \(\frac{r}{\sin \theta}\)
and in ΔADB we have BD = AD tan θ
= (AO + OD) tanθ
= [\(\frac{r}{\sin \theta}\) + r)tan θ
Now, P = 2.\(\frac{r}{\sin \theta}\) + 4(\(\frac{r}{\sin \theta}\) + r)tan θ [From Eq. (i)]
⇒ P(θ) = r(2 cot θ + 4 sec θ + 4 tan θ) …….(ii)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. θ, we get
P'(θ) = r(-2cosec2θ + 4secθ tanθ + 4sec2 θ) …(iii)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 69
Now, put P'(θ) = 0
⇒ -2cos2θ + 4sin3θ + 4sin2θ = 0
⇒ -2(1 – sin2θ) + 4sin3θ + 4sin2θ = 0
⇒ -2 + 2sin2θ + 4sin3θ + 4sin2θ = 0
⇒ 2sin3θ + 3sin2θ – 1 = 0
⇒ (sin θ + 1)(2sin 2θ + sin θ – 1) = 0
⇒ sin θ = -1 or 2 sin 2θ + sinθ – 1 = 0
⇒ 2sin2θ + sin θ – 1 = 0 [∵sin θ ≠ -1, as 0 can’t be more than 90°]
⇒ (2sinθ – 1)(sin θ + 1) = 0
⇒ sin θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [∵sin θ ≠ -1]
∴θ = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

On differentiating both sides of Eq. (iii) w.r.t. 0, we get
P”(θ) = r(4cosec2θ cotθ + 4sec3θ + 4secθtan2θ + 8sec2θtanθ)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 70
Hence Proved.

Question 14.
The sum of the surface areas of a cuboid with sides x, 2x and \(\frac{x}{3}\) and a sphere is given to be constant. Prove that the sum of their volumes is minimum, if x is equal to three times the radius of sphere. Also, find the minimum value of the sum of their volumes. (Foreign 2016)
Or
The sum of surface areas of a sphere and a cuboid with sides \(\frac{x}{3}\), x and 2x, is constant. Show that the sum of their volumes is minimum, if x is equal to three times the radius of sphere.
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere and dimensions of cuboid are x, 2x and \(\frac{x}{3}\).
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 71
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 72
Hence, V is minimum when x is equal to three times the radius of the sphere.
Hence proved.
Now, on putting r = \(\frac{x}{3}\) in Eq. (ii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 73

Question 15.
Find the local maxima and local minima of the function f(x) = sin x – cos x, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π. Also, find the local maximum and local minimum values. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
We have, f(x) = sin x – cos x, 0< x < 2π
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
f'(x) = cosx + sinx ……….(i)
For local maximum and local minimum,
Put f'(x) = 0,
i.e. cosx + sinx = 0 ⇒ cosx = – sinx
⇒ tanx = -1 ⇒ x = π – \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) or 2π – \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
⇒ x = \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\) or \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\)

Again, on differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get
f”(x) = – sin x + cos x
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 74
Thus, x = \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\) is a point of local maxima and x = \(\frac{7 \pi}{4}\) is a point of local minima.

Now, the local maximum value
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 75

Question 16.
Find the minimum value of (ax + by), where xy = c2. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
let f(x) = ax + by, whose minimum value is required.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 76

Question 17.
Find the coordinates of a point on the parabola y = x2 + 7x + 2 which is closest to the straight line y = 3x – 3. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given equation of curve is y = x2 + 7x + 2 and equation of straight line is y = 3x – 3
Let P(x, y) be any point on the parabola y = x2 + 7x + 2.
Let D be the distance of point P from straight line, then
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 77
Thus, D is minimum when x = – 2
Now, y = x2 + 7x + 2 = (- 2)2 + 7 (-2) + 2
= 4 – 14 + 2 = -8
Hence, point (- 2, – 8) is on the parabola, which is closest to the given straight line.

Question 18.
A point on the hypotenuse of a right triangle is at distances a and b from the sides of the triangle. Show that the minimum length of the hypotenuse is (a2/3 + b2/3)3/2. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Let P be a point on the hypotenuse AC of right angled ΔABC.
Such that PL ⊥ AB and PL = a and PM ⊥ BC and PM = b.
Let ∠APL = ∠ACB = 6 [say]
Then, AP = a sec θ, PC = b cosec θ

Let l be the length of the hypotenuse, then
l = AP + PC
⇒ l = a sec θ + b cosec θ, 0 < θ< \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. θ, we get
\(\frac{d l}{d \theta}\) = a sec θ tan θ – b cosec θ cot θ …(i)
For maxima or minima, put \(\frac{d l}{d \theta}\) = 0
⇒ a sec θ tan θ = b cosec θ cot θ
⇒ \(\frac{a \sin \theta}{\cos ^{2} \theta}=\frac{b \cos \theta}{\sin ^{2} \theta}\) ⇒ tan θ = \(\left(\frac{b}{a}\right)^{1 / 3}\)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 78
Again, on differentiating both sides of Eq. (i) w.r.t. θ, we get
\(\frac{d^{2} l}{d \theta^{2}}\) = a (sec θ × sec θ + tan θ × sec θ tan θ) – b [cosec θ (- cosec2 θ) + cot θ (- cosec θ cot θ)]
= a sec θ (sec2 θ + tan2 θ)+ b cosec θ (cosec θ + cot2 θ)

For 0 < θ < \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), all trigonometric ratios are positive. Also, a > 0 and b > 0
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 79
Hence Proved.

Question 19.
If the length of three sides of a trapezium other than the base are each equal to 10 cm, then find the area of the trapezium, when it is maximum. (All India 2014C, 2010; Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Let ABCD be the given trapezium in which
AD = BC = CD =10cm.
AP = x cm
ΔAPD = ΔBQC
QB = x cm
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 80
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 81
⇒ -2(x2 + 5x – 5) = 0
⇒ -2(x + 1)(x – 5) = 0
x = 5 or -10
Since, x represents distance, so it cannot be negative.
Therefore, we take x = 5
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (ii) w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 82
Thus, area of trapezium is maximum at x = 5 and maximum arca is
Amax = (5 + 10)\(\sqrt{100-(5)^{2}}\) [put x = 5 in Eq. (i)]
= 15\(\sqrt{100-25}\) = 15\(\sqrt{75}\) = 75√3 cm2

Question 20.
Find the point P on the curve y2 = 4ax, which is nearest to the point (11a, 0). (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Let P(x, y) be any point on y2 = 4ax.
Then, distance between (x, y) and (11a, 0) is given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 83
So, at (x = 9a), D is minimum.
Now, y2 = 36a2 ⇒ y = ± 6a
Hence, required points are (9a, 6a) and (9a, -6a).

Question 21.
Prove that the semi-vertical angle of the right circular cone of given volume and least curved surface area is cot-1 √2. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the base, h be the height, V be the volume, S be the surface area of the cone ABC and 0 be the semi-vertical angle.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 84
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 85
So, S2 or S is minimum, when
V2 = 2π2r6/9

On putting V2 = 2π2r6/9 in Eq. (i), we get
2r6 = π2r4h2
⇒ 2r2 = h2 ⇒ h = √2r ⇒ \(\frac{h}{r}\) = √2
⇒ cot θ = √2 [from the figure, cot θ = \(\frac{h}{r}\).]
∴ θ = cot-1 √2
Hence, the semi-vertical angle of the right circular cone of given volume and least curved surface area is cot-1√2.
Hence proved.

Note: If square of any area is maximum (or minimum), then area is also maximum (or minimum).

Question 22.
Of all the closed right circular cylindrical cans of volume 128π cm3, find the dimensions of the can which has minimum surface area. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Let r cm be the radius of base and h cm be the height of the cylindrical can. Let its volume be V and S be its total surface area.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 86
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 87
Thus, \(\frac{d^{2} S}{d r^{2}}\) > 0 at r = 4, so the surface area is dr2 minimum, when the radius of cylinder is 4 cm.
On putting the value of r in Eq. (i), we get
Hence, for the minimum surface area of can, the dimensions of the cylindrical can are r = 4 cm and h = 8 cm.

Question 23.
Show that a cylinder of a given volume which is open at the top has minimum total surface area, when its height is equal to the radius of its base. (Foreign 2014; Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Let r be the radius, h be the height, V be the volume and S be the total surface area of a right circular cylinder which is open at the top.
Now, given that V = πr2h
We know that, total surface area S is given by
S = 2πrh + πr2 [∵ cylinder is open at the top, therefore S = curved surface area of cylinder + area of base]
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 88
Hence, S is minimum, when h = r, i.e. when height of cylinder is equal to radius of the base.
Hence Proved.

Question 24.
Find the area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Let ABCD be a rectangle having area A inscribed in an ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1 ………..(i)
Let the coordinates of A be (α, β).
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 89
Then, the coordinates of B = (α, -β)
C = (-α,-β)
D = (-α, β)
∴ Area of rectangle, A = Length × Breadth
= 2α × 2β ⇒ A = 4αβ
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 90

Question 25.
Show that the height of a closed right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume is equal to diameter of base. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Let S be the surface area, V be the volume, h be the height and r be the radius of base of the right circular cylinder.
We know that, Surface area of right circular cylinder,
S = πr2 + 2πrh ……(i)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 91
= – 6πr < 0
∴ V is maximum
Hence, V is maximum at h = 2r
Hence Proved.

Question 26.
Prove that radius of right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which can be inscribed in a given cone is half of that of the cone. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Let VAB be the cone of base radius r, height h and radius of base of the inscribed cylinder be x.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 92
Now, we observe that
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 93
∴ C is maximum or greatest.
Hence, C is greatest at x = \(\frac{r}{2}\).
Hence proved.

Question 27.
An open box with a square base is to be made out of a given quantity of cardboard of area C2 sq units. Show that the maximum volume of box is \(\frac{C^{3}}{6 \sqrt{3}}\) cu units. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Let the dimensions of the box be x and y. Also, let V denotes its volume and S denotes its total surface area.
Now, S = x2 + 4xy [∵ S = area of square base + area of the four walls]
Given, x2 + 4xy = C2
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 94
Hence, the maximum volume of box is \(\frac{C^{3}}{6 \sqrt{3}}\) cu units.
Hence Proved.

Question 28.
Prove that the area of a right angled triangle of given hypotenuse is maximum, when the triangle is isosceles. (Delhi 2012c)
Answer:
Let a and b be the sides of right angled triangle and c be the hypotenuse.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 95
From ΔABC, we have
c2 = a2 + b2
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 96
Hence, the triangle is isosceles.
Hence proved.

Question 29.
Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface and given volume has an altitude equal to √2 times the radius of the base. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let C denotes the curved surface area, r be the radius of base, h be the height and V be the volume of right circular cone.
We know that, volume of cone is given by
V = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr2h ⇒ h = \(\frac{3 V}{\pi r^{2}}\) …(i)
Also, the curved surface area of cone is given by C = ml, where l = \(\sqrt{r^{2}+h^{2}}\) is the slant height of cone.
∴ C = πr\(\sqrt{r^{2}+h^{2}}\)

On squaring both sides, we get
C2 = π2r2 (r2 + h2)
⇒ C2 = π2r4 + π2r2h2
Let C2 = Z
Then, Z = π2r4 + π2r2h2 ……….(ii)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 97
⇒ Z is minimum ⇒ C is minimum.
Hence, curved surface area is least, when h = √2r.
Note: If C2 is maximum/minimum, then C is also maximum/minimum.

Question 30.
A window has the shape of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral triangle. If the perimeter of the window is 12 m, then find the dimensions of the rectangle that will produce the largest area of the window. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let ABCD be the rectangle which is surmounted by an equilateral ΔEDC.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 98
Now, given that Perimeter of window = 12 m
⇒ 2x + 2y + y = 12
∴ x = 6 – \(\frac{3}{2}\)y
Let A denotes the combined area of the window.
Then, A = area of rectangle + area of equilateral triangle
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 99
Hence, the area of the window is largest when the dimensions of the window are
x = \(\frac{18-6 \sqrt{3}}{6-\sqrt{3}}\) and y = \(\frac{12}{6-\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 31.
Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square has the maximum area. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let ABCD be the rectangle which is inscribed in a fixed circle whose centre is 0 and radius b. Let AB = 2x and BC = 2y.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 100
In right angled AOPA by Pythagoras theorem, we have
AP2 + OP2 = OA2
x2 + y2 = b2
y2 = b2 – x2
⇒ y = \(\sqrt{b^{2}-x^{2}}\) …..(i)

Let A be the area of rectangle.
∴ A = (2x) (2y) [∵ area of rectangle = length x breadth]
⇒ A = 4 xy
⇒ A = 4x\(\sqrt{b^{2}-x^{2}}\) [∵ y = \(\sqrt{b^{2}-x^{2}}\)]

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 101
Hence, area of rectangle is maximum, when 2x = 2y, i.e. when rectangle is a square.
Hence proved.

Question 32.
Show that of all the rectangles with a given perimeter, the square has the largest area. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let x and y be the lengths of two sides of a rectangle. Again, let P denotes its perimeter and A be the area of rectangle.
Then, P = 2 (x + y) [∵ perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)]
⇒ P = 2x + 2y
⇒ y = \(\frac{P-2 x}{2}\) …..(i)

We know that, area of rectangle is given by
A = xy
⇒ A = x\(\left(\frac{P-2 x}{2}\right)\) [by using Eq. (i)]
⇒ A = \(\left(\frac{P-2 x}{2}\right)\)

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d A}{d x}=\frac{P-4 x}{2}\)

For maxima or minima, put \(\frac{d A}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{P-4 x}{2}\) = 0 ⇒ P = 4x
⇒ 2x + 2y = 4x [∵ P = 2x + 2y]
⇒ x = y

So, the rectangle is a square.
Also, \(\frac{d^{2} A}{d x^{2}}=\frac{d}{d x}\left(\frac{P-4 x}{2}\right)\)
= \(-\frac{4}{2}\) = -2 < 0
⇒ A is maximum.
Hence, area is maximum, when rectangle is a square.
Hence proved.

Question 33.
Show that of all the rectangles of given area, the square has the smallest perimeter. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let x and y be the lengths of sides of a rectangle. Again, let A denotes its area and P be the perimeter.
Now, area of rectangle, A = xy
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 102
Here, x and A being the side and area of rectangle can never be negative. So, P is minimum.
Hence, perimeter of rectangle is minimum, when rectangle is a square.
Hence proved.

Question 34.
Show that the semi-vertical angle of a right circular cone of maximum volume and given slant height is tan-1 √2. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let θ be the semi-vertical angle of the cone.
It is clear that θ ∈ (0, \(\frac{\pi}{2}\))
Let r, h and l be the radius, height and the slant height of the cone, respectively.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 65
Since, slant height of the cone is given, so consider it as constant.
Now, in ΔABC, r = l sin θ and h = l cos θ
Let V be the volume of the cone.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 66
⇒ sin3θ = 2sinθ cos2θ
⇒ tan2θ = 2
⇒ tan θ = √2
⇒ θ = tan-1√2

Now, when θ = tan-1√2, then tan2θ = 2
⇒ sin2θ = 2cos2θ

Now, we have
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 67
Hence, for given slant height, the semi-vertical angle of the cone of maximum volume is cos-1\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\).

Question 35.
Find the point on the curve y2 = 2x which is at a minimum distance from the point (1, 4). (All India 2011)
Answer:
First, consider any point on the curve, use the, formula of distance between two points. Then, square both sides and eliminate one variable with i the help of given equation. Further, apply concept : of maxima and minima to find the required point.

The given equation of curve is y2 = 2x and the given point is Q (1,4).
Let P(x, y) be any point on the curve.
Now, distance between points P and Qis given by
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 103
Let PQ2 = Z
Then, Z = \(\frac{y^{4}}{4}\) – 8y + 17

On differentiating both sides w.r.t. y, we get
\(\frac{d Z}{d y}=\frac{4 y^{3}}{4}\) – 8 = y3 – 8

For maxima or minima, put \(\frac{d Z}{d y}\) = 0
⇒ y3 – 8 = 0 ⇒ y3 = 8
⇒ y = 2
Also, \(\frac{d^{2} Z}{d y^{2}}=\frac{d}{d y}\)(y3 – 8) = 3y2

On putting y = 2, we get
\(\left(\frac{d^{2} Z}{d y^{2}}\right)_{y=2}\) = 3(2)2 = 12 >0
\(\frac{d^{2} Z}{d y^{2}}\) > 0

∴ Z is minimum and therefore PQ is also minimum as Z = PQ2.
On putting y = 2 in the given equation, i.e. y2 = 2x, we get
(2)2 = 2x
⇒ 4 = 2x
⇒ x = 2
Hence, the point which is at a minimum distance from point (1, 4) is P (2, 2).

Question 36.
A wire of length 28 m is to be cut into two pieces. One of the two pieces is to be made into a square and the other into a circle. What should be the lengths of two pieces, so that the combined area of circle and square is minimum? (All India 2010)
Answer:
First, find length of circular part (or its circumference) and calculate the length of square part (or its perimeter). Add these two terms and equate it to 28 m and apply second derivative test to check minimum.

Let x m be the side of the square and r be the radius of circular part. Then,
Length of square part = perimeter of square = 4 × Side = 4 × and length of circular part
= circumference of circle = 2πr
Given, length of wire = 28 ⇒ 4x + 2πr = 28
⇒ 2x + πr = 14
∴ x = \(\frac{14-\pi r}{2}\) ……(i)

Let A denotes the combined area of circle and square.
Then, A = πr2 + x2
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 104
which are the required length of two pieces.

Question 37.
Show that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is \(\frac{8}{27}\) of the volume of the sphere. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Let R be the radius and h be the height of the cone, which inscribed in a sphere of radius r.
∴ OA = h – r

In ΔOAB, by Pythagoras theorem, we have
r2 = R2 + (h – r)2
⇒ r = R2 + h2 + r2 – 2rh
⇒ R2 = 2rh – h2 ……….(i)

The volume of sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πr3
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 53
and the volume V of the cone,
V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) πR2h
⇒ V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) πh (2rh – h2) [from Eq. (i)]
⇒ V = \(\frac{1}{2}\) π (2rh2 – h3) …..(ii)

On differentiating both sides of Eq, (ii) w.r.t. h, we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 54
⇒ V is maximum at h = \(\frac{4r}{3}\).
Hence proved.

On substituting the value of h in Eq. (ii), we get
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 55
Hence, maximum volume of the cone is \(\frac{8}{27}\) of the volume of the sphere.

Question 38.
Find the maximum area of an isosceles triangle inscribed in the ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{16}\) = 1, with its vertex at one end of the major axis. (Delhi 2010c)
Answer:
Given equation of ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{16}\) = 1

Here, a = 5, b = 4 a > b
So, major axis is along X-axis.
Let ABTC be the isosceles triangle which is inscribed in the ellipse and OD = x, BC = 2y and TD = 5 – x.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 105
Let A denotes the area of triangle. Then, we have
A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × base × height = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × BC × TD
⇒ A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) .2y (5 – x) ⇒ A = y (5 – x)

On squaring both sides, we get
A2 = y2(5 – x)2 …….(i)
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 106
For maxima or mmima, put \(\frac{d Z}{d x}\) = 0
⇒ \(-\frac{32}{25}\) (5 – x)2(2x + 5) = 0 ⇒ x = 5 or –\(\frac{5}{2}\)
Now, when x = 5, then
Z = \(\frac{16}{25}\) (25 – 25)(5 – 5)2 = 0
which is not possible.
So, x = 5 is rejected.
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 107

Note: If A2 is maximum/minimum, then A is also maximum/minimum.

Question 39.
Show that the right circular cylinder, open at the top and of given surface area and maximum volume is such that its height is equal to the radius of the base. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Let V be the volume, S be the total surface area of a right circular cylinder which is open at the top. Again, let r be the radius of base and h be the height.
Now, S = 2πrh + πr2 [∵ cylinder is open at top]
⇒ h = \(\frac{S-\pi r^{2}}{2 \pi r}\) ……….(i)

Also, volume of cylinder is given by
V = πr2h
Application of Derivatives Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 108
Hence, volume of cylinder is maximum, when its height is equal to radius of the base.
Hence proved.

The post Application of Derivatives Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Control and Coordination Class 10 Science Chapter 7 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Control and Coordination Class 10 Science Chapter 7

Question 1.
Which is the largest and most prominent part of the brain? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Cerebrum is the largest and most prominent part of the brain.

Question 2.
(a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7 Img 1
Answer:
(a) Gustatory receptors are receptors for taste present in taste buds on tongue and olfactory receptors are the receptors for smell present in nasal chambers.
Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7 Img 2
In the given flow chart, a is cyton and b is axon.

Question 3.
Write the main functions of the following :
(a) sensory neuron
(b) cranium
(c) vertebral column
(d) motor neuron. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) Sensory neuron occur in sense organs and receive stimuli through their dendrites. The sensory neurons transmit impulses towards the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) with the help of their axons.
(b) Cranium : The bones of cranium or brain box protect the brain from mechanical injury.
(c) Vertebral column : Major function of the vertebral column is protection of the spinal cord and carries the weight of the upper body.
(d) Motor neuron: The dendrites of these neurons synapse with axons of interneurons in central nervous system. They transmit impulses from central nervous system towards effectors (muscles or glands). The latter respond to stimuli.

Question 4.
Why does the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron take place but not in the reverse direction? Explain. (AI 2019)
Answer:
At the synapse, (functional junction between neurons) axon terminal comes in close proximity to the dendron terminal of next neuron. Axon terminal is expanded to form pre-synaptic knob and the other dendrite terminal forms post- synaptic depression.

In between the two, lies a narrow fluid filled space called synaptic cleft. As the nerve impulse reaches the pre-synaptic knob, the synaptic vesicles get stimulated to release neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the gap to come in contact with post-synaptic membrane. In this way, nerve impulse passes across the minute gap to stimulate dendron of other neuron. The synapse acts as a one-way valve to conduct impulse in one direction only. This is so because chemical substance called neurotransmitter is secreted only on one side of the gap, i.e., on axon’s side. It carries impulse across the synapse and passes it to the dendron of the other neuron. In this way, impulses travel across the neurons only in one direction, i.e., from axon of one neuron to dendron of other neuron through a synapse.

Question 5.
“Reflex arcs continue to be more efficient for quick responses”. Justify this statement giving reason. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Reflex action is an automatic and spontaneous response to a stimulus. The pathway taken by nerve impulses and responses in a reflex action is called a reflex arc. It consists of receptor, sensory nerve (afferent), spinal cord, motor nerve (efferent) and effector (muscles or glands). Reflex arc is evolved in animals because the thinking process of the brain is not fast enough. Reflex arc enables the body to give quick responses to harmful stimuli so that chances of damage to body are decreased. It also prevents overloading of brain, so prevents its fatigue. Many animals have very little or none of the complex neuron network needed for thinking. So, it is likely that reflex arc has evolved as an efficient way of functioning in the absence of true thought processes. However, even after complex neuron networks have came into existence, reflex arcs continue to be more efficient for quick responses.

Question 6.
(a) Define reflex arc.
(b) Trace the sequence of events which occur in our body when a bright light is focussed on your eyes. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) The pathway taken by the nerve impulses in a reflex action, from receptor organ to spinal cord and back to effector organ of reflex action is called reflex arc. Receptor organ could be a sense organ such as eyes, skin, etc., and effector organ could be muscles, glands, etc.

(b) When a bright light is focussed on eye, receptor cell receives the stimulus and an impulse is generated. This impulse is passed on to sensory neuron, then it goes to brain, brain sends the impulse to the motor neuron which contracts the pupil. Sequence of events can be summarised as : Photoreceptors in eye → Sensory (Receptor) neuron → Brain → Motor (Effector) neuron → Eye muscle → Constriction of pupils

Question 7.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
(b) Which part of the human brain is:
(i) the main thinking part of the brain?
(ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body? (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Diagrammatic representation of a neuron is as follows:
Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7 Img 3

(b) (i) Forebrain which includes cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon, is the main thinking part of the brain.
(ii) Cerebellum, part of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body.

Question 8.
Mentioh three major regions of brain. Write one function of each. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Brain is divided into three main regions forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
(i) Forebrain consists of cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon. Its main function is thinking and controlling various activities such as touch, smell, hearing, speech and sight.
(ii) Midbrain controls reflex movements of the head, neck and trunk in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
(iii) Hindbrain has three centres called pons, cerebellum and medulla. This part is responsible for regulating respiration, maintaining posture and balance of body and controlling involuntary actions such as heartbeat, breathing, swallowing, coughing, sneezing, vomiting, etc.

Question 9.
State one example of chemotropism. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Growth of pollen tube towards the ovule due to chemical stimulus during the process of fertilisation in a flower is an example of chemotropism.

Question 10.
What is meant by tropic movements? (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Directional movements or orientations of specific part of a plant in response to external stimuli are called tropisms or tropic movements.

Question 11.
State the two types of movements seen in plants. Give one example of each type. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Two types of movements seen in plants are:
(i) Nastic movements are movements independent of growth that are non-direclional and occur due to turgor changes, e.g., closing of leaves in response to touch stimulus in ‘touch me not’ plant.
(ii) Tropic movements or tropism are movements due to growth, that are directional and very slow, e.g., movement of a part of the plant in response to light.

Question 12.
Define geotropism. Draw a labelled diagram of a plant showing geotropic movement of its parts. (2020)
Answer:
Geotropism refers to the upward and downward growth of shoots and roots respectively in response to the pull of earth or gravity. If the plant part moves in the direction of gravity, it is called positive geotropism. Likewise, if the plant part moves against the direction of gravity, it is termed as negative geotropism. Shoots are usually negatively geotropic and roots are usually positively geotropic. A well labelled diagram of plant showing geotropism is:
Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7 Img 4

Question 13.
What are plant hormones? Name the plant hormones responsible for the following :
(i) Growth of stem
(ii) Promotion of cell division
(iii) Inhibition of growth
(iv) Elongation of cells (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Plant hormones or phytohormones are chemical substances produced naturally in plants and capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes when present in low concentration. These are also known as plant growth substances or plant growth regulators.

The plant hormones responsible for different functions are as follows:
(i) Growth of stem : Gibberellins (Gibberellic acid) promote growth in stems.
(ii) Promotion of cell division : Cytokinins promote cell division in plants.
(iii) Inhibition of growth : ABA (Abscisic acid) promotes dormancy in seeds as well as in buds and thus inhibits growth.
(iv) Elongation of cells : Auxin and cytokinin both cause cell elongation.

Question 14.
Define phototropism. Name the plant hormone which is responsible for phototropism. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Phototropism is the movement of a part of the plant in response to light. Shoots generally grow towards light and are said to be positively phototropic, while roots grow away from light and are said to be negatively phototropic.
The growth movement of the plant part (stem) is caused by the action of auxin hormone. Auxin causes cell elongation. Thus, causing growth of stem towards the light stimulus.

Question 15.
(a) What are phytohormones? List four types of phytohormones. Where are these hormones synthesised?
(b) What happens when a growing plant detects light? Explain in brief. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
(a) Phytohormones are chemical substances produced naturally in plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes when present in low concentration. Plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment. Plant hormones are also known as plant growth substances or plant growth regulators.
Types of hormone and their site of synthesis are as follows:

Plant hormone Site of Synthesis
(i) Auxin Auxin hormone is synthesised by the meristematic tissue at the tip of the stem and roots.
(ii) Gibberellins (Gibberellic acid) Gibberellins are synthesised in young leaves, roots and shoots and transported to other parts of the plant.
(iii) Cytokinin It is synthesised in roots and transported to shoot region through xylem.
(iv) Ethylene It is formed in almost all plant parts – roots, leaves flowers, fruits, seeds, etc.
(v) Abscisic acid It is produced in many parts of the plant but more abundantly inside the chloroplast of green cells.

(b) Plants respond to light by showing growth movement towards light (phototropism). This growth movement of the plant part (stem) is caused by the action of auxin hormone. The auxin hormone is synthesised in the meristematic tissue at the tip of the stem. Auxin diffuses uniformly down the stem in plants that are kept in the open and receive sunlight from above. Due to presence of auxin equally on both the sides, the stem grows up straight because both the sides of the stem show growth at the same place. But when sunlight is unidirectional, auxin- gets accumulated towards the shady region of (he shoot. This causes the cells to elongate and stem to bend towards light.

Question 16.
List the sequences of events that occur when a plant is exposed to unidirectional light, leading to bending of a growing shoot. Also name the hormone synthesised and the type of movement that takes place. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 15 (b).

Question 17.
(a) Define reflex arc. Draw a flow chart showing the sequence of events which occur during sneezing.
(b) List four plant hormones. Write one function of each. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Reflex arc is defined as the pathway or route taken by nerve impulses in a reflex action. Sequences of events that occur during sneezing can be depicted as :
Control and Coordination Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 7 Img 5
(b) Four plant hormones are:
(i) Auxins : These promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation in plants. These also promote stem and fruit growth.
(ii) Gibberellins : These promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation in plants in the presence of auxins. These also promote growth in stems and fruits.
(iii) Cytokinins : These promote cell division in plants. These play vital role in the morphogenesis in plants.
(iv) Ethylene : It promotes growth and ripening of fruits. It helps in breaking the dormancy in buds and seeds.

Answer question numbers 18 to 21 on the basis of your understanding of the following information and related studied concepts :
Thyroid gland is a bilobed structure situated in our neck region. It secretes a hormone called thyroxine. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine. Thyroxine regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body. It promotes growth of body tissues also. When there is an excess of thyroxine in the body, a person suffers from hyperthyroidism and if this gland is underactive it results in hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is diagnosed by blood tests that measure the levels of thyroxine and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH). Hypothyroidism is caused due to the deficiency of iodine in our diet resulting in a disease called goitre. Iod;sed salt can be included in our diet to control it.

Question 18.
Where is thyroid gland situated?
Answer:
Thyroid gland is situated in our neck region.

Question 19.
State the function of thyroxine in human body.
Answer:
Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body. It promotes growth of body tissues also.

Question 20.
What is hyperthyroidism?
Answer:
Hyperthyroidism occurs when there is excess of thyroxine in the body.

Question 21.
How can we control hypothyroidism? (2020)
Answer:
Hypothyroidism can be controlled by using iodised salt.

Question numbers 22 to 25 are based on table given below. Study the table in which the levels of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) in women are given and answer the questions that follow on the basis of understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts :

Age Range Normal (mU/L) Low (mU/L)
18-29 years 0.4-2.34 mU/L < 0.4 mU/L
30-49 years 0.4-4.0 mU/L < 0.4 mU/L
50-79 years 0.46-4.68 mU/L < 0.46 mU/L

Women are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during menstruation, while giving birth and after going through menopause. Around 5% of women in the United States have some kind of thyroid problem compared to 3% of men. Despite claims that high TSH increases your risk for heart disease, a 2013 study found no link between high TSH and heart diseases. But a 2017 study showed that older women are especially at risk for developing thyroid cancer if they have high TSH levels along with thyroid nodules.

Question 22.
A 35 years old woman has TSH level 6.03 mU/L. What change should she bring in her diet to control this level?
Answer:
(a) A 35 year old woman with TSH level 6.03 mU/L means she is suffering hypothyroidism. Iodised salt can be included in her diet to control it.

Question 23.
When do women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level?
Answer:
Women are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during menstruation, while giving birth and after going through menopause.

Question 24.
State the consequence of low TSH level.
Answer:
The low TSH level means that there is an excess of thyroxine (hyperthyroidism) in the body secreted by thyroid gland. So, the pituitary gland starts producing less TSH.

Question 25.
Name the mineral that is responsible for synthesis of hormone secreted by thyroid gland. (2020)
Answer:
Thyroid gland makes a hormone called thyroxine, which contains iodine.

Question numbers 26 to 29 are based on the table and related information in the passage given below: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroxine. Study the table given below.
Table : TSH levels during pregnancy

Stage of pregnancy Normal (mU/L) Low (mU/L) High (mU/L)
First trimester 0.2-2.5 <0.2 2.5 – 10
Second trimester 0.3-3.0 <0.3 3.01
Third trimester 0.8-5.2 <0.8 > 5.3

It is important to monitor TSH levels during pregnancy. High TSH levels and hypothyroidism can especially affect chances of miscarriage. Therefore, proper medication in consultation with a doctor is required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.

Question 26.
Give the full form of TSH.
Answer:
The full form of TSH is Thyroid Stimulating Hormone.

Question 27.
State the main function of TSH.
Answer:
TSH stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroxine.

Question 28.
Why do TSH levels in pregnant women need to be monitored?
Answer:
TSH levels in pregnant women need to be monitored as high TSH levels and hypothyroidism can increase chances of miscarriage.

Question 29.
A pregnant woman has TSH level of 8.95 mU/L. What care is needed for her? (2020)
Answer:
A pregnant women with high TSH level needs proper medication in consultation with a doctor to control the proper functioning of thyroid gland.

Question 30.
A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either fighting or running away. State the immediate changes that take place in its body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run. (2020)
Answer:
When squirrel is in a scary situation then its nervous system stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete more adrenaline hormone into blood.

This adrenaline hormone increases heartbeat, breathing rate, blood flow into muscles and causes liver to put more stored glucose into its blood. All these actions of adrenaline hormone produces a lot of energy in squirrel’s body. In this way, squirrel prepares itself for fighting or running away action.

Question 31.
Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means of communication between cells in a multicellular organisms? (2020)
Answer:
In animals, the message communicated in the form of nerve impulses, from receptors to central nervous system and from latter to effectors is very quick. But nerve impulses can reach only those animal cells which are connected by the nervous tissue. These cells after generation and transmission of nerve impulses, take sometime to reset their mechanism before a new impulse is generated and transmitted. It means, cells cannot continuously generate and transmit electrical impulses. This is the reason most multicellular organisms use another means of communication called chemical communication. In chemical communication information spreads out throughout the body by blood and its effects lasts longer. Chemical communication is however slow but it can reach all the cells of body regardless of nervous connections.

Question 32.
A cheetah, on seeing a prey moves towards him at a very high speed. What causes the movement of his muscles? How does the chemistry of cellular components of muscles change during this event? (2020)
Answer:
The cheetah senses its prey by photoreceptors and the information is sent to the central nervous system. The response is then carried by neurons. Along with nervous system, the hormonal system also plays a role. Adrenaline hormone produced by the adrenal glands triggers the flight or fight action. On seeing a prey, these hormones are released into the cheetahs blood stream. It speeds up heartbeat, breathing increases blood flow into leg muscles and causes liver to put more stored glucose into cheetahs blood. All these actions of adrenline hormone produces a lot of energy which helps cheetah to run fast.

Question 33.
Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each: (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Thyroid gland secrete three hormones : thyroxine (T4), triiodothyroxine (T3) and calcitionin. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine maintain the basal metabolic rate (BMR) of the body by regulating the rate of oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins and production of energy in our body. They promote growth of body tissues and development of mental faculties.

Calcitonin regulate the concentration of calcium and phosphorus in the blood.
(b) Pituitary secretes following hormones :

  1. Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropic hormone controls the overall development of body, muscles, bones and tissues.
  2. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) controls growth and functions of thyroid gland.
  3. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol hormone.
  4. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in males, stimulates sperm formation and in females, development of follicle cells into mature eggs.
  5. Luteinising hormone (LH) stimulates secretion of testosterone in males and estrogen and progesterone in females.
  6. Prolactin hormone (PRL) responsible for growth of mammary glands and milk production in females.
  7. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) stimulates the synthesis of melanocytes.
  8. Oxytocin stimulates lactation after child birth.
  9. Vasopressin regulates water balance in body fluids.

(c) Pancreas secretes following hormones :
(i) Insulin regulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen, i.e., it lowers the blood glucose level.
(ii) Glucagon is responsible for regulation of glycogen to glucose, i.e., increase blood glucose level.

Question 34.
(a) How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
(b) It is advised to use iodised salt. Give reason. (Board Term 1, 2017)
Answer:
(a) The endocrine system consists of specialised glands (endocrine glands) which brings about control by sending chemical messengers termed hormones. These glands secrete hormones directly into the blood. Flormones reach the target organs via blood and regulate the activities of these organs, thus coordinating the functioning of living organisms and also their growth.

(b) Iodine is necessary for the making of thyroxine hormone by thyroid gland. Therefore, deficiency of iodine in the diet can cause deficiency of thyroxine hormone in the body.

Question 35.
(a) An old man is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet. Name the disease from which the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due to imbalance of which he is suffering from this disease. Which endocrine gland secretes this hormone?
(b) Name the endocrine gland which secretes growth hormone. What will be the effect of the following on a person
(i) deficiency of growth hormone
(ii) excess secretion of growth hormone? (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Old man who is advised by his doctor to take less sugar in his diet is suffering from diabetes mellitus that occurs due to imbalance of insulin hormone. Endocrine part of islets of Langerhans in pancreas secrete insulin hormone.

(b) Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropic hormone (SH) is secreted by pituitary gland.
Effect of the following on a person:
(i) Deficiency of growth hormone (hypoactivity) causes dwarfness.
(ii) Excess secretion of growth hormone (hyperactivity) causes excessive growth of bones making the person very tall (gigantism).

Question 36.
Name the hormone required for the following. Also mention the name of endocrine gland from which that hormone is secreted:
(a) Lowering of blood glucose.
(b) Development of moustache and beard in human males.
(c) Metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) The hormone that lowers blood sugar level is insulin. The function of insulin hormone is to lower the blood sugar level (or blood glucose level, i.e., it controls the metabolism of sugar. It is secreted by the endocrine part of pancreas called islets of Langerhans.
(b) Testes secretes the male sex hormone called testosterone, which is responsible for development of male sex organs and male features such as deeper voice, moustache, beard and body hair.
(c) Thyroxine hormone is synthesised by thyroid gland. Thyroxine controls the rate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Question 37.
(a) Complete the following table:

Name of the hormone Gland which secretes the hormone Functions of the hormone
(i) Thyroxine Thyroid ———
(ii) Growth Hormone —– Regulates growth and development of the body
(iii) Insulin Pancreas ———

(b) List three characteristics of animal hormones. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
(a) (i) Functions of thyroxine hormone is regulation of carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism.
(ii) Gland that secretes growth hormone is pituitary gland.
(iii) Function of insulin is to regulate the conversion of glucose to glycogen, i.e., it lowers blood glucose level.

(b) Three characteristics of animal hormones are:
(i) Hormones are synthesised by endocrine glands and secreted directly into the blood stream.
(ii) They are produced at a place other than the site of action. They travel through blood and have specific action on a specific target organ.
(iii) Chemically the hormones may be peptides, proteins, amines or steroids.

Question 38.
List in tabular form three differences between nervous control and chemical control. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Differences between nervous control and chemical control are as follows:

Nervous control Chemical control
(i) Information travels rapidly in a fraction of second. Information travels slowly.
(ii) Information is sent as an electrical impulse along axon and as a chemical across synapse. Information is sent as a chemical messenger called hormone, via blood stream.
(iii) Information is directed to specific receptors which can be one or a few nerve fibres, gland cells or other neurons. Information is spread throughout the body by blood from which the target cells or organs pick it up.
(iv) Effect of message usually lasts for a very short while. Effect of message usually lasts longer.

Question 39.
A gland secretes a particular hormone. The deficiency of this hormone in the body causes a particular disease in which the blood sugar level rises.
(i) Name the gland and the hormone secreted by it.
(ii) Mention the role played by this hormone.
(iii) Name the disease caused due to deficiency of this hormone. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
(i) Pancreas secretes insulin hormone.
(ii) Insulin regulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen, i.e., it lowers blood glucose level.
(iii) Deficiency of insulin hormone causes diabetes mellitus.

Question 40.
(a) Name one organ each where growth hormone is synthesised in man and plant.
(b) List the sequence of events that occur when a plant is exposed to unidirectional light, leading to bending of a growing shoot. Also name the hormone and the type of movement. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
(a) In man, growth hormone is synthesised by pituitary gland which is present below the brain. Growth hormone controls the growth of human body.
In plants, auxins promote the plant growth. Auxins are produced by growing apices of the stems and roots. They migrate to the regions of their action, and initiate cell division and cell elongation.

(b) (i) When a plant is exposed to unidirectional light, the shoot tips synthesise phytohormone called auxin.
(ii) Auxins slowly diffuse towards the shady side.
(iii) As auxins help the plant to grow, cells on the shady side grow longer than the ones which are exposed to light.
(iv) Hence, causing the plant to bend towards light. This type of movement caused due to hormone auxin is called phototropism.
Shoots generally grow towards the light hence show positive phototropism and roots grow away from light and show negative phototropism.

Very Snort Answer Type Question [1 Mark] -Year 2015

41.Why is it advised to use iodised salt in our diet ?
Answer. Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxin hormone. Deficiency of this hormone results in the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This can lead to goitre.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2015

42.State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light ?
Answer. When light falls on the side of the shoot auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of the auxin stimulates the cell to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus plant appears to bend towards light.

43. What is synapse ? In a neuron cell how is an electrical impulse created and what is the role of synapse in this context ?
Answer. A synapse is the gap between the two neurons. Here the axon terminal of one neuron is in close proximity to the dendrite of the second neuron. When a nerve impulse reaches the knob like nerve ending of an axon, a tiny amount of a chemical substance is released in the synapse. This chemical substance is called as the neurotransmitter. At synapse the electrical signals converted into chemicals, that can easily cross over the gap and pass on to the next neurons where it again converted into electrical signals.

CBSE Class 10 Science – More Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Science
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers  Class 10 Science Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Question [1 Mark]- Year 2014

44. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where it is synthesized ?
Answer. Plant hormone that promotes growth is auxin. It is synthesized at the tip of the plant stem.

Short Answer Type Question [I] [2 Marks] – Year 2014

45.(i) Name the hormones that are released in human males and females when they reach puberty.
(ii) Name a gland associated with brain. Which problem is caused due to the deficiency of the hormone released by this gland ?
Answer.
(i) Testes in males produces hormone testosterone.
Ovaries in females produces hormone oestrogen.
(ii)Pituitary gland present in the brain is responsible for body growth, development of bones and muscles (if excess-gigantism) (if less-dwarfism).

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] – Year 2014

46.Write one example each of the following tropic movements :
(i) Positive phototropism (ii) Negative phototropism
(iii) Positive geotropism (iv) Negative geotropism
(v) Hydrotropism (vi) Chemotropism
Answer.
(i) Positive phototropism: shoots growing towards light.
(ii)Negative phototropism: roots growing away from light towards ground.
(iii) Positive geotropism: growth of roots towards earth due to the pull of the earth.
(iv)Negative geotropism: shoots growing away from the earth.
(v) Hydrotropism: roots growing towards the source of water.
(vi)Chemotropism: growth of pollen tubes towards the ovules.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks] – Year 2014

47.(a) Name the hormone which is released into the blood when its sugar level rises. Explain the need of Chemical communication in multicellular organisms the organ which produces this hormone and its effect on blood sugar level. Also mention the digestive enzymes secreted by this organ with one function of each.
(b) Explain the need of Chemical communication in multicellular organisms.
Answer.
(a) Glucose is needed by cells for respiration. It is important that the concentration of glucose in the blood is maintained at a constant level. Insulin is a hormone produced by the a-cells that regulates glucose levels in the blood.
In order for multicellular organisms to function properly, their cells must communicate. For instance, your muscles must contract when your brain sends a message to contract.
Pancreas produces insulin and p-cells which increase glucose in blood. It also – produces digestive enzyme (pancreatic amylase).
(b) Cell-to-cell signaling is a critical component of coordinating cellular activities. Through this communication, messages are carried from signaling cells to receiving cells, also known as target cells. This signaling occurs with proteins and other types of signaling molecules. Other things which happens in our body due to cell communication are – growth and development, cellular reproduction, tissue repair, sensing pain, etc.

Very Short Answer Type Question [1 Mark] -Year 2013

48.State the function of:
(i) gustatory receptors, and
(ii) olfactory receptors.
Answer.
(i) Gustatory receptors – these are sensitive to taste
(ii) Olfactory receptors – these are sensitive to smell.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2013

49.(a) Explain any three directional movements in plants.
(b) How brain and spinal cord are protected in human ?
(c) Name the master gland present in the brain.
Answer.
(a) Stimuli is responsible for the movement of the plant parts towards or away from it. This movement is called as Tropic Movement.
Phototropism: movement of plant towards or away from the light. Geotropism: movement of plant parts towards the earth or away from it. Hydrotropism: movement of plant parts towards or away from any source of water.
(b) Both the brain and the spinal cord are protected by bone: the brain by the bones of the skull and the spinal cord is protected by a set of ring-shaped bones called vertebrae. They are both cushioned by layers of membranes called meninges as well as a special fluid called cerebrospinal fluid. This fluid helps to protect the nerve tissue to keep it healthy, and remove waste products.
(c) Pituitary gland present in the brain is known as the master gland.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2012

50. Name the part of the brain which controls posture and balance of the body. 
Answer.Cerebellum in hind-brain controls the posture and balance of the body.

51. Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
Answer. Gustatory receptors are located in Cerebrum of fore-brain. Olfactory receptors are located in Olfactory lobe of fore-brain.

52. Smita’s father has been advised by a doctor to reduce his sugar intake.

  1. Name the disease he is suffering from and name the hormone whose deficiency is? ,
  2. Identify the gland that secretes it and mention the function of this hormone.
  3.  Explain how the time and amount of secretion of this hormone is regulated in human system.

Answer.

  1.  He is suffering from diabetes. Deficiency of insulin causes diabetes.
  2. Pancreas secretes insulin. Insulin helps in regulating blood sugar.
  3. When the sugar level in blood increases, it is detected by the a-cells of the pancreas which responds by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

53.State the functions of plant hormones. Name four different types of plant hormones.
Answer. Plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development and responses in environment.
Four different types of plant hormones are – Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Ethylene and Abscisic acid.

  1. Auxins control the tropic (growth related) movements of the plants in response to light, gravity, touch etc by increasing the size of cells. Under the influence of auxins, the plant stem bends towards unidirectional light where as the roots bend away from it.
  2. Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation and leaf expansion. Its application causes stem elongation in small plants such as cabbage. Spraying gibberellins on sugarcane plant increases the stem size and hence the yield.
  3. Cytokinins are produced in regions of the plant body where rapid cell division occur, such as root tips, developing shoot buds, young fruits and seeds. Cytokinins promote growth by stimulating cell division. They also help in production of new leaves and chloroplasts in leaves.
  4. Ethylene causes ripening of the fruits.
  5. Abscisic acid inhibits (i.e., slows down) the growth in different parts of the plant body. It also inhibits germination of seeds. It increases the tolerance of plant to different kinds of stresses such as temperature changes. So, it is also called the stress hormone in plants. It also causes the drying and falling of older leaves, flowers and fruits.

54.(a) How is brain protected from injury and shock?
(b) Name two main parts of hind brain and state the functions of each.
Answer.
(a) Brain is covered by a three layered membrane called meninges. In between the layers of meninges and brain, cavity fluid named Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF) is filled. The hard skull covers the meninges. Thus Meninges, CSF and Skull protects our brain for a certain extent.
(b) Two main parts of hind-brain are — Medulla and Cerebellum. Their functions are:
Medulla : Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.
Cerebellum : It is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of the body.

55.(a) Which plant hormone is present in greater concentration in the areas of rapid cell division?
(b) Give one example of a plant growth promoter and a plant growth inhibitor.
Answer.
(a) Cytokinin is present in greater concentration in the areas of rapid cell division.
(b) An example of a plant growth promoter is gibberellins and example of a plant growth inhibitor is abscisic acid.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2011

56.Which organ secretes a hormone when bloo’d sugar rises in our body? Name the hormone and name one enzyme released by this organ.
Answer.Pancreas secretes a hormone when blood sugar rises in our body. Insulin is the hormone released by this organ and the name of the enzyme is pancreatic juice.

57.(a) Explain how auxins help in bending of plant stem towards light.
(b) State the objective of the experiment for which experimental set-up is shown in the given diagram.
Answer.
(a) In plant shoots, the role of auxin is to cause a positive phototropism, i.e. to grow the plant towards the light. When light is incident on a plant from one direction, it causes the auxins to redistribute towards the shaded side of the plant. One function of auxin is to cause cell elongation. The redistribution causes the cells on the shaded side to elongate more than those on the side with the light shining on them. This causes the shoot to bend towards the light.
(b) The objective of the experiment is to show phototropic movement of plant.

58.What causes a tendril to encircle or coil around the object in contact with it is? Explain the process involved.
Answer. When a tendril comes in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part away of the tendril away from the object. This cause the tendril to circle around the object and thus, cling to it.

59. Name any three endocrine glands in human body and briefly write the function of each of them.
Answer.Three endocrine glands with their function in human body are as follows:

  1. Thyroid gland : It secretes a hormone called thyroxine which regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and so provide the best balance for nutrients and mental ability.
  2. Adernal gland : It secretes two hormones—adrenalin and corticoid hormones regulate blood pressure, heartbeat, breathing rate and carbohydrate metabolism.
  3.  Pancreas: It secretes two hormones—insulin and glucagon. Insulin hormone lowers the blood glucose level. Glucagon hormone increases the blood glucose level.

60. Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions? Write the function of any two regions of it. Answer. Hind-brain controls the involuntary actions. Cerebellum controls the coordination of body movement and posture. Medulla oblongata regulates center for swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.

61. What is chemotropism? Give one example. Name any two plant hormones and mention their functions.
Answer. Chemotropism is the movement of a part of the plant in response to a chemical stimulus. It can be positive chemotropism or negative chemotropism. Example: The growth of pollen tube towards a chemical which is produced by an ovule during the process of fertilisation in a flower.
Two plant hormones with their functions are as follows:
Auxins promote cell elongation, root formation, cell division, respiration and other physiological processes like protein synthesis, etc.
Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation, seed germination and flowering.

62. State the functions of any three of the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
Answer. The structural and functional unit of nervous system, i.e. neuron with their functions are as

  1. Cell body: Stimulus received from dendrite is changed into impulse in the cyton.
  2. Dendrites: They receive sensation or stimulus, which may be physical or chemical.
  3. Axon: It conducts impulse away from the cell body.

63. What are ‘hormones’? State one function of each of the following hormones:
(i) Thyroxine (ii) Insulin
Answer. Hormones are the chemical substances which coordinate and control the activities of living organisms and also their growth. The term hormone was introduced by Bayliss and Starling.
(i) Function of Thyroxine: This hormone regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats.
(ii) Function of insulin: This hormone helps in regulating sugar level in the blood.

64. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situation where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer. Receptors are present in our all parts of the body for example in skin, eye, nose tongue etc. They detect the signals and then send them to brain in the form of electrical signals. If these receptors are damaged then it they will not detect the input which leads to the harm for our body in dangerous situation.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2010

65. How is the spinal cord protected in the human body?
Answer.Spinal cord is enclosed in a bony cage called vertebral column.

66. A potted plant is made to lie horizontally on the ground. Which part of the plant will show
(i) positive geotropism?
(ii) negative geotropism?
Answer.
(i) Root (ii) Shoot.

67. Mention the function of the hind-brain in humans.
Answer.Hind brain controls respiration, cardio-vascular reflexes and gastric secretions.
It also modulates the motor commands initiated by the cerebrum.

68. Mention the function of adrenaline hormone.
Answer. Adrenaline hormone is released into the blood from the adrenal gland during stimulation of the nervous system on seeing any adverse situation of fight or fright, it:

  1. increases the blood pressure.
  2. increases heart beat rate.
  3. increases breathing rate.
  4. diverts blood to essential organs including the heart, brain and skeletal muscles by dilating their blood vessels and constricting those of less essential organs, such as the skin and digestive system.

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2010

69. Name, the two main organs of our central nervous system. Which one of them plays a major role in sending command to muscles to act without involving thinking process? Name the phenomenon involved.
Answer.The two main organs of CNS are brain and spinal cord.
Spinal cord plays a major role in sending command to muscles to act without involving thinking process. This phenomenon is called reflex action.

70.Name the hormone secreted by human testes. State its functions.
Answer. Testes secrete male sex hormone called testosterone. The function of testosterone is to regulate male accessory sex organs and secondary sexual characters like moustache, beard and voice.

71.Name and explain the function of the hormone secreted by the pituitary gland in humans.
Answer. Hormones secreted by pituitary gland alongwith their functions are:

  1. Grpwth hormone: It regulates growth and development ofbones and muscles.
  2. Trophic hormone: It regulates secretion of hormones from other endocrine glands.
  3.  Prolactin hormone: It regulates the function of mammary glands in females.
  4.  Vasopressin hormone: It regulates water and electrolyte balance in the body,
  5. Oxytocin hormone : It regulates ejection of milk during lactation.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2010

72.What is a reflex action? Describe the steps involved in a reflex action.
Answer.
Reflex action: Jt is defined as an unconscious, automatic and involuntary response of effectors, i.e. muscles and glands, to a stimulus, which is monitored through the spinal cord.
Mechanism of reflex action : It involves the following steps:

  1. Receptor organ like skin perceives the stimulus and activates a sensory nerve impulse.
  2. Sensory organ carries message in the form of sensory impulse to the spinal cord.
  3. The spinal cord acts as modulator : The neurons of spinal cord transmit the sensory nerve impulse to motor neuron.
  4. Motor never conducts these impulses to the effectors like leg muscles which responds by pulling back the organ away from the harmful stimulus.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2009

73. A young green plant receives sunlight from one direction only. What will happen to its shoots ?
Answer. Shoots will bend towards the light and roots away from the light.

74. Name the plant hormones which help/promote (i) cell division (ii) growth of
the stem and roots?
Answer. The plant hormones which help or promote:
(i) Cell division — Cytokinins
ii) Growth of the stem — Gibberellins

75. What is the function of thyroxine hormone in our body ? jlMluK r
Answer. Thyroxine hormone regulates the carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the best growth balance.

76. Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals.
Answer. The two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals are nervous and muscular tissues.

77. Which one of the following actions on touch is an example of chemical control?
(i) Movement on the touch-sensitive plant.
(ii) Movement in human leg.
Answer.
(i) Movement on the touch-sensitive plant.

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2009

78.What are ‘nastic’ and ‘curvature’ movements? Give one example of each.
Answer. Nastic movements: These are non-directional movements which are neither towards nor away from the stimulus. Example: Dropping of leaves.
Curvature movements: In such movements plant organs move towards or away from the stimulus. Example: Bending of shoot towards a source of light.

79.Write the name and functions of any two parts of the human hind-brain.
Answer.Any two parts of human hind-brain with their functions are as follows:
(i) Cerebellum, which controls the coordination ofbody movement and posture. (ii) Medulla oblongata, which regulates the centre of swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.

80. What are plant hormones? Write two important functions of auxin. 
Answer. Plant hormones can be defined as a chemical substance which is produced naturally in plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes when present in low concentration. .
Two important functions of auxin are that it promotes cell elongation, root formation, cell division, etc.

Short Answer Type Question[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2009

81.(a) Name the two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings.
(b) What is the need for a system of control and coordination in human
beings?
Answer.(a) The two main constituents of the Central Nervous System in human beings are the brain and the spinal cord.
(b) A living being does not live in isolation. It has to constantly interact with its external environment and has to respond properly for its survival. For example; when a hungry lion spots a deer, the lion has to quickly make a move so that it can have its food. On the other hand, the deer needs to quickly make a move to run for its life. The responses which a living being makes in relation to external stimuli are controlled and coordinated by a system; especially in complex animals. So, control and coordination . is essential in maintaining a state of stability and a steady state between the internal conditions of an organism and the external environment.

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How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Science Chapter 8 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Science Chapter 8

Question 1.
Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason. (AI2017)
Answer:
When a cell reproduces, DNA replication occurs which results in formation of two similar copies of DNA. The process of copying the DNA leads to some variations each time. As a result, the DNA copies produced are similar to each other but sometimes may not identical.

Question 2.
When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA? (AI 2017)
Answer:
When a cell reproduces, DNA replication occurs which forms two similar copies of DNA..

Question 3.
What is DNA? (Delhi 2016, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a polymer made up of large number of nucleotide units. It carries genetic information from generation to generation.

Question 4.
Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Reproduction is a life process that helps in multiplication of an organism and growth of its population.

Question 5.
Reproduction is one of the most important characteristic ‘of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the statement. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings because :

  • it is essential for existence and continuity of a species.
  • it helps to pass genetic information to next generation.
  • it brings variations in next generation which is the basis for evolution.

Question 6.
Define reproduction. How does it helps in providing stability to the population of species? (AI 2016)
Answer:
The production of new organisms by the existing organisms of the same species is known as reproduction. It is linked to the stability of population of a species. DNA replication during reproduction ensures transfer of specific characters or body design features that is essential for an individual of a population to live and use that particular niche. Some variations present in a few individuals of population caused due to reproduction which also helps in their survival at changing niches.

Question 7.
What is DNA copying? State its importance. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
DNA copying is the production of similar copies of DNA present in a cell using various chemical reactions. DNA copying is essential for reproduction through which the organisms pass on their body features to their offspring. Moreover, minor alternations during the process of DNA copying result in the production of variations. Such variations are useful for the survival of species over time.

Question 8.
What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction process? How does the amount of DNA remain constant through each new generation is a combination of DNA copies of two individuals? (AI 2014)
Answer:
In the process of reproduction, if DNA copying is not perfectly accurate, variation occurs. These in turn may allow few individuals of a population to survive in an altered niche and becomes the basis of evolution and over time. Such variations are useful for the survival of species.
The combination of DNA copies of two individuals, (male and female) occurs during sexual reproduction. Reduction division (meiosis) during gamete formation halves the chromosome number in both male and female gametes. Since these two gametes fuse during fertilisation, the original number of chromosomes (as in the parent) is restored in the offspring. By this way the amount of DNA remains constant in each new generation.

Question 9.
Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual or asexual? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favorable conditions is fragmentation. This is an asexual mode of reproduction.

Question 10.
How does Plasmodium reproduce. Is this method sexual or asexual? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Plasmodium reproduces through multiple fission method. In this method, the parent organism splits to form many new organisms at the same time. This is an asexual method of reproduction.

Question 11.
Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Bryophyllum propagates vegetatively by the buds produced at the margins of leaves.

Question 12.
What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
When Planaria is cut into two pieces then each piece grows into a complete organism. This is known as regeneration.

Question 13.
What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length? (AI 2016)
Answer:
When a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length it simply breaks into two or more fragments and each fragment then grows into a new Spirogyra.

Question 14.
Name the method by which Hydra reproduces. Is this method sexual or asexual ? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Hydra generally reproduces through budding. It is an asexual method of reproduction.

Question 15.
Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Hydra and Planaria are two organisms that have the ability to regenerate.

Question 16.
Name the causative agent of the disease “kala- azar” and its mode of asexual reproduction. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Causative agent of the disease Kala-azar is Leishmania. It reproduces asexually by binary fission.

Question 17.
Write two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Differences between binary fission and multiple fission are as follows:

Binary fission Multiple fission
(i) The parent organism, splits to form two new organisms, e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium. The parent organism splits to form many new organisms at the same time, e.g., Plasmodium.
(ii) The nucleus of the parent body divides only once to produce two nuclei. The nucleus of the parent body divides repeatedly to produce many nuclei.

Question 18.
List four modes of asexual reproduction other than fission in the living organisms. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The four modes of asexual reproduction other than fission in living organisms are :

  • budding
  • spore formation
  • regeneration and
  • fragmentation.

Question 19.
List four advantages of vegetative propagation. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The following are the advantages of vegetative propagation:

  • The characters of the parent plants are preserved hence a good variety produced can be propagated by vegetative means.
  • The plants, which do not produce viable seeds or produce very few seeds, can be reproduced by this method. For example, banana, potato, grapes, sugarcane, rose, orange, etc.
  • It is an easier, quicker and cheaper method of propagation.
  • It is easier to get rid of pathogen from any part of plant by vegetative propagation.

Question 20.
List four modes of asexual reproduction. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The four modes of asexual reproduction are :

  • binary fission
  • budding
  • regeneration and
  • vegetative propagation.

Question 21.
Draw labelled diagrams to illustrate budding in Hydra. (AI 2014)
Answer:
The given diagram illustrates budding in Hydra:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 1

Question 22.
How do Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce? Write one difference in their mode of reproduction. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce by the process of fission which is an asexual mode of reproduction. Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission. About 1000 daughter cells are produced by the multiple fission of a Plasmodium. Leishmania reproduces by the process of binary fission. In Leishmania, the splitting of parent cell takes place in a definite plane (longitudinally) with respect to flagellum at its end to produce two daughter cells.

Question 23.
Define multiple fission. Give its one example. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Multiple fission is an asexual mode of reproduction in which the parent organism splits to form many new organisms at the same time. Multiple fission occurs in Plasmodium.

Question 24.
List two advantages ofvegetative reproduction practised in case of an orange plant. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The two advantages of vegetative propagation practised in case of an orange plant are :

  • The new plants produced by vegetative propagation will be exactly like the parent plant. Therefore, any desirable features of the parent plant will be replicated in the new plants.
  • The orange plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds, can also be propagated.

Question 25.
Name an organism which reproduces by spore formation. List three conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Rhizopus reproduce by the method of spore formation.
The three conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow are moisture, suitable temperature and food (nutrition).

Question 26.
List two advantages of practising vegetative propagation in plants. Select two plants raised by this method from the list given below : Banana, Gram, Pea, Rose, Tomato, Wheat (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Two advantages of the vegetative propagation of plants are:

  • Any desirable features of the parent plant can be replicated in the new plants.
  • Flowers and fruits can be grown in a shorter time as compared to the plants grown from seeds. The two plants raised by this method are banana and rose.

Question 27.
Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as observed in cells of organisms. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 17.

Question 28.
List any four reasons for vegetative propagation being practised in the growth of some type of plants. (AI2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 19.

Question 29.
What is vegetative propagation? Write two of its advantages. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is a method of asexual reproduction in plants in which the parts other than seeds are used as propagules. Also refer to answer 26.

Question 30.
Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival – the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually? Give reason to justify your answer. (2018)
Answer:
Difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction is as follows :
Asexual reproduction:
Gametes are not formed hence fertilisation does not take place.
Sexual reproduction:
Gametes are always formed and fertilisation takes place to form a zygote.

Species reproducing sexually has a better chance of survival as variations occur only during the sexual reproduction. Variations increase the chances of survival of an individual by making them more fit. Selection of variations by environmental factors forms the basis of evolution.

Question 31.
What happens when
(a) accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces-
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil
(c) on maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) When Planaria accidently gets cut into many pieces then its each piece grows into a complete organism. This is known as regeneration.
(b) When the Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil, the buds present in the notches along the leaf margin develop into new plants. This is known as vegetative propagation.
(c) The sporangia of Rhizopus contain cells or spores that can eventually develop into new Rhizopus individuals when it bursts on maturation.

Question 32.
Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Fungus Rhizopus reproduces by spore formation. During the growth of Rhizopus, small rounded, bulb-like structures develop at the top of the erect hyphae. Such structures are called sporangia. Inside each sporangium, nucleus divides several times. Each nucleus gets surrounded by a little amount of cytoplasm to become spore. Large number of spores are formed inside each sporangium. After sometime sporangium bursts and spores are released in the air. When these spores land on food or soil, under favourable conditions, they germinate into new individuals.

Question 33.
What is vegetative propagation? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in which the plant parts other than seeds are used as a propagule.
Advantages of vegetative propagation :

  • Desirable character of the plant can be preserved through generation.
  • Seedless plants can be grown through this method.

Disadvantages of vegetative propagation :

  • Plants produced by this method posses less vigour and are more prone to diseases.
  • Plants produced by this method show no genetic variation.

Question 34.
What is multiple fission? How does it occur in an organism? Explain briefly. Name one organism which exhibits this type of reproduction. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Multiple fission refers to the process of asexual reproduction in which many individuals are formed from a single parent. This method of reproduction occurs in unfavourable conditions. The unicellular organism develops a protective covering called cyst, over the cell. The nucleus of the cell divides repeatedly producing many nuclei. Later on, each nucleus is surrounded by small amount of cytoplasm and many daughter cells are produced within the cyst.

When conditions are favourable the cyst breaks and small offspring are liberated. This type of reproduction is seen in some protozoans, e.g., malarial parasite (Plasmodium).

Question 35.
Explain the term “regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra. (AI 2016)
Answer:
The process of formation of entire organism from the body parts of a fully differentiated organism is called regeneration. It occurs by process of growth and development.
Simple animal like Hydra shows regeneration. When a small piece of Hydra breaks off it grows into complete new Hydra.
During regeneration, the cells of cut body part of the organism divide rapidly to make a mass of cells. The cells here move to their proper places within the mass where they have to form different types of tissues. In this way complete organism is regenerated.

Question 36.
In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each. (AI 2016)
Answer:
The main differences between fission and fragmentation are as follows:

Fission Fragmentation
(i) Occurs in unicellular organisms. Occurs in multicellular organisms.
(ii) Body of organism divides by mitotic divisions into two or more daughter cells. E.g., Leishmania. Body of the organism splits into one or more fragments and each fragment forms a complete organism. E.g., Spirogyra.

Question 37.
What happens when
(a) Planaria gets cut into two pieces
(b) a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length
(c) on maturation sporangia burst? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) When Planaria is cut into two pieces then each piece grows into a complete organism. This is known as regeneration.
(b) When a mature Spirogyra filament attains a considerable length it breaks into small pieces called fragments. These fragments grow into new individuals and this mode of reproduction is called fragmentation.
(c) When a sporangium burst, large number of spores are released in the air. When these spores land on food or soil, under favourable conditions they germinate into new individuals.

Question 38.
What is vegetative propagation? List with brief explanation three advantages of practising this process for growing some types of plants. Select two plants from the following which are grown by this process : Banana, Wheat, Mustard, Jasmine, Gram (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is an asexual method of reproduction in plants. In this method, new plants are obtained from the parts of old plants (like stems, roots and leaves), without the help of any reproductive organs.

Advantages of vegetative propagation are as follows:

  • Vegetative propagation is usually used for the propagation of those plants which produce either very few seeds or do not produce viable seeds.
  • Seedless plants can be obtained by artificial vegetative propagation.
  • Grafting is a propagation method which is very useful for fruit trees and flowering bushes. It enables to combine the most desirable characteristics of two plants.
  • Plants like rose, sugarcane, cactus, etc., can be rapidly propagated through stem cuttings as this method produces new plants from just one plant quickly without waiting for flowers and seeds. Banana and jasmine are generally grown through vegetative propagation method.

Question 39.
Explain budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagrams only. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 21.

Question 40.
(a) Name the following:
(i) Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(ii) ‘Blobs’ that develop at the tips of the non- reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(b) Explain how these structures protect themselves and what is the function of the structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) (i)Threadlike non-reproductivestructures present in Rhizopus are called hyphae.
(ii) ‘Blobs’ developing at the tip of hyphae are called sporangia which contain spores.
(b) ‘Ihe structures called spores (released from ‘blobs’) are present in sporangia which can develop into new Rhizopus individuals. These spores are covered with thick walls that protect them until they come in contact with another moist surface and can begin to grow.

Question 41.
Explain any three advantages of vegetative propagation. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 19.

Question 42.
Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. How is this process different from reproduction? (Foreign 2015, AI 2014)
Answer:
Planaria possesses great power of regeneration. If the body of Planaria somehow gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete Planaria by growing all the missing parts. This is shown in following figure:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 2

During the process of reproduction, new organism is formed from the complete parent organism. However, during fragmentation, a fragment of original parent body grows into new individual.

Question 43.
On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces, it was observed that many of these pieces developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in which this process may be observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the changes that are likely to be observed during the development of new individuals in any one of the organisms named. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces, each of these pieces develop as new individuals. This process is known as regeneration.
Hydra and Planaria are the organism in which this process may be observed. Poliowing is the diagram showing development of new individuals by regeneration of body parts of a parent Hydra:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 3

Question 44.
Draw diagrams to explain the regeneration that takes place in each of the body parts of Planaria when its body is cut into three pieces. Name any other organism in which a similar process can be observed. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 42.
Hydra is the organism in which regeneration is observed.

Question 45.
List any two modes of asexual reproduction in animals. Under which mode of reproduction is vegetative propagation placed and why? List two advantages of vegetative propagation. (AI 2014)
Answer:
The two modes of asexual reproduction in animals are : (i) fission and (ii) fragmentation. Vegetative propagation is placed under asexual mode of reproduction because in this mode new plants are obtained from the parts of old plants (like stems, roots and leaves), without the help of any reproductive organs. Also refer to answer 38.

Question 46.
What is vegetative propagation? List its two advantages. Select two plants raised by this method from the list given below:
Wheat, Tomato, Rose, Pea, Gram, Corn, Banana (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answers 38 and 26.

Question 47.
(a) Name the mode of reproduction of the following organisms and state the important feature of each mode :
(i) Planaria
(ii) Hydra
(iii) Rhizopus
(b) We can develop new plants from the leaves of Bryophyllum. Comment.
(c) List two advantages of vegetative propagation over other modes of reproduction. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Planaria – Regeneration
Regeneration of organism from its cut body parts occurs by the process of growth and development.
Regeneration is an asexual mode of reproduction common in lower plants and animals.

(ii) Hydra – Budding
In budding, a small part of the body of the parent organism grows out as a bud which on detaching forms a new organism.
Budding occurs in yeast, some protozoans and certain lower animals.

(iii) Rhizopus – Spores
Spores are usually produced in sporangia.
Spore formation is a common method of an asexual reproduction in bacteria and most of the fungi.

(b) The leaves of a Bryophyllum have special type of buds in their margins. These buds may get detached from the leaves, fall to ground and then grow to produce new Bryophyllum plants. The buds can also drop to the ground together with the leaf and then grow to produce new plants.

(c) Advantages of vegetative propagation are :

  • It is a quick method of propagation.
  • The new plants produced by artificial vegetative propagation are exactly like the parent plants.
  • Many plants can be grown from one plant by vegetative propagation.

Question 48.
(a) What is fragmentation in organisms? Name a multicellular organism which reproduces by this method.
(b) What is regeneration in organism? Describe regeneration in Planaria with the help of a suitable diagram. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) Fragmentation is the mode of reproduction in which parent body breaks into two or more fragments and each fragment develops into a new individual. It is a method of reproduction in many filamentous algae, mycelial fungi and thalloid bryophytes, e.g., Spirogyra.
The given figure shows the process of fragmentation in Spirogyra:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 4

(b) Regeneration may be defined as the ability of an organism to regenerate lost part of the body which have been removed as by injury or autotomy. Many fully differentiated organisms use this ability as a mode of reproduction and give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts. It is common in Hydra, Planaria, etc.
The process of regeneration in Planaria is described in the figure given below:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 5

Question 49.
With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra. (AI 2011)
Answer:
In multicellular organisms, such as Hydra, a small protuberance arises from one side of the body. The protuberance grows and develops adult like structure. In Hydra, it develops a hypostome and tentacles at its free end. It develops a basal disc at the point of attachment with the parent organism and finally gets detached to lead an independent life. Also refer to answer 21.

Question 50.
What is binary fission in organisms? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of reproduction in Amoeba. (AI2011)
Answer:
Binary fission is the division of adult parental body into two nearly equal daughter cells. It is the simplest and most common method of asexual reproduction found in protistan protozoans, i.e., Amoeba, Paramecium, etc.
Amoeba reproduces by binary fission by dividing its body into two parts. When the Amoeba cell has reached its maximum size of growth, then first the nucleus of Amoeba lengthens and divides into two parts. After that the cytoplasm of Amoeba divides to form two smaller Amoeba (called daughter amoebae).
Diagrammatic representation of binary fission in Amoeba is as follows :
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 6

Question 51.
(a) What is spore formation?
(b) Draw a diagram showing spore formation in Rhizopus.
(c) List two advantages for organisms to reproduce themselves through spores. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(a) Spore formation is the process of formation of microscopic reproductive structures called spores. These spores when detaches from the parent gives rise to a new individual. Reproduction by the formation of spores is a common method of asexual reproduction in some bacteria and most of the fungi.
(b) Following figure shows the process of spore formation in Rhizopus:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 7

(c) Two advantages to spore producing organism are as follows:

  • Spores help organism to survive harsh environmental conditions as spores are covered by thick walls which protect them until they come in contact with moist surface and germinate.
  • Spores are generally very small and light. Therefore, it ensures easy dispersal by wind, water and animal.

Question 52.
Fertilisation is the process of
(a) transfer of male gamete to female gamete
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete
(c) adhesion of male and female reproductive organs
(d) the formation of gametes by a reproductive organ. (2020)

The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and death in a’given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
Answer:
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete

Question 53.
List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls.
Answer:
(a) Two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls are :

  • Growth of pubic hair and extra hair in the armpits.
  • Development of oily skin and pimples.

Question 54.
What is the result of reckless female feticide?
Answer:
Female feticide is reducing the number of girls drastically in our country, which is also declining male-female sex ratio.

Question 55.
Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
Answer:
Chemical contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body.

Question 56.
Write two factors that determine the size of a population. (2020)
Answer:
The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine the size of a population.

Question 57.
What are all organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Organisms which bear both male and female sex organs in the same individual are called bisexual. For example, Hibiscus.

Question 58.
List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Two functions of ovary of human female are:

  • production of female gametes, i.e., ova
  • secretion of female hormones, i.e., estrogen and progesterone.

Question 59.
List two unisexual flowers. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Flowers of papaya and cucumber are unisexual.

Question 60.
Why is fertilisation not possible without pollination? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
The process of pollination (in plants) ensures that male gametes bearing structure called pollen comes in contact with the female reproductive structure of the plant. Once the male and female gametes are in close vicinity, they fuse and fertilisation is accomplished. Hence, fertilisation cannot take place without pollination.

Question 61.
Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Calyx and corolla are parts of a flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.

Question 62.
No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population because sexual reproduction promotes diversity of characters in the offspring by providing genetic variation.

Question 63.
Identify and write the male reproductive parts from the list of different parts of a flower given below:
Stigma, Sepal, Anther, Petal, Ovule, Filament (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
The male reproductive parts that are present in a flower frorti given list are:
(i) anther and (ii) filament.

Question 64.
What is the main difference between sperms and eggs of humans? Write the importance of this difference. (AI 2014)
Answer:
The main difference between sperms and eggs of humans is that a sperm has X or Y chromosome whereas egg has X chromosome. This helps in determination of the sex of a person and maintaining the genetic continuity in the organisms.

Question 65.
“The chromosomal number of the sexually producing parents and their offspring is the same”. Justify this statement. (AI 2014)
Answer:
In sexual reproduction, two gametes, male and female, combines together to form a new cell ‘zygote’. The reproductive cells or gametes contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the non-reproductive cells of an organism. So, when a male gamete combines with a female gamete during sexual reproduction, then the new cell ‘zygote’ will have the normal amount of DNA. For example, the human sperm has 23 chromosomes and the human egg has also 23 chromosomes. So when a sperm and an egg fuse together during fertilisation, then the zygote formed will have 23 + 23 = 46 chromosomes, which is the normal number of chromosomes in humans.

Question 66.
List two preparations shown every month by the uterus in anticipation of pregnancy in humans. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The two preparations shown every month by the uterus in anticipation of pregnancy in human are:
(i) the wall of uterus becomes thick to receive the fertilised egg and
(ii) the uterine wall is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.

Question 67.
State one genetically different feature between sperms and eggs of humans. What is its consequence? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
A sperm may have X or Y chromosomes whereas egg have X chromosomes. The consequence of this is that sperm decides the sex of the child because eggs contribute only X chromosome while sperms contribute either X or Y chromosomes to the offspring. Therefore, if a child inherits X chromosome from her father, will be a girl and the one that inherit Y chromosome will be a boy.

Question 68.
State the role of placenta in the development of embryo. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Placenta is a physiological connection between an embryo and uterine wall of the mother through which nutrients and other useful substances enter into fetus from mother’s blood and waste products like urea and carbon dioxide are expelled into mother’s blood from fetus.

Question 69.
List the parts of human male reproductive system which contribute fluid to the semen. State two advantages semen offers to the sperms. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
The secretion of male accessory reproductive glands, i.e., seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands contribute fluid to the semen. The two advantages that semen offers to the sperms are:
(i) it provides nutrition to the sperms and
(ii) it also activates the sperms and make their transport easier into the vagina of female during sexual act.

Question 70.
Explain giving one example of each, the unisexual and the bisexual flowers. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(i) Unisexual flowers : These flowers contain either stamens (male reproductive part) or carpel (female reproductive part). Example: Papaya, watermelon.
(ii) Bisexual flowers : The flower is said to be bisexual when both male and females parts, i.e., stamens and carpels, are present on the same flower. Example: Hibiscus, mustard.

Question 71.
Describe the role of fallopian tubes in the female reproductive system. (AI2011)
Answer:
Fallopian tubes are a pair of elongated, ciliated, muscular and tubular structures extending from close to ovaries to uterus. It is the site of fertilisation and helps in the conduction of ovum or zygote towards uterus by ciliary action and peristalsis.

Question 72.
Explain the terms:
(i) Implantation of zygote
(ii) Placenta (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) Implantation of zygote refers to the process of attachment of the blastocyst on the inner wall of the uterus, It occurs on 7th day after fertilisation and is controlled by estrogen and progesterone hormones.
(ii) Refer to answer 68.

Question 73.
Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination. What is the significance of pollination? (2020)
Answer:
The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same species is known as pollination. The two inodes of pollination are self pollination and cross pollination.
Differences between self pollination and cross pollination are as follows:

Character Self pollination Cross pollination
Occurrence Occurs within a flower or between two flowers of the same plant. Occurs between two flowers of two different plants of the same species.
Agent of pollination Usually no external agent of pollination is required. External agents such as wind, water, insects and birds are required.
Production of pollen grains Produced in small numbers, thus no wastage of pollen grains occurs. Produced in large numbers thus, wastage of pollen grains occurs.
Appearance of flowers Flowers are generally not attractive. Flowers are attractive with coloured petals.
Fragrance and nectar Commonly flowers do not produce scent or nectar. Flowers generally produces scent and nectar.
Nature of offspring produced Offspring produced have genetic makeup identical to the parent plant, no variation occurs. Offspring produced may differ in genetic make-up and variations occur.

Pollination is important because it brings pollen grains to the female reproductive part (carpel) of the plant that leads to fertilisation.

Question 74.
(a) What provides nutrition to human sperms? State the genetic constitution of a sperm.
(b) Mention the chromosome pair present in a zygote which determines the sex of (i) a female child and (ii) a male child. (2020)
Answer:
(a) The secretions of seminal vesicles and prostate gland provides nutrition to the human sperms and also make their further transport easier. The genetic constitution of a sperm can be 50% have X chromosome and 50% have Y chromosome.

(b) (i) XX – Female child
(ii) XY – Male child

Question 75.
State the basic requirement for sexual reproduction. Write the importance of such reproductions in nature. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The basic requirement for sexual reproduction is involvement of both sexes, i.e., male and female, to produce an offspring. It takes place by the combination of gametes which come from two different parents.
The importance of sexual reproduction in nature are :
(i) Fusion of male and female gametes coming from two different and sexually distinct individuals, exhibit diversity of characters in offspring.
(ii) Meiosis during gametogenesis provides opportunities for new combination of genes, which leads to variation required for evolution and plays a prominent role in the origin of new species. Variations lead to the appearance of such characters, which fit to the changing environment, resulting in the survival of the species.

Question 76.
State the changes that take place in the uterus when:
(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Implantation is the close attachment of the blastocyst (young multicellular embryo) to the uterine wall. It is fullowed by a number of developmental changes in the thickened wall of uterus. An intimate connection between the fetal membrane and the uterine wall called placenta is formed. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. The placenta serves as the nutritive, respiratory and excretory organ of the fetus.

(b) When the female gamete/egg is not fertilised, this lining is not needed any longer. So, the lining slowly breaks and comes out through vagina as blood and mucus. This cycle takes place every month and is known as menstrual cycle.

Question 77.
List any two steps involved in sexual reproduction and write its two advantage. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The two main steps involved in sexual reproduction are:

  • formation of male and female gametes.
  • Fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete to form a new cell called zygote by the process of fertilisation.

The two important advantages of sexual reproduction are:

  • It promotes diversity of characters in the offspring through genetic variations.
  • It plays an important role in continuous evolution of better organisms that may lead to the origin of new species.

Question 78.
List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family? (AI 2017)
Answer:
Methods developed to prevent pregnancy are:

  • barrier method, i.e., use of condoms, diaphragm, etc.
  • chemical method, i.e., use of oral pills or vaginal pills.
  • surgical method, i.e., vasectomy and tubectomy. Out of these methods, chemical method is not meant for males.

Use of these techniques help to keep control over number of children in a family, which directly effects prosperity of a family. One of the most common reason for deterioralion of women’s health is frequent conception and child bearing. Controlled childbirth will directly affect women health and this will indirectly affect the prosperity of family and nation.

Question 79.
How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number through several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
In organisms reproducing asexually, only single parent is involved in reproduction. Therefore, amount of DNA remains same from parent to offspring. For example in Amoeba, whole organism divides into two daughter individuals by binary fission. Therefore, amount of DNA remain constant.

In organisms reproducing sexually, reproduction take place with the help of formation of haploid gametes. Gametes are special type of cells called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So, when a male gamete combines with a female gamete during sexual reproduction, then the new cell ‘zygote’ will have the normal amount of DNA. For example, the human sperm has 23 chromosomes and the human egg (or ovum) has also 23 chromosomes. So, when a sperm and an egg fuse together during fertilisation, then the zygote formed will have 23 + 23 = 46 chromosomes, which is the normal number of chromosomes.

Question 80.
Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each. (Delhi 2016)
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 8
Answer:
In the given figure, part A is anther, part B is style and part C is ovule.
Anther (A) is a part of male reproductive organ of flower called stamen. Large number of pollen grains are formed inside anther. Style (B) and ovule (C) are parts of female reproductive organ of flower called carpel / pistil.

Style is a long conducting tube which gives the passage to pollen tube carrying male gametes so that it reaches ovary which contains one or more ovules. Ovules contain female gamete or egg. On fertilisation ovary converts into fruit and ovules give rise to seeds.

Question 81.
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for the health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Three contraceptive methods which can help to control human population are:
(i) Condom : It is a mechanical barrier which does not allow sperms and ovum to meet, hence prevents fertilisation. Condoms are made of thin rubber/latex sheath used to cover the penis in the male and vagina/cervix in female just before coitus (intercourse) so that the ejaculated semen is not released in the female reproductive tract.

(ii) Intrauterine devices (IUDs): These are devices inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These are presently available as non-medicated IUDs, copper releasing IUDs (CuT, etc.) and hormone releasing IUDs. They increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus and suppress sperm motility and its fertilising capacity. They also make uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to sperms.

(iii) Oral pills : These pills contain progesterone alone or a combination of progestogen and estrogen. They inhibit ovulation and make uterus unsuitable for implantation, hence prevent fertilisation.

Question 82.
What are the functions of testes in the human male reproductive system? Why are these located outside the abdominal cavity? Who is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Testes, in human males, are the primary reproductive organs. They are the site of sperm formation. The testes also produce male sex hormone testosterone. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity because sperm formation requires a lower temperature than normal body temperature. The temperature of the testes in the scrotum is about 2-2.5°C lower than normal body temperature. This temperature is ideal for sperm formation and development. Hormone testosterone brings about the development of secondary sexual characters during puberty in boys like growth of facial hair, deepening of voice, growth of scrotum and penis, accumulation of muscle mass, etc., and also regulates formation of sperms.

Question 83.
What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination in flowering plants. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 73.

Question 84.
(a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 9
(i) Name the part marked A in the diagram.
(ii) How does A reaches part B?
(iii) State the importance of the part C.
(iv) What happens to the part marked D after fertilisation is over? (AI 2016)
Answer:
(a) Variations arise in sexually reproducing organisms on account of the following:
(i) Genetic variations occur of because DNA copying mechanism is not absolutely accurate.
(ii) Creation of new combinations of genetic variations because variations from two individuals combine during fusion of gametes.

(b) (i) A is pollen grain.
(ii) Part B is stigma. It is the part of pistil (female reproductive organ) that receives pollen grains. Pollen grains reach stigma through various agencies like wind, water, insect, etc.
(iii) Pollen tube (C) carries male gametes to the ovule present in ovary. Male gametes fuse with egg and secondary nucleus to give rise to zygote and endosperm.
(iv) Female gamete (D) fuses with male gamete and converts to embryo after fertilisation.

Question 85.
What is pollination? List its two types and write a distinguishing feature between the two. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 73.

Question 86.
What is sexual reproduction? List its four significances. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is the process of production of offspringby the fusion of male and female gametes. Here, haploid gametes fuse to form diploid zygote which develop into a mature organism.
Significance of sexual reproduction are as follows:

  • Sexual reproduction gives rise to genetic variations because of genetic recombination that takes place during fusion of gametes.
  • Progenies arising through sexual reproduction sometimes show better combination of traits and get better adapted to their surroundings.
  • Genetic recombination, interaction, etc., during sexual reproduction provide vigour and vitality to the offspring.
  • Variations in genes play an important role in evolution.

Question 87.
Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain in brief the structure of its female reproductive parts. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
The reproductive parts of an angiosperm are stamen (male reproductive part) and carpel/pistil (female reproductive part). These are located in the flowers of an angiospermic plant.
The given diagram shows the structure of female reproductive part of a flower:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 10

A Carpel is made of three parts: stigma, style and ovary. The top part of carpel is called stigma. Stigma is for receiving the pollen grains during pollination. Stigma is sticky so that pollen can stick to it. The middle part of carpel is called style. Style is a tube which connects stigma to the ovary. The swollen part at the bottom of a carpel is called ovary. The ovary contains ovules. Ovules contain the female gametes or female sex cells (egg) of the plant. There are usually many ovules in the ovary. Each ovule contains only one female gamete of the plant.

Question 88.
(a) Mention the role of the following organs of human male reproductive system.
(i) Testes (ii) Scrotum (iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Prostate gland
(b) What are the two roles of testosterone? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) (i) Testes : The two testes in male are the sites where male gametes, i.e., sperms are formed. Testes also produce the male sex hormone called testosterone.
(ii) Scrotum : The scrotum is a pouch of skin that lie outside abdominal cavity. The two testes lie in respective scrotal sacs. The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator and provides an optimal temperature for the formation of sperms.
(iii) Vas deferens : This is a straight tube, about 40 cm long, which carries the sperms to the seminal vesicles, where mucus and a watery alkaline fluid containing fructose, mix with the sperms.
(iv) Prostate gland : It is a single large gland that surrounds the urethra and produces a milky, slightly acidic secretion. Secretion of prostate gland nourishes and activates the sperm to swim.

(b) Two roles of testosterone are:
(i) It plays a key role in development of male secondary sex organs such as prostate, etc.
(ii) It promotes the secondary sexual character-istics in males such as increased muscle and bone mass, growth of body hair, etc.

Question 89.
List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family? (Delhi 2015, 2014)
Answer:
The four methods of birth control which deliberately prevent fertilisation in humans are:

  • Barrier method- These are physical devices to prevent the entry of sperm in the female, e.g., condoms.
  • Chemical method – It involves the use of oral pills that check ovulation. These are mainly hormonal preparations and contain estrogen and progesterone.
  • Intrauterine contraceptive device-These devices are implemented into uterus, e.g., copper – T, to prevent fertilisation.
  • Surgical methods : These methods involves removal of a small jJortion of vas deferens in males or fallopian tube in females to prevent fertilisation. Contraception prevents frequent pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases thus supports good health and prosperity of a family.

Question 90.
What are sexually transmitted diseases? List two examples each of diseases caused due to
(i) bacterial infection and (ii) viral infection. Which device or devices may be used to prevent the spread of such diseases? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The diseases that are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called sexually transmitted disease (STDs).
(i) Bacterial infection causes gonorrhoea, syphilis.
(ii) Viral infection causes AIDS, genital herpes. STDs can be prevented by using male and female condoms.

Question 91.
List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction are as follows:

  • Two different sexes, i.e., male and female are involved in this process.
  • Sexual reproduction involves formation of special sex cells called gametes.
  • Fusion of gametes or fertilisation takes place in the body of female (internal fertilisation) or outside (external fertilisation).
  • Offspring inherit traits from both parents (heredity) and also show some new traits of their own (variation), hence they are not clones of the parents.
  • Variations in sexually reproducing organisms arises on account of crossing over during meiotic division during gamete formation.
  • It plays a prominent role in origin of new species as it leads to variations which accumulate over a period of time and get carried to successive generations.

Question 92.
List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country. (AI 2015)
Answer:
The general awareness regarding reproductive health in a society is significant as :

  • Maintenance of personal hygiene among youngsters and proper knowledge of their reproductive parts helps them adjust with the physical changes and cope with emotional disturbances.
  • Reproductively healthy society must be free from the curse of child marriage which begets many complications at the level of individual and society both.
  • Proper care of expecting mothers, monitoring their health after child birth and care of new born help in building a healthy society.
  • Married couples aware of contraceptive methods lead a better married life as they are capable of avoiding unwanted pregnancies and have negligible chances of contracting sexually transmitted diseases.

In past 50 years, various areas related to reproductive health have been launched which have improved the reproductive health of our society in following ways: Two of them are :
(i) reduced mortality rate of mother and infant
(ii) birth control due to easily available contraceptive and reduced STDs cases.

Question 93.
Draw longitudinal section of a bisexual flower and label the following parts on it.
(i) Anther
(ii) Ovary
(iii) Stigma
(iv) Style (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Longitudinal section of a bisexual flower is as follows:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 11

Question 94.
What is placenta? Explain its function in humans. (Foreign 2015, AI 2014)
Answer:
Placenta is an intimate connection between fetus and uterine wall of the mother to exchange the materials. It is a disc shaped structure embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on embryo’s side and blood spaces towards mothers side. Blood spaces surround villi.

Placenta performs the following functions:

  • All nutritive elements from maternal blood pass into the fetus through it.
  • Placental helps in respiration, i.e., supply of oxygen and removal of CO2 from fetus to maternal blood.
  • Fetal excretory products diffuse out into maternal blood through placenta and are excreted by mother.
  • Placenta also secretes hormone.

Question 95.
Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival – the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually? Justify your answer. (Foreign 2015, AI 2014)
Answer:
Difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction is as follows :
Asexual reproduction :
Gametes are not formed hence fertilisation does not take place.

Sexual reproduction :
Gametes are always formed and fertilisation takes place to form a zygote.

Species reproducing sexually have a better chance of survival as variation occurs only during the sexual reproduction. Variations are necessary for evolution and to increase chances of survival in changed environmental conditions.

Question 96.
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction? What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction? (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction as it results in passing of nearly same genetic information from parents to the offsprings. DNA replication also ensures that same number of chromosomes are passed from parents to offspring.

Advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction provides variations which is a major factor for evolution that helps in survival of species in changing environment.

Question 97.
Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower exhibiting germination of pollen on stigma and label (i) ovary (ii) male germ cell,
(iii) female germ cell and (iv) ovule on it. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The diagram of the longitudinal section of flower is as follows:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 12

Question 98.
Write names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the animals
(i) testes
(ii) sperm
(iii) ovary
(iv) egg. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The parts of a flower which serve the same function as following do in the animals are
(i) testes – anther of stamen
(ii) sperm – pollen
(iii) ovary – ovary of pistil
(iv) egg – female germ cell present in ovule.

Question 99.
List four methods of contraception used by humans.
Justify the following statement.
“The use of contraceptive methods has a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family.” (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 89.

Question 100.
Describe in brief the function of the various parts of the female reproductive part of a bisexual flower. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 87.

Question 101.
On the notice board of ultrasound clinics it is generally stated. “Here prenatal sex determination and disclosure of sex (boy or girl before birth) of fetus is not done. It is prohibited and punishable under law.”
(a) List two advantages of imposing ban on prenatal sex determination.
(b) What can students do to educate the society about the following?
(i) The ill-effects of indiscriminate female feticide.
(ii) Adopting small family norms. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(a) The two advantages of imposing ban on prenatal sex determination are
(i) check on female feticide
(ii) improving sex ratio in the country.

(b) Students should educate the society as that
(i) female feticide is reducing the number of girls drastically in some societies. For a healthy society, the male-female sex ratio must be maintained at almost the same level. Due to reckless female feticide, the male-female child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate in some sections of our society.

(ii) Children in a small family can be provided with all the resources from education, good amenities like food, clothing and healthy life style. As the family grows larger, the resources should be shared with increased number of member. Having fewer children also keeps the mother in good health.

Question 102.
Name the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower which contain the germ cells. State the location and function of its female reproductive part. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower which contain the germ cells are carpel (female reproductive part) and stamen (male reproductive part). Carpel is situated in the centre of the flower as a flask-shaped structure. A carpel is made up of three parts-stigma, style and ovary. The distal part of a carpel is called stigma. Stigma is responsible for receiving pollen during pollination. Style is an elongated tubular structure which connects stigma with ovary. The basal swollen part of carpel is ovary. Ovary bears several ovules. After fertilisation ovules form seeds and ovary forms the fruit.

Question 103.
Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases causes by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain how the transmission of such diseases be prevented? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The infectious (communicable) diseases, which are spread from an infected person to a healthy person by sexual contact, are called sexually transmitted diseases.
Sexually transmitted diseases caused by virus are : AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) and genital warts while caused by bacteria are gonorrhoea and syphilis.

Preventive measures for these diseases are:

  • educating people in high risk groups.
  • mutually faithful monogamous relationship.
  • avoiding prostitution, multipartner sex and homosexuality.
  • using condoms, etc.

Question 104.
Explain the meaning of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Give two examples of STDs each, caused due to (i) bacterial infection and (ii) viral infection. State in brief how the spread of such diseases may be prevented. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 103.

Question 105.
List and explain in brief three methods of contraception. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 81.

Question 106.
What is AIDS? Which microbe is responsible for AIDS infection? State one mode of transmission of this disease. Explain in brief one measure for prevention of AIDS. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome), is an infectious viral disease which weakens the immune system of human body and generally leads to death. It is caused by a retrovirus called HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). AIDS can be transmitted by having sexual contact with an infected person.
Use of condoms which are physical barriers can reduce the risk of a sexual exposure to HIV.

Question 107.
(a) List two sexually transmitted diseases in each of the following cases:
(i) Bacterial infections
(ii) Viral infections
(b) How may the spread of such diseases be prevented? . (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 103.

Question 108.
What does HIV stands for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading AIDS. (AI 2011)
Answer:
HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. Yes, AIDS is an infectious disease. It is transmitted sexually or through exposure to contaminated blood.
Four modes of spreading AIDS are :

  • unprotected sex with an infected partner
  • use of contaminated needle and syringes
  • use of contaminated razors for shaving
  • transfusion of infected blood or blood products.

Question 109.
Expand AIDS. List any four methods of prevention (control) of AIDS. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
AIDS is expanded as Acquired Immuno-deficiency Syndrome.
Four methods of prevention or control of AIDS are :

  • use of sterilised needles and syringes for injecting drugs or vaccine
  • to avoid sex with multiple partners
  • use of condoms during intercourse
  • avoid use of contaminated razor in barber shop.

Question 110.
(a) List three different categories of contraceptive methods.
(b) Why has Government of India prohibited prenatal sex determination by law? State its benefits in the long run.
(c) Unsafe sexual act can lead to various infections. Name two bacterial and two viral infections caused due to unsafe sex. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Three different categories of contraceptive methods are :
(i) Barrier methods, i.e., use of condoms, etc.
(ii) Chemical methods, i.e., use of oral pills or vaginal pills.
(iii) Surgical methods, i.e., vasectomy and tubectomy.

(b) Prenatal sex determination was banned in India in 1994. This was done to prevent sex selective abortion. It is being used to kill the normal female fetus. This killing of the unborn girl child is called female feticide which is reducing the number of girls drastically in some societies of our country. Due to reckless female feticide, male-female sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate. Its benefit in the long run is that the female-male ratio could be maintained for a healthy society.

(c) Bacterial diseases due to unsafe sex are gonorrhoea, syphilis.
Viral diseases due to unsafe sex are AIDS, genital herpes.

Question 111.
(a) In the female reproductive system of human beings, state the functions of:
(i) Ovary
(ii) Oviduct.
(b) Mention the changes which the uterus undergoes, when
(i) it has to receive a zygote.
(ii) no fertilisation takes place.
(c) State the functions of placenta. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Tire ovaries in female are primary sex organs (or female gonads) which perform the dual function – production of female gametes (eggs or ova) and secretion of female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone).
(ii) Oviducts or fallopian tube are paired tubes originating near to the ovaries of their respective sides and extend upto uterus. The terminal part of fallopian tube is funnel-shaped with finger-like projections called fimbriae lying near ovary. Fimbriae pick up the ovum released from ovary and push it into fallopian tube. Fertilisation also takes place in the oviduct.

(b) (i) As the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself, every month to receive fertilised egg by making its lining thick and spongy to nourish the zygote if fertilisation takes place.
(ii) When the female gamete/egg is not fertilised, this lining is not needed any longer. So, the lining slowly breaks and comes out through vagina as blood and mucus through menstrual cycle that takes place every month.

(c) Placenta performs the following functions :

  • All nutritive elements from maternal blood pass into the fetus through it.
  • Placenta helps in respiration i.e., supply of oxygen and removal of CO2 from fetus to maternal blood.
  • Fetal excretory products diffuse out into maternal blood through placenta and are excreted by mother.
  • Placenta also secretes hormone.

Question 112.
(a) Draw a diagram showing germination of pollen on stigma of a flower and mark on it the following organs/parts:
(i) Pollen grain
(ii) Pollen tube
(iii) Stigma
(iv) Female germ cell
(b) State the significance of pollen tube.
(c) Name the parts of flower that develop after fertilisation into:
(i) Seed
(ii) Fruit. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Diagram showing germination of pollen on stigma of a flower is:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 13

(b) The pollen tube acts as a conduit to transport the male gamete cells from the pollen grain at stigma to the ovules at the base of the carpel for the process of fertilisation.

(c) After fertilisation,
(i) ovule develops into seed and
(ii) ovary develops into fruit.

Question 113.
Draw a neat diagram showing fertilisation in a flower and label (a) pollen tube (b) Male germ cell and (c) Female germ cell on it. Explain the process of fertilisation in a flower. What happens to the (i) ovary and (ii) ovule after fertilisation? (2020)
Answer:
Diagram showing fertilisation in a flower:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 14

Fertilisation, in plants, occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grain fuses with the female gamete (or egg) present in ovule. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it bursts open and grows a pollen tube downwards through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Male gametes move down the pollen tube. The pollen tube enters the ovule in the ovary. The tip of pollen tube bursts and male gametes comes out of pollen tube. In ovary, the male gamete of pollen combines with the female gamete or egg present in ovule to form a fertilised egg.

After fertilisation,
(i) ovule develops into seed
(ii) ovary develops into fruit.

Question 114.
(a) What is puberty?
(b) Describe in brief the functions of the following parts in the human male reproductive system.
(i) Testes
(ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Urethra
(c) Why are testes located outside the abdominal cavity?
(d) State how sperms move towards the female germ cell. (2020)
Answer:
(a) The age at which the sex hormones begin to be produced and the boy and girl becomes sexually mature, i.e., able to reproduce is called puberty.

(b) (i) Testes : The two testes in male are the sites where male gametes, i.e., sperms are formed. Testes also produce the male sex hormone called testosterone.
(ii) Seminal vesicles are one pair of sac-like structures near the base of bladder. Seminal fluid is a watery alkaline fluid that contains nutrients (fructose) which serve as a source of energy for the sperm. Each seminal vesicle releases its contents into the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.
(iii) Vas deferens : This is a straight tube, about 40 cm long, which carries the sperms to the seminal vesicles, where mucus and a watery alkaline fluid containing fructose, mix with the sperms.
(iv) Urethra : It is a long tube that arises from urinary bladder. Urethra carries urine from the bladder as well as sperms from the vas deferens, through the penis.

(c) Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity because sperm formation requires a lower temperature than normal body temperature. The temperature of the testes in the scrotum is about 2-2.5°C lower than normal body temperature. This temperature is ideal for sperm formation and development.

(d) The sperms present in the testes of man are introduced into the vagina of the woman through penis during copulation. Millions of sperms are released into the vagina at one time. The sperms are highly active and mobile. They travel from here upward through the uterus at the top of fallopian tube within five minutes.

Question 115.
Based on the given diagram answer the questions given below:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 15
(a) Label the parts A, B, C and D.
(b) Name the hormone secreted by testis and mention its role.
(c) State the functions of B and C in the process of reproduction. (2020)
Answer:
(a) A – Ureter
B – Seminal vesicle
C – Urethra
D – Vas deferens

(b) Testes produce male sex hormone testo-sterone. Hormone Testosterone brings about the development of secondary sexual characters during puberty in boys like growth of facial hair, deepening of voice, build up of muscle mass and also regulates formation of sperms.

(c) Seminal vesicles (B) release its contents into the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation. Urethra (C) carries sperms from the vas deferens through the penis.

Question 116.
(a) List two reasons of using contraceptive methods by married couples.
(b) Write in proper sequence the processes going on in the different organs of the reproductive system of a human female starting from the time of egg production to childbirth. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Two reasons of using contraceptive methods by married couples are :
(i) They prevent frequent or unwanted pregnancies.
(ii) They prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

(b) The female germ cells or eggs are made in ovaries. They are also responsible for the production of some hormones. When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of immature eggs on reaching puberty.

Some of these start maturing, one egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries. The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a thin oviduct or fallopian tube. The oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as uterus. The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix. The sperms enter through vagina passage during sexual intercourse. They travel upwards and reach the oviduct where they may meet the egg. The fertilised egg, the zygote gets implanted in the lining of uterus and starts dividing. The mothers body is designed to undertake the development of the child. So, the uterus prepares itself every month to receive and nurture the growing embryo. The lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.

After implantation, a disc-like special tissue develops between the uterus wall (called uterine wall) and the embryo (or fetus), which is called placenta. The fetus is connected to placenta in mothers body through umbilical cord. It is through the placenta that all the requirements of the developing fetus like nutrition, respiration and excretion, etc., are met from the mothers body. The development of the child inside the mothers body takes approximately nine months. The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the uterus.

Question 117.
(a) Identify the modes of asexual reproduction in each of the following organisms:
(i) Hydra
(ii) Planaria
(iii) Amoeba
(iv) Spirogyra
(v) Rhizopus
(b) List three advantages of vegetative propagation.
(c) Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if pollination does not occur? (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Hydra – Budding
(ii) Planaria – Regeneration
(iii) Amoeba – Fission
(iv) Spirogyra – Fragmentation
(v) Rhizopus – Spores

(b) Refer to answer 47(c).

(c) Pollination brings male gametes in close proximity to the female reproductive part of flower. In the absence of pollination, there will be no male gametes available for fertilisation with female gametes.

Question 118.
Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents of pollination. How does suitable pollination lead to fertilisation? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same species is known as pollination. Pollination may be of two major types- (i) self pollination and (ii) cross pollination.
(i) Self pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower, or to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. This pollination generally takes place in bisexual flowers because they have both male and female gametes in them.

(ii) Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower of one plant to the stigma of a flower of another plant of the same species. This occurs in unisexual as well as bisexual flowers.

Two agents of pollination are wind and water.
Pollination results in the deposition of related pollen grains over the receptive stigma of the carpel. Pollen grains after landing on stigma, absorb water, swell and then germinate to produce pollen tubes. Many pollen tubes grow into the stigma, but only one passes through the style and then moves towards the ovary. Two non-motile male gametes are formed inside the tube during its growth through the style. After reaching the ovary, pollen tube enters the ovule through the micropyle. The tip of the tube finally pierces the micropylar end of the embryo sac. After penetration, the tip of pollen tube ruptures releasing two male gametes into the embryo sac. The mature embryo sac consists of an egg apparatus (one haploid egg and two synergids), two polar nuclei and three antipodal cells. During the act of fertilisation, one male gamete fuses with the egg to form the diploid zygote.

Question 119.
(a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 16
(b) What is contraception? List three advantages of adopting contraceptive measures. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(a) The given diagram is the sectional view of human female reproductive system.
The labelled parts are:
1. Funnel of fallopian tube or oviduct
2. Ovary
3. Uterus or womb
4. Cervix
5. Vagina

(b) Contraception is the avoidance of pregnancy. There are several methods of contraception such as:

  • Barrier methods (condoms, diaphragm, etc.)
  • Chemical methods (spermicide creams and jellies)
  • Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) (Lippes loop, CuT, etc.)
  • Natural methods (rhythm method, coitus interruptus)

Surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy) Three advantages of adopting contraceptive methods are:

  • They prevent frequent or unwanted pregnancies.
  • They prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
  • They help to regulate the population growth.

Question 120.
(a) Distinguish between cross-pollination and self-pollination. Mention the site and product of fertilisation in a flower.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of a pistil showing the following parts:
Stigma, Style, Ovary, Female germ cell (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 73.
Fertilisation takes place in the ovary of a female flower. Inside the ovary, the ovule is fertilised by pollen. After the process of fertilisation, the ovary in the flower thickens and enlarges to form the fruit, whereas the ovule becomes the seed containing the embryo.

(b) The labelled diagram of a pistil is as follows :
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 17

Question 121.
(a) Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts:
(i) which produce an egg
(ii) where fertilisation takes place
(b) List two bacterial diseases which are transmitted sexually.
(c) What are contraceptive devices? Give two reasons for adopting contraceptive devices in humans. (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) The sectional view of human female reproductive system is as follows:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 18
(i) Ovary is the part where eggs develop.
(ii) Fallopian tube is the part where fertilisation takes place.

(b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are two bacterial diseases which are transmitted sexually by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Treponema pallidum respectively.

(c) Contraceptive devices are those devices which are used to prevent pregnancy. It includes diaphragm, condom and intrauterine devices. Contraceptive methods are adopted:
(i) to avoid unwanted birth.
(ii) to keep the population of a country under control.

Question 122.
(a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus.
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta. (2018)
Answer:
(a) Function of human female reproductive part are as follows :
(i) Ovary: The ovaries are primary sex organs (or female gonads), which perform the dual function :
Production of female gametes (eggs or ova)
Secretion of female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone).

(ii) Oviduct (Fallopian tube): It is a site where egg and sperms meet and fertilisation takes place.
It also conducts the ovum or zygote towards uterus by ciliary action and peristalsis.

(iii) Uterus : It is the seat of implantation, placentation and foetal development. It’s muscular wall helps in expelling of baby during childbirth.

(b) Placenta is an intimate mechanical and physiological connection between fetus and uterine wall of the mother. It is a disc shaped structure embedded in the uterine wall. It contains chorion having villi on the embryo’s side and blood spaces towards mother’s side. Blood spaces surround the villi. Placenta is connected to the fetus by umbilical cord.

Placenta performs the following functions :

  • All nutritive elements from maternal blood passes into the fetus through it.
  • Placenta helps in respiration, i.e., supply of O2 to the fetus and removal of CO2 from fetus to maternal blood.
  • Fetal excretory products diffuse out into maternal blood through placenta and are excreted by mother.
  • Placenta also secretes hormones.
  • Placenta acts as a barrier between mother and fetus blood and only allows necessary materials to pass through it.

Question 123.
(a) Name the organ that produces sperms as well as secretes a hormone in human males. Name the hormone it secretes and write its functions.
(b) Name the part of the human female reproductive system where fertilisation occurs.
(c) Explain how the developing embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 88 (a)(i) and (b).
(b) In human female the fertilisation occurs in the oviducts or Fallopian tube.
(c) The developing embryo gets nourishment from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc like structure embedded in uterine wall. It contains villi that provides a large surface area to pass glucose and oxygen from mother to embryo. Placenta links the embryo to the mother through umbilical cord.

Question 124.
(a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system.
(i) Ovary
(ii) Uterus
(iii) Fallopian tube
(b) Write the structure and functions of placenta in a human female. (AI 2017)
Answer:
(a) (i) Refer to answer 11 l(a)(i).
(ii) Uterus is a single, pear-shaped, highly muscular, hollow structure present in the pelvic cavity, lying between urinary bladder and rectum. If fertilisation takes place, the embryo gets implanted to the wall of uterus and grows there until birth. Development of fetus occurs inside uterus, hence it is also called womb.
(iii) Refer to answer 111 (a)(ii).
(b) Refer to answer 122(b).

Question 125.
(a) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system :
(i) Ovary
(ii) Oviduct
(iii) Uterus
(b) Describe the structure and function of placenta. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 111(a)(i), (ii) and 124(a)(ii). (b) Refer to answer 122(b).

Question 126.
What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 122(b).

Question 127.
(a) State in brief the functions of the following organs in the human female reproductive system.
Ovary, Fallopian tube, Uterus
(b) What is menstruation? Why does it occur? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 111(a)(i), (ii) and 124(a) (ii).

(b) Menstruation is the cyclic discharge of blood along with endometrial lining of the uterus and unfertilised egg in women. It last for 3-5 days. After the release of egg in the females, the uterine lining becomes thickened for the implantation of fertilised egg or zygote. In the absence of fertilisation, the egg along with endometrial lining is expelled out of the body in the form of menstruation.

Question 128.
Write the functions of the following in human female reproductive system.
Ovary, oviduct, uterus
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mothers body? Explain in brief. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answers 111(a) (i), (ii), 124(a)(ii) and 123 (c).

Question 129.
(a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produce sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where, (i) fertilisation takes place (ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body. (AI 2015)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 88(a)(i) and (b).
(b) Refer to answers 122(a) and 123(c).

Question 130.
(a) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram and write their names.
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 19
(b) What is pollination? Explain its significance.
(c) Explain the process of fertilisation in flowers. Name the parts of the flower that develop after fertilisation into
(i) seed
(ii) fruit. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(a) In the given diagram A is stigma, B is pollen tube, C is ovary and D is female germ cell.

(b) The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or another flower is known as pollination. Pollination is important because it brings pollen grains to the female reproductive part (carpel) of the plant that leads to fertilisation.

(c) Fertilisation, in plants, occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grain fuses with the female gamete (or egg) present in ovule. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it bursts open and grows a pollen tube downwards through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary.

Male gametes move down the pollen tube. The pollen tube enters the ovule in the ovary. The tip of pollen tube bursts and male gametes comes out of pollen tube. In ovary, the male gamete of pollen combines with the female gamete or egg present in ovule to form a fertilised egg.

After fertilisation,
(i) ovule develops into seed
(ii) ovary develops into fruit.

Question 131.
(a) Give one example each of unisexual and bisexual flower.
(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
(c) How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of DNA copies of two individuals. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) Unisexual flowers bear organs of only one sex, i.e., either stamen or pistil, e.g., papaya. Bisexual flowers contain both stamen and pistil, e.g., Hibiscus.

(b) After fertilisation, the fertilised egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary of flower develops and becomes a fruit (with seeds inside it). The other parts of flower like sepals, petals, stamens, stigma and style dry up and fall off. Only the ovary is left behind. So, at the place on plant vyhere we had a flower originally, we now have a fruit (which is the ovary of the flower containing seeds). A fruit protects the seeds.

(c) The amount of DNA remain constant in each new generation because of formation of haploid gametes. Gametes are special type of cells called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So, when a male gamete combines with a female gamete during sexual reproduction, then the new cell ‘zygote’ will have the normal amount of DNA. For example, the human sperm has 23 chromosomes and the human egg (or ovum) has also 23 chromosomes. So, when a sperm and an egg fuse together during fertilisation, then the zygote formed will have 23 + 23 = 46 chromosomes, which is the normal number of chromosomes.

Question 132.
(a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes a hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its function.
(b) Write the site of fertilisation and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.
(c) State, in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mothers body. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 88 (a)(i) and (b).
(b) Refer to answer 122 (a) (ii), (iii).
(c) Refer to answer 123 (c).

Question 133.
(a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system :
(i) that produces egg
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote gets implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 122 (a).

(b) After implantation of zygote or embryo in the thick lining of the uterus, a disc-like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and the embryo, which is called as placenta. Placenta meets all the requirements for developing the fetus like nutrition, respiration, excretion, etc. When fetus (embryo) develops completely, the rhythmic contraction of uterus muscles gradually pushes the baby out of the mother s baby through vagina a baby is born.

Question 134.
(a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label that part where
(i) eggs develop
(ii) fertilisation take place
(iii) fertilised egg gets implanted
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes that uterus undergoes
(i) to receive the zygote
(ii) if zygote is not formed. (AI 2014)
Answer:
(a) The sectional view of human female reproductive system is as follows:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 20
(i) Ovary is the part where eggs develop.
(ii) Fallopian tube is the part where fertilisation takes place.
(iii) Uterus is the part where fertilised egg gets implanted.

(b) (i) When the ovum (or egg) is fertilised in the oviduct, then a zygote is formed. The uterus prepares itself every month to receive a zygote. The inner lining of uterus becomes thick and spongy with lot of blood capillaries in it. This would be required for nourishment and further development of embryo.

(ii) If a sperm is not available at the time of ovulation, then fertilisation of ovum does not take place. Since the ovum (or egg) is not fertilised, so the thick and soft uterus lining having lot of blood capillaries in it is not required. The unfertilised ovum dies within a day and the uterus lining also breaks down. The breakdown and removal of the inner, thick and soft lining of the uterus alongwith its blood vessels in the form of vaginal bleeding is called menstrual flow or menstruation.

Question 135.
(a) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the diagram given below:
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 21
(b) What is pollination? State its significance.
(c) How does fertilisation occur in flowers? Name the parts of the flower that develop into (i) seed, and (ii) fruit after fertilisation. (AI 2014)
Answer:
(a) A represents pollen grains, B represents pollen tubes, C represents ovary and D represents female germ cell.
(b) Refer to answer 130(b).
(c) Refer to answer 130 (c).

Question 136.
List in tabular form the two differences between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Name and explain with the help of labelled diagram the process by which Hydra reproduces asexually. (Foreign 2014, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Differences between asexual and sexual forms of reproduction are follows :

Characters Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
(i) Number of parents The process involves only one cell or one parent, so is called uniparental reproduction. This process involves two cells or gametes belonging to different parents, so is generally biparental.
(ii) Reproductive unit The whole body of the parent acts as reproductive unit or it can be in a single cell or a bud. The reproductive unit is gamete, which is unicellular and haploid.
(iii) Nature of offspring The offsprings are genetically similar to parents. The offsprings differ from parents.

Hydra is simple multicellular animal. It reproduces asexually by the process of budding. In Hydra first a small outgrowth called ‘bud’ is formed on the side of its body by the repeated mitotic divisions of its cells. This bud then grows gradually to form a small Hydra by developing a mouth. Finally, the tiny new Hydra detaches itself from the body of parent and lives as a separate organism. In this way, the parent Hydra produce a new Hydra. The following figure shows Hydra reproducing by the method of budding.
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 22

Question 137.
(a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes hormones. Write the functions of the hormone secreted.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where (i) fertilisation and (ii) implantation occur respectively. Explain how the embryo gets nutrition inside the mother’s body. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answers 88 (a) (i) and (b).
(b) Refer to answers 122 (a) and 123 (c).

Question 138.
(a) List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction.
(b) Explain why variations are observed in the offsprings of sexually reproducing organisms? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 136.

(b) Sexual reproduction involves fusion of male and female gametes coming from male and female parents. Variations occur due to (i) fusion of gametes which come from two different and sexually distinct individuals and (ii) meiosis which occurs during gametogenesis and create a new combination of genes. It plays a prominent role in the origin of new species and leads to variations required for evolution. Therefore, offsprings of sexually reproducing organisms show variation.

Question 139.
(a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram , and write their functions.
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 23
(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) A represents stigma. It receives the pollen grains from the anther of stamen. Stigma is sticky so that pollen can stick to it so that fertilisation can occur. B represents pollen tube. Pollen tube acts as a conduit to transport the male gamete cells from the pollen grain at stigma to the ovules at the base of the carpel for the process of fertilisation. C represent female germ cell. Female germ cell fertilise with male germ cells to forms zygote which develops into an embryo within the ovule. Ovule converts into a seed that gives rise a new individual.

(b) Role of Gamete : Gametes are the reproductive cells involved in sexual reproduction having half of the chromosome. Gametes carry variations generated during its formation (meiosis). A male gamete and a female gamete fuses to form zygote.

Role of Zygote : The fusion of male gamete with female gamete forms a zygote during sexual reproduction. Zygote has normal number of chromosomes and new combinations of variation that express in new generation. The zygote undergoes repeated mitotic divisions to form the embryo which has the potential to form a complete individual.

Question 140.
(a) Give an example of a bisexual flower.
(b) Draw a longitudinal section of a pistil showing the germination of pollen grains. Label the following parts:
(i) Stigma
(ii) Male germ cell
(iii) Female germ cell
(iv) Ovary
(v) Style
(vi) Pollen tube
(c) Mention the site and the product of fertilisation in a flower. (Delhi 2013 C)
Answer:
(a) Hibiscus is an example of a bisexual flower.
(b) Refer to answer 120 (b).
(c) Refer to answer 130 (c).

Question 141.
Define the terms pollination and fertilisation.
Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth into the ovule and label the following: pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete, ovary. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or another flower is known as pollination. Fertilisation is the fusion of male gamete with the female gamete (or egg).
Refer to answer 120(b) for figure.

Question 142.
Describe in brief the role of (i) testes (ii)
seminal vesicle, (iii) vas deferens, (iv) ureter and (v) ‘prostate gland in human male reproductive system. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 88 (a) (i).
(ii) Seminal vesicles are one pair of sac like structures near the base of bladder. Seminal fluid is a watery alkaline fluid that contains nutrients (fructose) which serve as a source of energy for the sperm. Each seminal vesicle releases its contents into the ejaculatory duct during ejaculation.
(iii) Refer to answer 88(a) (iii).
(iv) Ureter : From hilum of each kidney emerges out a slender, whitish tube called ureter. Ureter of each kidney leaves from the renal pelvis. Each ureter is about 30 cm long, 3 – 4 mm in diameter and opens into urinary bladder by slit-like aperture. The ureters carry urine from kidneys to urinary bladder.
(v) Refer to answer 88(a) (iv).

Question 143.
Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving one example of each. Draw a diagram showing process of germination of pollen grains on stigma and label the following parts :
(i) Female germ cell
(ii) Male germ cell
(iii) Ovary (AI 2012)
Answer:
The flowers which contain only one sex organ, either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers. E.g., flowers of papaya and watermelon whereas the flowers which contain both the sex organs, stamens as well as carpel, are called bisexual flowers, e.g., flowers of Hibiscus and mustard.
Refer to answer 120(b) for figure.

Question 144.
Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part
(i) that produces eggs
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place
(iii) where zygote is implanted.
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised? (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 134 (a) and b (ii).

Question 145.
(a) Explain with the help of a diagram how pollen after landing on the stigma of a flower helps male germ cell to reach the female germ cell. Label the following : ovary, female germ cell, male germ cell and pollen grain.
(b) State the meaning of pollination and mention a distinguishing feature between self-pollination and cross-pollination.
(Foreign 2012)
Answer:
(a) After landing of stigma, the pollen grain does not pass down the stigma. Only its pollen tube does so. The pollen tube eats its way through the solid part of the stigma and style by secreting pectinases and hydrolytic enzymes. It travels intercellularly and chemotropically along the concentration gradient of calcium – boron – inositol sugar complex.
The contents of the pollen grains shift into pollen tube with the tube or vegetative nucleus moving to its tip followed by the two gametes. Further growth of the pollen tube occurs only towards its tip.
In this way, pollen tube helps the male germ cell to reach the female germ cell.
Refer to answer 120 (b) for figure.

(b) Refer to answer 73.

Question 146.
State in brief the changes that take place in a fertilised egg(zygote) till birth of the child in the human female reproductive system. What happens to the egg when it is not fertilised? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
When the ovum (or egg) is fertilised in the oviduct, then a zygote is formed. The zygote divides rapidly by mitosis as it moves down slowly in the oviduct and forms a ball of cells. This hollow ball of cells, called an embryo sinks into the soft and thick lining of the uterus and gets embedded in it. The embedding of embryo in the thick lining of the uterus is called implantation.

After implantation, a disc-like special tissue develops between the uterus wall (called uterine wall) and the embryo (or fetus), which is called placenta. The fetus is connected to placenta in mothers body through umbilical cord. It is through the placenta that all the requirements of the developing fetus like nutrition, respiration and excretion, etc., are met from the mothers body.

The time period from the fertilisation upto the birth of the baby is called gestation. The average gestation period in humans (or the average during of human pregnancy) is about nine months. During the gestation period, the fetus grows to become a baby. Birth begins when the strong muscles in the walls of the uterus start to contract rhythmically. The rhythmic contraction of uterus muscles gradually pushes the baby out of the mother’s body through vagina and a baby is born. If, a sperm is not available at the time of ovulation, then fertilisation of ovum (or egg) does not take place. Since the ovum (or egg) is not fertilised, so the thick and soft uterus lining having lot of blood capillaries in it is not required. The unfertilised ovum dies within a day and the uterus lining also breaks down. The breakdown and removal of the inner, thick and soft lining of the uterus alongwith its blood vessels is called menstrual flow or menstruation.

Question 147.
(a) Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label on it sepal, petal, ovary and stigma.
(b) Write the names of male and female reproductive parts of a flower. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) The longitudinal section of a flower is as follows :
How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 Img 24

(b) Refer to answer 87.

Question 148.
(a) Draw a diagram illustrating fertilisation in a flowering plant and label on it: male germ cell, ovary, female germ cell and pollen grain.
(b) Distinguish between self pollination and cross pollination. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 120 (b). (b) Refer to answer 73.

The post How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 Three Dimensional Geometry, Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
If a line makes angles 90°, 135°, 45° with the x, y and z axes respectively, find its direction cosines. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let direction cosines of the line be l, m and n.
Given, α = 90°, β = 135° and γ = 45°
Then, l = cos α = cos 90°= 0,
m= cos β = cos 135° = \(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
and n = cos γ = cos 45°= \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Hence, the direction cosines of a line are 0, \(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}}\) and \(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}}\).

Question 2.
Find the vector equation of the line which passes through the point (3, 4, 5) and is parallel to the vector 2î + 2ĵ – 3k̂. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Equation of a line passing through a point with position vector \(\vec{a}\) and parallel to a vector \(\vec{b}\) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 1

Question 3.
What are the direction cosines of a line which makes equal angles with the coordinate axes? (All India 2019, 2009, 2008C; Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Given, line makes equal angles with coordinate axes.
Let α, β and γ be the angles made by the line with coordinate axes.
Then, α = β = γ ⇒ cos α = cos β = cos γ
⇒ l = m = n …(i)
[∵ l = cos α, m = cos β, n = cos γ]
We know that, l2 + m2 + n2 = 1
∴ l2 + l2 + l2 = 1 [from Eq. (i)]
⇒ 3l2 = 1 ⇒ l2 = \(\frac{1}{3}\) ⇒ l = ± \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
From Eq. (i), direction cosines of a line are
\(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) or \(\left(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{-1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)

Question 4.
A line passes through the point with position vector 2î – ĵ + 4k̂ and is in the direction of the vector î + ĵ – 2k̂. Find the equation of the line in cartesian form. (All India 2019)
Answer:
The given line passes through the points having position vector \(\vec{a}_{1}\) = 2î – ĵ + 4k̂ and is parallel to the vector \(\vec{b}\) = (î + ĵ – 2k̂)
∴ The equation of the given line is
\(\vec{r}=\overrightarrow{a_{1}}+\lambda \vec{b}\)
⇒ \(\vec{r}\) = (2î – ĵ + 4k̂) + λ(î + ĵ – 2k̂) ….. (i)
For cartesian equation put \(\vec{r}\) = xî + yĵ + zk̂ in Eq. (i), we get
⇒ (xî + yĵ + zk̂) = (2î – ĵ + 4k̂) + X(î + ĵ – 2k)
⇒ xî + yĵ + zk̂ = (2 + λ) i + (λ – 1) ĵ + (4 – 2λ) k̂
⇒ x = 2 + λ, y = λ – 1 and z = 4 – 2λ
⇒ \(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y+1}{1}=\frac{z-4}{-2}\) = λ
Hence, \(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y+1}{1}=\frac{z-4}{-2}\) is the required equation of the given line in cartesian form.

Question 5.
If a line makes angles 90° and 60°, respectively with the positive directions of X and Y-axes, find the angle which it makes with the positive direction of Z-axis. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Let a line makes angles a, 13 and y with the X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis, respectively.
∴ cos2α + cos2β + cos2 γ = 1
= cos2 90° + cos2 60° + cos2γ = 1
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 2

Question 6.
If a line makes angles 90°, 60° and θ with X, Y and Z-axis respectively, where θ is acute angle, then find θ. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Let l, m and n be the direction cosines of the given line. Then, we have
l = cos 90° = 0,
m = cos 60° = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
and n = cos θ
∵ l2 + m2 + n2 = 1
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 3
[∵ cos θ cannot be negative as θ is an acute angle]
⇒ cos θ = cos 30°
∴ θ = 30°

Question 7.
The equations of a line is 5x – 3 = 15y + 7 = 3 – 10z. Write the direction cosines of the line. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Given equation of a line is
5x – 3 = 15y + 17 = 3 – 10z ……. (i)
Lei us first convert the equation in standard form
\(\frac{x-x_{1}}{a}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{b}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{c}\) ……. (iii)
Let us divide Eq. (i) by LCM (coefficients of x, y and z), i.e. LCM (5, 15, 10) = 30
Now, the Eq. (i) becomes
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 4
On comparing the above equation with Eq.(ii), we get 6, 2, – 3 are the direction ratios of the given line.
Now, the direction cosines of given line are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 5

Question 8.
If a line makes angles a,p,y with the position direction of coordinate axes, then write the value of sin2α + sin2β + sin2 γ. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Given, if a line makes angles a,y with the coordinate axes.
Then, direction cosine of a line are
cos α, cos β, cos γ
∴ sin2α + sin2β + sin2 γ
= 1 – cos2α + 1 – cos2β + 1 – cos2 γ
= 3 – (cos2α + cos2β + cos2 γ)
= 3 – 1 = 2 [∵ cos2α + cos2β + cos2 γ = 1]

Question 9.
Write the distance of a point P(a, b, c) from X-axis. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Firstly, consider any point on X-axis be Q(x, 0, 0). Then, use the formula for distance of points R(x1, y1, z1) from S(x2, y2, z2)
= \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(z_{2}-z_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
Given point is P(a, b, c).
Then, the coordinates of the point on X-axis be (a, 0, 0).
[∵x-coordinate of both points will be same]
∴ Required distance = \(\sqrt{(a-a)^{2}+(0-b)^{2}+(0-c)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{0+b^{2}+c^{2}}=\sqrt{b^{2}+c^{2}}\)

Question 10.
If the cartesian equation of a line is \(\frac{3-x}{5}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{2 z-6}{4}\) then write the vector equation for the line. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given cartesian equation of a line is
\(\frac{3-x}{5}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{2 z-6}{4}\)
On rewriting the given equation in standard form, we get
\(\frac{x-3}{-5}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) = λ (let)
x = – 5λ + 3, y = 7λ – 4 and z = 2λ + 3
Now, xî + yĵ + zk̂ = (- 5λ + 3)î + (7λ – 4)ĵ + (2λ + 3) k̂
= 3î – 4ĵ + 3k̂ + λ(- 5î + 7ĵ) + 2k̂)
∴ \(\vec{r}\) = (3î – 4ĵ + 3k̂) + λ(-5î + 7ĵ + 2k̂)
which is the required equation of line in vector form.

Question 11.
Write the equation of the straight line through the point (α β γ) and parallel to Z-axis. (All India 2014)
Answer:
The vector equation of a line parallel to Z-axis is \(\vec{m}\) = 0î + 0ĵ + 0k̂ Then, the required line passes through the point A(α β γ) whose position vector is \(\vec{r}_{1}\) = αî + βĵ + γk̂ and is parallel to the vector \(\vec{m}\) = (0î + 0ĵ + k̂).
∴ The equation is \(\vec{r}\) = \(\overrightarrow{r_{1}}+\lambda \vec{m}\)
= (αî + βĵ + γk̂) + λ(0î + 0ĵ + 0k̂)
= (αî + βĵ + γk̂) + λ(k̂)

Question 12.
Find the direction cosines of the line \(\frac{4-x}{2}=\frac{y}{6}=\frac{1-z}{3}\) (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given equation line is
\(\frac{4-x}{2}=\frac{y}{6}=\frac{1-z}{3}\)
It can be rewritten in standard form as
\(\frac{x-4}{-2}=\frac{y}{6}=\frac{z-1}{-3}\)
Here, DR’s of the line are (- 2, 6, – 3)
∴ Direction cosines of the line are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 6

Question 13.
Write the vector equation of a line passing through point (1, – 1, 2) and parallel to the line whose equation is \(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z+1}{-2}\). (All India 2013)
Answer:
We know that, the vector equation of a line passing through a point with position vector \(\vec{a}\) and parallel to a given vector \(\vec{b}\) is \(\vec{r}\) = \(\vec{a}+\lambda \vec{b}\)
where λ ∈ R. Here, \(\vec{a}\) = î – ĵ + 2k̂ and \(\vec{b}\) = î + 2ĵ – 2k̂. [∵ DR’sofgivenhineis 1, 2 and – 2]
∴ Required vector equation of line is
\(\vec{r}\) = (î – ĵ + 2k̂) + λ(î + 2ĵ – 2k̂). where λ ∈ R.

Question 14.
Find the cartesian equation of the line which passes through the point (-2, 4, – 5) and is parallel to the line \(\frac{x+3}{3}=\frac{4-y}{5}=\frac{z+8}{6}\) (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
If two lines are parallel, then direction ratios of both lines are proportional. Use this result and simplify it.
Given, the required line is parallel to the line
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 7
∴ DR’s of both lines are proportional to cab other.
The required equation of the line passing through (- 2, 4, – 5) having DR’s (3, – 5, 6) is
\(\frac{x+2}{3}=\frac{y-4}{-5}=\frac{z+5}{6}\)

Question 15.
If a line has direction ratios (2, – 1, – 2), then what are its direction cosines? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Given, DR’s of the tine are (2, – 1, – 2).
∴ Direction cosines of the line are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 8

Question 16.
Write the direction cosines of the line joining the points (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 1). (All India 2011)
Answer:
Clearly, the direction ratios of line joining the points (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 1) are 0 – 1, 1 – 0 and 1 – 0, i.e. – 1, 1 and 1
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 9

Question 17.
Write the vector equation of the line given by \(\frac{x-5}{3}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{z-6}{2}\) (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
\(\vec{r}\) = (5î – 4ĵ + 6k̂) + λ(3î + 7ĵ + 2k̂)

Question 18.
Equation of line is \(\frac{4-x}{2}=\frac{y+3}{2}=\frac{z+2}{1}\)
Find the direction cosines of a line parallel to above line. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Given equation of line can be written as
\(\frac{x-4}{-2}=\frac{y+3}{2}=\frac{z+2}{1}\)
Here, DR’s of a line are (- 2, 2, 1).
∴ DC’s of line parallel to above line are given by
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 10

NOTE: Before we can use the DR’s of a line, first we ensure that coefficients of x, y, and z are unity with positive sign.

Question 19.
If the equations of line AB is \(\frac{3-x}{1}=\frac{y+2}{-2}=\frac{z-5}{4}\), then write the direction ratios of the line parallel to above line AB. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given equation of line can be written as
\(\frac{x-3}{-1}=\frac{y+2}{-2}=\frac{z-5}{4}\)
∴ DR’s of the line parallel to above line are (- 1, – 2, 4).
[∵ direction ratios of two parallel lines are proportional]

Question 20.
Find the distance of point (2, 3, 4) from X-axis. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
5 units

Question 21.
Write the vector equation of the following \(\frac{x-5}{3}=\frac{y+4}{7}=\frac{6-z}{2}\) (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
\(\vec{r}\) = (5î – 4ĵ + 6k̂) + λ(3î + 7ĵ – 2k̂)

Question 22.
Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point A (1,2, – 1) and parallel to the line 5x – 25 = 14 – 7y = 35 z. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given line is 5x – 25 = 14 – 7y = 35z.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 11
⇒ Direction ratio of the given line are \(\frac{1}{5},-\frac{1}{7}, \frac{1}{35}\).
⇒ Direction ratio of a line parallel to the given line are \(\frac{1}{5},-\frac{1}{7}, \frac{1}{35}\).
∴ The required equation of a line passing through the point A(1, 2, – 1) and parallel to the given line is
\(\frac{x-1}{1 / 5}=\frac{y-2}{-1 / 7}=\frac{z+1}{1 / 35}\)

Question 23.
The x-coordinate of a point on the line joining the points P(2, 2, 1) and Q(5, 1, – 2) is 4. Find its z-coordinate. (All India 2017)
Answer:
The equation of line joining the points.
P(2, 2, 1) and Q(5, 1, – 2) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 12

Question 24.
Find the value of λ, so that the lines \(\frac{1-x}{3}=\frac{7 y-14}{\lambda}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) and \(\frac{7-7 x}{3 \lambda}=\frac{y-5}{1}=\frac{6-z}{5}\) are at right angles. Also, find whether the lines are intersecting or not. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given equation of lines can be written in standard form as
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 13
[∵ two lines with DR’s a1, b1, c1 and a2, b2, c2 are perpendicular if a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0]
⇒ \(\frac{9 \lambda}{7}+\frac{\lambda}{7}\) = 10 ⇒ \(\frac{10 \lambda}{7}\) = 10 ⇒ λ = 7,
which is the required value of λ.
Now, let us check whether the lines are intersecting or not.
Coordinates of any point on line (i) are
(- 3r1 + 1, r1 + 2, 2r1 + 3)
and coordinates of any point on line (ii) are
(- 3r2 + 1, r2 + 5, – 5r2 + 6)
Clearly, the line will intersect if
(- 3r1 + 1, r1 + 2, 2r1 + 3) = (- 3r2 + 1, r2 + 5, – 5r2 + 6)
For some r1, r2 ∈ R
⇒ – 3r1 + 1 = – 3r2 + 1; r1 + 2 = r2 + 5; 2r1 + 3 = – 5r2 + 6
⇒ r1 = r2; r1 – r2 = 3; 2r1 + 5r2 = 3
which is not possible simultaneously for any r1, r2 ∈ R.
Hence, the lines arc not intersecting.

Question 25.
If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{-3}=\frac{y-2}{2 \lambda}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{3 \lambda}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-6}{-5}\) are perpendicular, find the value of λ. Hence find whether the lines are intersecting or not. (All India 2019)
Answer:
λ = – 2, does not intersect

Question 26.
Find the shortest distance between the lines \(\vec{r}\) = (4î – ĵ) + λ(î + 2ĵ – 3k̂) and \(\vec{r}\) = (î – ĵ + 2k̂) + μ(2î + 4ĵ – 5k̂). (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Given equation of lines are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 14

Question 27.
Find the shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{4}\) and \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-4}{4}=\frac{z-5}{5}\). (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 15

Question 28.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of the line through the point (1, 2, – 4) and perpendicular to the two lines
\(\vec{r}\) = (8î – 19ĵ + 10k̂) + λ(3î – 16ĵ + 7k̂) and
\(\vec{r}\) = (15î + 29ĵ + 5k̂) + µ (3î + 8ĵ – 5k̂). (Delhi 2016)
Or
Find the equation of a line passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and perpendicular to two lines
\(\vec{r}\) = (8î – 19ĵ + 10k̂) + λ(3î – 16ĵ + 7k̂) and
\(\vec{r}\) = (15î + 29ĵ + 5k̂) + µ (3î + 8ĵ – 5k̂). (All India 2015)
Answer:
Given equations of lines are
\(\vec{r}\) = (8î – 19ĵ + 10k̂) + λ(3î – 16ĵ + 7k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = (15î + 29ĵ + 5k̂) + µ (3î + 8ĵ – 5k̂)
On comparing with vector form of equation of a line, i.e. \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+\lambda \vec{b}\), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 16
= î(80 – 56) – ĵ(- 15 – 21) + k̂(24 + 48)
= 24î + 36ĵ + 72k̂ = 12(2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂)
Since, the required line is perpendicular to the given lines. So, it is parallel to \(\vec{b}_{1} \times \vec{b}_{2}\). Now, the equation of a line passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and parallel to 24î + 36ĵ + 72k̂ or (2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂) is
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ – 4k̂) + λ(2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂)
which is required vector equation of a line.
For cartesian equation, put \(\vec{r}\) = xî + yĵ + zk̂
we get
xî + yĵ + zk̂ = (1 + 2λ)Î + (2+ 3λ)ĵ + (- 4 + 6λ)k̂
On comparing the coefficients of î, ĵ and k̂, we get
x = 1 + 2λ, y = 2 + 3λ and z = – 4 + 6λ
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 17
which is the required cartesian equation of a line .

Alternate Method:
Let the equation of line passing through (1, 2, -4) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 18
⇒ b1 = 2k, b2 = 3k and b3 = 6k. for some constant k.
Thus, the required vector equation of line is
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ – 4k̂) + λ(2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂).
where λ = λ1k is any constant.
Now, for cartesian equation do same as in above method.

Question 29.
Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point A (- 1, 8, 4) to the line joining the points B(0, – 1, 3) and C(2, – 3, – 1). Hence, find the image of the point A in the line BC. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Clearly, the equation of a line joining the points B (0, – 1, 3) and C (2, – 3, – 1) is
\(\vec{r}\) = (0î – ĵ + 3k̂) + λ[(2 – 0)î + (- 3 + 1)ĵ + (- 1 – 3)k̂]
⇒ \(\vec{r}\) = (- ĵ + 3k̂) + λ(2î – 2ĵ – 4k̂)
⇒ \(\vec{r}\) = (2λ)î + (- 2λ – 1)ĵ + (- 4λ + 3)k̂
So. any point on line BC is to the form
(2λ, – 2λ – 1, – 4λ + 3)
Let foot of the perpendicular drawn from point A to the line BC be T(2λ, – 2λ – 1, – 4λ + 3).
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 19
Now, DR’s of line AT is (2λ + 1, – 2λ – 1 – 8, – 4λ + 3 – 4) or (2λ + 1, 2λ – 9, – 4λ – 1).
Since, AT is perpendicular to BC.
∴ 2 × (2λ + 1) + (- 2) × (- 2λ – 9) + (- 4) (- 4λ – 1) = 0
[∵ a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0]
⇒ 4λ + 2 + 4λ + 18 + 16λ + 4 = 0
⇒ 24λ + 24 = 0
∴ Coordinates of foot of perpendicular is
T (2 × (- 1)), – 2 × (- 1) – 1, – 4 × (- 1) + 3) or T(- 2, 1, 7)
Let P(x, y, z) be the image of a point A with respect to the line BC. So, point T is the mid-point of AP.
∴ Coordinates of T = Coordinates of mid-point of AP
⇒ (- 2, 1, 7) = \(\left(\frac{x-1}{2}, \frac{y+8}{2}, \frac{z+4}{2}\right)\)
On equating the corresponding coordinates, we get
– 2 = \(\frac{x-1}{2}\), 1 = \(\frac{1+8}{2}\) and 7 = \(\frac{z+4}{2}\)
⇒ x = -3, y = – 6 and z = 10

Question 30.
Prove that the line through A (0, – 1, – 1) and B(4, 5, 1) intersects the line through C (3, 9, 4) and D (- 4, 4, 4). (Foregin 2016)
Answer:
The equation of line through A(0, -1, -1) and B(4, 5, 5) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 20
= 3(0 + 10) – 10 (0 + 14) + 5 (- 20 + 42)
= 30 – 140 + 110 = 0
Hence, the given lines intersect.

Question 31.
Show that the lines
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ – k̂) + λ(3î – ĵ)and
\(\vec{r}\) = (4î – k̂) + µ(2î + 3k̂) intersect. Also, find their point of intersection. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given lines can be rewritten as
\(\vec{r}\) = (3λ + 1)î + (1 – λ)ĵ – k̂
and \(\vec{r}\) = (4 + 2µ)î + 0ĵ + (3µ – 1)k̂ ……(ii)
Clearly, any point on line (j) is of the form P (3λ + 1, 1 – λ, – 1)and any point on tine (ii) is of the form Q (4 + 2µ, 0, 3µ – 1)
If lines (i) and (ii) intersect, then these points must coincide for some λ and µ.
Consider, 3λ + 1 = 4 + 2µ
⇒ 3λ – 2µ = 3 …….. (iii)
1 – λ = 0 ……. (iv)
and 3µ – 1 = – 1 ………. (v)
From Eq. (iv), we get λ = 1 and put the value of λ in Eq. (iii), we get
3(1) – 2µ = 3
⇒ – 2µ = 3 – 3 ⇒ µ = 0
On putting the value of µ in Eq. (V), we get
3(0) – 1 = – 1 ⇒ 0 – 1 = – 1
⇒ – 1 = – 1,
which is true
Hence, both lines intersect each other.
The point of intersection of both lines can be obtained by putting λ = 1 in coordinates of P. So, the point of intersection is (3 + 1, 1 – 1, – 1). i.e. (4, 0, – 1).

Question 32.
Find the direction cosines of the line \(\frac{x+2}{2}=\frac{2 y-7}{6}=\frac{5-z}{6}\). Also, find the vector equation of the line through the point A(-1, 2, 3) and parallel to the given line. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given equation of line is
\(\frac{x+2}{2}=\frac{2 y-7}{6}=\frac{5-z}{6}\)
This equation can be written as
\(\frac{x+2}{2}=\frac{y-7 / 2}{3}=\frac{z-5}{-6}\)
So, direction ratios of line are (2, 3, – 6)
Now, direction cosines of a line are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 21
Here, DR’S of a line parallel to given line are (2, 3, – 6). So. the required equation of line passes through the point A(- 1, 2, 3) and parallel to given line is
\(\frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{-6}\)

Question 33.
Find the angle between the lines
\(\vec{r}\) = 2î – 5ĵ + k̂ + λ(3î + 2ĵ + 6k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = 7î – 6ĵ – 6k̂ + µ(î + 2ĵ + 2k̂). (Foreign 2014; All India 2008C)
Answer:
If vector form of lines are \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}_{1}+\lambda \overrightarrow{b_{1}}\) and \(\vec{r}=\overrightarrow{a_{2}}+\lambda \overrightarrow{b_{2}}\), then angle between them is
cos θ = \(\frac{\left|\overrightarrow{b_{1}} \cdot \overrightarrow{b_{2}}\right|}{\left|\overrightarrow{b_{1}}\right|\left|\overrightarrow{b_{2}}\right|}\)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 22

Question 34.
Show that the lines = \(\frac{x+1}{3}=\frac{y+3}{5}=\frac{z+5}{7}\) and \(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y-4}{3}=\frac{z-6}{5}\) intersect. Also, find their point of intersection. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given lines are
\(\frac{x+1}{3}=\frac{y+3}{5}=\frac{z+5}{7}\) = λ (let) ……. (i)
and \(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y-4}{3}=\frac{z-6}{5}\) = μ (let) ……. (ii)
Then, any point on line (i) is of the form
P(3λ – 1, 5λ – 3, 7λ – 5) …….. (iii)
and any point on line (ii) is of the form
Q(μ + 2, 3μ + 4, 5μ + 6) ……… (iv)
If lines (i) and (ii) intersect, then these points must coincide for some λ and μ.
consider, 3λ – 1 = μ + 2
5λ – 3 = 3μ + 4
and 7λ – 5 = 5μ + 6
⇒ 3λ – μ = 3 ……… (v)
5λ – 3μ = 7 ……. (vi)
and 7λ – 5μ = 11 ……. (viii)
On multiplying Eq. (v) by 3 and then subtracting Eq. (vi), we get
9λ – 3μ – 5λ + 3μ = 9 – 7
4λ = 2
λ = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
On putting the value of λ in Eq. (v), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 23

Question 35.
Find the value of p, so that the lines
l1: \(\frac{1-x}{3}=\frac{7 y-14}{p}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) and
l2: \(\frac{7-7 x}{3 p}=\frac{y-5}{1}=\frac{6-z}{5}\) are
perpendicular to each other. Also, find the equation of a line passing through a point (3, 2, – 4) and parallel to line l1. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Also, we know that, the equation of a line which passes through the point (x1, y1, z1) with direction ratios a, b, c is given by
\(\frac{x-x_{1}}{a}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{b}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{c}\)
Since, required line is parallel to line l1.
So, a = – 3, b = \(\frac{7}{7}\) = 1 and c=2
Now, equation of line passing through the point (3, 2, – 4) and having direction ratios (- 3, 1, 2) is
\(\frac{x-3}{-3}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z+4}{2}\)
∴ \(\frac{x-3}{-3}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z+4}{2}\)

Question 36.
A line passes through the point (2, – 1, 3) and is perpendicular to the lines
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ – k̂) + λ (2î – 2ĵ + k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = (2î – ĵ – 3k̂) + µ(î + 2ĵ + 2k̂).
Obtain its equation in vector and cartesian forms. (All India 2014)
Answer:
\(\vec{r}\) = (2î – ĵ + 3k̂) + λ (-6î – 3ĵ + 6k̂) and \(\frac{2-x}{6}=\frac{-y-1}{3}=\frac{z-3}{6}\)

Question 37.
Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are \(\vec{r}\) = î + ĵ + λ(2î – ĵ + k) and \(\vec{r}\) = 2î + ĵ – k̂ + µ(3î – 5ĵ + 2k̂). (Foreign 2014; Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 24

Question 38.
Find the shortest distance between the two lines whose vector equations are
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ – 3k̂) + λ (î – 3ĵ + 2k̂) and
\(\vec{r}\) = (4î + 5ĵ + 6k̂) + µ(2î + 3ĵ + k̂). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
\(\frac{9}{\sqrt{171}}\)

Question 39.
Find the shortest distance between the following lines.
\(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-5}{-2}=\frac{z-7}{1}, \frac{x+1}{7}=\frac{y+1}{-6}=\frac{z+1}{1}\)
(Foreign 2014: Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Given equations of lines are
\(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-5}{-2}=\frac{z-7}{1}\) …… (i)
and \(\frac{x+1}{7}=\frac{y+1}{-6}=\frac{z+1}{1}\) ……. (ii)
On comparing above equations with one point form of equation of line, i.e.,
\(\frac{x-x_{1}}{a}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{b}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{c}\), we get
a1 = 1, b1 = – 2, c1 = 1, x1 = 3, y1 = 5, z1 = 7 and a2 = 7, b2 = – 6, c2 = 1, x2 = -1 , y2 = -1, z2 = – 1
We know that, the shortest distance between two lines is given by
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 25

Question 40.
Find the distance between the lines l1 and l2 given by
l1:\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ – 4k̂) + λ (2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂)
l2:\(\vec{r}\) = (3î + 3ĵ – 5k̂) + µ(4î + 6ĵ + 12k̂). (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given equation lines are
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ – 4k̂) + λ (2î + 3ĵ + 6k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = (3î + 3ĵ – 5k̂) + µ(4î + 6ĵ + 12k̂).
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 26

Question 41.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of the line passing through the point (2, 1, 3) and perpendicular to the lines
\(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-3}{3}\)
and \(\frac{x}{-3}=\frac{y}{2}=\frac{z}{5}\) (All India 2014)
Answer:
Any line through the point (2, 1, 3) can be written as
\(\frac{x-2}{a}=\frac{y-1}{b}=\frac{z-3}{c}\) …… (i)
where, a, b and c are the direction ratios of line (i).
Now, the line (i) is perpendicular to the lines
\(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-3}{3}\)
and \(\frac{x-0}{-3}=\frac{y-0}{2}=\frac{z-0}{5}\)
Direction ratios of these two lines are (1, 2, 3) and (- 3, 2, 5), respectively.
We know that, if two lines arc perpendicular, then
a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
∴ a + 2b + 3c = 0 ….. (ii)
and – 3a + 2b + 5c = 0 …… (iii)
In Eqs. (ii) and (iii), by cross-multiplication we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 27
On substituting the values of a, b and c in Eq. (1),
we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 28
which is the required cartesian equation of the line.
The vector equation of line which passes through (2, 1, 3) and parallel to the vector 2î – 7ĵ + 4k̂ is
\(\vec{r}\) = 2î + ĵ + 3k̂ + λ (2î – 7ĵ + 4k̂)
which is the required vector equation of the line.

Question 42.
The cartesian equation of a line is 6x – 2 = 3y + 1 = 2z – 2. Find the direction cosines of the line. Write down the cartesian and vector equations of a line passing through (2, – 1, – 1) which are parallel to the given line. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Given equation of line is
6x – 2 = 3y + 1 = 2z – 2
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 29
Here, DR’s of the line are (1, 2, 3).
∴ Direction cosines of the line are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 30
The equation of a line passing through (2, – 1, – 1) and parallel o the given line is
\(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z+1}{3}\) = λ (say)
[∵ \(\frac{x-x_{1}}{a}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{b}=\frac{z-z_{\mathrm{I}}}{c}\)]
⇒ x = 2 + λ, y = – 1 + 2λ and z = – 1 + 3λ
Now, xî + yĵ + zk̂ = (2 + λ)î + (- 1 + 2λ)ĵ + (- 1 + 3λ)k̂
∴ \(\vec{r}\) = (2î + ĵ + k̂) + λ (î + 2ĵ + 3k̂)
which is the required equation of line in vector form.

Question 43.
Find the shortest distance between the two lines whose vector equations are
\(\vec{r}\) = (6î + 2ĵ + 2k̂) + λ(î – 2ĵ + 2k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = (- 4î – k̂) + µ(3î – 2ĵ – 2k̂). (Delhi 2013C Foreign 2011)
Answer:
9 units

Question 44.
Show that the lines
\(\vec{r}\) = 3î + 2ĵ – 4k̂ + λ(î + 2ĵ + 2k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = 5î – 2ĵ + µ(3î + 2ĵ + 6k̂)
are intersecting. Hence, find their point of intersection. (All India 2013)
Answer:
(- 1, – 6, – 12)

Question 45.
Using vectors, show that the points
A(- 2, 3, 5), B(7, 0, – 1), C(- 3, – 2, – 5) and D(3, 4,7) are such that AB and CD intersect at the point P(1, 2, 3). (All India 2012C)
Answer:
The vector equation of line AB is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 31
Clearly, any point on the line (i) is of the form
P(9λ – 2, – 3λ + 3, – 6λ + 5)
and any point on the line (ii) is of the form
Q(6µ – 3, 6µ – 2, 12µ – 5)
If lines (i) and (ii) intersect, then these points must coincide for some λ and µ.
Consider, 9λ – 2= 6µ – 3, – 3λ + 3 = 6µ – 2
and – 6λ + 5 = 12µ – 5
9λ – 6µ = – 1 ….. (iii)
3λ + 6µ = 5 ….. (iv)
and 6λ + 12µ = 10 ……. (v)
On adding Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get
12λ = 4
⇒ λ = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
On substituting λ = \(\frac{1}{3}\) in Eq. (iv), we get
6µ = 5 – 1
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 32

Question 46.
Computing the shortest distance between the following pair of lines, determine whether they intersect or not?
\(\vec{r}\) = (î – ĵ) + λ(2î – 2k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = 2î – ĵ + µ(î – ĵ – k̂) (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
lines do not intersect
Hint: A pair of tines will intersect, if the shortest distance between them is zero.

Question 47.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (- 1, 3, – 2) and perpendicular to the lines (Delhi 2012)
\(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y}{2}=\frac{z}{3}\) and \(\frac{x+2}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z+1}{5}\).
Answer:
\(\frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{-7}=\frac{z+2}{4}\)

Question 48.
Find the angle between following pair of lines
\(\frac{-x+2}{-2}=\frac{y-1}{7}=\frac{z+3}{-3}\)
and \(\frac{x+2}{-1}=\frac{2 y-8}{4}=\frac{z-5}{4}\)
and check whether the lines are parallel or perpendicular. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, convert the given lines in standard form and then use the formula
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 33
to get the required angle.

Given equations of two lines are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 34
Hence, the angle between them is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). Therefore, the given pair of lines are perpendicular to each other.

NOTE Please be careful while taking DR’s of a line, the line should be in symmetrical or in standard form, otherwise there may be chances of error.

Question 49.
Find the shortest distance between lines whose vector equations are
\(\vec{r}\) = (1 – t) î + (t – 2) ĵ + (3 – 2t) k̂
\(\vec{r}\) = (s + 1) î + (2s – 1) ĵ – (2s + 1) k̂. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, convert both the vector equations in the form \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+\lambda \vec{b}\). Then, apply the shortest distance formula,
i.e. d = \(\left|\frac{\left(\overrightarrow{b_{1}} \times \overrightarrow{b_{2}}\right) \cdot\left(\overrightarrow{a_{2}}-\overrightarrow{a_{1}}\right)}{\left|\overrightarrow{b_{1}} \times \overrightarrow{b_{2}}\right|}\right|\)

Given equations of lines are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 35

Question 50.
Find shortest distance between the lines \(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ + k̂) + λ(î – ĵ + k̂) and \(\vec{r}\) = (2î – ĵ – k̂) + µ(2î + ĵ + 2k̂). (Foreign 2011; All India 2009)
Answer:
\(\frac{3 \sqrt{2}}{2}\) units

Question 51.
Find the equation of the perpendicular from point (3, – 1, 11) to line \(\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{4}\). Also, find the coordinates of foot of perpendicular and the length of perpendicular (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Firstly, determine any point P on the given line and DR’s between given point Q and P, using the relation a1 a2 + b1 b2 + c1 c2 = 0 where (a1, b1, c1) and (a2, b2, c2) are DR’s of PO and given line.

Given equation of AB is
\(\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{4}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = 2λ, y = 3λ + 2 and z = 4λ + 3
∴ Any point P on the given line
= (2λ, 3λ + 2, 4λ + 3)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 36
Let P be the foot of perpendicular drawn from point Q(3, – 1, 11) on line AB. Now, DR’s of line
QP = (2λ – 3, 3λ + 2 + 1,4λ + 3 – 11)
= (2λ – 3, 3λ + 3, 4λ – 8)
Here, a1 = 2λ – 3, b1 = 3λ + 3, c1 = 4λ – 8,
and a2 = 2, b2 = 3, c2 = 4
Since, QP ⊥ AB
∴ We have, a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
⇒ 2(2λ – 3) + 3(3λ + 3) + 4(4λ – 8) = 0
⇒ 4λ – 6 + 9 + 9 + 16λ – 32 = 0
⇒ 29λ – 29 = 0 ⇒ 29λ = 29 ⇒ λ = 1
∴ Foot of perpendicular P = (2, 3 + 2, 4 + 3) = (2, 5, 7)
Now, equation of perpendicular QP’, where Q(3, – 1, 11) and P(2, 5, 7), is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 37
Now, length of perpendicular QP = distance between points Q(3, -1, 11) and P (2, 5, 7)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 38
Hence, length of perpendicular is √53

Question 52.
Find the perpendicular distance of point (1, 0, 0) from the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y+1}{-3}=\frac{z+10}{8}\). Also, find the coordinates of foot of perpendicular and equation of perpendicular. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Length of perpendicular is √24.
Coordinates of foot of perpendicular = (3, – 4, – 2)
∴ Equation of perpendicular is = \(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y}{-2}=\frac{z}{-1}\)

Question 53.
Find the points on the line \(\frac{x+2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) at a distance of 5 units from the point P(1, 3, 3). (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given equation of line is
\(\frac{x+2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = 3λ – 2, y = 2λ – 1, z = 2λ + 3
So, we have a point on the line is
Q(3λ – 2, 2λ – 1, 2λ + 3) ……… (i)
Now, given that distance between two points
P(1, 3, 3) and Q (3λ – 2, 2λ – 1, 2λ + 3) is 5 units, i.e. PQ = 5,
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 39
On squaring both sides, we get
(3λ – 3)2 + (2λ – 4)2 + (2λ)2 = 25
⇒ 9λ2 + 19 – 18λ + 4λ2 + 16 – 16λ + 4λ2 = 25
⇒ 17λ2 – 34λ = 0 ⇒ 17λ (λ – 2) = 0
⇒ Either 17λ = 0 or λ – 2 = 0
∴ λ = 0 or 2
On putting λ = 0 and λ = 2 in Eq. (1), we get the required point as (- 2, – 1, 3) or (4, 3, 7).

Question 54.
Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular and the length of the perpendicular drawn from the point P( 5, 4, 2) to the line
\(\vec{r}\) = – î + 3ĵ + k̂ + λ (2î + 3ĵ – k̂).
Also, find the image of P in this line. (All India 2012)
Answer:
(i) Foot of perpendicular is (1, 6, 0)], Image of P is (- 3, 8, – 2)].

(ii) Length of perpendicular
= \(\sqrt{(5-1)^{2}+(4-6)^{2}+(2-0)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{4^{2}+2^{2}+2^{2}}\)
= √24 = 2√6 uniits

Question 55.
Find the equation of line passing through points A (0, 6,- 9) and B (- 3, – 6, 3). If D is the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point C (7,4, – 1) on the line AB, then find the coordinates of point D and equation of line CD. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
We know that, equation of line passing through the points (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) is given by
\(\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{z_{2}-z_{1}}\) ……. (i)
Here, A(x1, y1, z1) = (0, 6,- 9)
and B(x2, y2, z2) = (- 3, – 6, 3)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 40
Next, we have to find coordinates of foot of perpendicular D.
Now, let = \(\frac{x}{-1}=\frac{y-6}{-4}=\frac{z+9}{4}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = – λ,
y – 6 = – 4λ and z + 9 = 4λ
x = – λ, y =- 4λ + 6 and z = 4λ – 9
Let coordinates of
D = (- λ, – 4λ + 6, 4λ – 9) ….. (ii)
Now, DR’s of line CD are
(- λ – 7, – 4λ + 6 – 4, 4λ – 9 + 1)
⇒ (- λ – 7, – 4λ + 2, 4λ – 8)
Now, CD ⊥ AB
∴ a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
where, a1 = – λ – 7, b1 = – 4λ + 2,
c1 = 4λ – 8 [DR’s of line CDI
and a2 = – 1, b2 = – 4, c2 = 4
[DR’s of line AB]
⇒ (- λ – 7)(- 1) + (- 4λ + 2)(- 4) + (4λ – 8)4=0
⇒ λ + 7 + 16λ – 8 + 16λ – 32 = 0
⇒ 33λ – 33 = 0
⇒ 33λ = 33
∴ λ = 1
On putting λ = 1 in Eq. (ii). we get required foot of perpendicular,
D = (- 1, 2, – 5)
Also, we have to find equation of line CD, where
C(7, 4, – 1) and D(- 1, 2, – 5)
∴ Required equation of line is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 41

Question 56.
Find the image of the point (1, 6, 3) on the line \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-2}{3}\). Also, write the equation of the line joining the given points and its image and find the length of segment joining given point and its image. (Delhi 2010c)
Answer:
Firstly, find the coordinates of foot of perpendicular Q. Then, find the image which is point T by using the fact that Q is the mid-point of line PT. Further, use the formula for equation of line \(\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{z_{2}-z_{1}}\) and distance between two points
⇒ \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(z_{2}-z_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
Let T be the image of the point P (1, 6, 3). Q is the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P on the line AB.
Given equation of line AB is
\(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-2}{3}\)
Let \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-2}{3}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = λ, y – 1 = 2λ, z – 2 = 3λ
x = λ, y = 2λ + 1, z = 3λ + 2
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 42
Then, coordinates of Q
⇒ (λ, 2λ + 1, 3λ + 2) ……. (ii)
Now DR’s of line PQ
⇒ (λ – 1, 2λ + 1 – 6, 3λ + 2 – 3)
⇒ (λ – 1, 2λ – 5, 3λ – 1)
Since, line PQ ⊥ AB.
Therefore, a1 a2 + b1 b2 + c1 c2 = 0,
where a1 = λ – 1, b1 = 2λ – 5, C1 = 3λ – 1
and a2 = 1, b2 = 2, c2 = 3
∴ (λ – 1)1 + (2λ – 5)2 + (3λ – 1)3 = 0
λ – 1 + 4λ – 10 + 9λ – 3 = 0
14λ – 14 = 0
λ = 1
On putting λ = 1 in Eq. (ii), we get
Q = (1, 2 + 1, 3 + 2) = (1, 3, 5)
Let image of a point P be T(x, y, z). Then, Q will be the mid-point of PT.
By using mid-point formula, (1)
Q = mid-point of P(1, 6, 3) and T(x, y, z)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 43
x = 2 – 1, y = 6 – 6, z = 10 – 3
x = 1, y = 0, z = 7
∴ Coordinates of T = (x, y, z) = (1, 0, 7)
Hence, coordinates of image of point P(1, 6, 3) is T(1, 0, 7).
Now, equation of line joining points P(1, 6, 3) and T(1, 0, 7) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 44
Also, length of segment PT
= \(\sqrt{(1-1)^{2}+(6-0)^{2}+(3-7)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{0+36+16}\) = √52 units

Question 57.
Write the vector equations of following lines and hence find the distance between them.
\(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z+4}{6}\)
\(\frac{x-3}{4}=\frac{y-3}{6}=\frac{z+5}{12}\) (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given equations of lines are
\(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z+4}{6}\)
and \(\frac{x-3}{4}=\frac{y-3}{6}=\frac{z+5}{12}\)
Now, the vector equation of given lines are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 45
since, DR’s of given lines are proportional]
Since, the two lines are parallel, we use the formula for shortest distance between two parallel lines
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 46

Question 58.
The points A (4, 5, 10), B (2, 3, 4) and C (1,2, – 1) are three vertices of parallelogram ABCD. Find the vector equations of sides AB and BC and also find coordinates of point D. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The vector equation of a side of a parallelogram, when two points are given, is \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+\lambda(\vec{b}-\vec{a})\) Also, the diagonals of a parallelogram intersect each other at mid-point.
Given points are A (4, 5, 10), B (2, 3, 4) and C(1, 2,- 1).
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 47
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 48

Question 59.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of a line passing through (1, 2, – 4) and perpendicular to the two lines \(\frac{x-8}{3}=\frac{y+19}{-16}=\frac{z-10}{7}\) and \(\frac{x-15}{3}=\frac{y-29}{8}=\frac{z-5}{-5}\) (Delhi 2017, 12)
Answer:
Any line through (1, 2, – 4) can be written as
\(\frac{x-1}{a}=\frac{y-2}{b}=\frac{z+4}{c}\)
where a,b,c are the direction ratios of line (i)
Now, the line (i) be perpendicular to the lines
\(\frac{x-8}{3}=\frac{y+19}{-16}=\frac{z-10}{7}\)
and \(\frac{x-15}{3}=\frac{y-29}{8}=\frac{z-5}{-5}\)
The direction ratios of the above lines are (3, – 16, 7) and (3, 8, – 5), respectively which are perpendicular to the Eq. (i).

Plane

Question 1.
Find the distance between the planes 2x – y + 2z = 5 and 5x – 2.5y +5z = 20. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, 2x – y + 2z = 5
⇒ 2x – y + 2z – 5 = 0
and 5x – 2.5y + 5z = 20
⇒ 5[x – 0.5y + z]= 20
⇒ x – \(\frac{1}{2}\)y + z = 4
⇒ 2x – y + 2z = 8
⇒ 2x – y + 2z – 8 = 0 ……. (ii)
Clearly, planes (i) and (ii) are parallel.
∴ Distance between two parallel planes,
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 49

Question 2.
Find the vector equation of a plane which is at a distance of 5 units from the origin and its normal vector is 2î – 3ĵ + 6k̂. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given \(\vec{n}\) = 2î – 3ĵ + 6k̂ and d = 5
We know that, equation of a plane having distance d from origin and normal vector n̂ is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 50

Question 3.
Write the sum of intercepts cut off by the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ – k̂) – 5 = 0 on the three axes. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given, equation of plane is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 51
On comparing plane (i) with standard equation of plane in intercept form
\(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}\) = 1, we get
a = \(\frac{5}{2}\), b = 5 and c = —5
Now, required sum of intercepts cut off by the plane on the three axes = a + b + c
= \(\frac{5}{2}\) + 5 – 5 = \(\frac{5}{2}\) units

Question 4.
Find the vector equation of the plane with intercepts 3,-4 and 2 on X, Y and Z-axes, respectively (All India 2016)
Answer:
The equation of plane having intercepts 3, – 4 and 2 is
\(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{-4}+\frac{z}{2}\) = 1
⇒ 4x – 3y + 6z =12, which can be written as
(xî + yĵ + zk̂) ∙ (4î – 3ĵ + 6k̂) = 12
⇒ \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (4î – 3ĵ + 6k̂) = 12
which is the required vector equation of the given.

Question 5.
Write the equation of a plane which is at a distance of 5√3 units from origin and the normal to which is equally inclined to coordinate axes. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Since, the normal to the plane is equally inclined with coordinates axes, therefore its direction cosines are \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) and \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\).
Now, the required equation of plane is
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \cdot x+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \cdot y+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \cdot z\) = 5√3
⇒ x + y + z = 15
[∵ If l, m and n are DC’s of normal to the plane and P is a distance of a plane from origin, then equation of plane is given by lx+ my + nz = p

Question 6.
Find the sum of the intercepts cut off by the plane 2x + y – z = 5, on the coordinate axes. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
\(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 7.
Write the vector equation of the line passing through (1, 2, 3) and perpendicular to the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î + 2ĵ – 5k̂) + 9 = 0. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Clearly, the vector equation of the line passing through a point with position vector
\(\vec{a}\) = î + 2ĵ + 3k̂, is given by \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+\lambda \vec{b}/latex]
= [latex]\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ + 3k̂) + λ\(\vec{b}\)
Since, the line is perpendicular to the plane
\(\vec{r}\) . (î + 2ĵ – 5k̂) + 9 = 0
Therefore, \(\vec{b}\) will be normal to the plane and so
\(\vec{b}\) = î + 2ĵ – 5k̂
Hence, the required equation of line is
\(\vec{r}\) = (î + 2ĵ + 3k̂) + λ(î + 2ĵ – 5k̂)

Question 8.
Write the vector equation of the plane passing through the point (a, b, c) and parallel to the plane \(\vec{r}\) . (î + ĵ + k̂) = 2 (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The required plane is passing through the point
(a, b, c) whose position vector is \(\vec{p}\) = aî + bĵ + ck̂ and is parallel to the plane \(\vec{r}\) . (î + ĵ + k̂) = 2
So, it is normal to the vector
\(\vec{n}\) = î + ĵ + k̂
Hence, required equation of plane is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 52

Question 9.
Find the length of the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the plane 2x – 3y + 6z + 21 = 0. (All India 2013)
Answer:
The distance from point (x1, y1, z1) to the plane
Ax + By + Cz + D = 0 is \(\frac{A x_{1}+B y_{1}+C z_{1}+D}{\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+C^{2}}}\)
Given equation of plane is
2x – 3y + 6z + 21 = 0 …… (i)
∴ Length of the perpendicular drawn from the origin to this plane
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 53

Question 10.
Find distance of the plane 3x- 4y + 12z = 3 from the origin. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{13}\) unit

Question 11.
Write the intercept cut-off by plane 2x + y – z = 5 on X-axis. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, we convert the given equation of plane in intercept form, i.e. \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}\) = 1, which cut the x-axis at (a, 0, 0).
Given equation of plane is 2x + y – z = 5
On dividing both sides by 5, we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 54
On comparing above equation of plane with the intercept form of equation of plane
\(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}\) = 1
where, a = x-intercept, b = y-intercept and c = z-intercept
we get, a = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
i.e. intercept cut-off on X-axis = \(\frac{5}{2}\) units

Question 12.
Write the distance of following plane from origin. 2x – y + 2z + 1 = 0 (All India 2010)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{3}\) unit

Question 13.
Find the value of λ, such that the line \(\frac{x-2}{6}=\frac{y-1}{\lambda}=\frac{z+5}{-4}\) is perpendicular to the plane 3x – y – 2z = 7. (All India 2010c)
Answer:
Given, line \(\frac{x-2}{6}=\frac{y-1}{\lambda}=\frac{z+5}{-4}\) is perpendicular to plane 3x – y – 2z = 7.
Therefore, DR’s of the line are proportional to the
DR’s normal to the plane.
∴ \(\frac{6}{3}=\frac{\lambda}{-1}=\frac{-4}{-2}\)
⇒ 2 = – λ ⇒ λ = – 2

Question 14.
Find the cartesian and vector equations of the plane passing through the points A(2, 5, – 3), B(- 2, – 3, 5) and C(5, 3, – 3). (All India 2019)
Answer:
The given points are A(2, 5, – 3), B(- 2, – 3, 5) and C(5, 3, – 3)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 55
This is the required vector equation of plane.
For cartesian equation put \(\vec{r}\) = xî + yĵ + zk̂ in
Eq. (i), we get
= (xî + yĵ + zk̂) ∙ (16î + 24ĵ + 32k̂)
= (2î + 5ĵ – 3k) ∙ (6î + 24ĵ + 32k̂)
⇒ 16x + 24y + 32z = 32 + 120 – 96
⇒ 16x + 24y + 32z = 56
⇒ 2x + 3y + 4z = 7
which is the required cartesian equation of plane.

Question 15.
Find the distance between the point (- 1, – 5, – 10) and the point of intersection of the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{4}=\frac{z-2}{12}\) and the plane x – y + z = 5. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 56
x = 3λ + 2, y = 4λ – 1, z = 12λ + 2
Any point on the line is
P(3λ + 2, 4λ – 1, 12λ + 2) …… (iii)
Since, lines and plane intersect, so point P satisfy the plane.
∴ (3λ + 2) – (4λ – 1) + (12λ + 2) = 5
[put coordinates of P in Eq. (ii)]
⇒ 3λ + 2 – 4λ + 1 + 12λ + 2 = 5
⇒ 11λ = 0 ⇒ λ = 0
Put λ = 0 in Eq. (iii), we get point of intersection P(2, – 1, 2).
Now, distance between points (- 1, – 5, – 10) and (2, – 1, 2) is given by
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 57

Question 16.
Find the equation of the plane passing through the points (- 1, 2, 0), (2, 2, -1) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{2 y+1}{2}=\frac{z+1}{-1}\) (All India 2015)
Answer:
Let the equation of plane passing through the point (- 1, 2, 0) is
a(x + 1) + b(y – 2) + c(z – 0) = 0
where, a, b and c are direction ratios of normal to the plane.
Since, the plane passes through (2, 2, – 1), therefore we have
a(2 + 1) + b(2 – 2) + c(- 1 – 0)
⇒ 3a + 0.b – c = 0 ….. (ii)
Also, the plane is parallel to the line
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 58
Therefore, we have
a + b – c = 0 ……. (iii)
[∵ the normal to the plane will be perpendicular to the line,
i.e a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 59
On substituting the values of a, b and c in Eq. (i),
we get the required equation of plane is
1(x + 1) + 2(y – 2) + 3z = 0
⇒ x + 1 + 2y – 4+ 3z = 0
∴ x + 2y + 3z = 3

Question 17.
Find the equation of a plane which passes through the point (3, 2, 0) and contains the line \(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-6}{5}=\frac{z-4}{4}\). (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The equation of a plane passing through a point (3, 2, 0) is
a(x – 3) + b(y – 2) + c(z – 0) = 0 ……. (i)
Since, the above plane contains the line
\(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-6}{5}=\frac{z-4}{4}\)
So, the point (3, 6, 4) satisfies the equation of plane (i).
∴ a(3 – 3) + b(6 – 2) + c(4 – 0) = o
⇒ 0 + 4b + 4c = 0
⇒ b + c = 0
⇒ b = – c …… (ii)
As the plane contains the line, therefore normal
to the plane is perpendicular to the line, i.e.
a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0,
where, a1 = a, b1 = b, c1 = c and a2 = 1, b2 = 5 and c2 = 4
∴ a × 1 + b × 5 + c × 4 = 0
⇒ a + 5b + 4c = 0
⇒ a – 5c + 4c = 0 [from Eq.(ii)]
⇒ a = c
On putting the values of a,b and c in Eq.(i),
we get
c(x – 3) – c(y – 2) + c(z – 0) = 0
⇒ 1(x – 3) – 1(y – 2) + 1(z – 0) = 0 [divide by C]
∴ x – y + z = 1

Question 18.
A plane makes intercepts – 6, 3, 4 respectively on the coordinate axes. Find the length of the perpendicular from the origin on it. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given, intercepts on the coordinate axes are (- 6, 3, 4), then equation of plane will be
\(\frac{x}{-6}+\frac{y}{3}+\frac{z}{4}\) = 1 or \(\frac{x}{-6}+\frac{y}{3}+\frac{z}{4}\) – 1 = 0
We know that, the distance of a point (x1, y1, z1) from plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is given by
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 60
Hence, required length of the perpendicular from origin to plane is \(\frac{12}{\sqrt{29}}\) units.

Question 19.
Show that the lines \(\frac{5-x}{-4}=\frac{y-7}{4}=\frac{z+3}{-5}\) and \(\frac{x-8}{7}=\frac{2 y-8}{2}=\frac{z-5}{3}\) are coplanar. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given lines can be written as
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 61
x1 = 5, y1 = 7, z1 = – 3, a1 = 4, b1 = 4, c1 = – 5 and x2 = 8, y2 = 4, z2 = 5, a2 = 7, b2 = 1, c2 = 3
If given lines are coplanar, then
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 62
= 3(12 + 5) + 3(12 + 35) + 8(4 – 28)
= 3 × 17 + 3 × 47 + 8(- 24)
= 51 + 141 – 192 = 192 – 192 = 0 = RHS
Therefore, given lines are coplanar.
Hence proved

Question 20.
Find the image of the point having position vector î + 3ĵ + 4k̂ in the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î – ĵ + k̂) + 3 = 0. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Given, position vector of point is (î + 3ĵ + 4k̂).
So, coordinates of point P are (1, 3, 4) and vector equation of plane is \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î – ĵ + k̂) + 3 = 0, then cartesian equation of plane is 2x – y + z + 3 = 0.
Let Q be the foot of perpendicular from P on the plane.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 63
Since, PQ is perpendicular to the plane. Hence, DR’s of PQ will be(2, – 1, 1).
So, the equation of PQ will be
\(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{-1}=\frac{z-4}{1}\) = λ (say)
Coordinates of Q = (2λ + 1, – λ + 3, λ + 4), also Q lies on plane, so it wiJi satisfy the equation of plane.
∴ 2(2λ + 1) – 1(-λ + 3) + (λ + 4) + 3 = 0
⇒ 4λ + 2 + λ – 3 + λ + 4 + 3 = 0
⇒ 6λ = – 6 ⇒ λ = – 1
So, coordinates of Q will be (- 2 + 1, 1 + 3, – 1 + 4). i.e. (- 1, 4, 3).
Let R(x, y, z) be the image of a point P, then point Q will be the mid-point of PR.
Therefore, coordinates of Q will be
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 64
Hence, required coordinates of image point R is (- 3, 5, 2)

Question 21.
Find the vector equation of the plane through the points (2, 1, -1) and (- 1, 3, 4) and perpendicular to the plane x – 2y + 4z = 10. (All India 2013 )
Answer:
The required plane passes through two points P(2, 1, – 1) and Q(- 1, 3, 4).
Let \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) be the position vectors of points P and Q, respectively.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 65

Question 22.
Find the coordinates of the point, where the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{4}=\frac{z-2}{2}\) intersects the plane x – y + z – 5 = 0. Also, find the angle between the line and the plane. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given equation of line is
\(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{4}=\frac{z-2}{2}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = 3λ + 2, y = 4λ – 1, z = 2λ + 2
Then, [(3λ + 2), (4λ – 1), (2λ + 2)]be any point on the given line.
Since, line intersect the plane, therefore any point
on the given line (3λ + 2, 4λ – 1, 2λ + 2) lies on the plane x – y + z – 5 = 0.
∴ (3λ + 2) – (4λ – 1) + (2λ + 2) – 5 = 0
⇒ 3λ + 2 – 4λ + 1 + 2λ + 2 – 5 = 0
⇒ λ = 0 ……. (i)
∴ Point of intersection of the line and the plane
= (3 × 0 + 2, 4 × 0 – 1, 2 × 0 + 2) = (2, – 1, 2)
Let Φ be the angle between line and plane.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 66

Question 23.
Find the vector equation of the plane which contains the line of intersection of the planes \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î + 2ĵ + 3k̂) – 4 = 0 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ – k̂)+ 5 = 0 and which is perpendicular to the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (5î + 3ĵ – 6k̂) + 8 = 0. (Delhi 2013: All India 2011)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 67
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 68

Question 24.
Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points (3, – 4, – 5) and (2, – 3,1) crosses the plane 2x + y + z = 7. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Let the given points be A(3, – 4, – 5) and B(2, – 3, 1).
The equation of line AB is
\(\frac{x-3}{2-3}=\frac{y+4}{-3+4}=\frac{z+5}{1+5}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x-3}{-1}=\frac{y+4}{1}=\frac{z+5}{6}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = – λ + 3; y = λ – 4
and z = 6λ – 5
So, any point on line AB is of the form
(3 – λ, λ – 4, 6λ – 5)
Let P(3 – λ, λ – 4, 6λ – 5) be the point where the line crosses the plane 2x + y + z = 7.
Clearly, P will satisfy the equation of plane.
We have,
2(3 – λ) + (λ – 4) + (6λ – 5) = 7
⇒ 6 – 2λ + λ – 4 + 6λ – 5 – 7 = 0
⇒ 5λ – 10 = 0 ⇒ λ = 2
Thus, the coordinates of required point arc
(3 – 2, 2 – 4, 12 – 5), i.e., (1, – 2, 7)

Question 25.
Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points A(3, 4, 1) and B(5, 1, 6) crosses the XY-plane. (All India 2012)
Answer:
\(\left(\frac{13}{5}, \frac{23}{5}, 0\right)\)

Question 26.
Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points (3, – 4, – 5) and (2, – 3,1) crosses the plane 3x + 2y + z + 14 = 0. (All India 2012)
Answer:
(5, – 6, – 17)

Question 27.
Find the equation of plane(s) passing through the intersection of planes x + 3y + 6 = 0 and 3x – y – 4z = 0 and whose perpendicular distance from origin is unity. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Firstly, write the required equation of plane as
(x + 3y + 6) + λ(3x – y – 4z) = 0.
Then, convert the above equation in general form of plane which is ax + by + c + d = 0.
Finally, use the formula for distance from a point(x1, y1, z1) to the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is d = \(\frac{\left|a x_{1}+b y_{1}+c z_{1}+d\right|}{\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}+c^{2}}}\)

Let the required equation of plane passing through the intersection of planes x + 3y + 6 = 0 and 3x – y – 4z = 0 be
(x + 3y + 6) + λ (3x – y – 4z = 0)
Above equation can be written as
x + 3y + 6 + 3λx – λy – 4λz = 0
⇒ x(1 + 3λ) + y(3 – λ) – 4λz + 6 = 0 …… (ii)
which is the general form of equation of plane.
Also, given that perpendicular distance of plane (i) from origin, i.e. (0, 0, 0) is unity. i.e. one.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 69
On squaring both sides, we get
36 = 26λ2 + 10
⇒ 26λ2 = 26 ⇒ λ2 = 1 ⇒ λ = ± 1
Now, on putting λ = 1 in Eq. (1), We get
x + 3y + 6 + 3x – y – 4z = 0
⇒ 4x + 2y – 4z + 6 = 0
⇒ 2x + y – 2z + 3 = 0
[divide by 2]… (iii)
Again, on putting λ = – 1 in Eq. (1), we get
x + 3y + 6 – 3x + y + 4z = 0
⇒ – 2x + 4y + 4z + 6 = 0
⇒ x – 2y – 2z – 3 = 0 [divide by – 2] ……. (iv)
Hence, required equations of the plane are
2x + y – 2z + 3 = 0 and x – 2y – 2z – 3 = 0.

Question 28.
Find the equation of plane passing through the point A( 1, 2, 1) and perpendicular to the line joining points P(1, 4, 2) and Q (2, 3, 5) Also, find distance of this plane from the line (Delhi 2010C)
\(\frac{x+3}{2}=\frac{y-5}{-1}=\frac{z-7}{-1}\)
Answer:
Equation of plane passing through the point A(1, 2, 1) is given as
a(x – 1) + b(y – 2) + c(z – 1) = 0
[∵ equation of plane passing through (x1, y1, z1) having DR’s a, b, c is a (x – x1) + b (y – y1)+ c(z – z1) = 0]
Now, DR’s of line PQ where P(1, 4, 2) and Q(2, 3, 5)are(2 – 1, 3 – 4, 5 – 2), i.e.(1, – 1, 3).
Since, plane (i) is perpendicular to line PQ.
∴ DR’s of plane (i) are (1, – 1, 3),
[∵ DR’s normal to the plane are proportional]
i.e. a = 1, b = – 1, c = 3
On putting values of a, b and c in Eq. (i), we get the required equation of plane as
1(x – 1) – 1 (y – 2) + 3(z – 1) = 0
⇒ x – 1 – y + 2 + 3z – 3 = 0
⇒ x – y + 3z – 2 = 0
Now, the given equation of line is
\(\frac{x+3}{2}=\frac{y-5}{-1}=\frac{z-7}{-1}\) …… (iii)
DR’s of this line are (2, – 1, – 1) and passing point (- 3, 5, 7).
DR’s of normal to the plane (ii) are (1,- 1, 3).
Now, we check whether the line is perpendicular to the plane.
Here, 2(1) – 1 (- 1) – 1 (3) = 2 + 1 – 3 = 0
[by using a1 a2 + b1 b2 + C1 C2 = 01
So, line (iii) is parallel to plane (i).
∴ Required distance = Distance of the point (- 3, 5, 7) from the plane (ii)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 70

Question 29.
Find the cartesian equation of the plane passing through points A (0, 0, 0) and B (3, – 1, 2) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y+3}{-4}=\frac{z+1}{7}\) (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The equation of any plane passing through (x1, y1, z1)is
a(x – x1) + b(y – y1) + c(z – z1) = 0.
This plane is parallel to the line
\(\frac{x-x_{2}}{a_{1}}=\frac{y-y_{2}}{b_{1}}=\frac{z-z_{2}}{c_{1}}\)
∴ Normal to the plane is perpendicular to the line, i.e. aa1 + bb1 + cc1 = 0. Use these results and solve it.
Equation of plane passing through the point A (0, 0, 0) is
a(x – 0) + b(y – 0) + c(z – 0) = 0
⇒ ax + by + cz = 0 ….. (i)
[using one point form of plane
a (x – x1) + b (y – y1) + c (z – z1) = 0]
Given, the plane (i) passes through the point B(3, – 1, 2).
∴ Put x = 3, y = – 1 and z = 2 in Eq. (1), we get
3a – b + 2c = 0 ….. (ii)
Also, the plane (1) is parallel to the line
\(\frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y+3}{-4}=\frac{z+1}{7}\)
∴ a(1) + b(-4) + c(7) = 0
if plane is parallel to the line. then normal to the plane is perpendicular to the line,
i.e. a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
⇒ a – 4b + 7c = 0 …… (iii)
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii) by cross multiplication,
we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 71
∴ a = λ, b = – 19λ, c = -11λ
On substituting the values of a, b, c in Eq. (1)
we get
λ(x) + (- 19λ)y + (- 11λ) z = 0
⇒ x – 19y – 11z = 0
This is the required equation of the plane.

Question 30.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of the plane passing through the points (2, 2, – 1), (3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6). Also find the vector equation of a plane passing through (4, 3, 1) and parallel to the plane obtained above. (Delhi 2019; Foreign 20114)
Answer:
let the given points are A(2, 2, -1), B(3, 4, 2) C(7, 0, 6)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 72
which is the required vector equation.
For cartesian equation put \(\vec{r}\) = xî + yĵ + zk̂
⇒ (xî +yĵ + zk̂) ∙ (5î + 2ĵ – 3k̂) = 17
⇒ 5x + 2y – 3z = 17 or 5x + 2y – 3z – 17 = 0
Now, the equation of any plane parallel to above plane is
5x + 2y 3z + k = 0
If it passes through (4. 3, 1), then
5(4) + 2(3) – 3 + k = 0 ⇒ k = – 23
Thus, the equation of plane is
5x + 2y – 3z – 23 = 0
Hence, required vector equation of plane is
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (5î + 2ĵ – 3k̂) – 23 = 0

Question 31.
Find the vector equation of the plane that contains the lines \(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ) + λ (î + 2ĵ – k̂) and the points (- 1, 3, – 4). Also, find the length of the perpendicular drawn from the point (2, 1, 4) to the plane, thus obtained. (Delhi 2019; All India 2012C)
Answer:
The required plane passes through the point A(- 1, 3, – 4) and contains the line \(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ) + λ (î + 2ĵ – k̂) which passes through
B(1, 1, 0) and is parallel to the vector \(\vec{b}\) = î + ĵ + k̂
Thus, required plane passes through two points
A(-1, 3, – 4) and B(1, 1, 0) and is parallel to the vectors \(\vec{r}\) = î + 2ĵ – k̂.
Let \(\vec{n}\) be the normal vector to the required plane.
Then, \(\vec{a}\) is perpendicular to both \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{AB}\)
Consequently, it is parallel to \(\vec{a}\).
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 73

Question 32.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of the plane passing through the points having position vectors î + ĵ – 2k̂, 2î – ĵ + k̂ and î + 2ĵ + k̂. Write the equation of a plane passing through a point (2, 3, 7) and parallel to the plane obtained above. Hence, find the distance between the two parallel planes. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 74
For cartesian equation of that plane put \(\vec{r}\) = xî + yĵ + zk̂
⇒ (xî + yĵ + zk̂) ∙ (9î + 3ĵ + k̂) + 14 = 0
⇒ – 9x – 3y + z + 14 = 0
⇒ 9x + 3y – z – 14 = 0
Now, any plane parallel to the given plane is
9x + 3y – z + k = 0 ….. (ii)
If it is passes through (2, 3, 7), then
9(2) + 3(3) – 7 + k = 0
⇒ 18 + 9 – 7 + k = 0
⇒ K = – 20
Hence, required equation of the plane is
9x + 3y – z – 20 = 0
Now, we have equation of two parallel planes given by
9x + 3y – z – 14 = 0 and 9x + 3y – z – 20 = 0
Distance between these two planes
\(\left|\frac{-20-(-14)}{\sqrt{9^{2}+3^{2}+(-1)^{2}}}\right|=\frac{6}{\sqrt{91}}\)

Question 33.
Find the equation of the line passing through (2, – 1, 2) and (5, 3, 4) and of the plane passing through (2, 0, 3), (1, 1, 5) and (3, 2, 4). Also, find their point of intersection. (ll India 2019; Foreign 2011)
Answer:
We know that the equation of a line passing through the points (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) is given by
\(\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{z_{2}-z_{1}}\)
Here, (x1, y1, z1) = (2,- 1, 2) and (x2, y2, z2) = (5, 3, 4)
So, the equation of the line passing through A(2, – 1, 2) and B(5, 3, 4) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 75
The general equation of a plane passing through (2, 0, 3) is
a(x – 2) + b(y – 0) + c(z – 3) = 0
It will pass through B(1, 1, 5) and C(3, 2, 4), if
a(1 – 2) + b(1 – 0) + c(5 – 3) = 0
⇒ – a + b + 2c = 0
⇒ a – b – k = 0
and a(3 – 2) + b(2 – 0) + c(4 – 3) = 0
⇒ a + 2b + c = 0
On solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii) by cross-multiplication, we get
\(\frac{a}{-1+4}=\frac{b}{-2-1}=\frac{c}{2+1}\)
⇒ \(\frac{a}{3}=\frac{b}{-3}=\frac{c}{3}\) = λ (say)
⇒ a = 3λ, b = – 3λ and c = 3λ
Substituting the values of a, b and c in Eq. (i), we get
3A(x – 2) – 3λ (y – 0) + 3λ (z – 3) = 0
⇒ x – 2 – y + z – 3 = 0
⇒ x – y + z = 5
which is the required equation of plane.
Now, the coordinates of any point on the line
\(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y+1}{4}=\frac{z-2}{2}\) = r(say)
are x = 3r + 2, y = 4r- 1, z = 2r + 2 …… (iv)
If it lies on the plane x – y + 2 = 5 then
3r + 2 – 4r + 1 + 2r + 2 = 5 ⇒ r = 0
Substituting the value of r = 0 in Eq. (iv), we get
x = 3 × 0 + 2, y = 4 × 0 – 1, z = 2 × 0 + 2
⇒ x = 2, y = – 1, z = 2
Hence, the point of intersection are (2, – 1, 2).

Question 34.
Find the distance of the point P(-1, – 5, – 10) from the point of intersection of the line
\(\vec{r}\) = 2î – ĵ + 2k̂ + λ (3î + 4ĵ + 2k̂) and the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – ĵ + k̂) = 5.
(CBSE 2018; Delhi 2014; All India 2014C, 2011)
Answer:
Given equation of line and plane are
\(\vec{r}\) = (2î – ĵ + 2k̂) + λ (3î + 4ĵ + 2k̂)
= (2 + 3λ)î + (- 1 + 4λ)ĵ + (2 + 2λ)k̂ …… (i)
and \(\vec{r}\) . (î – ĵ + k̂) = 5
For point of intersection of line and plane, the point \(\vec{r}\) satisfy the equation of plane.
∴ [(2 + 3λ)î + (- 1 + 4λ)ĵ + (2 + 2λ)k̂] . (î – ĵ + k̂) = 5
⇒ (3λ + 2) – (4λ – 1) + (2λ + 2) = 5
⇒ 3λ + 2 – 4λ + 1 + 2λ + 2 = 5 ⇒ λ = 0
On putting = O in Eq.(i), we get
\(\vec{r}\) = (2 + 0)î + (- 1 + 0)ĵ + (2 + 0)k̂ = 2î – ĵ + 2k̂
Thus, intersection point of the line and the plane is (2, – 1, 2).
Now, the required distance
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 76
Hence, the required distance is 13 units.

Question 35.
Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the planes \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – ĵ + 2k̂) = 5 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (3î + ĵ + 2k̂) = 6. Also, find the point of intersection of the line, thus obtained with the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ + k̂) = 4 (CBSE 2018C; All India 2013)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 77
The line in Eq. (i) and plane in Eq. (ii) are parallel.
Therefore, the normal to the plane of Eq. (ii) is perpendicular to the given line.
∴ (î – ĵ + 2k̂) . (b1î + b2ĵ + b3k̂) = 0
⇒ b1 – b2 + 2b3 ….. (iv)
Similarly, from Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
(3î + ĵ + k̂) . (b1î + b2ĵ + b3k̂)
⇒ 3b1 + b2 + b3 = 0
On solving Eqs. (iv) and (y) by cross-multiplication, we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 78
which is the equation of the required line.
Any point on Line (j) is
(1 – 3λ, 2 + 5λ, 3 + 4λ)
For this line (i) to intersect the plane
\(\vec{r}\) (2î + ĵ + k̂) = 4
We have,
(1 – 3λ)(2) + (2 + 5λ)1 + (3 + 4λ)1 = 4
⇒ 2 – 6λ + 2 + 5λ + 3 + 4λ = 4
⇒ 7 + 3λ = 4 = 3λ = – 3 = λ = – 1
∴ Required point of intersection is
(1 – 3(-1), 2 + 5(-1), 3 + 4(-1)), i.e., (4, – 3, – 1)

Question 36.
Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î – 3ĵ + 4k̂) = 1 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – ĵ) + 4 = 0 and perpendicular to the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î – ĵ + k̂) + 8 = 0. Hence, find whether the plane thus obtained contains the line x – 1 = 2y – 4 = 32 – 12. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Any plane through the line of intersection of the two given plane is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 79

Question 37.
A variable plane which remains at a constant distance 3p from the origin cuts the coordinate axes at A, B, C. Show that the locus of the centroid
of ∆ ABC is \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}+\frac{1}{y^{2}}+\frac{1}{z^{2}}=\frac{1}{p^{2}}\). (All India 2017)
Answer:
Let the equation of the variable plane is
\(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}\) …… (i)
Since, above plane (i) meets the X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis at the point A(a, 0, 0), B (0, b, 0) and C(0, 0, c), respectively and let (α, β, γ) be the coordinates of the centroid of ∆ABC.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 80

Question 38.
Find the coordinates of the point P where the line through A (3, – 4,- 5) and B(2, – 3, 1) crosses the plane passing through three points L (2, 2, 1 ), M (3, 0, 1) and N (4, – 1, 0). Also, find the ratio in which P divides the line segment AB, (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
The equation of a plane passing through the point L(2, 2, 1) is
a(x – 2) + b(y – 2) + c(z – 1) = 0
Also, It is passes through the points M(3, 0, 1) and N(4, – 1, 0), respectively.
∴ a(3 – 2) + b(0 – 2) + c (1 – 1) = 0
⇒ a – 2b = 0
⇒ a = 2b …… (ii)
and a(4 – 2) + b(- 1 – 2) + c(0 – 1) = 0
⇒ 2a – 3b – c = 0
⇒ 2(2b) – 3b – c = 0 [from Eq. (il)] (1/2)
⇒ b – c = 0
⇒ c = b
On putting a = 2b and c = b in Eq. (1), we get
2b(x – 2) + b(y – 2) + b(z – 1) = O
⇒ 2x – 4 + y – 2 + z – 1 = 0 [divide by b]
⇒ 2x + y + z = 7 …….. (iii)
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 81
Let the point P divide the line joining points A and B in the ratio m : n
Then, coordinates of P are
\(P\left(\frac{2 m+3 n}{m+n}, \frac{-3 m-4 n}{m+n}, \frac{m-5 n}{m+n}\right)\)
Since, the line crosses the plane at point P. So, the coordinates of point P satisfy the equation of plane 2x + y + z = 7.
∴ 2\(\left(\frac{2 m+3 n}{m+n}\right)+\left(\frac{-3 m-4 n}{m+n}\right)+\left(\frac{m-5 n}{m+n}\right)\) = 7
⇒ 4m + 6n – 3m – 4n + n, – 5n = 7m+ in
⇒ 2m – 3n = 7m + 7n
⇒ – 5m = 10n
⇒ m = – 2n …… (iv)
Now, the coordinates of P are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 82
Hence, P divides the line joining points A and B externally in the ratio 2 : 1.
If the ratio is negative, then it means that the point divides the line externally.

Question 39.
Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points A(3, 4, 1) and 2(5, 1, 6) crosses the XZ-plane. Also, find the angle which this line makes with the XZ-plane. (All India 2016)
Answer:
(i) \(\left(\frac{17}{3}, 0, \frac{23}{3}\right)\)
(ii) Let θ be the angle between the line AB and XZ plane.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 83

Question 40.
Find the position vector of the foot of perpendicular and the perpendicular distance from the point P with position vector 2î + 3ĵ + 4k̂ to the plane
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ + 3k̂) – 26 = 0. Also, find image of P in the plane. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given, a point P with position vector 2î + 3ĵ + 4k̂ and the plane
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ + 3k̂) – 26 = 0, or 2x + y + 3z = 26
Let A be the foot of perpendicular. Then, PA is the normal to the plane and so its DR’s are 2, 1 and 3.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 84
Now, the equation of perpendicular line PA is
\(\frac{x-2}{2}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-4}{3}\) = λ (say)
⇒ x = 2λ + 2, y = λ + 3 and z = 3λ + 4
⇒ Coordinates of any point on PA is of the form (2λ + 2, λ + 3, 3λ + 4).
∴ Coordinates of A are (2λ + 2, λ + 3, 3λ + 4) for some λ.
Since, A lies on the plane, therefore we have
2 (2λ + 2) + (λ + 3) + 3(3λ + 4) = 26
⇒ 4λ + 4 + λ + 3 + 9λ + 12 = 26
⇒ 14λ + 19 = 26 = 14λ = 7
⇒ λ = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
So, the coordinates of foot of perpendicular are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 85
Now, let P'(x, y, z) be the image of point P in the plane.
Then, A will be mid-point of PP’.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 86
⇒ x = 4; y = 4 and z = 7
Thus, the coordinates of the image of the point Pare (4, 4, 7).

Question 41.
Find the equation of the plane which contains the line of intersection of the planes \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – 2ĵ + 3k̂) – 4 = 0 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (-2î + ĵ + k̂) + 5 = 0 and whose intercept on X-axis is equal to that of on Y-axis. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 87

Question 42.
Find the equation of the plane which contains the line of intersection of the planes x + 2y + 3z – 4 = 0 and 2x + y – z + 5 = 0 and whose x-intercept is twice its z-intercept. Hence write the vector equation of a plane passing through the point (2, 3, – 1) and parallel to the plane obtained above, (foreign 2016)
Answer:
Given equation of planes are
x + 2y + 3z – 4 = 0
and 2x + y – z + 5 = 0 …… (ii)
Clearly, the equation of plane which contain the line of intersection of planes (i) and (ii), is
(x + 2y + 3z – 4) + λ(2x + y – z + 5) = 0
(1 + 2λ)x (2 + λ)y + (3 – λ)z + 5λ – 4 = 0 ……. (iii)
This equation can be written in intercept form as
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 88
Since, it is given that the x-intercept of plane (iii) is twice its z-intercept.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 89
Clearly, the DR’s of normal to the plane, which is parallel to plane (iv), are 7, 11 and 14.
∴ The vector equation of a plane passing through the (2, 3, – 1) and parallel to the plane (iv), is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 90

Question 43.
If lines \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y+1}{3}=\frac{z-1}{4}\) and \(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-k}{2}=\frac{z}{1}\) intersect, then find the value of k and hence, find the equation of the plane containing these lines. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Given equation of lines are
\(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y+1}{3}=\frac{z-1}{4}\) ……… (i)
and \(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-k}{2}=\frac{z}{1}\) ……… (ii)
Since, these lines intersect, therefore the shortest distance between them will be zero.
Now, on comparing these lines with
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 91
we get
x1 = 1, y1 = – 1, z1 = 1
x2 = 3, y2 = k, z2 = 0
a1 = 2, b1 = 3, c1 = 4
a2 = 1, b2 = 2, c2 = 1
since, two lines are intersect, so shortest distance = 0.
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 92
⇒ 2(3 – 8) – (k + 1) (2- 4) – 1(4 – 3) = 0
⇒ 2(- 5) – (k + 1)(- 2) – 1(1) = 0
⇒ – 10 + 2(k + 1) – 1 =0
⇒ 2(k + 1) = 11
∴ k = \(\frac{11}{2}\) – 1 = \(\frac{9}{2}\)
Now, let the required equation of plane be a(x – 1) + b(y + 1) + c(z – 1) = 0. …… (iii)
[equation of plane a(x – x1) + b(y – y1) + c(z – z1) = 0
where, a, b and c are direction ratios of normal and (1, -1, 1) is the point on the line (i).
As, plane contains the intersecting lines, so normal to the plane is perpendicular to both the lines.
∴ 2a + 3b + 4c = 0 and a + 2b + c = 0 (1)
[∵ a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0]
⇒ \(\frac{a}{3-8}=\frac{b}{4-2}=\frac{c}{4-3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{a}{-5}=\frac{b}{2}=\frac{c}{1}\)
Thus, the required equation of the plane is
– 5(x – 1) + 2(y + 1) + 1(z – 1) = 0
⇒ – 5x + 5 + 2y + 2 + z – 1 = 0
⇒ 5x – 5 – 2y – 2 – z + 1 = 0
∴ 5x – 2y – z = 6

Question 44.
Find the distance of the point P(3,4,4) from the point, where the line joining the points A(3, -4,-5) and B(2, – 3,1) intersects the plane 2x + y + z = 7. (All India 2015)
Answer:
The direction ratios of line joining A(3, – 4, – 5) and B(2, – 3, 1) are [(2 – 3), (- 3 + 4), (1 + 5), i.e. (- 1, 1, 6)].
Now, the equation of line passing through (3, – 4, – 5) and having DR’s (- 1, 1, 6) is given by
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 93
⇒ x = – λ + 3, y = λ – 4 and z = 6λ – 5
Thus, the general point on the line is given by
(3 – λ, λ – 4, 6λ – 5).
Since, line intersect the plane 2x + y + z = 7.
So, general point on the line (3 – λ, λ – 4, 6λ – 5)
satisfy the equation of plane.
∴ 2(3 – λ) + λ – 4 + 6λ – 5 = 7
⇒ 6 – 2λ + λ – 4 + 6λ – 5 = 7
⇒ 5λ = 10
∴ λ = 2
So, the point of intersection of line and plane is
(3 – 2, 2 – 4, 6 × 2 – 5), i.e. (1, – 2, 7).
Now, distance between (3, 4, 4) and (1, – 2, 7) is given by \(\sqrt{(3-1)^{2}+(4+2)^{2}+(4-7)^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{4+36+9}\) = √49 = 7 units.

Question 45.
Find the distance of the point (1, -2, 3) from the plane x – y + z = 5 measured parallel to the line whose direction cosines are proportional to (2, 3,- 6). (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Let P(1, – 2, 3) be the given point and be the point on the given plane
x – y + z = 5 ….. (i)
Such that PQ is parallel to given line whose direction ratios are (2, 3, – 6).
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 94
Now, \(\overrightarrow{P Q}\) = Position vector of Q – Position vector of P
= (αî + βĵ + γk̂) – (î – 2ĵ + 3k̂)
= (α – 1)î + (β – 2)ĵ + (γ – 3)k̂
Since, \(\overrightarrow{P Q}\) is parallel to \(\vec{b}\).
∴ \(\frac{\alpha-1}{2}=\frac{\beta+2}{3}=\frac{\gamma-3}{-6}\) = λ (say0
⇒ α = 2λ + 1, β = 3λ – 2 and γ = – 6λ + 3 ….. (ii)
Since, the point Q(α, β, γ) lies on the plane (i). so it satisfies.
∴ α – β + γ = 5
⇒ (2λ + 1) – (3λ – 2) + (- 6λ + 3) = 5
⇒ – 7λ + 6 = 5
⇒ λ = \(\frac{1}{7}\)
Now, put λ = \(\frac{1}{7}\) in Eq. (ii), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 95

Question 46.
Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z = 1 and 2x + 3y + 4z = 5 which is perpendicular to the plane x – y + z = 0. Then, find the distance of plane thus obtained from the point A(1, 3, 6). (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Equation of any plane through the line of intersection of the given planes x + y + z = 1 and
2x + 3y + 4z = 5 is
(x + y + z – 1) + λ(2x + 3y + 4z – 5) = 0
⇒ (1 + 2λ) x + (1 + 3⇒)y
The direction ratios (a1, b1, c1) of the plane are [(2λ + 1), (3λ + 1), (4λ + 1)].
Also, given that the plane, i.e. Eq. (1) is
perpendicular to the plane x – y + z = 0, whose direction ratios (a2, b2, c2) are (1, – 1, 1).
Then, a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
∴ 1(1 + 2λ) – 1 (1 + 3λ) + 1(1 + 4λ) = O
⇒ 1 + 2λ – 1 – 3λ + 1 + 4λ = 0
⇒ 3λ – 1 = λ = – \(\frac{1}{3}\)
On substituting the value of in Eq. (i), we get the equation of required plane as
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 96
Now, we know that, distance between a point P(x1, y1, z1) and plane Ax + By + Cz = D is
d = \(\frac{A x_{1}+B y_{1}+C z_{1}-D}{\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+C^{2}}}\)
Here, point is A(1, 3, 6) and the plane is
x – z + 2 = 0.
∴ Required distance,
d = \(\frac{|1-6+2|}{\sqrt{(1)^{2}+(-1)^{2}}}\)
= \(\frac{|-3|}{\sqrt{2}}\) = \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}\) units

Question 47.
Find the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î + ĵ + k̂) = 1 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + 3ĵ – k̂) + 4 = 0 and parallel to X-axis. (All India 2014C, 2011)
Answer:
Given equation of planes are
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î + ĵ + k̂) = 1 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + 3ĵ – k̂) + 4 = 0
Equation of plane passing through the intersection of above two planes is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 97
We know that, direction cosines of X-axis is 1, 0, 0.
Since, the required plane is parallel to X-axis, therefore normal of the plane (i) is perpendicular to the X-axis.
(1 + 2λ) ∙ (1) + (1 + 3λ) ∙ (0) + (1 – λ) ∙ (0) = 0
⇒ [(1 + 2λ)î + (1 + 3λ)ĵ + (1 – λ)k̂] ∙ (î) = 0
⇒ 1 + 2λ = 0
⇒ λ = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)
On putting λ = – \(\frac{1}{2}\) in Eq. (i), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 98

Question 48.
Find the distance between the point (7, 2, 4) and the plane determined by the points A(2, 5, – 3), B(- 2, – 3, 5) and C(5, 3, – 3). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
We get required equation of plane
2x + 3y + 4z – 7 = 0
Now, distance between the plane (i) and the point (7, 2, 4) is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 99

Question 49.
Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z = 1 and 2x + 3y + 4z = 5, which is perpendicular to the plane x – y + z = 0. Also, find the distance of the plane obtained above, from the origin. (All India 2014)
Answer:
x – z + 2 = 0, √2 units

Question 50.
Find the distance of the point (2, 12, 5) from the point of intersection of the line \(\vec{r}\) = 2î – 4ĵ + 2k̂ + λ (3î + 4ĵ + 2k̂) and the
plane \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – 2ĵ + k̂) = 0. (All India 2014)
Answer:
13 units

Question 51.
Find the equation of the plane that contains the point (1, – 1, 2) and is perpendicular to both the planes 2x + 3y – 2z = 5 and x + 2y – 3z = 8. Hence, find the distance of point P(- 2, 5, 5) from the plane obtained above. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The equation of any plane passing through (x1, y1, z1)is
a(x – x1) + b(y – y1) + c(z – z1) = 0
and if ¡t is perpendicular to the planes
a1x + b1y + c1z + d1 = 0 and
a2x + b2y + c2z + d = 0
Then, a1 + b1 + c1 = 0
and a2 + b2 + c2 = 0
Use these results and solve it.

Equation of plane passing through point (1, – 1, 2) is given by
a(x – 1) + b(y + 1) + c(z – 2) = 0 ….. (i)(
Now, given that plane (i) is perpendicular to planes
2x + 3y – 2z = 5 …… (ii)
and x + 2y – 3z = 8 ……. (iii)
We know that, when two planes
a1x + b1y + c1z = d1
and a2x + b2y + c2z = d2 are perpendicular, then
a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
∴ 2a + 3b – 2c = 0 [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
and a + 2b – 3c = 0 [from Eqs.(i) and (iii)]
⇒ 2a + 3b = 2c …… (iv)
and a + 2b = 3c
On multiplying Eq. (v) by 2 and subtracting it from Eq. (iv), we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 100
On putting b = 4c in Eq. (v), we get
a + 8c = 3c ⇒ a = – 5c
Now, on putting a = – 5c and b = 4c in Eq.(i), we get the required equation of plane as
– 5c(x – 1) + 4c(y + 1) + c(z – 2) = 0
⇒ – 5(x – 1) + 4(y + 1) + (z – 2) = 0
[dividing both sides by c]
⇒ – 5x + 5 + 4y + 4 + z – 2 = 0
∴ 5x – 4y – z – 7 = 0

(ii) The distance of point P(- 2, 5, 5) from the plane obtained
= \(\left|\frac{5(-2)-4(5)-(5)-7}{\sqrt{25+16+1}}\right|\)
= \(\left|\frac{-42}{\sqrt{42}}\right|\) = √42 units

Question 52.
Find the distance of the point P(- 1, – 5, – 10) from the point of intersection of the line joining the points A(2, – 1, 2) and B(5, 3, 4) with the plane x – y + z = 5. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
13 units

Question 53.
Find the vector and cartesian forms of the equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and parallel to the lines
\(\vec{r}\) = î + 2ĵ – 4k̂ + λ(2î + 3 ĵ + 6k̂) and \(\vec{r}\) = î – 3ĵ + 5k̂ + μ(î + ĵ – k̂). Also, find the distance of the point (9, – 8, – 10) from the plane thus obtained. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let equation of plane through (1, 2, – 4) be
a(x – 1) + b(y – 2) + c(z + 4) = 0 …….. (i)
Given lines arc
\(\vec{r}\) = î + 2ĵ – 4k̂ + λ(2î + 3 ĵ + 6k̂)
and \(\vec{r}\) = î – 3ĵ + 5k̂ + μ(î + ĵ – k̂)
The cartesian equations of given lines are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 101
Since, the required plane (i) is parallel to the given lines, so normal to the plane is perpendicular to the given lines.
∴ 2a + 3b + 6c = 0
and a + b – c = 0
For solving these two equations by across-multiplication, we get
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 102
On putting values of a, b and c in Eq. (i), we get
– 9λ(x – 1) + 8λ(y – 2) – λ(z + 4) = 0
∴ Equation of plane in cartesian form is
– 9λ(x – 1) + 8λ(y – 2) – λ(z + 4) = 0
⇒ – 9x + 9 + 8y – 16 – z – 4 = 0
⇒ 9x – 8y + z + 11 = 0
Now, vector form of plane is
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (9î – 8ĵ + k̂) = – 11
Also, distance of (9, – 8, – 1) from the above plane
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 103

Question 54.
Show that the lines \(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ – k̂) + λ(3î – ĵ) and \(\vec{r}\) =(4î – k̂) + μ(2î + 3k̂) are coplanar. Also, find the equation of the plane containing them. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 104

Question 55.
Find the distance of the point (1, – 2, 3) from the plane x – y + z = 5 measured parallel to the line \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{3}=\frac{z+2}{-6}\). (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
1 unit

Question 56.
Show that the lines \(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{-1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) are coplanar. Also, find the equation of the plane containing these lines. (All India 2013C)
Answer:
x – 2y + z = 0

Question 57.
Find the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î + 3ĵ) – 6 = 0 and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (3î – ĵ – 4k̂) = 0, whose perpendicular distance from origin is unity. (All India 2013C)
Answer:
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (2î + ĵ – 2k̂) – 3 = 0
and \(\vec{r}\) ∙ (- î + 2ĵ + 2k̂) – 3 = 0

Question 58.
Find the coordinates of the point, where the line through (3, – 4, – 5) and (2, – 3, 1) crosses the plane, passing through the points (2, 2, 1), (3, 0, 1) and (4, – 1, 0). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(1, – 2, 7)

Question 59.
Find the vector equation of the plane passing through the three points with position vectors î + ĵ – 2k̂, 2î – ĵ + k̂ and î + 2ĵ + k̂. Also, find the coordinates of the point of intersection of this plane and the line \(\vec{r}\) = 3î – ĵ – k̂ + λ(2î – 2ĵ + k̂). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
We get required equation of plane
\(\vec{r}\) (-9î – 3ĵ + k̂) + 14 = 0 ………. (i)
Also, given equation of line is
\(\vec{r}\) = 3î – ĵ – k̂ + λ(2î – 2ĵ + k̂)
This intersect the plane (i), so
[(3 + 2λ)î + (- 1 – 2λ)ĵ + (- 1 + λ)k̂] ∙ (9î – 3ĵ + k̂) + 14 = 0
⇒ – 9(3 + 2λ)î – 3(- 1 – 2λ)ĵ + (- 1 + λ)k̂ + 14 = 0
⇒ – 27 – 18λ + 3 + 6λ – 1 + λ + 14 = 0
⇒ – 11λ – 11 = 0
⇒ λ = – 1
On putting λ = – 1 in Eq. (ii), the required point of intersection is
\(\vec{r}\) = 3î – ĵ – k̂ – 1(2î – 2ĵ + k̂)
∴ \(\vec{r}\) = î + ĵ – 2k̂
Thus, Intersection point of the line and the plane is (1, 1, – 2).

Question 60.
Find the equation of plane determined by points A(3, – 1, 2), B(5, 2, 4) and C(-1, – 1, 6) and hence, find the distance between plane and point (6, 5, 9). (Delhi 2013,2012; All India 2009, 2008C)
Answer:
3x – 4y + 3z – 19 = 0, \(\frac{6}{\sqrt{34}}\) units

Question 61.
Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (3, – 3,1) and perpendicular to the line joining the points (3, 4, – 1) and (2, – 1, 5). Also, find the coordinates of foot of perpendicular, the equation of perpendicular line and the length of perpendicular drawn from origin to the plane. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
(i) x + 5y – 6z + 18 = 0

(ii) Clearly, the equation of perpendicular line is
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 105
⇒ \(\frac{x}{1}=\frac{y}{5}=\frac{z}{-6}\)
Clearly, any point on the above line will be of the form (λ, 5λ, – 6λ).
∴ The coordinates of foot of perpendicular will be (λ, 5λ, – 6λ) for some λ.
Since, the foot of perpendicular lie on the plane, therefore we have
λ + 5(λ) – 6(-6λ) + 18 = 0
⇒ 26λ + 36λ + 18 = 0
⇒ 62λ = – 18
⇒ λ = –\(\frac{9}{31}\)
So, the coordinates of foot of perpendicular are
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 106

Question 62.
Find the vector equation of the plane that contains the lines \(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ) + λ(î + 2ĵ – k̂) and \(\vec{r}\) = (î + ĵ) + µ(- î + ĵ – 2k̂) Also, find the length of perpendicular drawn from the point (2,1, 4) to the plane thus obtained. (All India 2012C)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 107

Question 63.
If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{-3}=\frac{y-2}{-2 k}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{k}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{5}\) are perpendicular, find the value of k and hence find the equation of plane containing these lines. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Given equation of lines are
\(\frac{x-1}{-3}=\frac{y-2}{-2 k}=\frac{z-3}{2}\)
and \(\frac{x-1}{k}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{5}\)
Since, the lines (i) and (ii) are perpendicular, therefore
(- 3) ∙ k + (- 2k) ∙ (1) + 2.5 = 0
⇒ – 3k – 2k + 10 = 0
⇒ 5k = 10
⇒ k = 2

(ii) – 22x + 19y + 5z = 31

Question 64.
Find the length and foot of perpendicular from point P (7, 14, 5) to plane 2x + 4y – 2 = 2 . Also, find the image of point P in the plane. (All India 2012)
Answer:
√189 units, (1, 2, 8) and (-5, -10, 11)

Question 65.
Find the equation of plane passing through the line of intersection of planes 2x + y – z = 3 and 5x – 3y + 42 + 9 = 0 and parallel to line \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{4}=\frac{z-5}{5}\). (All India 2011 )
Answer:
Given equations of planes are
2x + y – z – 3 = 0
and 5x – 3y + 4z + 9 = 0 ….. (ii)
Let the required equation of plane which passes through the line of intersection of planes (i) and (ii) be
(2x + y – z – 3) + λ(5x – 3y + 4z + 9) = 0 ….. (iii)
⇒ x(2 + 5λ) + y(1 – 3λ) + z(- 1 + 4λ) + (- 3 + 9λ) = 0 ……(iv)
Here, DR’s of plane are
(2 + 5λ, 1 – 3λ, – 1 + 4).
Also, given that the plane (iv) is parallel to the line, whose equation is
\(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{4}=\frac{z-5}{5}\)
DR’s of the line are (2, 4, 5).
Since, the plane is parallel to the line.
Therefore, normal to the plane is perpendicular to the line,
i.e. a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0
Here, a1 = 2 + 5λ, b1 = 1 – 3λ, c1 = – 1 + 4λ.
and a<2 = 2, b2 = 4, c2 = 5
∴ (2 + 5λ)2 + (1 – 3λ)4 + (- 1 + 4λ)5 = 0
⇒ 4 + 10λ + 4 – 12λ – 5 + 20λ = 0
⇒ 18λ + 3 = 0
⇒ λ = –\(\frac{3}{18}\) = – \(\frac{1}{6}\)
On putting λ = – \(\frac{1}{6}\) in Eq. (iii), we get the required equation of plane as
(2x + y – z – 3) – \(\frac{1}{6}\) (5x – 3y + 4z + 9) = 0
= 12x + 6y – 6z – 18 – 5x + 3y – 4z – 9 = 0
∴ 7x + 9y – 10z – 27 = 0

Question 66.
Find the equation of plane passing through the point (-1, 3, 2) and perpendicular to each of the planes x + 2y + 3z = 5 and 3x + 3y + z = 5. (Foreign 2011; All India 2009)
Answer:
7x – 8y + 3z + 25 = 0

Question 67.
Find the equation of plane passing through point (1, 1, -1) and perpendicular to planes x+ 2y + 3z – 7 = 0 and 2x – 3y + 4z = 0. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
7x + 2y – 7z – 26 = 0

Question 68.
Find the vector and cartesian equation of a plane containing the two lines
\(\vec{r}\) = (2î + ĵ – 3k̂) + λ (î + 2ĵ + 5k̂) and
\(\vec{r}\) = (3î + 3ĵ + 2k̂) + µ (3î – 2ĵ + 5k̂).
Also, show that the line
\(\vec{r}\) = (2î + 5ĵ + 2k̂) + P (3î – 2ĵ + 5k̂) lies in the plane. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Three Dimensional Geometry Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 11 108

Question 69.
Find the equation of plane passing through the point (1, 2, 1) and perpendicular to line joining points (1, 4, 2) and (2, 3, 5). Also, find the coordinates of foot of the perpendicular and the perpendicular distance of the point (4, 0, 3) from above found plane. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
x – y + 3z – 2 = 0, (3, 1, 0) and √11 units

Question 70.
Find the equation of plane passing through point P(1, 1, 1) and containing the line \(\vec{r}\) = (- 3î + ĵ + 5k̂) + λ (3î – ĵ – 5k̂). Also, show that plane contains the line \(\vec{r}\) = (- î + 2ĵ + 5k̂) + µ (î – 2ĵ – 5k̂). (All India 2010)
Answer:
Equation of plane passing through point P(1, 1, 1) is given by
a(x – 1) + b(y – 1) + c(z – 1) = 0 …… (i)
[∵ equation of plane passing through (x1, y1, z1) is given as a (x – x1) + b (y – y1) + c (z – z1) = 0]
Given equation of line is
\(\vec{r}\) = (- 3î + ĵ + 5k̂) + λ (3î – ĵ – 5k̂) ….. (ii)
DR’S of the line arc (3, – 1, – 5) and the line passes through point (- 3, 1, 5).
Now, as the plane (j) contains line (ii), so
a(- 3 – 1) + b(1 – 1) + c(5 – 1) = 0
[as plane contains a line, it means point of line lies on a plane.]
⇒ – 4a + 4c = 0 …….. (iii)
⇒ 4a = 4c
⇒ a = c
Since, plane contains a line, so normal to the plane is perpendicular to the line.
∴ 3a – b – 5c = 0 ……. (iv)
(∵ aa1 + bb1 + cc1 = 0]
On putting a = c in Eq. (iv), we get
3a – b – 5c = 0
⇒ – b – 2c = 0
⇒ b = – 2c
On putting a = c and b = – k in Eq. (i), we get the required equation of plane as
C (x – 1) – 2c(y – 1) + c(z – 1) = 0
On dividing both sides by e, we get
x – 1 – 2y + 2 + z – 1 = 0
⇒ x – 2y + z = 0 ……. (v)
Now, we have to show that the above plane (v) contains the line
\(\vec{r}\) = (- î + 2ĵ + 5k̂) + µ (î – 2ĵ – 5k̂) …… (vi)
Vector equation of plane (v) is
\(\vec{r}\) ∙ (î – 2ĵ + k̂) = 0 ……. (vii)
The plane (vii) will contains line (vi), if
(i) it passes through – î + 2ĵ + 5k̂
(II) it is parallel to the line
We have, (- î + 2ĵ + 5k̂) ∙ (î – 2ĵ + k̂)
= – 1 – 4 + 5 = 0 [∵ \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{n}\) = d]
So, the plane passes through the point
(- î + 2ĵ – 5k̂) and (î – 2ĵ – 5k̂) (î – 2ĵ + k̂) = 0
[∵ \(\vec{b}_{1} \cdot \vec{b}_{2}\) = 0]
⇒ (1) (1) – 2(- 2) – 5(1) = 0
⇒ 1 + 4 – 5 = 0
⇒ 0 = 0, which is true.
Hence, the plane contains the given line.

Question 71.
Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular and the perpendicular distance of point P(3, 2, 1) from the plane 2x- y + z + l = 0. Also, find image of the point in the plane. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Foot of perpendicular = (1, 3, 0), perpendicular distance = √6 units, image point = (- 1, 4, – 1)

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Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Science Chapter 9 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Science Chapter 9

Question 1.
All the variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Why? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
All the variations do not have equal chances of survival in the environment in which they live. Depending on the nature of variations, different individuals would have different kinds of advantages. The organisms which are most adapted to the environment will survive.

Question 2.
“Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population.” Justify this statement. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Variations are the structural, functional or behavioural changes from the normal characters developed in the living organisms. Inheritable variations participate in evolution. According to Darwin, natural selection sorts out individuals with favourable variations. Such organism will survive, reproduce more and thus, will leave more progenies. Hence, useful variations get established in nature.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/she inherits from the father.
Reason (R) : A child who inherits ‘X’ chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y’ chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is, false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).

Question 4.
A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny? (2018)
Answer:
According to the Mendelian experiment, violet coloqr (VV) is a dominant trait while white colour (ww) is a recessive trait. Hence, the colour of the flower in F1 progeny will be violet (Vw).

Question 5.
Name the information source for making proteins in the cells. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) present in the chromosomes of cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.

Question 6.
What is a gene? (AI 2014)
Answer:
A gene is a unit of DNA on a chromosome which governs the synthesis of particular protein that controls specific characteristics (or traits) of an organism.

Question 7.
What is heredity? (AI 2014)
Answer:
The inheritance of characters (or trails) from the parents to their offsprings is called heredity.

Question 8.
Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
When a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, the resultant progeny is always tall because tall is dominant trait and short is recessive trait. Therefore, dominant trait expresses itself in the progeny.

Question 9.
Write a difference between inherited traits and acquired traits giving one example of each. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
A trait (or characteristic) of an organism which is ‘not inherited’ but develops in response to the environment is called an acquired trait. For example, if a group of mice are normally bred, all their progeny will have tails. Now, if the tails of these mice are cut by surgery in each generation, tail-less mice will not be produced. This is so because removal of tail is an acquired character.

A trait (or characteristic) of an organism which is caused by a change in its genes (or DNA) is called an inherited trait. Inherited traits can be passed on to the progeny of the organism because they have produced changes in the genes (or DNA) of the organism. For example, skin colour in human beings.

Question 10.
(a) Why did Mendel carry out an experiment to study inheritance of two traits in garden pea?
(b) What were his findings with respect to inheritance of traits in F1 and F2 generation?
(c) State the ratio obtained in the F2 generation in the above mentioned experiment. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Mendel carried out crosses with two traits to see the interaction and basis of inheritance between them. In a dihybrid cross given by Mendel, it was observed that when two pairs of characters were considered each trait expressed independent of the other.

(b) For example, a cross between round yellow and wrinkled green parents.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 1

In F1 generation, all plants are with round yellow seeds. But in F2 generation, we find all types of plants : Round yellow, Round green, Wrinkled yellow, Wrinkled green.
F2 generation ratio : Round-yellow = 9 : Round- green = 3 : Colour of stem in F1 progeny Wrinkled- yellow = 3 : Wrinkled-green = 1

Question 11.
A green stemmed rose plant denoted by GG and a brown stemmed rose plant denoted by gg are allowed to undergo a cross with each other.
(a) List your observations regarding :
(i) Colour of stem in their F1 progeny
(ii) Percentage of brown stemmed plants in F2 progeny if plants are self pollinated.
(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in the F2 progeny.
(b) Based on the findings of this cross, what conclusion can be drawn? (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Colour of stem in F1 progeny:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 2
The colour in the F1 progeny is green stemmed as green stem colour is dominant.

(ii) F1 progeny on self pollination:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 3
F2 generation Green stemmed: Brown stemmed
\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) or 25% of F2 progeny are brown stemmed rose plant.

(iii) Ratio of GG and Gg in F2 progeny:
Genotype of F2 progeny – GG : Gg
1 : 2

(b) This is a monohybrid cross. This shows that out of two contrasting traits only one dominant trait appears in F1 generation and the trait which does not express is recessive. On selfing the F1 plants, both the traits appear in next generation but in a definite proportion.

Question 12.
(a) Why is the F1 progeny always of tall plants when a tall plant is crossed with a short pea plant?
(b) How is F2 progeny obtained by self-pollination of F1 progeny different from F1 progeny? Give reason for this observation.
(c) State a conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of this observation. (2020)
Answer:
(a) When a tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short tea plant (tt), only tall plants are obtained in F1 progeny. It is because out of two contrasting traits only one appears in the progeny of first generation. This means that the trait which appears in F1 generation is dominant and the trait which does not express is recessive. The character TT for tall plant is dominant, so all the plants are tall.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 4

(b) On selfing F1 progeny
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 5

In F2 generation we obtained both tall and dwarf plants. Appearance of suppressed recessive trait in individuals of F2 generation in Mendelian cross indicates that characters of recessive traits are not lost. When the F1 generation plants were allowed to self-fertilise both the parental trait were expressed in definite proportion in F2 generation.

(c) Above observation shows that only one dominant allele is expressed. This is called law of dominance. In a heterozygous individual, two dissimilar alleles remain together and do not get mixed up. At the time of gamete formation, they separate so that each gamete receives only one allele is always pure. This is called “law of purity of gametes”.

Question 13.
Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in F1 and F2 generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F2 generation plants. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his series of hybridisation experiments.
He first selected two pureline plants (tall plant having gene TT and short plant having gene tt) and then crossed such plants having contrasting characters. In the F1 generation, he observed that only one of the two contrasting character appeared, he called this character as dominant and the one which does not get expressed in F1 was called as recessive. He later selfed the F1 plants and observed that both the traits appear in next generation but in a definite proportion. This can be explained by the following cross :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 6

So, the plants of F1 generation will be all tall plants and after selfing the ratio of tall and dwarf plants that Mendel obtained in F2 generation plants is 3 : 1.

Question 14.
How did Mendels experiments show that different traits are inherited independently? Explain. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
In a dihybrid cross given by Mendel, it was observed that when two pairs of traits or characters were considered, each trait expressed independent of the other. Thus, Mendel was able to propose the Law of Independent Assortment which says about independent inheritance of traits. This could be explained clearly from the given cross:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 7
F2 generation ratio : Round-yellow = 9 : Round- green = 3: Wrinkled-yellow = 3: Wrinkled-green = 1

Question 15.
How did Mendel explain that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism? (AI 2017)
Answer:
Mendel first selected two pure line plants. He then crossed such plants having contrasting characters. In the F1 generation, he observed that only one of the two contrasting character appeared, he called it dominant and the one which does not get expressed in F1 was recessive. He later selfed the F1 plants and observed that both the traits appear but in a definite proportion. It can be explained by the following cross :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 8
This is how Mendel explained that a trait may be inherited but not expressed in the plant.

Question 16.
In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, F1 only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
(b) When the F, generation plants were self- fertilised, he observed that in the plants of second generation, F2 both tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? Explain briefly. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(a) Mendel’s monohybrid cross indicated that out of two contrasting traits only one appears in the progeny of first generation. This implies that the trait which appears in F1 generation is dominant and the trait which does not express is recessive. We can also say that gene controlling the dominant trait is dominant gene or allele and gene controlling the recessive trait is recessive gene or allele.

In F1 progeny although the dominant trait is expressed but genes for both dominant and recessive traits are present in a heterozygous condition. The recessive trait has a chance to express in next generation only if recessive genes come in homozygous condition. This can be illustrated by the given cross:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 9

(b) Appearance of suppressed recessive trait in individuals of F2 generation in Mendelian cross indicates that the characters of recessive traits are not lost even when they are not expressed. When the F1 generation plants were allowed to self- fertilise, both the parental traits were expressed in definite proportion in F2 generation. This could be explained by the given cross by selfing the gametes obtained in F1 generation.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 10

Question 17.
How did Mendel interpret his result to show that traits may be dominant or recessive? Describe briefly. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Mendel crossed the pea plant for two contrasting characters under consideration. The trait that expressed itself in F1 generation was dominant and the one not expressed in F1 generation was recessive. He later selfed the plants of F1 generation and recovered, both parental traits in a definite proportion in F2 generation. Mendel interpreted his results as, the trait that expressed itself in F1 was dominant and the one that reappeared in F2 generation was recessive. It can be demonstrated by the following cross:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 11

Question 18.
In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist obtained only tall pea plants (Tt) in the F1 generation. However, on selfing the F1 generation pea plants, he obtained both tall and short plants in F2 generation. On the basis of above observations with other angiosperms also, can the scientist arrive at a law? If yes, explain the law. If not, give justification for your answer. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
In the situation discussed in the question the scientist can arrive at two different laws, i.e., law of dominance and law of segregation (or law of purity of gametes). This can be explained with the help of following crosses:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 12

In F1 hybrid two dissimilar alleles are present for one character, i.e., height T is for tallness and t is for dwarfness, out of which only one allele called dominant allele expresses itself and the one which remains unexpressed is called recessive allele. This is called “law of dominance”.

Also the two dissimilar alleles that remain together in a heterozygous individual do not get mixed up and keep their distinct identity. Hence, at the time of gamete formation they separate so that each gamete receives only one allele and is always pure which enables reappearance of recessive trait in F2 progenies when the two recessive alleles come together. This is called “law of purity of gametes.”

Question 19.
How do Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently? (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 14.

Question 20.
With the help of an example justify the following statement: “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.” (AI 2016)
Answer:
A trait may be inherited but may not be expressed, this could be explained by the given example. When a tall pea plant was crossed with a dwarf pea plant, then F1 generation plants were all tall. When F1 plants were selfed, then F2 generation plants were both tall and dwarf. This shows that the F1 plants had inherited both the parental traits but did not express dwarfness or recessive trait in the presence of the trait for tallness or dominant trait. This could be explained by the given cross :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 13

Question 21.
List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits. What percentage/proportion of the plants in the F2 generation/progeny were round, in Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea plants? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Differences between dominant traits and recessive trait are given below:

Dominant trait Recessive trait
(i) It is the trait controlled by dominant allele. It is the trait controlled by recessive allele.
(ii) It is the trait which is expressed in F1 generation. It is the trait which remains suppressed in F1 generation and appears in F2 generation.

Out of total 4 genotypes possible in F2 generation 31 genotypes result in phenotypic expression of round seeds. So, the percentage of plants with round seeds will be 75%. This can be illustrated as follows:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 14

Question 22.
Explain Mendel’s experiment with peas on inheritance of characters considering only one visible contrasting character. (Foreign 2016, 2014)
Answer:
Mendel crossed a pure tall pea plant with pure dwarf pea plant. All the plants obtained in F1 generation were tall. When Mendel selfed plants from F1 generation then he obtained both tall and dwarf plants in F2 generation in the ratio of 3 : 1. This can be illustrated as follows :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 15

This explains that for each pair of contrasting characters there are two alleles. The trait which is expressed in F1 is dominant trait and is controlled by dominant allele and the trait which remains unexpressed in F1 is the recessive trait and is controlled by recessive gene. When both the contrasting alleles are present together in F1 individuals, no mixing of alleles occurs and they again segregate at the time of gamete formation Therefore, when the recessive alleles come together they result in reappearance of recessive trait in F2 generation.

Question 23.
“It is a matter of chance whether a couple will have a male or a female child.” Justify this statement by drawing a flow chart. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Sex is determined at the time of fertilisation when male and female gametes fuse. Male produces two types of gametes, i.e., having X or Y chromosome and female produces same type of gametes containing X chromosomes. The sex of the child is determined at the time of fertilisation when male and female gametes fuse to form zygote.

If a sperm (male gamete) carrying X chromosome fertilises an egg or ovum (female gamete) carrying X chromosome, then the offspring will be a girl (female). This is because the offspring will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.

If a sperm (male gamete) carrying Y chromosome fertilises an egg or ovum (female gamete) which has X chromosome, then the offspring will be a boy (male). This is because the offspring will have XY combination of sex chromosomes.

Therefore, there are 50% chance of a male child and 50% chance of a female child.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 16

Question 24.
“It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed.” Give a suitable example to justify this statement. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 20.

Question 25.
A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other with wrinkled and yellow seeds.
(a) Write the phenotype of F1 progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of F2 progeny obtained along with their ratio when F1 progeny was selfed. (Delhi 2014, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
(a) The given cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other with wrinkled and yellow seeds.
Yellow seed colour and round seed shape is dominant over green seed colour and wrinkled seed shape. In F1 generation, dominant traits express itself, whereas recessive traits get suppressed.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 17
Therefore, the phenotype of F1 progeny is round and yellow.

(b) The different types of F2 progeny obtained along with their ratio when F1 progeny was selfed could be illustrated by the given cross.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 18

Phenotypic ratio : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Round yellow seeds – 9 ; Round green seeds – 3;
Wrinkled yellow seeds – 3; Wrinkled green seeds – 1

Question 26.
(a) Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants in his experiment. Write his observations giving reasons on the F1 and F2 generations.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than height that Mendel used in his experiments in pea plants. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) The possible cross of Mendel’s experiment is:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 19
Hence, tall (T) is dominant whereas dwarf (t) is recessive. In F1 generation, only dominant trait expresses itself, whereas recessive trait gets suppressed.

In F2 generation, both traits, i.e., dominant and recessive express themselves. In this way, Mendels experiment showed that the traits (tall and dwarf) are inherited independently.

(b) The two contrasting characters other than height that Mendel used in his experiment in pea plants are round/wrinkled seeds and violet/white flowers.

Question 27.
“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed”. Justify this statement with the help of a suitable example. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 20.

Question 28.
“The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it”. Justify this statement with the help of flow chart showing determination of sex of a new born. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 23.

Question 29.
A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is cross-bred with that of white colour flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(a) The colour of the flower in F1 generation will be blue.
(b) If the flowers of F1 generation are self pollinated, then the percentage of white flowers in F2 generation must be 25%.
(c) The expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 generation progeny is 1 : 2.
The above results could be depicted by the given cross:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 20

Question 30.
If we cross pure-breed tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-breed dwarf (recessive) pea plant we will get pea plants of F1 generation.
If we now self-cross the pea plant of F1 generation, then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning the reason for the same. (AI 2012)
Answer:
(a) The plants of F1 generation will be all tall plants.
(b) The ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation is 3 : 1.
(c) Dwarf plants are not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 general ion. This is so because in F1 generation only dominant trait (tall) expresses itself and recessive trait (dwarf) gets suppressed. The dwarf plants appeared in F2 generation, because the traits whether dominant or recessive are independently inherited. In others words, a single copy of (T) is enough to make the plant tall, while both copies have to be (t) for the plant to be dwarf.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 21

Question 31.
With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the sex of a newborn is genetically determined in human beings. Which of the two parents, the mother or the father, is responsible for determination of sex of a child? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 23.

Question 32.
How is the sex of the child fixed during the fertilisation, step in human beings? Explain. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Human beings have 23 pairs chromosomes (22 pairs of autosomes +1 pair of sex chromosome). A male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome whereas a female has two X chromosomes. Sex of a child depends on the two conditions which takes place during fertilisation. The two conditions are given below:

  • If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an ovum which carries X chromosome, then the child born will be girl.
  • If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an ovum which carries X chromosome, then the child born will be a boy.

Question 33.
How do Mendels experiments show that
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive?
(b) inheritance of two traits is independent of each other? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Mendel first crossed pure-bred tall pea plants with pure-bred dwarf pea plants and found that only tall pea plants were produced in the first generation (F1). He then self crossed the tall pea plants of the F1 generation and found that tall plants and dwarf plants were obtained in the second generation or (F2) in the ratio of 3 : 1. Mendel said that the trait of dwarfness of one of the parent pea plant had not been lost, it was merely concealed or suppressed in the first generation to re-emerge in the second generation. He called the suppressed trait of ‘dwarfness as ‘recessive trait’ and the expressed trait of ‘tallness’ as the ‘dominant trait’. In this way, Mendel’s experiments with tall and dwarf pea plants showed that the traits may be dominant or recessive.
Hence this could be explained by the given cross :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 22

(b) Mendel observed two combinations of characteristics in seeds, round-yellow and wrinkled-green, and two new combinations of characteristics had appeared in the F2 generation, round-green and wrinkled- yellow. According to Mendel’s second law of inheritance more than one pair of traits are considered in a cross simultaneously, the factors responsible for each pair of trait are distributed independently to the gametes.

The cross given below showing dihybrid cross explains that the inheritance of two traits is independent of each other.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 23

Question 34.
(a) Why did Mendel choose garden pea for his experiments ? Write two reasons.
(b) List two contrasting visible characters of garden pea Mendel used for his experiment.
(c) Explain in brief how Mendel interpreted his results to show that the traits may be dominant or recessive. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) Mendel choose garden pea for his experiments because:
(i) It was easy to grow and it shows some clear contrasting traits like some pea plants are tall whereas others are dwarf.
(ii) Pea plants are self pollinating and many generation of pea plants can be produced in comparatively less time.

(b) The contrasting characters of garden pea plant studied by Mendel are:

Character Plant
Dominant Recessive
1. Plant height Tall Yellow
2. Colour of the seed Dwarf Green

(c) Refer to answer 17.

Question 35.
Give the respective scientific terms used for studying:
(a) the mechanism by which variations are created and inherited and
(b) the development of new type of organisms from the existing ones. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) Heredity is the mechanism by which variations are created and inherited.
(b) Evolution is the process in which development of new type of organisms takes place from the existing ones.

Question 36.
Write the contribution of Charles Darwin in the field of evolution. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
‘Lhe contribution of Charles Darwin in the field of evolution is that only the organism which can adapt; to the changing environmental conditions can survive and he also stated that the natural selection is a process which plays an important role in evolution of plants and animals by selecting the organisms with traits favourable to the environment.

Question 37.
Why do mice whose tails were surgically removed just after birth for generations, continue to produce mice with tails? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
A group of mice are normally bred and all their progeny possess tail. Now, if the tails of these mice are surgically removed in each generation, tail¬less mice will not be produced. This is so because removal of tail during the life cycle of mice is an acquired character which is not transferred to future generations. The removal of the tail cannot change the genes of the germ cells of the mice.

Question 38.
List two differences between acquired traits and inherited traits by giving an example of each. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Differences between the inherited traits and acquired traits are as follows :

Inherited traits Acquired traits
(i) These are passed from the parent to offspring. These are developed during the life of an individual.
(ii) These are genetic variations. These are somatic variations.
(iii) These develop due to crossing over phenomenon and mutations. These develop due to use and disuse of organs and direct effect of environment.
(iv) These are passed on from one generation to the other. These traits die with the death of the individual.
(v) Example: Skin colour, eye colour, form of hair, polydactyly (extra fingers), free and attached ear lobes, blood groups of human beings. Example: If a group of mice are normally bred, all their progenies will have tails. Now, if the tails of these mice are removed surgically in each generation, tailless mice will not be produced. It is so because removal of tail is an acquired character and it will not bring change in the genes of the germ cells of the mice.

Question 39.
Define genetics. Why is decrease in the number of surviving tigers a cause of concern from the point of view of genetics? Explain briefly. (AI 2019)
Answer:
Genetics is the branch of biology that deals with the study of heredity and variations. The term genetics’ was coined by William Bateson in 1906. When a population is small, the number and scope of variations is limited and hence diversity and traits are reduced. Small numbers of surviving tigers are a cause of worry from the point of genetics because of the following reasons:

  • Their loss would cause a loss of gene pool, i.e., many genes will be eliminated from a gene pool.
  • Tigers are surviving in limited numbers, so if some natural calamity kills these small population of tigers, they will suddenly become extinct as per genetic drift phenomenon,
  • A disease may wipe out the leftover population, if the entire population is susceptible to the disease. This can cause sudden extinction of the tiger species and loss of their genes forever, thus, adversely affecting the diversity of nature.

Question 40.
Distinguish between the acquired traits and the, inherited traits in tabular form, giving one example for each. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 41.
With the help of two suitable examples, explain why certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations. When can such traits be passed on? (AI 2017)
Answer:
Certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations because all these characters are acquired by the man during his lifetime. The man is not born with these traits and he cannot pass on these traits to his children. These could be better explained by the given examples:
(i) Child of a very good swimmer may not know how to swim. This is so because the technique of swimming is not inherited from parents but it is learnt by the person himself or herself.

(ii) A person may have a scar on the face from a cut he got in an accident. This is also an example of acquired trait which cannot be passed to the next generation.

Traits can be passed on to future generations in which changes have occurred in the genes present in the reproductive cells of the parent organisms. These traits or characters are known as inherited traits.

Question 42.
List three distinguishing features, in tabular form, between acquired traits and the inherited traits. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 43.
“We cannot pass on to our progeny the experience and qualifications earned during our lifetime.” Justify the statement giving reason and examples. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 41.

Question 44.
List in tabular form, two distinguishing features between the acquired traits and the inherited traits with one example of each. (Delhi 2015, AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 45.
Distinguish between inherited and acquired traits by giving one example of each. Give reason why the traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual are not inherited. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answers 38 and 41.

Question 46.
With the help of suitable examples, explain why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next generation? What are such traits called? (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 41.

Question 47.
Tabulate two distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits with one example of each. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 48.
“An individual cannot pass on to its progeny the experiences of its life-time”. Justify the statement with the help of an example and also give reason for the same. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
If we breed a group of mice, all the progeny of mice will have tails just like their parents. Now, if we remove the tails surgically and again breed them, we still get new mice with tails. This is because cutting the tails of mice does not change the genes of their reproductive cells (or gametes). And since the acquired trait of‘cut tails’ does not bring about a change in the genes of mice, this trait cannot be passed on to their next generations. From this we conclude that the experiences acquired by an individual during his lifetime (called acquired traits) cannot be passed on to its progeny, and hence cannot lead to evolution because they are not caused by the change in genes.

Question 49.
Describe any three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population are:
(i) Genetic drift : It is the random change in gene frequency occurring by chance fluctuations. In this phenomenon, an event may increase the frequency of a particular trait having little adaptive value and survival advantage.

(ii) Natural selection : It is the phenomenon wherein nature selects traits favourable to the species in the environment. Thus, a particular trait selected by the nature increases in number.

(iii) Geographical isolation : Interbreeding populations are geographically isolated by barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers and sea. This geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation and thus there is no gene flow between separated groups of population and therefore, population with particular character increases.

Question 50.
(a) What is the law of dominance of traits? Explain with an example.
(b) Why are the traits acquired during the life time of an individual not inherited? Explain. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Mendel’s law of dominance states that for a particular trait one gene is usually expressed over the other. The dominant allele expresses itself and the one which remains unexpressed is called recessive allele. This is called “law of dominance”. E.g., for height, there are two alleles, T for tallness and t for dwarfness.

(b) Refer to answer 41.

Question 51.
What is speciation?
Answer:
The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.

Question 52.
What is speciation? Explain in brief the role of natural selection and genetic drift in this process. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
‘Hie process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation. Both natural selection and genetic drift play a very important role in speciation. By natural selection traits favourable to the species in the given environment are selected by the nature.

Example, beetles develop colour variation during reproduction. Consequently, in the progeny, one beetle develops green body colour instead of normal red colour. This beetle can inherit this variation in colour on to its progeny so that all its offspring are green in colour. Crows cannot easily locate green-coloured beetles on the green leaves of bushes and continue to eat red beetles which are easily located on green leaves. As a result, in population of green beetles increases in each generation.
Genetic drift is the elimination of the genes of certain traits from the small population when a section of population dies of natural calamity or migrates to other region. It alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.

Suppose in sexually reproducing red beetle population, a colour variation arises wherein one beetle develops blue body colour instead of red. This beetle can also pass this colour variation to its progeny so that all its offspring are blue coloured beetles. As the population of beetles expand, initially there would be few blue coloured beetles among the majority of red coloured beetles. At this point, an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live. Consequently, most of the beetles get killed. By chance, most of the survived beetles are of blue colour. This population again slowly multiply and will contain mostly blue coloured beetles over a period of time. Survival of more blue beetles in the population changed the coloured characteristic from normal red to blue over a period of time. In small population, accidents can change the frequency of some genes in a population, even if it does not give any survival advantage to the possessors.

Question 53.
What is speciation? List four factors responsible for speciation. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation. The four factors responsible for speciation are:

  • Geographical isolation of a population leads to reproductive isolation and hence speciation.
  • Genetic drift leads to the formation of new species by causing drastic changes in the frequencies of particular gene by chance alone.
  • Natural selection wherein nature in the wild selects traits favourable to the species in the given environment.
  • Random mating resulting in genetic variations in genotype frequencies within the population.

Question 54.
Explain the following:
(a) Speciation
(b) Natural selection. (Al 2015, Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) Speciation : Origin of new species from existing one due to reproductive isolation of a part of its population is called speciation.
Suppose a large population of beetle living in an area gets split into two sub populations due to geographical barriers like river, mountain, sea, etc. Then members of these sub-populations will not be able to interbreed. Hence, there will be no gene flow between the members of these populations. After few generations, genetic drift will accumulate different variations in each of the two geographically separated sub-populations. Natural selection may also operate simultaneously in a different way in these geographically isolated sub-populations. This makes geographically isolated sub-populations to become more and more different from each other and ultimately reproductive isolation occurs between individuals of these groups and they transform into new species.

(b) Natural selection is the phenomenon wherein nature, in the wild, selects traits favourable to the species in its environment.
Also refer to answer 52.

Question 55.
List three main factors responsible for the speciation and briefly describe each one of them. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Speciation is the process by which new species develop from the existing species.

The three important factors responsible for the speciation are:
(i) Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers and sea. Geographical isolation is the major factor in the speciation of sexually reproducing animals because it causes reproductive isolation and interrupts the flow of genes between their isolated populations through the gametes.

(ii) Genetic drift is the elimination of the genes of certain traits from the small population when a section of population dies of natural calamity or migrates to other region. It alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.

(iii) Variations introduced by random mating and hybridisation. Random fusion of gametes adds new alleles and it result in formation of new species.

Question 56.
List three main factors responsible for the rise of a new species giving a brief description about each. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 55.

Question 57.
What is meant by the term speciation? List four factors which could lead to speciation. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 53.

Question 58.
(a) Classify the following as homologous or analogous pairs:
(i) Broccoli and cabbage
(ii) Ginger and radish
(iii) Forelimbs of birds and lizard
(iv) Wings of a bat and wings of a bird
(b) State the main feature that categorises a given pair of organs as homologous or analogous. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) Broccoli and cabbage – Homologous organs
(ii) Ginger and radish – Analogous organs
(iii) Forelimbs of birds and lizard – Homologous organs
(iv) Wings of bat and wings of a bird – Analogous organs

(b) Homologous organs have the same fundamental structure but different in function, while analogous organs have different internal structure but similar functions.

Question 59.
“During the course of evolution, organs or features may be adapted for new functions”. Explain this fact by choosing an appropriate example. (2020)
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes from simple life forms to complex life form. During the evolution process, many organs are adapted for new functions.
The organs which perform different functions in different species but have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin are called homologous organs. Homologous structures are a result of divergent evolution. Homology indicates common ancestry.

For example, the forelimbs of a frog, a lizard, a bird and a human being show similarity in basic structure. However, these organs perform entirely different functions.

The given figures showing homologous organs :
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 Img 24

The forelimbs of a frog help the animal to prop up the front end of the body at rest, and also act as shock absorbers when the animal lands on the ground after a leap; the forelimbs of a lizard are modified for creeping movements; the forelimbs of a bird are modified for flying purposes, while the forelimbs of a human being are used for grasping. The basio similarity in the forelimbs of these different vertebrates indicates that all these vertebrates had common ancestry, i.e., they have evolved from a common ancestor who had ‘five digited’ or ‘pentadactyl’ limbs (basic plan of limbs).

This means that these vertebrates have modified according to the special needs of the subsequent generations during the course of evolution.

Question 60.
Explain with the help of an example each, how the following provide evidences in favour of evolution:
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Fossils (Delhi 2017, AI 2015, Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) Homologous organs perform different functions in different species but have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin. For example, forelimbs of a frog, lizard, bird and human being show similarity in basic structure. However, these organs perform entirely different functions but the basic similarity in the forelimbs of these different vertebrates indicates common ancestry. This means that these vertebrates have modified according to the special needs of the subsequent generations during the course of evolution.

(b) Analogous organs are different in fundamental structure and embryonic origin but have similar appearance and perform similar functions. For example, the wings of an insect and a bird have different structures but they perform the same function of flying. The presence of these organs indicates that they are not derived from common ancestors but they can still evolve to perform similar functions to survive, flourish and keep on evolving in the prevailing environment. This provides a mechanism for evolution.

(c) Fossils are the remains or impressions of the dead animals and plants that lived in the remote past. The fossils provide evidence for evolution. For example, a fossil bird called Archaeopteryx have characters of both reptiles and birds. It had feathers, fused bones and beak which are exclusive characters of birds and had teeth in the jaws, claws on fingers, a long tail, etc like reptiles. Thus, Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds, and hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles through the process of continuous evolution.

Question 61.
“Evolution and classification of organisms are interlinked”. Give reasons to justify this statement. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Evolution is the process by which newer types of organisms are developed from the pre-existing ones through modifications. Classification is the arrangement of organisms into a series of groups based on physiological, biological, anatomical or other relationships. All systems of classification are hierarchial. The more closely two species are related, the more recently they have a common ancestor. Classification of organisms necessarily involves organising them in different groups, based on the similarities and differences of characteristics. It helps in the recognisation of the basic arrangement of a hierarchical structure among diverse species. It facilitates studies or research of wide variety associated with organisms effortlessly. Thus, classification of species is infact a reflection of their evolutionary relationship or we can say that evolution and classification are interlinked.

Question 62.
“Two areas of study namely evolution’ and classification are interlinked”. Justify this statement. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 61.

Question 63.
List three factors that provide evidences in favour of evolution in organisms and state the role of each in brief. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Some of the important sources which provide evidences for evolution are homologous organs, analogous organs and fossils.
Also refer to answer 60.

Question 64.
(a) Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates all have eyes. Can we group eyes of these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer.
(b) “Birds have evolved from reptiles”. State evidence to prove the statement. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates cannot be grouped together on the basis of eye. Eyes of insects, octopus, Planaria and vertebrates are analogous organs which have developed over generation as an adaptation for similar function. They represent convergent evolution where distantly related groups develop similar functional structure as an adaptation for same function.

(b) Fossil bird Archaeopteryx had features like feathers, fused bones, beak which are the characteristic features of birds. It also had some features of reptiles, like, teeth in jaws, claws on free fingers, a long tail, etc. Thus, it represents a connecting link between reptiles and birds. This example provides a clue that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 65.
(a) Cite the evidence on the basis of which it is concluded that birds have evolved from reptiles.
(b) Insects, octopus, Planaria and vertebrates also possess eyes. Can these animals be grouped together on the basis of the eyes they possess. Why or why not ? Give reason to justify your answer. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 64(b).
(b) Refer to answer 64(a).

Question 66.
(a) Give the evidence that the birds have evolved from reptiles.
(b) Insects, octopus, Planaria and vertebrates possess eyes. Can we group these animals together on the basis of eyes that they possess? Justify your answer giving reason. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 64(b).
(b) Refer to answer 64(a).

Question 67.
What are fossils? How do they help in the study of evolution? (Delhi 2013C, AI 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 60(c).

Question 68.
Distinguish between homologous organs and analogous organs. In which category would you place wings of a bird and wings of a bat? Justify your answer giving a suitable reason. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Those organs which have the same basic structure and similar embryonic origin but different functions are called as homologous organs.

These organs follow same basic plant of organisation during development, but in adults got modified to perform different function as an adaptation to different environments. Those organs which have different basic structure and embryonic origin but perform similar functions are called analogous organs.

The wings of bird and wings of bat are analogous organs because the basic structure or design of the wings of bird and bat are different but they perform the similar function of flying.

Question 69.
How are fossils formed? Describe, in brief, two methods of determining the age of fossils. (AI 2012)
Answer:
When organisms like plants or animals die, their bodies get decomposed by the action of microorganisms in the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc. Sometimes the conditions in the environment are such (like absence of oxygen, moisture, etc.), which do not let the body of the organism to get decompose completely. It is the body (or body part) of an organism which we get as fossil on digging the earth. In many cases the soft parts of the organisms get decomposed and we get skeleton of hard parts (like teeth, bones, etc.) as fossil. Even the soft parts of the plants and animals (which usually decompose quickly) are sometimes preserved as fossils in the form of their impressions inside the rocks. For example, if a dead leaf gets caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly. The mud around the leaf will set around it as a mould,’gradually harden to form a rock and retain the impression of the leaf. This forms a leaf fossil which can be dug out from the earth a after a long time period.

The age of fossils can be determined in two ways as given below:
(i) By the relative method: When we dig into the earth, we find fossils at different depths. The fossils which we find in layers closer to the surface of the earth are more recent and those fossils which are found in deeper layers are older; whereas the fossils found in the deepest layers of earth are the oldest ones.

(ii) Carbon dating method: When a living object dies and forms fossil, its carbon-14 radioactivity goes on decreasing gradually. By this method, the age of fossils is found by comparing the carbon-14 radioactivity left in fossils with the carbon-14 radioactivity present in living objects today.

Question 70.
(a) We see eyes in Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates. Can eyes be grouped together in case of the above-mentioned animals to establish a common evolutionary origin? Why?
(b) State one evidence to prove that birds have evolved from reptiles. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 64 (a).
(b) Refer to answer 64 (b).

Question 71.
Explain how evolutionary relationship can be traced by the study of homologous organs. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Homologous organs provide morphological and anatomical evidences of evolution. There are number of organs in different groups of animals or plants which have similar basic design but are used for different purposes. These are termed as homologous organs. For example, the forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and human beings show similarity in basic structure. The basic similarity of forelimbs of these different vertebrates indicates that all these have evolved from a common ancestor who had five digited or pentadactyle limbs which became modified according to the special needs of subsequent generations during the course of evolution. Hence, homologous organs depict divergent evolution or adaptive radiation.

Question 72.
(a) How do the following provide evidences in favour of evolution in organisms? Explain with an example for each.
(i) Homologous organs
(ii) Analogous organs
(iii) Fossils
(b) Explain two methods to determine the age of fossils. (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 60.
(b) Refer to answer 69.

Question 73.
Define evolution. How does it occur?
Describe how fossils provide us evidence in support of evolution. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes, from simple life forms to complex life form, i.e., from primitive organisms that lived over millions of years ago to new organisms that exist today. Evolution occurs by changes, improvement and modification of simple life forms. Fossils are the remains or impressions of organisms that lived in the remote past. Fossils provide the evidence that the present animal have originated from previously existing ones through the process of continuous evolution. Fossils can be used to reconstruct evolutionary history of an organism. The distribution pattern of fossils shows that the ancient fossils present in the bottom rocks are simple, while the most recent fossils found in the upper strata are more highly evolved. It means fossils form and become more and more complex as we proceed from earliest to recent rocks. It gives us an idea of time in history when different species were formed or became extinct. Thus, fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution.

Question 74.
What are fossils? How are they formed? List two methods of determining the age of fossils. Explain in brief the importance of fossils in deciding the evolutionary relationships. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answers 60(c) and 69.

Question 75.
Define the term evolution. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress”. Justify this statement. (2020)
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.
Evolution should not be equated with progress because there is no real progress in the concept of evolution. Evolution is just the production of diversity of life forms and shaping of this diversity by the environmental selection. The only progress in evolution appears to be that more and more complex body designs of organisms have emerged over the ages. This will become clear from the following examples. When a new species is formed, it is not necessary that the old species will disappear or get eliminated from earth.

It will all depend on the environment. Also it is not as if the newly formed species are in any way better than the older ones. It is simply that genetic drift and natural selection processes have combined to form a population having different body design which cannot interbreed with the older population. It is a common belief that chimpanzees are the ancestors of human beings. It is, however, not true that human beings have evolved from chimpanzees. Actually, both chimpanzees and human beings had a common ancestor long time ago. The two offsprings of that ancestor evolved in their own separated ways to form the modern day chimpanzees and human beings.

Question 76.
Define the term “evolution”. Evolution should not be equated with progress.” Give reason to justify this statement. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 75.

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Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Science Chapter 10 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Science Chapter 10

Question 1.
State one function of iris in human eye. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Irish adark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.

Question 2.
State one function of the crystalline lens in the human eye. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
The crystalline lens of human eye focuses the light that enters the eye and form the image on the retina.

Question 3.
Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which enables us to see the nearby objects clearly? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation. The ciliary muscles modifies the curvature to some extent. The change in the curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. When the ciliary muscles contract, the lens becomes thick and its focal length decreases, thus enables us to see nearby objects clearly.

Question 4.
Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
When a bright light enters the eye then most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. Then, the crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus object at different distances on the retina. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. At retina, the light-sensitive cells get activated upon illumination and generate electric signals. These signals are sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals and finally, processes the information so that we perceive objects as they are.

Question 5.
Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does not change when we change the distance of an object from the eye? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation.
The ciliary musqles modifies the curvature to some extent. The change in the curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. Thus, the focal length of the human lens increases or decreases depending on the distance of the object value to this distance of the image does not change. For example, when the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and its focal length increases, thus enables us to see distant object clearly.

Question 6.
State the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea
(ii) Iris
(iii) Pupil (1.5/3, Delhi 2013 C)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : It is a transparenl bulge on the front surface of eyeball which refracls most ol lhe light rays entering the eye.
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Pupil: It controls the amount of light entering into the eye.

Question 7.
Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles (2/5, 2018, Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : Refer to answer 6(i).
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Crystalline lens : Refer to answer 2.
(iv) Ciliary muscles: Ciliary muscles holds the eye lens and helps in the adjustment of its focal length.

Question 8.
State the function of each of the following parts of the human eye :
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Pupil (iv) Retina (2/5, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : Refer to answer 6(i).
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Pupil: Refer to answer 6(iii).
(iv) Retina: It capture light and convert it into electric signals that are translated into images by the brain.

Question 9.
(a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they perform this function?
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye. (3/5, AI2014)
Answer:
(a) The part of the human eye that controls the amount of light entering into it is pupil.
Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea, the crystalline lens merely provides the linear adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina. Iris which is behind the cornea controls the size of the pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.

(b) Refer to answer 8(iv).

Question 10.
Person suffering from cataract has
(a) elongated eyeball
(b) excessive curvature of eye lens
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye lens
Answer:
(d) A person suffering from cataract has cloudy opaque eye lens.

Question 11.
(a) List two causes of hypermetropia.
(b) Draw ray diagrams showing (i) a hypermetropic eye and (ii) its correction using suitable optical device. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Hypermetropia is caused due to following reasons:
(i) Shortening of the eyeball
(ii) Focal length of crystalline lens is too long.

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 1

Question 12.
(a) A person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia.
(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?
(b) A person needs a lens of power +3 D for correcting his near vision and -3 D for correcting his distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct these defects. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) The lens which can correct the vision of such a person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia is a bifocal lens.

(ii) A common type of bifocal lens contains both concave and convex lens. It is prepared with the upper portion consisting of a concave lens facilitating distant vision and the lower portion consisting of convex lens facilitating near vision, (b) The power for correcting his near vision,
PN = +3 D.
As P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f(m)}\)
∴ Focal length of convex lens needed,
fN = \(\frac { 1 }{ P_N}\) = 0.33 m = +33.33 cm
Power required to correct distant vision, PD = -3D
∴ Focal length of concave lens,
fD = \(\frac { 1 }{ P_D}\) = -0.33 m = -33.33 cm.

Question 13.
A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.
(a) What is this condition called?
(b) When does it happen?
(c) Name the type of lens often required by the persons suffering from this defect. Draw labelled diagram of such lenses. (2020)
Answer:
(a) This condition is called presbyopia.
(b) It happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to agening.
(c) It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 2

Question 14.
What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using a suitable lens. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Myopia is also known as near-sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly.
Myopia can he corrected by using concave lens of appropriate local length.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 3

Question 15.
Name the three common defects of vision. What are their causes? Name the type of lens used to correct each of them. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Three common defects of vision are

  • Myopia
  • Hypermetropia
  • Presbyopia

Myopia can be caused due to following reasons.

  • Elongation of eyeball.
  • Excessive curvature of eye lens.

Hypermetropia can be caused due to following reasons.

  • Shortening of eyeball.
  • Focal length of eye lens becomes too long.

Presbyopia is caused due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to ageing.

Correction of these defects:

  • Myopia can be corrected by using concave lens of appropriate focal length.
  • Hypermetropia can he corrected by using convex lens of appropriate local length.
  • Presbyopia can be corrected by using bifocal lens.

Question 16.
A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it. (3/5, 2018)
Answer:
Student is suffering from myopia.
The two possible reasons due to which the defect of vision arises are : excessive curvature of the eye lens and elongation of the eye ball.
A student with myopia has the far point nearer than infinity, thus, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 4
Correction of myopia: This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power as it brings the image back on to the retina, thus the defect is corrected.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 5

Question 17.
A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m.
(a) List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain
(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes?
(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. (AI 2017)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 16.
(b) Focal length, f = -5 m
P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f(in meters)}\) or, p = \(\frac { 1 }{ -5}\) = -0.2D
Hence, the power is – 0.2 D.

Question 18.
Millions of people of the developing countries of world are suffering from corneal blindness. These persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A charitable society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute in this noble cause?
(a) State the objective of organising such campaigns.
(b) List two arguments which you would give to motivate the people to donate their eyes after death.
(c) List two values which are developed in the persons who actively participate and contribute in such programmes. (VBQ, 3/5, Delhi 2016)
Answer:
We can encourage people to participate in the camp and also register ourselves as a donator.
(a) The objective of organising such campaign is to make people aware and realize their duties towards society.
(b) (i) By donating our eyes after we die, we can light the life of a blind person.
(ii) One pair of eyes gives vision to two corneal blind people.
(c) (i) It shows the concern for others.
(ii) It also shows the responsible behavior towards the society.

Question 19.
A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blackboard placed at a distance of approximately 4 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from.
Explain the method of correcting this defect. Draw ray diagram for the
(i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 20.
Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due do gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly?
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay
express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman? (VBQ, AI 2015)
Answer:
Ciliary muscles modifies the curvature of eye lens and hence adjusts its focal length. I his enables us to see objects.
The defect of vision arises due to weakening of ciliary muscles in old age is presbyopia, person suffering from this defect should wear bifocal lenses. These lenses consists of both concave and convex lenses.
(a) Akshay is suffering from myopia or near-sightedness. He should use concave lens to correct this defect.
(b) Teacher and Salman are concerned and caring.
(c) Akshay can show his gratitude by saying thank you.

Question 21.
Millions of people of the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. This disease can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. Your school has organised a campaign in the school and its neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact and motivate people to donate their eyes after death. How can you along with your classmates contribute in this noble cause? State the objectives of organising such campaigns in schools. (VBQ, 3/5, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 18.

Question 22.
Do you know that the corneal-impairment can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of the donated eye?
How and why should we organise groups to motivate the community members to donate their eyes after death? (2/5, AI 2014)
Answer:
Yes, we know that the corneal – impairment can be cured by replacing the objective cornea with the cornea of the donated eye. We can provide the importance of eye donation to the community members. Our eyes can live even after our death. By donating our eyes after die, we can light the life of a blind person. The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs. It enables us to see the wonderful world and colours around us. It is however, impossible to identify colours while closing the eyes. Thus of all the sense organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables as to see the beautiful colourful word around us. Hence, we should donate our eyes after death.

Question 23.
What is myopia? List two causes for the development of this defect? How can this defect be corrected using a lens? Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation in case (i) defective eye and (ii) corrected eye. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Myopia is also known as near-sightedness defect in which a person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. This defect may arise due to
(a) excessive curvature of the eye.
(b) elongation of the eye ball.
This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
Refer to answer 16.

Question 24.
(a) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes. Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
(b) We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspapers. Write the importance of such advertisements. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) The person is suffering from hyperme-tropia.
Hypermetropia : It is a defect in an eye in which a person is not able to see nearby object distinctly but can see far objects clearly.
Refer to answer 11.
(b) It is important to advertise for eye donation on television or in newspaper because
(i) Few people are unaware about the fact that there can be an eye transplant through which blind people can see this colourful and beautiful world.
(ii) To encourage them to donate their eye by spreading awareness about it through television or newspaper.

Question 25.
A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for the (i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 26.
An old man cannot see objects closer than 1 m from the eye clearly. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagram for the (i) defect of vision and also (ii) for its correction. (AI 2012)
Answer:
He is suffering from hypermetropia. Refer to answer 24 (a).

Question 27.
Draw a diagram to show why distant objects cannot be seen distinctly by a myopic eye. List two reasons due to which this defect of vision may be caused.
A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects clearly beyond a distance of 2 m. Name the type of the corrective lens that would be needed to correct the defect of vision and draw a ray diagram to show how the defect gets corrected. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 28.
Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. Mark on it (a) the incident ray, (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of deviation. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 6
i = angle of incidence
(a) PE = incident ray
(b) FS = emergent ray
(c) ∠D = angle of deviation

Question 29.
Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation. (1/5, Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the’incident, thus the angle between them is known as angle of deviation (D).
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 7

Question 30.
Draw a labelled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
A rainbow is a natural spectrum caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 8
Point A denotes dispersion and point B denotes internal reflection.

Question 31.
How will you use two identical glass prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw and label the ray diagram. (2020)
Answer:
Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of a white light. He then placed a second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. This allowed all the colours of the white light to pass through the second prism combining to form a white light emerging from the other side of the second prism. This made him believe that white light was composed of different colours.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 9

Question 32.
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a narrow beam of
(i) a monochromatic light and (ii) white light passes through (a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? (2020)
Answer:
Glass slab:

  • It is a substance made of glass having three dimension and has cuboidal structure.
  • It does not deviate the path of light falling on it but produces a lateral displacement of the light ray after refraction. The incident and emergent ray are parallel to each other.

Glass prism:

  • A prism is a structure made of glass with two triangle bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces. These surfaces are inclined to each other.
  • A prism deviates the path of light ray falling on it. Here the incident ray and emergent ray are not parallel to each other.

(i) When a narrow beam of monochromatic light falls on a
(a) glass slab, it gets refracted at its surface and the emergent ray is laterally displaced from the incident ray.
(b) prism, it gets refracted at the surface and the light gets deviated from its initial path. The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray is known as angle of deviation.

(ii) When a white light passes through a
(a) glass slab, the light does not undergo dispersion as its two refracting surfaces are parallel to each other. The white light is laterally displaced from its initial path.
(b) prism, the white light undergoes dispersion and splits into its constituent colours along with deviation from its initial path.

Question 33.
(a) With the help of labelled ray diagram show the path followed by a narrow beam of monochromatic light when it passes through a glass prism.
(b) What would happen if this beam is replaced by a narrow beam of white light? (2020)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 10

Here, in the figure, ∠D is the angle of deviation of the given monochromatic light by the glass prism.
(b) If AO were a ray of white light, then on screen BC, a spectrum will be observed, consisting of seven colours arranged from bottom to top as follows. Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red (VIBGYOR)

Question 34.
What is rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
After a rain-shower, the sunlight gets dispersed by tiny droplets, present in the atmosphere. The water droplets acts like small glass prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reaches the observers eye, which is called a rainbow.
Refer to answer 30.

Question 35.
What is ‘dispersion of white light’? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours due to refraction is known as dispersion of white light.
Cause of dispersion : When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted and splits into seven constituent colours. The splitting of the light ray occurs due to the different bending angle for each colour. Thus, each colour ray when passing through the prism bends at different angles with respect to the incident beam, thus giving rise to a spectrum.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 11

Question 36.
State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton showed that white light of sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus of the first prism. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35 and 31.

Question 37.
Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw ray diagrams to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 31.

Question 38.
A narrow PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram. Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 12
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 13
(i) The phenomenon of the splitting up of the white light into its constituents colours is called dispersion of light. Dispersion of light is caused due to, different constituents colours of light after different refractive indices to the material of the prism.
(ii) The formation of rainbow is caused by the dispersion of the white sunlight into its constituent colours.
(iii) Based on the dispersion of white light into its constituents colours, we can conclude that
(a) The white light consists of seven colours.
(b) The violet light Millers maximum deviations and the red light suffers minimum deviation.

Question 39.
Define the term dispersion of white light. Name the colour of light which bends (i) the most, (ii) the least while passing through a glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 40.
What is a spectrum? How can we recombine the components of white light after a glass prism has separated them? Illustrate it by drawing a diagram. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 36.

Question 41.
When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow beam of white light, a spectrum is obtained. What happens when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate it. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 31.

Question 42.
Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate the dispersion of a narrow beam of white light when it passes through a glass prism. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35.

Question 43.
Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow and mark the point where
(i) dispersion, (ii) internal reflection occurs. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.

Question 44.
What is meant by the dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show dispersion of white light by the glass prism. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35.

Question 45.
Explain the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.

Question 46.
Give reasons:
(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a prism depends on the colour.
(ii) Lights of red colour are used for danger signals. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a prism depends on the colour because the refractive index of glass for different colour is different. It depends on wavelength of a particular light.

(ii) Since the wavelength of light is maximum in the spectrum, its penetration power in the air is maximum and so we can see red colour from farther distances. Thus, danger signal uses red colour.

Question 47.
(a) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through a glass prism, explain.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. (4/5, Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) When a beam of light incidents on a prism, it first gets refracted and splits into seven constituent colors. The splitting of the light ray occurs due to the different bending angle for each colour. Thus each colour ray when passing through the prism bends at different angles with respect to the incident beam. This gives rise to the formation of the spectrum.

(b) Refer to answer 30.

Question 48.
(a) What is dispersion of white light? State its cause.
(b) “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of sunlight.” Justify this statement by explaining, with the help of a labelled diagram, the formation of a rainbow in the sky. List two essential conditions for observing a rainbow. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 35.
(b) Refer to answer 34.
Two essential conditions for observing rainbow are
(i) Sun should be at the back of the observer.
(ii) Rainbow should be seen after rainfall or through a waterfall or water fountain.

Question 49.
(a) Trace on your answer sheet the path of a monochromatic ray AO incident on a glass prism and mark the angle of deviation.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 14
(b) If AO were a ray of white light,
(i) describe what will you observe on the screen BC placed near the prism
(ii) write the name of this phenomenon
(iii) state the cause of this phenomenon
(iv) what does it prove about the constituents of white light? (Delhi 2013 C)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 33(a)

(b) (i) Refer to answer 33(b)
(ii) This phenomenon is known as dispersion of light.
(iii) Refer to answer 35.
(iv) It proves that a white light consists of seven colours and lower the wavelength higher will be the deviation of light.

Question 50.
Why do stars appear to twinkle ? Explain. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 15

Due to atmospheric refraction, position of star visible from sun, is slightly different from its actual position. This apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing with change in physical condition on earths atmosphere. Since the stars are very distant, they are approximately point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers the star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

Question 51.
Explain why the planets do not twinkle. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Planets do not emit light. However, they become visible due to reflection of light falling on them. The planets are much closer to the earth and thus can be considered as the extended source of light. The fluctuations in the light coming from various points of the planet due to atmospheric refraction get averaged out. As a result, no twinkling of planets is seen.

Question 52.
Explain in brief the reason for each of the following:
(a) Advanced sun-rise
(b) Delayed sun-set
(c) Twinkling of stars (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a, b): The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. Figure shows the actual and apparent positions of the Sun with respect to the horizon. The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 16

(c) Refer to answer 50.

Question 53.
What is meant by advance sunrise and delayed sunset? Draw a labelled diagram to explain these phenomena. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 54.
Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the cause of twinkling of stars. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50.

Question 55.
A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is this effect called? State the reason for this effect. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
This effect is called twinkling of stars.
Refer to answer 50.

Question 56.
A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a labelled diagram. (AI2012)
Answer:
A star appears slightly above than its actual position in the sky. Since the starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere undergoes refraction continuously in a medium of gradually changing refractive index, before it reaches the earth. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the star appears slightly above than its actual position.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 17

Question 57.
“The time difference between the actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes” What is the reason for the same? Explain with the help of a diagram. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 58.
Explain why the planets do not twinkle but the stars twinkle. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50 and 51.

Question 59.
Why do stars twinkle ? Explain (2/3, 2018)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50.

Question 60.
What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refraction of the light by the different layers of the atmosphere having different refractive indices is known as atmospheric refraction.
(a) Twinkling of stars : Refer to answer 50.
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set : Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 61.
The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth. (2020)
Answer:
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.

Question 62.
Consider the following reasons for the reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset:
(A) Light from the sun near the horizon passes through thinner layers of air.
(B) Light from the sun covers larger distance of the earths atmosphere before reaching our eyes.
(C) Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles.
(D) Light from the sun near the horizon passes through thicker layers of air.
The correct reasons are
(a) A and C only
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only (2020)
Answer:
(b) Near the horizon, the light rays from the sun has to travel a larger distance through the Earth’s atmosphere as compared to when it is away from the horizon. Thus, when this light travels through the atmosphere, most of short wavelength lights are scattered away causing the reddish appearance of the sun.

Question 63.
What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering. Then, the sky would look dark.

Question 64.
Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall effect can be observed. (AI 2011)
Answer:
The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particle give rise to Tyndall effect.
This phenomenon is seen when a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room through a small hole. This can also be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest.

Question 65.
Why is the colour of clear sky blue? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
When sunlight passes the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter blue colour more strongly than red. This scattered blue light enters our eye and the colour of clear sky appears blue.

Question 66.
Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instance of observing the Tyndall effect. (2020)
Answer:
The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles give rise to Tyndall effect. When a beam of light strike colloidal particles, the path of the beam becomes visible. This is known as Tyndall effect.

This phenomenon can be observed when

  • sunlight passes through a canopy of dense forest, when tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light.
  • torch light is switched on in a foggy environment, light rays are visible after being scattered by the fog particles in the surrounding air.
  • a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room through a small hole.
  • shining a flashlight beam into a glass of dilated milk produces Tyndall effect.

Question 67.
Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset and (ii) white appearance of the sun at noon when it is overhead. (2020)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 18
At sun-rise and the sun-set, light from the sun passes through thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere. As the red colour has longest wavelength hence, it is least scattered by the air and dust particles. So, the sun appears reddish.

(ii) At noon, when sun is overhead, the distance to be travelled is least. All wavelengths are scattered equally and hence sun appears white.

Question 68.
(a) State the relation between colour of scattered light and size of the scattering particle.
(b) The apparent position of an object, when seen through the hot air, fluctuates or waves. State the basic cause of this observation.
(c) Complete the path of white light when it passes through two identical prisms placed as shown
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 19
Answer:
(a) The colour of scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particle. Very fine particles scatter short wavelengths such as blue and violet, lights. Large size particles scatter light of longer wavelengths.

(b) The basic cause of this observation is atmospheric refraction. As hot air is less denser then the colder air surrounding it, it has a slightly lower refractive index. Since the physical condition of the refracting medium, in air is not stationary, the apparent position of an object, when seen through hot air fluctuates.

(c) Refer to answer 31.

Question 69.
With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why the sun appears reddish at the sun-rise and the sun-set. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 67(i).

Question 70.
What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise. (AI 2015)
Answer:
The phenomenon by which a beam of light is redirected in many different directions when it interacts with a particle of matter is known as scattering of light.
Refer to answer 65 and 67(i).

Question 71.
Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the Earth. What should the appearance of the sky be during the day for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth? State reason to justify your answer. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 65.
For an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth, the appearance of the sky will be black due to absence of air molecules to scatter the light coming from the Sun.

Question 72.
State the difference in colours of the sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give explanation for each. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
During sunrise or sunset, the suns rays pass through a maximum length of the atmosphere. Most of the blue and shorter wavelength get scattered. Only the red colour of light reaches the observer. That is why the Sun observed during sunset and sunrise appear red. At noon, the distance to be travelled is least. All wavelengths are scattered equally and hence sun appears white.

Question 73.
Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to justify your answer. (3/5, 2018)
Answer:
Refer to answer 67(i).
This phenomenon cannot be seen by an astronaut on the moon because there is no atmosphere on moon to scatter the light.

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Sources of Energy Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Sources of Energy Class 10 Science Chapter 14 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Sources of Energy Class 10 Science Chapter 14

Question 1.
The biggest source of energy on Earths surface is
(a) Biomass
(b) Solar radiations
(c) Tides
(d) Winds (2020)
Answer:
(b) The biggest source of energy on Earths surface is solar radiations.

Answer question numbers 2-5 on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts:
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the World. The Tehri dam withholds a reservoir of capacity 4.0 km³ and surface area 52 km². It is used for irrigation, municipal water supply and the generation of 1000 MW of hydro electricity.

The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests. Environment activist Shri Sunder Lai Bahuguna led the “Anti Tehri Dam Movement” from 1980s to 2014. The protest was against the displacement of town inhabitants and environmental consequences of the weak ecosystem. The relocation of more than 1,00,000 people from the area has led to protracted legal battles over resettlement rights and ultimately resulted in the delayed completion of the project. (2020)

Question 2.
How is hydropower harnessed?
Answer:
Potential energy of water stored in a dam is converted into kinetic energy of falling water and then, this kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 3.
Define 1 MW.
Answer:
1 MW is the power consumed or dissipated by a device which consumes or dissipates 1 mega joule of energy per second.

Question 4.
Mention two disadvantages of constructing Tehri Dam.
Answer:
For the construction of Tehri Dam, relocation of more than 100000 people was needed which led to widespread protests and legal battles. Also large ecosystems were destroyed when it submerged under the water in dams causing emission of large amounts of methane which is a green-house gas.

Question 5.
What happens when water from great heights is made to fall on blades of turbine?
Answer:
When water from great heights is made to fall, the potential energy of these waters get converted into kinetic energy and when it falls on the blades of turbines, it rotates the turbine of a generator, thus producing electricity.

Question 6.
Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Biogas is considered as excellent fuel because

  • it does not produce smoke.
  • slurry left behind can be used as an excellent manure.

Question 7.
Name any two nutrients that the spent slurry has in the biogas plant. (AI 2019)
Answer:
Nitrogen and phosphorus.

Question 8.
Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant. (2018)
Answer:
Hydropower plant converts the potential energy of stored yrater into electrical energy.

Question 9.
Name any two fossils fuels. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Coal and petroleum are two fossil fuels.

Question 10.
Name any two conventional sources of energy. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) Fossil fuels (ii) Wind energy

Question 11.
What is meant by the term ‘Biomass’? (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Biomass : Cow-dung, various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable wastes and sewage which can be decomposed in the absence of oxygen is called biomass.

Question 12.
Write the characteristic features of the micro organisms which help in the production of biogas in a biogas plant. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
In a biogas plant, anaerobic micro-organisms are used. They do not require oxygen to decompose or break-down complex compounds of the cow- dung slurry.

Question 13.
What are fossil fuels? “Burning fossil fuels may lead to intense global warming.” Justify this statement. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Fossil fuels : The combustible substances formed from the dead remains of the animals and plants which were buried deep under the surface of the earth for over millions of years are called fossil fuels. Burning of fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide and excess carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes the greenhouse effect, leading to intense global warming.

Question 14.
What is the main constituent of biogas? How is biogas obtained from biomass? Write any two advantages of using this gas. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Tlie main constituent of biogas is methane (75%). Biogas is obtained by anaerobic decomposition of biomass in a biogas plant. The two advantages of using this gas are

  • It does not produce smoke.
  • It has high calorific value.

Question 15.
Define:
(i) Biomass
(ii) Anaerobic degradation (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) Refer to answer 11.
(ii) Anaerobic degradation : Breaking of large organic molecules into simple molecules in the absence of air is called anaerobic degradation.

Question 16.
There are many limitations associated with the setting up of wind energy farms to harness energy. Raman wants to generate electricity by using wind mill in his parental village in Uttar Pradesh.
(i) Is it advisable to set up such wind energy farms in his village? Give reason for your answer.
(ii) Write any two limitations associated with the wind energy farms.
(iii) Write the energy transformations which take place when wind mill is used for generating electricity? (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
(i) No, it is not advisable to set up such wind energy farms in his village because wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for the greater past of a year. The wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/h to maintain the required speed of the turbine.

(ii) Limitation of wind energy:
(a) Initial cost of establishment of the farm is quite high.
(b) The tower and blades need a high level of maintenance.
Sources of Energy Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 Img 1

Question 17.
Explain with the help of labelled diagram the process of production of biogas in a biogas plant. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Sources of Energy Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 Img 2

Working of the biogas plant:
Dung and domestic/agricultural wastes are mixed with water in the mixing tank. The slurry so obtained is fed into the digester through the inlet chamber. Gradually, the anaerobic fermentation sets in and biogas is produced. It takes about 6-8 weeks for a new biogas plant to start producing biogas at a reasonably fast rate. When the pressure of biogas inside the dome increases, it starts pushing the spent slurry into the outlet chamber, and finally into the overflow tank. The spent slurry being a rich source of plant nutrients is used as a manure in agricultural fields.

Biogas can be taken out for supply by spinning the gas valve. To make the biogas plant run continuously, dung slurry is fed into the digester and the spent slurry is removed from it from time to time.

Question 18.
List any four disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy are :

  • Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
  • It causes air pollution to the environment.
  • It takes millions of years for its formation.
  • It causes acid rain.

Question 19.
Which one of the following statement is not true about nuclear energy generation in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Energy is obtained by a process called nuclear fission.
(b) The nucleus of Uranium is bombarded with high energy neutrons.
(c) A chain reaction is set in the process.
(d) In this process a tremendous amount of energy is released at a controlled rate. (2020)
Answer:
(b) In a nuclear reactor, to produce nuclear energy, uranium is bombarded with low energy neutrons.

Question 20.
Assertion (A) : In the process of nuclear fission, the amount of nuclear energy generated by the fission of an atom of uranium is so tremendous that it produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an atom of carbon from coal. Reason (R) : The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, when bombarded with low energy neutrons, splits apart into lighter nuclei. The mass difference between the original nucleus and the product nuclei gets converted to tremendous energy.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).

Answer question numbers 21-24 on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts :
Geothermal energy is the energy produced by the heat of molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of the earth’s crust. This energy is harnessed to generate electricity. When water is made to flow deep underground in the rocks it returns as steam (or hot water, which is later converted to steam) to drive a turbine on an electric power generator.
In India, exploration and study of geothermal fields started in 1970. The Geological Survey in India has identified 350 geothermal energy locations in the country. The most promising of these is in Puga valley of Ladakh. The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is about 10000 MW. There are seven geothermal provinces in India namely the Himalayas, Sohna, West coast, Cambay, Son-Narmada-Tapi; Godavari and Mahanadi. Most power station in India produce Alternating Current (AC). (2020)

Question 21.
What are geothermal energy hot-spots?
Answer:
Due to geological changes, molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions of earths crust are pushed upward and trapped in certain regions. These regions are called hot spots.

Question 22.
Name two countries, other than India, where power plants based on geothermal energy are operational.
Answer:
Many geothermal power plants are operational in countries such as New Zealand and United States of America.

Question 23.
Name the phenomenon that explains the working of an electric generator.
Answer:
An electric generator works based on the principal of electromagnetic induction.

Question 24.
State an important advantage of using AC over DC.
Answer:
A.C. can be transmitted to distant places without much loss of electric power than D.C.

Question 25.
Name any one material used to make a solar cell and also mention the range of voltage produced by a typical cell. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:
Silicon is used to make a solar cell. A typical cell develops a voltage of 0.5 – 1 V.

Question 26.
Write the name of the substance whose vapours are used to run the turbine of the generator of ocean thermal energy plant. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
Volatile liquid ammonia.

Question 27.
Name the energy obtained from sea or ocean water due to the difference in temperature at the surface and in deeper sections of these water bodies. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Ocean thermal energy.

Question 28.
Explain the term ‘Hot Spots’ in the context of geothermal energy production. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 21.

Question 29.
Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells. (Board Term I, 2013)
Answer:
Silicon, Silver.

Question 30.
Differentiate between energy obtained by burning fossil fuels and that obtained as solar energy. (Board Term I, 2017, 2013)
Answer:

  • The reserves of fossil fuels are limited, i.e., exhaustible whereas solar energy is available in abundance (and that too without any cost), i.e., it is inexhaustible.
  • Fossil fuels cause pollution on burning whereas solar energy is pollution free.
  • Fossil fuels can provide energy at any required time whereas solar energy becomes unavailable when the sky is covered with clouds.

Question 31.
Define the process of nuclear fission. Write the steps involved in generating electricity in a nuclear reactor. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:
The phenomenon of splitting up of a heavy nucleus, on bombardment with slow speed neutrons, into two fragments of comparable mass, with the release of two or more fast moving neutrons and a large amount of energy is known as nuclear fission.
Steps involved in generating electricity:

  • Large atoms like uranium or plutonium are bombarded by slow moving neutron.
  • Large atoms break and releases lots of heat energy.
  • This heat is used to boil water to steam.
  • This steam rotates the turbine which produces electricity.

Question 32.
Name the three forms in which energy from sea is available for our use and write one limitation of each. (Board Term I, 2016)
Answer:

  • Tidal Energy:
    Limitation : The rise and fall of water during tides is not high enough to generate electrical energy on a large scale. There are very few places suitable for building dams. It is for these reasons, the tidal energy is not likely to be a major source of energy.
  • Wave energy:
    Limitation : Wave energy would be a viable proposition only where waves are very strong.
  • Ocean thermal energy Limitation : The efficient commercial exploitation is difficult.

Question 33.
Nuclear power is an excellent non-conventional source of energy. Still it is not used commonly for power generation. Why? State three reasons. (Board Term I, 2015)
Answer:
Nuclear power can not be exploited easily because:

  • the waste products of nuclear reactions (produced at nuclear power plants) are radioactive which keep on emitting harmful nuclear radiations for thousands of years. So, it is very difficult to store or dispose off nuclear wastes safely. Improper nuclear waste storage or disposal can pollute the environment.
  • there is the risk of accidents in nuclear reactors (especially the old nuclear reactors). Such accidents lead to the leakage of radioactive materials which can cause serious damage to the plants, animals (including human beings) and the environment.
  • the high cost of installation of nuclear power plants and the limited availability of uranium fuel make the large scale use of nuclear energy prohibitive.

Question 34.
Explain the principle and process of converting ocean thermal energy into electricity. (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Principle : There is a temperature difference between the water at the surface of the sea and deep below the sea. The difference in temperature at many places is of the order of 20°C. This difference in temperature can be exploited to produce electric energy in ocean thermal energy conversion plant (OTEC).

Working : In one of the methods, a low melting point liquid or fluid such as ammonia (volatile liquid) or chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is used to run the turbine of a generator. The warm surface water is used to boil the liquid like ammonia or CFC in a heat exchanger and vapours thus formed are used to drive the turbine of the generator. In another exchanger cold water from the depth of the ocean is pumped up to condense the vapours of the ammonia again to liquid. This ammonia is reused and the cycle repeats.

Question 35.
Give two examples each of the following :
(i) Renewable sources of energy
(ii) Non-renewable sources of energy (AI 2011)
Answer:
(i) Examples of renewable sources of energy are wind energy, solar energy, etc.
(ii) Coal, petroleum and natural gas are the examples of non-renewable sources of energy.

Question 36.
Write two points of difference between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy. Give one example of each. (Board Term I, 2017)
Answer:

Renewable source of energy Non-renewable source of energy
1. These sources of energy are replenishable. These sources of energy are not replenishable.
2. It takes less time to form again. It takes hundreds of years to form again.
3. Examples: sun wind etc. Example: coal, petroleum etc.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] – Year 2015

37.Name any two fossil fuels.
Ans. A good fuel is the one which

  •  has high calorific value,
  •  is non-polluting,
  •  is easy to transport and easily available,
  •  has moderate ignition temperature.

38.Mention the purpose of blackening the interior of a solar cooker.
Answer. The purpose of blackening the interior of a solar cooker is that the black surface absorbs more heat radiations of incident solar energy (about 98%) as compare to white or other light coloured surface

CBSE Class 10 Science – More Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Science
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers  Class 10 Science Important Questions

Short Answer Type Question[ll] [3 Marks] – Year 2015

39.Why do people oppose the construction of Tehri Dam on the river Ganga and Sardar sarover project on the river Narmada.  (Or)
Mention three disadvantage of producing hydroelectricity by constructing the dams.(Or)
List any three ways in which construction of dams for production of electricity adversely affects the environment of that place.
Answer. 

  1. Large area is required to build the dam that  result rehabilitation of displaced people.
  2. Large eco-systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams.
  3. The vegetation which is submerged rots under anaerobic conditions and gives rise to large amounts of methane gas which leads to a green-house effect.

40. Reena’s father works with a company that builds dams. Once he took her to the site where a dam was being built. Reena saw a group of people sitting there and shouting slogans against the building of dam. She talked the group of people and asked them about their problems and then discussed it with her father. She then tried to convince the people to talk with the authorities and come to an amicable solution. The discussion was successful. Reena’s father was very proud of his daughter. Now answer the following questions:
(i) Why was Reena’s father proud of his daughter?
(ii)Why was the group of people protesting against the building of dam?
(iii) Reena’s contribution to the peaceful resolution of the conflict proved to boon for many citizens of the country. How?
Answer.
(i) Because she convinced the people by explaining them the advantage of constructing dam and come with a solution of rehabilitation of displaced peoples. So the contribution to the peaceful resolution of the conflict make Reena’s father proud of his daughter.
(ii)The group of people protesting against the building of dam because of following disadvantages
(a) A large area of agricultural land and human habitation are sacrificed as it get submerged at the dam site.
(b) Large ecosystems are destroyed when submerged under water.
(c) The decomposition of vegetation under anaerobic condition produces methane gas which is also a greenhouse gas.
(iii)(a) The citizens are not affected by flood as it can be controlled by storing the water behind the dam.
(b) Farmers get benefited as water for irrigation is available for the whole year.
(c) Low cost of production of electricity gives monetary gain which is a boon to citizens.

41.Bio gas is an excellent fuel. Justify the statement by giving two reasons. Mention the main constituents of bio gas along with its percentage.
Answer. 
(i) It burns without smoke and leave no residue therefore causes no atmospheric pollution.
(ii)Its heating capacity is high, i.e. it has high calorific value. Main constituents of bio gas: The composition of bio gas varies depending upon the nature of organic matter feeding in’the digester and advanced waste treatment technology. The typical composition of bio gas is
Methane                                50 – 75%
Carbon dioxide                     25 – 50%
Nitrogen                                   0 – 10%
Hydrogen                                 0 – 1%
Hydrogen sulphide                0 – 3%

42.(a) Define tidal energy.
(b) Explain how the tidal energy is harnessed and write one limitation of the use of tidal energy.
Answer.
(a) Tidal energy: The energy produced by the surge of ocean water during high and low tides due to difference in sea-levels is called tidal energy. The high and low tides occur due to the gravitational pull of the moon. This causes enormous movement of water.
(b) Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam near the shores. During the high tides water flows into the dam and during the low tides, water flows out. This flowing water rotates the turbine, present at the opening of the dam and produces electricity.

43. Define process of nuclear fission. Writ the steps involved in generating electricity in a nuclear reactor.
Answer. Nuclear Fission: The process in which a heavy nucleus (such as uranium, plutonium or thorium) is broken into two nearly equal fragments when bombarded with low-energy neutrons and a tremendous amount of energy is released. This process is called nuclear fission.
Steps involved in generating electricity:

  1. The fuel rods full of uranium pellets are placed in a nuclear reactor chamber.
  2. Low-energy neutrons are bombarded on uranium fuel rod.
  3.  A self-sustaining fission chain reaction starts that releases energy at a controlled rate.
  4. With this heat the reactor converts water to steam at a high temperature and pressure.
  5. This high temperature and pressure steam spins generator turbines producing electricity.
  6. The steam cools back into water, which can then be used over again.

Long Answer Type Question [5 Marks] – Year 2015

44.Nikhil and Neha went to a remote village in Kerala to meet their grandmother. They were surprised to see a biogas plant in Mr. Nair’s house in the neighbourhood. There were plenty of livestocks and the household used cooking gas from the plant. Also their farms had rich vegetation. They contacted sarpanch of the village and convinced him to set up a biogas plant for village community.
(a) Mention the values displayed by Mr. Nair, Nikhil and Neha.
(b) Explain the possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha to the sarpanch to convince him to set up community biogas plant.
Answer.
(a) Mr Nair: Higher degree of general awareness, helping nature.
Nikhil and Neha: Knowledge sharing.
• helping nature.
• concern for community advantage.
(b) Possible arguments given by Nikhil and Neha in favour to set up community biogas plant, to the sarpanch on

  1. Economical source of energy.
  2.  Cleanliness of the whole village.
  3.  Use of slurry left behind as mannar which is rich in nitrogen and phosphorous.
  4. It reduces air pollution and greenhouse effect.
  5.  It raises the standard of living.
  6. It is beneficial to entire village community. Basically they discuss and explain the advantages of community bio gas plant for the’entire village.

45.Solar cooker takes more time as compared to the LPG to boil potato or rice, yet Kunal uses solar cooker for such type of cooking:
(i) Why does Kunal uses Solar cooker instead of LPG? Give reasons for your answer.
(ii) Name the phenomenon which is responsible for obtaining high temperature in solar cooker.
Answer.
(a)(i) There are no energy losses while cooking on the solar cooker as the food gets cooked in a controlled environment whereas cooking on the LPG leads to maximum percentage of energy loss.
(ii) Temperature controlled cooking retains the nutrient value of the food.
(iii) Using the solar cooker, LPG can be served which result reduction in the emission of  CO2.
(iv) It saves a lot of prestigious time which is normally consumed for cooking purpose.
(b) Greenhouse effect.

46. Manoj’s father works in a nuclear power reactor. He asked his father to take him for a visit to nuclear power reactor. But his father was not keen to take him there. Now answer the following questions:
(i) What could be the possible reason of Manoj’s father not taking him to the nuclear power reactor?
(ii) Write one advantages and one disadvantage of setting up a nuclear power reactor. .
Answer.
(a) (i) Safety concerns.
(ii) Health concerns.
(b) Advantage: From a small amount of nuclear fuel, a large amount of energy is released in a nuclear power reactor.
Disadvantage: There is risk of harmful radiation leakage from nuclear waste.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] – Year 2014

47. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the absence of oxygen.
Answer. Digester chamber.

48. Name the kind of energy possessed by wind and the device used to harness it.
Answer. Kinetic energy, wind mill.

49. List two non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer. Geothermal, solar, biomass, water, wind are the non-conventional sources of energy, (any two)

50. A black surface absorbs more heat radiations as compared to a white or a
reflecting surface under identical conditions. List two solar devices which make use of this property in their design.
Answer. Solar cooker, solar water heater.

51. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells.
Answer. Germanium, Silicon.

52. Why a solar cooker painted black form outside?
Answer. Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or reflecting surface under identical conditions.

Short Answer Type Question [I] [2 Marks] – Year 2014

53. Define fuel. List any two characteristics that you would look for in a good fuel.
Answer. A substance that produces useful energy when it burn or undergoes a chemical f or nuclear reaction. The fuel such as coal, wood, oil, or gas provides energy when burned. A good fuel is the one which produces a huge amount of heat on burning. It does not produce a lot of smoke and is easily available.

Short Answer Type Question[ll] [3 Marks] – Year 2014

54. State any three reasons to justify that LPG is considered as an ideal fuel.
Answer. LPG is considered as an ideal fuel because

  1.  It is easy to store, handle and transport.
  2.  It produces large amount of heat on burning.
  3.  It does not leave any residue on burning,

55. Sate any three advantages of charcoal over wood.
Answer. Advantages of charcoal over wood

  1.  It has higher calorific value, i.e. higher heat generating efficiency.
  2. Charcoal does not produce smoke on burning so it is a clean fuel.
  3.  It is easier to transport and ready to use in a convenient dry and broken-up form.

56. Ramesh is a student of standard X. He organized many activities in his school to convey the students about the various advantages and disadvantages of using renewable and non-renewable sources of energy. Many students of the school took part and concluded about the best choices of energy sources on this basis.
Answer the following questions:
(i) What activities Ramesh might have had assigned for the students?
(ii) Name any two renewable sources of energy.
(in) Which two values are reflected in Ramesh’s thought and action?
Answer. 
(i) Activities that Ramesh have had assigned for the students are:
(a) Hands on projects related to renewable and non-renewable sources of energy.
(b) Photograph exhibitions on the topic “use of fossil fuel and its impact on the environment.”
(c) Essay writing competition on a “renewable energy technology that could potentially be used for community.”
(d) Group discussion on advantages and disadvantages of using renewable and non-renewable sources of energy for selection of best source of energy.
(ii) Solar energy, hydro energy.
(iii) Ramesh’s thought: Higher degree of general awareness proper use of renewable source of energy.
Ramesh’s action: Concern for community advantage and good management.

57. Megha asked her mother to install a solar water heater on the roof top. Her mother asked about the need of such installation. Megha convinced her mother and succeeded in setting up a solar water heater on her roof top.
(i) State one advantage of installing the solar water heater to Megha’s family and to the society.
(ii) What qualities of Megha are reflected in her action?
(iii) State one limitation in using solar water heater.
Answer.
(i) Advantage of solar water heater (any one)
(a) Once solar water heater installed, the family and society never need to pay for heating up the water again.
(b) Megha’s family and society make their contribution to the nation to curb the emission of green house gases.
(ii) General awareness, concern for community advantage and proper use of ‘ renewable source energy.
(iii) (a) It does not work at night as well as on cloudy day.
(b) Relatively low heating system efficiency of passive solar water.

58. Mariyam made a solar cooker on her own. She used a white metallic box with a lid. She put the food in the solar cooker for heating and closed the lid. But she did not get good results. She then consulted her teacher to know her mistakes. Her teacher pointed out her mistakes, which she later rectified.
(a) According to you, which two mistakes were made by Mariyam and what
did she do to rectify them?
(b) Which qualities of Mariyam are rectified in her action.
answer.
(a) The possible mistakes were made by Mariyam are:

  •  The outer and interior of solar cooker might not have been blackened.
  • Instead of using glass lid she might have been used plastic cover.
  •  The solar cooker might not have been insulated properly.
  •  The cooker utensil used for cooking might not have been blackened.

(b) • Gaining practical knowledge of what she have learned in theory. She wanted to adopt the eco-friendly life style.

59. Aditya suggests his family to install a solar water heater at their residence. But
some of the family members were in favour of installing an electric geyser.
Ultimately the family got water heater installed.
(a) Which according to you was correct? Give two reasons in support of your answer.
(b) Mention two possible changes in the thinking of the family members
because of the arguments Given by Aditya.
answer. (a) The decision of installing the solar water heater was correct this is due to
(i) Their system use solar energy which is a renewable source of energy and free.
(ii)It will reduce our dependence on fossil fuel, improving on our energy security and reduce the country import bill for fuel.
(b) Two possible changes in the thinking of the family members because of the arguments given by Aditya are:
(i) We should conserve the non-renewable fuels for application for which renewable source of energy is not easily available.
(ii)Solar water heating is good investment and cost effective. It is one of the safe and efficient way to deliver hot water free of cost.

60. Traffic jams, outside the school gate was a common sight since most of the students came on their own cars. This became a topic for discussion on every P.T.A meeting. On one such P.T.A meeting, the principle pointed out the examples of four of their teachers who were carpooling for the past several
years. She asked the parents to adopt this method to sort out the problem.
(i) List two values shown by the teachers mentioned by the principal.
(i) Explain two advantages that will occur if more parents emulate the examples of these teachers.
answer.
(a) The two values shown by the teachers mentioned by the principle are:
(i) Eco-friendly life style.
(ii) Co-ordination and friendship.
(b) (i) Reduction in air pollution and traffic congestion: Car pooling reduces the emission of CO2 into the atmosphere as every car pooling participant takes another car off the road.
(ii) Save money: Car pooling saves money by using less fuel. It reduces the cost involved in repetitive or long distance journey.

61. On returning home, Neha, a IXth std. student noticed that her 6 years old brother Neresh, watching T.V in the afternoon with all the lights and fans ‘on’. She noticed that the windows were closed and curtains were drawn, which made the room dark, so, Naresh had put on the lights. She calmly opened the windows, drew the curtain aside, which illuminated and aerated the room. Then she made Naresh put “off” the lights and made him understand the reason behind her action. (Assume that they are getting electric supply from Thermal Power Plant)
(a) List the two value exhibited by Neha.
(b) Explain how she tried to give same values to her brother.
answer.(a) The values exhibited by Neha are:
(i) Responsible citizen in the conservation of energy resources.
(ii) Adopt fuel and money saving technique in her life.
(b) Neha tried to give the same values to her brother Naresh by opening the windows, draw the curtain aside, which illuminated and aerated the room. This way she shows the practice of adopting renewable sources of energy like solar energy and conserve the fossil fuel like coal.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] – Year 2013

62. What is acid rain? 
answer. Acid rain: The rain containing the acidic oxides such as oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur.

63.Write the name of the substance whose vapours are used to run the turbine of the generator of ocean thermal energy plant.
answer. Ammonia.

64. Mention the minimum temperature difference required between surface water and water at a depth of upto 2 km in an ocean thermal energy plant.
answer. 20 °C or 293 K in trapping geothermal energy

Short Answer Type Questions [II] [3 Marks] – Year 2013

65. State the principle of working of ocean thermal energy conversion plant.
Explain how the plant works? Write one essential condition for it to operate
properly.
answer. Principle of working of OTEC: The water at the surface of the ocean is warmer
than the water at deeper depths. This temperature difference can be used by
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) systems to generate electricity.
Working of OTEC:

  • In OTEC plant, the energy of warm surface water is used to convert low i boiling point liquid ammonia into gaseous state.
  •  The vapour of ammonia at high pressure is used to spin the turbines of generators converting the Ocean thermal energy to electricity.
  •  The used vapour pass through the condenser where cold water, pumped from the deeper parts of ocean condenses ammonia vapour back into a liquid.
  • This process is repeated again and again ,to get continuous production of electricity.
    Essential condition for it to operate properly: The temperature difference between the warmer water at the surface and colder water at depths up to 2 km should be 293 K (20°C) or more.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] – Year 2012

66.Name one fuel used in nuclear reactor.
answer. Uranium-235.

67.Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells.
answer. Germanium, Silicon.

68.Name the reaction responsible for large energy production in the sun.
answer. Nuclear fusion.

Short Answer Type Questions [II] [3 Marks] – Year 2012

69.Mention why is it not possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs? State three reasons to support your answer. Also mention three uses of solar cells.
answer. It is not possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs because:
(i) of limited availability of special grade semiconducting materials such as silicon and germanium.
(ii)solar cells have lower efficiency as they depend entirely on intensity of solar radiation.
(iii) the process of manufacturing of solar cells is very expensive, silver used for interconnection of cells in the panel further adds to the cost.
Uses of solar cells:
(i) They provide electric power to satellites and space probes.
(ii) They provide electric power to off-shore drilling platforms and light houses.
(iii) TV relay stations or wireless transmission systems located in remote areas use solar panels to get electric power.

70.Out of two elements A and B with mass number 2 and 235 respectively, which one is suitable for making ,
(a) a nuclear reactor,
(b) a hydrogen bomb?
Name the nuclear reaction involved in each case. Write one difference between the two types of nuclear reactions.
answer.
(a) For a nuclear reactor— element ‘B’ with mass number 235 is suitable as a fuel in a nuclear reactor.
(b) For a hydrogen bomb— element ‘A’ with mass number 2 is suitable for making the hydrogen bomb.
The nuclear reaction involved in
(a) nuclear reactor is nuclear fission reaction and
(b) nuclear bomb is nuclear fusion reaction.
Difference between fission and fusion:
Fusion reaction releases much greater energy with non-radioactive products than the energy released in fission reaction with radioactive products.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] – Year 2011

71. List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in the biogas plant contain.
answer. Nitrogen and phosphorous.

72. Biogas is also known as gobar gas. Justify.
answer. Starting material for biogas is mainly cow dung. So, it is also known as gobar gas.

73. List two practical uses of biogas in rural areas.
answer. Practical uses of biogas in rural area are:

  1.  It is an excellent fuel which burns without smoke with high heating capacity.
  2.  It is also used for lighting.

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] – Year 2011

74. Bio gas is considered to be a boon to the farmers. Give reasons.
answer.

  1. It is the source of excellent manure, rich in nitrogen and phosphorous which
    can be obtained from the biogas plant in addition to biogas.
  2.  It provides the safe, efficient and profitable disposal method for bio-waste and sewage material.

75. What are the advantages of nuclear energy?
answer. Advantages of nuclear energy are:

  1.  A small quantity of nuclear fuel is needed to produce a large amount of useful energy.
  2.  Nuclear power plant produces less atmospheric pollution than thermal power plants, if the nuclear fission reaction is performed properly.
  3.  Small amount of nuclear fuel can run a nuclear power plant over a long period of time. There is no need of inserting the nuclear fuel in the nuclear reactor again and again in a short period as in case of thermal power plant.

76. What is a solar cell panel? Mention any three of its applications.
answer. A large number of solar cells combined in an arrangement to obtain large electrical power is called solar cell panel.
Applications of solar cell panel are:
It provides the electric power for the:

  1. working of artificial satellites stationed in outer space,
  2.  running of irrigation water pumps by the farmers in rural areas,
  3.  street lighting in remote areas.

77. Out of two solar cookers, one was covered with a plane glass slab and the other was left open. Which of the two solar cookers will be more efficient and why?
answer. The solar cooker which was covered with a plane glass slab would be more efficient. The glass lid allows the heat radiation from sun to enter the solar cooker but does not allow the reflected heat radiation to escape or go outside the box. Thus, heat trapped inside the box increases the temperature. Glass lid also reduces heat loss due to reflection.

Short Answer Type Questions [II] [3 Marks] Year 2011

78.List any three hazards of nuclear waste. How does the disposal of nuclear waste pose a problem for the plant and animal life?
answer. Hazards of nuclear wastes are:

  1.  Nuclear waste contains radioactive substances which emit harmful nuclear radiations.
  2. There is a high risk of environmental contamination.
  3. It is highly toxic.
    Effect of nuclear waste on plant and animal life is:
    The radiations emitted from the nuclear waste penetrate deep inside the human or animal body where they can damage biological cells thereby initiate cancer or causes genetic disease.
    Increased mortality of plants, soil invertebrates and mammals and reproductive losses in plants and animals have also been observed.

79. (a) Charcoal is a better fuel than wood. Why? .
(b) How does biogas plant help to reduce the problem of pollution?
answer.
(a) Charcoal is considered to be a better fuel than wood because:

  1.  It burns without flames.
  2. It is comparatively smokeless.
  3. It has higher calorific value, i.e. higher heat generating efficiency than wood.

(b) Biogas plant helps to reduce the problem of pollution in the following ways.

  1.  It provides better sanitation due to safe disposal of bio-waste and sewage material.
  2. Biogas obtained from this plant produces less smoke on burning. (Hi) The residue left can be used as a manure which can be used as an alternative
    of fertilizers. Thus, it prevents soil and water from degradation.

80. (a) What is geothermal energy?
(b) What are the advantages of wind energy?
answer.
(a) The heat energy obtained from the molten rocks formed in the deeper hot regions inside the earth are called geothermal energy.
(b) Advantages of wind energy are:

  1.  It is an inexhaustible source of energy.
  2. It does not cause any environmental pollution.
  3.  It is available at free of cost.

81. (a) How does construction of dams across the river get linked with production of greenhouse gases?
(b) How do technological inputs improve the efficiency of biomass fuels?
answer.
 (a) A vast variety of plants get submerged in water, rot under anaerobic conditions and produce large amount of greenhouse gases such as methane.
(b) Traditional uses of biomass fuels are not only efficient but they also produce a lot of pollutants which are hazardous to health. Therefore, technological inputs are necessary to improve the efficiency of these fuels and make them environment friendly. With the help of technology, smokeless chulhas and biogas plants have been designed.

Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks] -Year 2010

82. Mention any four limitations in harnessing wind energy on a large scale.
answer. Limitations in harnessing wind energy are:

  1.  Speed of wind is not available at all time and at all places.
  2. To establish the wind energy farm, a large area of land is needed.
  3.  Speed of wind should be higher than 15 km/h to harness the wind energy.
  4. Construction of windmill and its installation is very expensive.

83. What happens when wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen? Name the residue left behind after the reaction and state two advantages of using this residue as a fuel over wood.
answer. When wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen, volatile materials present in it get removed and cooled to get wood tar and wood gas.
The black residue left behind aftqr the reaction is known as charcoal. Advantages of using charcoal as a fuel over wood are:

  1.  Burning of charcoal does not produce smoke. On the other hand, wood produces a lot of smoke on burning.
  2. For a given quantity, charcoal produces ,more heat than wood.

84. Name four gases commonly present in biogas. State two advantages of using this gas over fossil fuels.
answer.  Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
Advantages of using biogas over fossil fuels are:

  1.  Biogas burns without smoke, leaves no residue unlike coal.
  2. Biogas is cheaper as compared to fossil fuels.

85. How are the wastes produced in nuclear power plants different from those produced in a thermal power plants ? What happens to the waste of a nuclear power plant?
answer.The waste obtained from nuclear power plants is highly radioactive in nature which emits harmful radiations, whereas waste produced in a thermal power plant is non-radioactive.
Management of nuclear waste is given as follows:

  1.  Some products of nuclear waste are buried in sealed steel/lead containers for a long term storage, buried under the ground or dumped in vacated coal mines.
  2.  Other waste products transforms into less harmful products or to products with a shorter half life.

Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks] -Year 2009

86. In a solar cooker, the following arrangements are made. Write one function of each arrangement.
(a) The box is made of insulating material such as plastic or wood.
(b) The inner walls of the box are painted black.
(c) The box is covered with a transparent glass sheet.
(d) A plane mirror is hinged at an angle at the top of the box.
answer. 
(a) To avoid loss of heat from solar cooker to the surroundings.
(b) Black surface absorbs more heat radiations of incident energy.
(c) Transparent glass sheet does not allow the reflected heat radiation to go outside the box.
(d) To increase the amount of solar energy incident on the transparent glass sheet.

87. Describe how hydro energy can be converted into electrical energy. Write any
two limitations of hydro energy.
answer. Conversion of hydro energy into electrical energy

  • High rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water to collect it at a suitable height. The stored water has a lot of potential energy.
  • The water from a suitable height is allowed to fall on the blades of a turbine located at the bottom of a dam through a pipe.
  • Kinetic energy of flowing water rotates the turbine rapidly. Rotation of turbine helps the armature coil of generator to rotate rapidly in the magnetic field. Thus, hydroelectricity is generated.
    Limitations of hydro energy:
    (i) All river-sites are not suitable for construction of dams.
    (ii) Large ecosystems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dam.

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Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Light Reflection and Refraction to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Science Chapter 11 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Science Chapter 11

Question 1.
State one function of iris in human eye. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Irish adark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.

Question 2.
State one function of the crystalline lens in the human eye. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
The crystalline lens of human eye focuses the light that enters the eye and form the image on the retina.

Question 3.
Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which enables us to see the nearby objects clearly? (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation. The ciliary muscles modifies the curvature to some extent. The change in the curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. When the ciliary muscles contract, the lens becomes thick and its focal length decreases, thus enables us to see nearby objects clearly.

Question 4.
Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
When a bright light enters the eye then most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. Then, the crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus object at different distances on the retina. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. At retina, the light-sensitive cells get activated upon illumination and generate electric signals. These signals are sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals and finally, processes the information so that we perceive objects as they are.

Question 5.
Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does not change when we change the distance of an object from the eye? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called power of accommodation.
The ciliary musqles modifies the curvature to some extent. The change in the curvature of the eye lens can thus change its focal length. Thus, the focal length of the human lens increases or decreases depending on the distance of the object value to this distance of the image does not change. For example, when the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the lens becomes thin and its focal length increases, thus enables us to see distant object clearly.

Question 6.
State the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea
(ii) Iris
(iii) Pupil (1.5/3, Delhi 2013 C)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : It is a transparenl bulge on the front surface of eyeball which refracls most ol lhe light rays entering the eye.
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Pupil: It controls the amount of light entering into the eye.

Question 7.
Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles (2/5, 2018, Delhi 2016)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : Refer to answer 6(i).
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Crystalline lens : Refer to answer 2.
(iv) Ciliary muscles: Ciliary muscles holds the eye lens and helps in the adjustment of its focal length.

Question 8.
State the function of each of the following parts of the human eye :
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Pupil (iv) Retina (2/5, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
(i) Cornea : Refer to answer 6(i).
(ii) Iris : Refer to answer 1.
(iii) Pupil: Refer to answer 6(iii).
(iv) Retina: It capture light and convert it into electric signals that are translated into images by the brain.

Question 9.
(a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they perform this function?
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye. (3/5, AI2014)
Answer:
(a) The part of the human eye that controls the amount of light entering into it is pupil.
Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea, the crystalline lens merely provides the linear adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina. Iris which is behind the cornea controls the size of the pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.

(b) Refer to answer 8(iv).

Question 10.
Person suffering from cataract has
(a) elongated eyeball
(b) excessive curvature of eye lens
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye lens
Answer:
(d) A person suffering from cataract has cloudy opaque eye lens.

Question 11.
(a) List two causes of hypermetropia.
(b) Draw ray diagrams showing (i) a hypermetropic eye and (ii) its correction using suitable optical device. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Hypermetropia is caused due to following reasons:
(i) Shortening of the eyeball
(ii) Focal length of crystalline lens is too long.

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 1

Question 12.
(a) A person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia.
(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?
(b) A person needs a lens of power +3 D for correcting his near vision and -3 D for correcting his distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct these defects. (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) The lens which can correct the vision of such a person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia is a bifocal lens.

(ii) A common type of bifocal lens contains both concave and convex lens. It is prepared with the upper portion consisting of a concave lens facilitating distant vision and the lower portion consisting of convex lens facilitating near vision, (b) The power for correcting his near vision,
PN = +3 D.
As P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f(m)}\)
∴ Focal length of convex lens needed,
fN = \(\frac { 1 }{ P_N}\) = 0.33 m = +33.33 cm
Power required to correct distant vision, PD = -3D
∴ Focal length of concave lens,
fD = \(\frac { 1 }{ P_D}\) = -0.33 m = -33.33 cm.

Question 13.
A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.
(a) What is this condition called?
(b) When does it happen?
(c) Name the type of lens often required by the persons suffering from this defect. Draw labelled diagram of such lenses. (2020)
Answer:
(a) This condition is called presbyopia.
(b) It happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to agening.
(c) It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 2

Question 14.
What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using a suitable lens. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Myopia is also known as near-sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly.
Myopia can he corrected by using concave lens of appropriate local length.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 3

Question 15.
Name the three common defects of vision. What are their causes? Name the type of lens used to correct each of them. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Three common defects of vision are

  • Myopia
  • Hypermetropia
  • Presbyopia

Myopia can be caused due to following reasons.

  • Elongation of eyeball.
  • Excessive curvature of eye lens.

Hypermetropia can be caused due to following reasons.

  • Shortening of eyeball.
  • Focal length of eye lens becomes too long.

Presbyopia is caused due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to ageing.

Correction of these defects:

  • Myopia can be corrected by using concave lens of appropriate focal length.
  • Hypermetropia can he corrected by using convex lens of appropriate local length.
  • Presbyopia can be corrected by using bifocal lens.

Question 16.
A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it. (3/5, 2018)
Answer:
Student is suffering from myopia.
The two possible reasons due to which the defect of vision arises are : excessive curvature of the eye lens and elongation of the eye ball.
A student with myopia has the far point nearer than infinity, thus, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 4
Correction of myopia: This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power as it brings the image back on to the retina, thus the defect is corrected.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 5

Question 17.
A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m.
(a) List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain
(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes?
(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. (AI 2017)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 16.
(b) Focal length, f = -5 m
P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f(in meters)}\) or, p = \(\frac { 1 }{ -5}\) = -0.2D
Hence, the power is – 0.2 D.

Question 18.
Millions of people of the developing countries of world are suffering from corneal blindness. These persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A charitable society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute in this noble cause?
(a) State the objective of organising such campaigns.
(b) List two arguments which you would give to motivate the people to donate their eyes after death.
(c) List two values which are developed in the persons who actively participate and contribute in such programmes. (VBQ, 3/5, Delhi 2016)
Answer:
We can encourage people to participate in the camp and also register ourselves as a donator.
(a) The objective of organising such campaign is to make people aware and realize their duties towards society.
(b) (i) By donating our eyes after we die, we can light the life of a blind person.
(ii) One pair of eyes gives vision to two corneal blind people.
(c) (i) It shows the concern for others.
(ii) It also shows the responsible behavior towards the society.

Question 19.
A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the blackboard placed at a distance of approximately 4 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from.
Explain the method of correcting this defect. Draw ray diagram for the
(i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 20.
Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due do gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly?
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay
express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman? (VBQ, AI 2015)
Answer:
Ciliary muscles modifies the curvature of eye lens and hence adjusts its focal length. I his enables us to see objects.
The defect of vision arises due to weakening of ciliary muscles in old age is presbyopia, person suffering from this defect should wear bifocal lenses. These lenses consists of both concave and convex lenses.
(a) Akshay is suffering from myopia or near-sightedness. He should use concave lens to correct this defect.
(b) Teacher and Salman are concerned and caring.
(c) Akshay can show his gratitude by saying thank you.

Question 21.
Millions of people of the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. This disease can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. Your school has organised a campaign in the school and its neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact and motivate people to donate their eyes after death. How can you along with your classmates contribute in this noble cause? State the objectives of organising such campaigns in schools. (VBQ, 3/5, Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 18.

Question 22.
Do you know that the corneal-impairment can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of the donated eye?
How and why should we organise groups to motivate the community members to donate their eyes after death? (2/5, AI 2014)
Answer:
Yes, we know that the corneal – impairment can be cured by replacing the objective cornea with the cornea of the donated eye. We can provide the importance of eye donation to the community members. Our eyes can live even after our death. By donating our eyes after die, we can light the life of a blind person. The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs. It enables us to see the wonderful world and colours around us. It is however, impossible to identify colours while closing the eyes. Thus of all the sense organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables as to see the beautiful colourful word around us. Hence, we should donate our eyes after death.

Question 23.
What is myopia? List two causes for the development of this defect? How can this defect be corrected using a lens? Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation in case (i) defective eye and (ii) corrected eye. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Myopia is also known as near-sightedness defect in which a person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. This defect may arise due to
(a) excessive curvature of the eye.
(b) elongation of the eye ball.
This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
Refer to answer 16.

Question 24.
(a) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes. Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
(b) We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspapers. Write the importance of such advertisements. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) The person is suffering from hyperme-tropia.
Hypermetropia : It is a defect in an eye in which a person is not able to see nearby object distinctly but can see far objects clearly.
Refer to answer 11.
(b) It is important to advertise for eye donation on television or in newspaper because
(i) Few people are unaware about the fact that there can be an eye transplant through which blind people can see this colourful and beautiful world.
(ii) To encourage them to donate their eye by spreading awareness about it through television or newspaper.

Question 25.
A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for the (i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 26.
An old man cannot see objects closer than 1 m from the eye clearly. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagram for the (i) defect of vision and also (ii) for its correction. (AI 2012)
Answer:
He is suffering from hypermetropia. Refer to answer 24 (a).

Question 27.
Draw a diagram to show why distant objects cannot be seen distinctly by a myopic eye. List two reasons due to which this defect of vision may be caused.
A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects clearly beyond a distance of 2 m. Name the type of the corrective lens that would be needed to correct the defect of vision and draw a ray diagram to show how the defect gets corrected. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 16.

Question 28.
Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism. Mark on it (a) the incident ray, (b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of deviation. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 6
i = angle of incidence
(a) PE = incident ray
(b) FS = emergent ray
(c) ∠D = angle of deviation

Question 29.
Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation. (1/5, Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the’incident, thus the angle between them is known as angle of deviation (D).
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 7

Question 30.
Draw a labelled diagram to explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
A rainbow is a natural spectrum caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 8
Point A denotes dispersion and point B denotes internal reflection.

Question 31.
How will you use two identical glass prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw and label the ray diagram. (2020)
Answer:
Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of a white light. He then placed a second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. This allowed all the colours of the white light to pass through the second prism combining to form a white light emerging from the other side of the second prism. This made him believe that white light was composed of different colours.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 9

Question 32.
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a narrow beam of
(i) a monochromatic light and (ii) white light passes through (a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? (2020)
Answer:
Glass slab:

  • It is a substance made of glass having three dimension and has cuboidal structure.
  • It does not deviate the path of light falling on it but produces a lateral displacement of the light ray after refraction. The incident and emergent ray are parallel to each other.

Glass prism:

  • A prism is a structure made of glass with two triangle bases and three rectangular lateral surfaces. These surfaces are inclined to each other.
  • A prism deviates the path of light ray falling on it. Here the incident ray and emergent ray are not parallel to each other.

(i) When a narrow beam of monochromatic light falls on a
(a) glass slab, it gets refracted at its surface and the emergent ray is laterally displaced from the incident ray.
(b) prism, it gets refracted at the surface and the light gets deviated from its initial path. The angle between the incident ray and emergent ray is known as angle of deviation.

(ii) When a white light passes through a
(a) glass slab, the light does not undergo dispersion as its two refracting surfaces are parallel to each other. The white light is laterally displaced from its initial path.
(b) prism, the white light undergoes dispersion and splits into its constituent colours along with deviation from its initial path.

Question 33.
(a) With the help of labelled ray diagram show the path followed by a narrow beam of monochromatic light when it passes through a glass prism.
(b) What would happen if this beam is replaced by a narrow beam of white light? (2020)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 10

Here, in the figure, ∠D is the angle of deviation of the given monochromatic light by the glass prism.
(b) If AO were a ray of white light, then on screen BC, a spectrum will be observed, consisting of seven colours arranged from bottom to top as follows. Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red (VIBGYOR)

Question 34.
What is rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
After a rain-shower, the sunlight gets dispersed by tiny droplets, present in the atmosphere. The water droplets acts like small glass prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reaches the observers eye, which is called a rainbow.
Refer to answer 30.

Question 35.
What is ‘dispersion of white light’? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours due to refraction is known as dispersion of white light.
Cause of dispersion : When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted and splits into seven constituent colours. The splitting of the light ray occurs due to the different bending angle for each colour. Thus, each colour ray when passing through the prism bends at different angles with respect to the incident beam, thus giving rise to a spectrum.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 11

Question 36.
State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton showed that white light of sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus of the first prism. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35 and 31.

Question 37.
Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw ray diagrams to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 31.

Question 38.
A narrow PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram. Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 12
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 13
(i) The phenomenon of the splitting up of the white light into its constituents colours is called dispersion of light. Dispersion of light is caused due to, different constituents colours of light after different refractive indices to the material of the prism.
(ii) The formation of rainbow is caused by the dispersion of the white sunlight into its constituent colours.
(iii) Based on the dispersion of white light into its constituents colours, we can conclude that
(a) The white light consists of seven colours.
(b) The violet light Millers maximum deviations and the red light suffers minimum deviation.

Question 39.
Define the term dispersion of white light. Name the colour of light which bends (i) the most, (ii) the least while passing through a glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 38.

Question 40.
What is a spectrum? How can we recombine the components of white light after a glass prism has separated them? Illustrate it by drawing a diagram. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 36.

Question 41.
When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow beam of white light, a spectrum is obtained. What happens when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate it. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 31.

Question 42.
Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate the dispersion of a narrow beam of white light when it passes through a glass prism. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35.

Question 43.
Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow and mark the point where
(i) dispersion, (ii) internal reflection occurs. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.

Question 44.
What is meant by the dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show dispersion of white light by the glass prism. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35.

Question 45.
Explain the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 30.

Question 46.
Give reasons:
(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a prism depends on the colour.
(ii) Lights of red colour are used for danger signals. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a prism depends on the colour because the refractive index of glass for different colour is different. It depends on wavelength of a particular light.

(ii) Since the wavelength of light is maximum in the spectrum, its penetration power in the air is maximum and so we can see red colour from farther distances. Thus, danger signal uses red colour.

Question 47.
(a) Why do the component colours of incident white light split into a spectrum while passing through a glass prism, explain.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. (4/5, Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) When a beam of light incidents on a prism, it first gets refracted and splits into seven constituent colors. The splitting of the light ray occurs due to the different bending angle for each colour. Thus each colour ray when passing through the prism bends at different angles with respect to the incident beam. This gives rise to the formation of the spectrum.

(b) Refer to answer 30.

Question 48.
(a) What is dispersion of white light? State its cause.
(b) “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of sunlight.” Justify this statement by explaining, with the help of a labelled diagram, the formation of a rainbow in the sky. List two essential conditions for observing a rainbow. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 35.
(b) Refer to answer 34.
Two essential conditions for observing rainbow are
(i) Sun should be at the back of the observer.
(ii) Rainbow should be seen after rainfall or through a waterfall or water fountain.

Question 49.
(a) Trace on your answer sheet the path of a monochromatic ray AO incident on a glass prism and mark the angle of deviation.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 14
(b) If AO were a ray of white light,
(i) describe what will you observe on the screen BC placed near the prism
(ii) write the name of this phenomenon
(iii) state the cause of this phenomenon
(iv) what does it prove about the constituents of white light? (Delhi 2013 C)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 33(a)

(b) (i) Refer to answer 33(b)
(ii) This phenomenon is known as dispersion of light.
(iii) Refer to answer 35.
(iv) It proves that a white light consists of seven colours and lower the wavelength higher will be the deviation of light.

Question 50.
Why do stars appear to twinkle ? Explain. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 15

Due to atmospheric refraction, position of star visible from sun, is slightly different from its actual position. This apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing with change in physical condition on earths atmosphere. Since the stars are very distant, they are approximately point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers the star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

Question 51.
Explain why the planets do not twinkle. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Planets do not emit light. However, they become visible due to reflection of light falling on them. The planets are much closer to the earth and thus can be considered as the extended source of light. The fluctuations in the light coming from various points of the planet due to atmospheric refraction get averaged out. As a result, no twinkling of planets is seen.

Question 52.
Explain in brief the reason for each of the following:
(a) Advanced sun-rise
(b) Delayed sun-set
(c) Twinkling of stars (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(a, b): The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. Figure shows the actual and apparent positions of the Sun with respect to the horizon. The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 16

(c) Refer to answer 50.

Question 53.
What is meant by advance sunrise and delayed sunset? Draw a labelled diagram to explain these phenomena. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 54.
Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the cause of twinkling of stars. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50.

Question 55.
A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is this effect called? State the reason for this effect. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
This effect is called twinkling of stars.
Refer to answer 50.

Question 56.
A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a labelled diagram. (AI2012)
Answer:
A star appears slightly above than its actual position in the sky. Since the starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere undergoes refraction continuously in a medium of gradually changing refractive index, before it reaches the earth. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the star appears slightly above than its actual position.
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 17

Question 57.
“The time difference between the actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes” What is the reason for the same? Explain with the help of a diagram. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 58.
Explain why the planets do not twinkle but the stars twinkle. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50 and 51.

Question 59.
Why do stars twinkle ? Explain (2/3, 2018)
Answer:
Refer to answer 50.

Question 60.
What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Refraction of the light by the different layers of the atmosphere having different refractive indices is known as atmospheric refraction.
(a) Twinkling of stars : Refer to answer 50.
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set : Refer to answer 52(a) and (b).

Question 61.
The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth. (2020)
Answer:
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.

Question 62.
Consider the following reasons for the reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset:
(A) Light from the sun near the horizon passes through thinner layers of air.
(B) Light from the sun covers larger distance of the earths atmosphere before reaching our eyes.
(C) Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles.
(D) Light from the sun near the horizon passes through thicker layers of air.
The correct reasons are
(a) A and C only
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only (2020)
Answer:
(b) Near the horizon, the light rays from the sun has to travel a larger distance through the Earth’s atmosphere as compared to when it is away from the horizon. Thus, when this light travels through the atmosphere, most of short wavelength lights are scattered away causing the reddish appearance of the sun.

Question 63.
What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering. Then, the sky would look dark.

Question 64.
Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall effect can be observed. (AI 2011)
Answer:
The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particle give rise to Tyndall effect.
This phenomenon is seen when a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room through a small hole. This can also be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest.

Question 65.
Why is the colour of clear sky blue? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
When sunlight passes the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter blue colour more strongly than red. This scattered blue light enters our eye and the colour of clear sky appears blue.

Question 66.
Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instance of observing the Tyndall effect. (2020)
Answer:
The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles give rise to Tyndall effect. When a beam of light strike colloidal particles, the path of the beam becomes visible. This is known as Tyndall effect.

This phenomenon can be observed when

  • sunlight passes through a canopy of dense forest, when tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light.
  • torch light is switched on in a foggy environment, light rays are visible after being scattered by the fog particles in the surrounding air.
  • a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room through a small hole.
  • shining a flashlight beam into a glass of dilated milk produces Tyndall effect.

Question 67.
Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset and (ii) white appearance of the sun at noon when it is overhead. (2020)
Answer:
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 18
At sun-rise and the sun-set, light from the sun passes through thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere. As the red colour has longest wavelength hence, it is least scattered by the air and dust particles. So, the sun appears reddish.

(ii) At noon, when sun is overhead, the distance to be travelled is least. All wavelengths are scattered equally and hence sun appears white.

Question 68.
(a) State the relation between colour of scattered light and size of the scattering particle.
(b) The apparent position of an object, when seen through the hot air, fluctuates or waves. State the basic cause of this observation.
(c) Complete the path of white light when it passes through two identical prisms placed as shown
Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 10 Img 19
Answer:
(a) The colour of scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particle. Very fine particles scatter short wavelengths such as blue and violet, lights. Large size particles scatter light of longer wavelengths.

(b) The basic cause of this observation is atmospheric refraction. As hot air is less denser then the colder air surrounding it, it has a slightly lower refractive index. Since the physical condition of the refracting medium, in air is not stationary, the apparent position of an object, when seen through hot air fluctuates.

(c) Refer to answer 31.

Question 69.
With the help of a labelled diagram, explain why the sun appears reddish at the sun-rise and the sun-set. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 67(i).

Question 70.
What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise. (AI 2015)
Answer:
The phenomenon by which a beam of light is redirected in many different directions when it interacts with a particle of matter is known as scattering of light.
Refer to answer 65 and 67(i).

Question 71.
Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the Earth. What should the appearance of the sky be during the day for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth? State reason to justify your answer. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 65.
For an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth, the appearance of the sky will be black due to absence of air molecules to scatter the light coming from the Sun.

Question 72.
State the difference in colours of the sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give explanation for each. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
During sunrise or sunset, the suns rays pass through a maximum length of the atmosphere. Most of the blue and shorter wavelength get scattered. Only the red colour of light reaches the observer. That is why the Sun observed during sunset and sunrise appear red. At noon, the distance to be travelled is least. All wavelengths are scattered equally and hence sun appears white.

Question 73.
Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to justify your answer. (3/5, 2018)
Answer:
Refer to answer 67(i).
This phenomenon cannot be seen by an astronaut on the moon because there is no atmosphere on moon to scatter the light.

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Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Our Environment Class 10 Science Chapter 15 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Our Environment Class 10 Science Chapter 15

Human body is made up of five important components ofwhich water is the main component. Food as well as potable water are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.

Question 1.
Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
Answer:
The pesticides are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. As human beings occupy the topmost level in food chain, their concentration becomes maximum in our bodies.

Question 2.
Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent.
Answer:
By using biological methods for controlling insects in fields and by washing fruits and vegetables before eating could help to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent.

Question 3.
Various steps in a food chain represent:
(a) food web
(b) trophic level
(c) ecosystem
(d) biomagnification.
Answer:
(b) trophic level

Question 4.
With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:
(a) Consumer
(b) Producer
(c) Producer and consumer
(d) Producer and decomposer. (2020)
Answer:
(a) consumer

Question 5.
Food web is constituted by
(a) relationship between the organisms and the environment
(b) relationship between plants and animals
(c) various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem
(d) relationship between animals and environment. (2020)
Answer:
(c) various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem

Question 6.
What is an ecosystem? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unit of the biosphere. It comprises of living organisms and their non-living environment that interact by means of food chains and biogeo-chemical cycles resulting in energy-flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form stable self-supporting system.

Question 7.
Why is a lake considered to be a natural ecosystem? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Lake is an ecosystem where living organisms grow, reproduce and interact among each other as well as with abiotic components and carry out other activities in nature by themselves without any human interference, therefore it is referred to as a natural ecosystem.

Question 8.
In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks from snakes?
Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks (AI 2017)
Answer:
In an ecosystem, only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to next, i.e. 10 percent law and rest is dissipated into the environment. Therefore, if plants (being producers-1st trophic level)-transfer 500 J of energy to rats (2nd trophic level) then rats would transfer 50 J of energy to snakes (3rd trophic level) which in turn will transfer only 5 J of energy to hawks (4th or last trophic level) in a food chain.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 1

Question 9.
In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producers?
Plants → Deer → Lion (AI 2017)
Answer:
As per 10% law of flow of energy in an ecosystem only 10% of energy is received by the next trophic level. Hence, in the given food chain : If 100 .J of energy is available to lion, the plants or producers have 10,000 J of energy available to them.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 2

Question 10.
List two biotic components of a biosphere. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Two biotic components of a biosphere are:
(i) Producers – Include organisms which can produce their food using simple inorganic compounds, e.g., all green plants, blue green algae (cyanobacteria).
(ii) Consumers – Include organisms which are unable to synthesise their food, therefore, utilise materials and energy stored by the producers or eat other organisms, e.g., all the animals.

Question 11.
Why are green plants called producers? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Green plants are called producers because they manufacture their own food with the help of CO2 and H2O in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.

Question 12.
In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level to frog. (AI 2016)
Answer:
In the given food chain, frog belongs to the third trophic level as shown here :
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 3

Question 13.
Why do producers always occupy the first trophic level in every food chain? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Producers are the green plants that can manufacture food using CO2 and H2O in the presence of sunlight, i.e., they are autotrophs. They serve as a source of food for all non-producers or consumers directly or indirectly. Hence, producers occupy the first trophic level in a food chain.

Question 14.
We often use the word environment. What does it mean? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Environment can be defined as the physical or biological world where an organism lives. Literally speaking, an organisms immediate surrounding constitutes its environment which includes both biotic and abiotic components around him.

Question 15.
Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains? Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores (AI 2015)
Answer:
Herbivores always occupy the second trophic level of food chains.

Question 16.
The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it. Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Among the following organisms of the food chain, hawk being top consumer is present at topmost trophic level, hence will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals due to a phenomenon known as biomagnification.

Question 17.
List two examples of natural ecosystem. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The two examples of natural ecosystem are :

  • Forest ecosystem
  • River ecosystem

Question 18.
What is meant by the term ‘Biomass? (Board Term I, 2014)
Answer:
Biomass is the total amount of living or organic matter in an ecosystem at any time.

Question 19.
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers. Why? (Delhi 2012, Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers because these microorganisms break down the complex organic matter present in dead plants and animals into simpler substances.

Question 20.
In a food chain, if 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer, how much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? (AI 2012)
Answer:
According to ten percent law, 10% of the energy of producer will be available to primary consumer, and 10% of this energy will be available to secondary consumer and so on.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 4
Hence, 100 J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to tertiary consumer.

Question 21.
Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:
Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be available to the deer to transfer it to the lion? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
The energy available to the deer is 1000 J to transfer it to the lion. This can be depicted as follows:
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 5

Question 22.
What is meant by biological magnification? (AI 2011)
Answer:
Biological magnification or biomagnification refers to the process of accumulation of non- biodegradable chemicals (pesticides, etc.) into the body of organisms through the food chain which go on increasing in its concentration at each trophic level.

Question 23.
Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment. (AI 2011)
Answer:
Pesticides are the chemicals used to kill plant and animal pests. They are non-biodegradable and toxicants. For example, excessive use of DDT resulted in reduced population of fish eating birds. DDT accumulated in such birds through the food chain. It interfered with the egg shell formation. The shell being thin broke due to weight of the bird during incubation. Hence, their population declined.

Question 24.
What are decomposers? List two important roles they play in the environment. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Decomposers are microorganisms including bacteria and fungi which decompose or break-down the complex organic compound present in dead plants and animals into simpler substances. Role of decomposers in environment are-

  • They help in decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals and hence act as cleansing agents of environmcnl.
  • ‘They help in recycling of materials in the ecosystem lo maintain its stability.

Question 25.
List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem. (AI 2014)
Answer:
The existence of decomposers in an ecosystem is essential because:
(i) If there were no decomposers, then the dead bodies of plants and animals would keep lying as such and the elements constituting plant and animal bodies would never be returned to their original pools like soil, air and water. In such case the organic waste go on accumulating and the cyclic process of life and death would be disrupted.

(ii) Decomposers make the soil fertile by providing/replenishing nutrients to it, thus forming the integral part of ecosystem.

Question 26.
State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the earth. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Consequences of elimination of decomposers are:
(i) There would be no recycling of nutrients and therefore, raw materials to produce food will not be available to producers. Hence, the food chains will get affected.
(ii) The dead bodies of plants and animals will go on accumulating in the absence of decomposition thereby polluting the environment.

Question 27.
What does a trophic level represent in a food chain? State the position of autotrophs and herbivores in a food chain. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Trophic level represents each of several hierarchical levels of a food chain operating in an ecosystem, consisting of organism sharing the same function in the food chain and the same nutritional relationship to the primary sources of energy.

The position of producers (or autotrophs) in a food chain constitute the first trophic level. They fix up sun’s energy and make it available for consumers. The herbivores or primary consumers (which feed upon plants) constitute the second trophic level in a food chain.

Question 28.
(a) From the following group of organisms create a food chain which is most advantageous for human beings in terms of energy.
Hawk, Rat, Cereal plant, Goat, Snake, Human being
(b) State the possible disadvantage if the cereal plant is growing in soil rich in pesticides.
(c) Construct a food web using the organisms mentioned above. (2020)
Answer:
(a) A food chain which is most advantageous for human beings in terms of energy is:
Cereal plant → Human being

(b) If the cereal plant is growing in soil rich in pesticides, these pesticides are absorbed by growing plants along with water and minerals, when animals eat these cereal plants, these poisonous chemical pesticides go into their bodies through food. This increase in concentration of harmful pesticides in the body of living organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. Pesticides are lethal to non-target species also. The extensive use of pesticides in agriculture can change the community of microorganisms living in soil.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 6

Question 29.
(a) Create a food chain of the following organisms.
Insect, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
(b) Name the organism at the third trophic level of the created food chain.
(c) Which organism of this food chain will have the highest concentration of non- biodegradable chemicals?
(d) Name the phenomenon associated with it.
(e) If 10,000 Joules of energy is available to frogs, how much energy will be available to snakes in this food chain? (2020)
Answer:
(a) Grass → Insect → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(b) Frog is present in the above created food chain.
(c) Hawk is the top consumer of the food chain, so, it will have high concentration of non- biodegradable chemicals.
(d) Biological magnification
(e) As per 10% law of flow of energy in an ecosystem, only 10% of energy is received by the next trophic level. Hence, in the given food chain, if 10,000 Joules of energy is available to frog, then the energy available to snakes will be 1000 Joule.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 7

Question 30.
(a) What is an ecosystem?
(b) List any two natural ecosystems.
(c) We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why? (2020)
Answer:
(a) An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unit of the biosphere comprising of living organisms and their non-living environment.
(b) Two examples of natural ecosystem are: pond ecosystem and grassland ecosystem.
(c) Ponds or lakes being natural ecosystems are self sufficient and do not need to be maintained regularly. On the other hand, aquarium being an artificial ecosystem needs to be cleaned and maintained regularly as it contains mainly fishes as living organisms, as compared to natural ecosystems where presence of other organisms maintains a balance. Also, because the producers and decomposers are absent in aquarium the fish waste or excretory products, i.e., ammonia may turn into toxic compounds and accumulate to dangerous levels causing the fishes to die. Hence, the artificial ecosystems like aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly.

Question 31.
What is meant by trophic level in a food chain? Construct a terrestrial food chain with trophic levels. The energy flow in a food chain is always unidirectional. Why? (2020)
Answer:
The various steps representing organisms in a food chain at which the transfer of food and energy takes place are called trophic levels.
Four trophic levels in a terrestrial food chain:
Grass → Rabbit → Wild cat → Tiger
There is a unidirectional llow of energy from sun to producers and subsequenllv to series of different types of consumers, i.e.,
Solar radiations → Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores
It cannot pass in reverse direction, lhcre is always a decrease in the flow of energy and content with rise in trophic level. Large quantity of energy is lost at each step in the form of heat and is also used up in various metabolic activities.

Question 32.
Complete the following flow chart based on ecosystem and its components.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 8
Answer:

  • Aquatic
  • Abiotic
  • Inorganic substances
  • Producers
  • Structural and functional unit of biosphere

Question 33.
(a) Construct a terrestrial food chain comprising four trophic levels.
(b) What will happen if we kill all organisms in one trophic level?
(c) Calculate the amount of energy available to the organisms at the fourth trophic level. If the energy available to the organisms at the second trophic level is 2000 J. (2020)
Answer:
(a) A terrestrial food chain with four trophic levels is :
Grass → Insect → Frog → Eagle
(b) Removal of the organisms of any trophic level will always adversely affect the ecosystem, e.g., the removal of lions and tigers (top carnivores) will cause rapid increase in deer population, which leads to rapid consumption of vegetation resulting in scarcity of vegetation and population crash of deer.

(c) According to ten percent law, only 10% of the energy is received by the next trophic level.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 9
If the energy available at second trophic level (T2) is 2000 J, so the 20 J of energy will be at fourth trophic level (T4).

Question 34.
Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
An ecosyslcm is defined as a structural and functional unil of ihe biosphere. It comprises of living organisms and their non-living environment that interact by means of food chains and biogeo-chemical cycles resulting in energy-flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form stable self-supporting system.

Green plants capture about 1% of the solar energy incident on the earth to carry out the process of photosynthesis. A part of this trapped energy is used by plants in performing their metabolic activities and some energy is released as heat into the atmosphere. The remaining energy is chemical energy stored in the plants as photosynthetic products. When these green plants are eaten up by herbivores, the chemical energy stored in the plants is transferred to these animals. These animals (herbivores) utilise some of this energy for metabolic activities and some energy is released as heat while the remaining energy is stored in their body. This process of energy transfer is repeated till top carnivores. In an ecosystem, transfer of energy follows 10 percent law, i.e,, only 10 percent of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level. Nearly 90 percent of energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next.

The given block diagram shows unidirectional flow of energy at different trophic levels in a freshwater ecosystem:
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 10

Question 35.
What is a food chain? Why is the flow of energy in an ecosystem unidirectional? Explain briefly. (AI 2019)
Answer:
The sequential interlinking of organisms involving transfer of food energy from the producers, through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is called the food chain. A food chain involves a nutritive interaction between the living organisms of an ecosystem. There is a unidirectional flow of energy from sun to producers and subsequently to series of different types of consumers, i.e.,
Solar radiations → Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores

It cannot pass in reverse direction. There is always a decrease in the flow of energy and content with rise in trophic level. Large quantity of energy is lost at each step in the form of heat and is also used up in various metabolic activities.

Question 36.
“Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional.” Justify this statement.
Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body. (Foreign 2015, AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 35.

Some harmful non-biodegradable chemicals (pesticides, e.g., D.D.T.) enter the bodies
of organisms through the food chains and get concentrated at each trophic level. This phenomenon is called biomagnification or biological magnification. For example, in a food chain operating in a pond, river or lake, the water contains a small amount — 0.02 ppb (parts per billion) of harmful pesticides, i.e., D.D.T. When this water is consumed by phytoplanktons and zooplanktons, the concentration of these chemicals increases to 5 ppm. Fishes feeding on these, accumulate 240 ppm. Birds and humans feeding on these fishes were found to contain 1600 ppm of these chemicals. Thus, there is an increase in the concentration of the chemicals at each trophic level.

Question 37.
“Our food grains such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain varying amounts of pesticide residues.” State the reason to explain how and why it happens. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Pesticides are poisonous chemical substances which are sprayed over crop plants to protect them from pests and diseases. These chemical pesticides mix up with soil and water. From soil and water, these pesticides are absorbed by the growing plants along with water and other minerals. When herbivorous animals feed on these plants the poisonous pesticides enter their bodies through the food chain. Similarly, when the carnivorous animals eat these herbivores, the pesticides get transferred to their bodies. Therefore, the plant products such as food grains, vegetables and fruits as well as meat of animals contain varying amounts of pesticide residues in them depending upon the trophic level they occupy in a food chain.

Question 38.
What is meant by food chain? “The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.” Give reason to justify this statement. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The sequence of living organisms in a community in which one organism consumes or feeds upon another organism to transfer food energy, is called a food chain. The various steps in a food chain at which the transfer of food (or energy) takes place are called trophic levels. In fact, in a food chain, each step representing an organism forms a trophic level.

The number of trophic levels in a food chain are limited because at each trophic level only 10% of energy is utilised for the maintenance of organism which occur at that trophic level and the remaining large portion is lost as heat. As a result organisms at each trophic level pass on lesser energy to the next trophic level, than they receive. The longer the food chain, the lesser is the energy available to the final member of food chain. Food chains generally consist of three or four trophic levels because beyond that the energy available to the next organism will be too small and insufficient to sustain the life of that organism.

Question 39.
(a) What is an ecosystem? List its two main components.
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) Refer to answer 34.
The two main components of ecosystem are :

  • Abiotic components – Non-living components of ecosystem, e.g., soil, water, air, light, etc.
  • Biotic components – Living components of ecosystem, e.g., plants, animals and microbes.

(b) Refer to answer 30 (c).

Question 40.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
(b) Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet radiations.
(c) Ozone is deadly poisonous.
(d) Ozone gets decomposed by UV radiations. (2020)
Answer:
(d) Ozone gets decomposed by UV radiations. (2020)

Answer questions numbers 41 to 44 on the basis of your understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts:
India today is facing the problem of overuse of resources, contamination of water and soil and lack of methods of processing the waste. The time has come for the world to say goodbye to “single use plastics”. Steps must be undertaken to develop environment-friendly substitutes, effective plastics waste collection and methods of its disposal. Indore treated 15 lakhs metric tonnes of waste in just 3 years, through biomining and bioremediation techniques. Bioremediation involves introducing microbes into a landfill to naturally ‘break’ it down and biomining involves using trommel machines to sift through the waste to separate to ‘soil’ and the waste component. The city managed to chip away 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste at a cost of around t 10 crore. A similar experiment was successfully carried out in Ahmedabad also.

Question 41.
State two methods of effective plastic waste collection in your school.
Answer:
Two methods of effective plastic waste collection : (i) Use of separate dustbins for plastic collection (ii) Use of reusable for the canteen and school events (iii) Encourage less plastic in packed lunches.

Question 42.
Name any two uses of ‘single use plastic’ in daily life.
Answer:
Single use plastic, often also referred to as disposable plastics are commonly used for plastic packaging and include items intended to be use only once before they are thrown away or recycled. These include grocery bags, food packaging, bottles, straws, containers, cups and cutlery.

Question 43.
If we discontinue the use of plastic, how can an environment-friendly substitute be provided?
Answer:
Best alternatives’can be use of stainless steel, glass and platinum. Silicone storage containers. Cloth bags can be used in place of plastic bags. Use of wooden cleaning brushes, kitchen utensils and cutting board, pottery and other ceramics products, etc.

Question 44.
Do you think microbes will work similarly in landfill sites as they work in the laboratory? Justify your answer. (2020)
Answer:
Microbes may not work exactly the same way in landfill sites as they work in laboratories because it is difficult to replicate the exact ambient conditions required for the microbes to thrive in these two conditions. But due to same downstream processing and other mechanism, they will work similarly in landfill sites.

Question 45.
The depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why? (AI 2016)
Answer:
Ozone layer is the ozone rich area in the stratospheric layer of atmosphere which acts as a protective shield by preventing harmful UV radiations from entering the Earth surface. Hence, the depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern.

Question 46.
Write one negative effect on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society. (Al 2016, 2014)
Answer:
Affluent lifestyle of few persons leads to exploitation and over consumption of resources leading to their scarcity and generation of greater amount of waste materials which causes imbalance in environment.

Question 47.
Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of concern? (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
CFCs or Chlorofluorocarbons are potent compounds that release active chlorine in the atmosphere which reacts with ozone molecules present there to convert them to oxygen. This results in thinning of ozone layer. Hence, excessive use of CFCs is a cause of concern.

Question 48.
What is the function of ozone in the upper atmosphere? (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Ozone (O3) gas forms a protective shield in the upper atmosphere that absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from Sun that can harm human beings, animals and plants. It protects us from various health hazards.

Question 49.
Why should biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins? (Delhi 2015, 2013)
Answer:
Biodegradable wastes are decomposed naturally by the action of microbes which degrade them to their simple constituents enabling their nutrients to recycle among the biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem. However, non-biodegradable wastes cannot be disposed off naturally since they cannot be decomposed by microbes. Such wastes are either recycled, incinerated or put in landfills, etc. As the disposal methods of the two types of waste is different, it is advisable to discard the two types of waste in two separate dustbins.

Question 50.
Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer. (Foreign 2015, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the group of compounds mainly responsible for ozone depletion.

Question 51.
Which class of chemical is linked to the decrease in the amount of ozone in the upper atmosphere of the Earth? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The decrease in the amount of ozone in the atmosphere has been linked to synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as coolant and in fire extinguishers, etc.

Question 52.
What happens when higher energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher level of the atmosphere? (Al 2012)
Answer:
When high energy ultraviolet radiations react with oxygen present in stratosphere (the higher level of atmosphere) it splits into its constituent atoms. Since these atoms produced are very reactive they react with molecular oxygen (O2) to form ozone (O3).

Question 53.
Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
United Nations act to control the production of CFCs as they are the main chemicals responsible for ozone depletion.

Question 54.
Why is decrease of ozone in our ozone layer a cause for our worry? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Refer to answer 45.

Question 55.
“Industrialisation has adversely deteriorated the environment.” Give four reasons in support of this statement. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Industrialisation has deteriorated our environment in the following ways :

  • Rapid industrialisation has increased the demand of more land area for setting up of new factories. This demand is being fulfilled by clearing up of forest area. Deforestation is one of the major causes of ecological imbalance, biodiversity loss and ecosystem unstability.
  • Industries release various harmful gases in the environment which pollute the air. These gases when inhaled by people around, cause various respiratory diseases in them.
  • A lot ol effluent and liquid waste is discharged from various industries which is mostly dumped into nearby water bodies. This causes water pollution. Polluted water causes death of various aquatic organisms and consumption of this polluted water causes various diseases in humans.
  • The solid waste released from factories is dumped on open land and not treated properly to ensure their proper decomposition. Ibis leads to land pollution that degrades quality of soil and also causes various kinds of diseases in humans and animals.

Question 56.
Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to these bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Government of India is imposing a ban on the use of polythene hags because these are non-bindegradahle substances which are not acted upon by the microbes. So, they cannot be decomposed and therefore persist in the environment for a long time thereby causing harm to the ecosystem. I’oh bags choke drains which results in water logging, that allows breeding of mosquitoes and hence leads to various diseases like malaria, dengue, etc. Jute bags and cloth bags are the alternatives to the polythene bags.

Question 57.
In some states of our country there is a ban on the use of polythene bags for shopping. Why? List three advantages of using jute or cloth bags over polythene bags. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 56.
The three advantages of using jute or cloth bags over polythene bags are :

  • They are made of biodegradable material.
  • They can be reused.
  • They do not pollute our environment.

Question 58.
“Affluent life style has a negative effect on the environment.” Justify this statement with the help of an example. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
With the advancement in technology over time, there has been improvement in lifestyle of people. Such changes in peoples lives have also changed their attitudes. When people have more resources at their end they tend to overuse and misuse it thereby generating huge amounts of wa>le material. for example, the atllueiit life style has forced people to start using more of disposable articles, e.g., plastic cups, bags, etc., which keep on accumulating in the environment and lie undecomposed, therein negatively a Heeling the environment.
Similarly, excessive use of refrigerators and air conditioners, plastic foams, etc., also releases high quantities of CFCs which are responsible for ozone depletion.

Question 59.
Give one example each from your daily life where the domestic waste can be effectively reused and recycled. (AI 2014)
Answer:
We can reuse plastic and glass jars of jams and pickles, etc, for the purpose of storage of things like salt, sugar, tea, etc., whereas we can recycle newspapers, plastic of some types, broken glass and metal wares for making fresh paper, plastic, glass and metal objects.

Question 60.
“To discard the household waste we should have two separate dust-bins, one for the biodegradable waste and the other for the non-biodegradable waste.” Justify this statement suggesting the proper way of disposal of these wastes. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
“To discard the household waste we should have two separate dust-bins, one for the biodegradable waste and the other for the non-biodegradable waste.” Segregation of biodegradable and non- biodegradable waste is utmost important for their proper disposal, as different methods are adopted for their disposal, biodegradable wastes can be composted whereas non-biodegradable wastes can be recycled, incinerated or landfilled.

Question 61.
We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to make the residents realise that the improper disposal of their waste is harmful to the environment. (Foreign 2014, Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Some of the ways to make people realise that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the environment includes making people aware of negative impacts of waste disposal. They can be made aware by:
(i) Conducting seminars about the negative effects of the wastes on environment.
(ii) Usage of pamphlets and posters for providing information.
(iii) Forming an eco-club in the society for spreading awareness about the ill effects of waste on the surroundings such as :

  • Improper disposal of waste will release harmful gases in the environment that make it unclean and unhygienic for the living organisms.
  • The waste will flow to water bodies along with rain water and become a threat to aquatic life and pollute the water bodies.
  • It provides space for breeding of the mosquitoes and which results in spread of malaria, filariasis, dengue, etc.
  • Hazardous chemicals from wastes get into the soil and can harm the plants when they take up the contamination through their roots. This will affect the health of other animals and humans and will have negative impact on environment.

Question 62.
Suppose you find a heap of domestic waste, in a nearby park, which is decomposing. What would you do to make the people of the surrounding area realise that such type of disposal of domestic waste is harmful to the environment? (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 61.

Question 63.
(a) Write two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to the usage of plastic bags.
(b) List any two practices that can be followed to dispose off the waste produced in our homes. (2020)
Answer:
(a) Two harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment:
(i) Plastic bags are non-biodegradable substances which are not acted upon by microbes. So, they cannot be decomposed and therefore persist in the environment for a long time causing harm to the soil fertility and quality.
(ii) Plastic bags choke drains which result in waterlogging, that allows breeding of mosquitoes and hence leads to various diseases.
Jute bags and cloth bags are the alternatives to the polyethene bags.

(b) Practices that can be followed to dispose off the waste produced in our homes:

  • Separation of biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes.
  • The biodegradable waste can be converted to manure.
  • Non-biodegradable waste should be disposed off at suitable places from where municipal authorities can pick them up and dispose properly and scientifically.
  • Use discarded bottles and jars to store food, items.

Question 64.
(a) Complete the following table :

Oxygen Ozone
Formula (i) …………. (ii) …………..
Benefits to biotic component (iii) ………….. (iv) ……………..

(b) How is ozone formed at the higher level of atmosphere? (2020)
Answer:
(a) (i) O2
(ii) O3
(iii) Respiration
(iv) Absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun.

(b) When high energy ultraviolet radiations react with oxygen present in stratosphere (the higher level of atmosphere) it splits into its constituent atoms. Since these atoms produced are very reactive they read with molecular oxygen (O2) to form ozone (O3).
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 11

Question 65.
You have been selected to talk on “Ozone layer and its protection” in the school assembly on ‘Environment Day’.
(a) Why should ozone layer be protected to save the environment?
(b) List any two ways that you would stress in your talk to bring in awareness amongst your fellow friends that would also help in protection of ozone layer as well as the environment. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) The ozone layer is very important for the existence of life on earth because it forms a protective shield around earth by absorbing most of the harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiations coming from the Sun and prevents them from reaching the Earth.

The UV radiations have extremely harmful effects on human beings, animals and plants as well, i.e., cause mutations, skin cancer, cataract, damage immune system, etc. So, ozone layer must be protected to save the environment.

(b) The two ways which can help in protection of ozone layer and environment are :
(i) The use of chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are widely used in refrigerators and air conditioners (as a coolant), in fire extinguishers and in aerosol sprayers destroy the ozone layer gradually. We can protect our ozone layer by avoiding the use of such objects which are releasing UFCs.

(ii) Nitrous oxide is the largest ozone depleting substance as well as greenhouse gas released by human activities, such as from motor vehicles, fertilisers. People should be encouraged to use more public transport, car pooling, using hybrid or electric cars and use of fertiliser formulations to reduce emission of nitrous oxide.

Question 66.
After the examinations Rakesh with his friends went on a picnic to a nearby park. All friends carried cooked food packed in plastic bags or plastic cans. After eating the food some friends collected the leftover food and plastic bags etc., and planned to dispose them off by burning. Rakesh immediately checked them and suggested to segregate the leftover food and peels of fruits from the plastic materials and respectively dispose them off separately in the green and red dustbins placed in the corner of the park.
(a) In your opinion, is burning plastic an eco-friendly method of waste disposal? Why? State the advantage of method suggested by Rakesh.
(b) How can we contribute in maintaining the parks and roads neat and clean? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) No, burning plastic is not an eco-friendly method of waste disposal, burning plastics can produce toxic fumes and cause air pollution. Plastic, being non-biodegradable cannot be dumped (land filled), so the best way to dispose plastic items is to recycle them. Recycling is a less polluting and more sustainable option.

Rakesh segregated left over food items, fruit peels, i.e., biodegradable waste and plastic material, i.e., non-biodegradable waste. The biodegradable waste can be converted to manure whereas non-biodegradable waste can be recycled. This contributes in decreasing the level of pollution and easy disposal and treatment of waste.

(b) We can contribute to keep our roads and parks clean by adopting following habits:

  • We should recycle non-biodegradable waste products instead of dumping it in garbage.
  • We should use carry bags made of natural fibre as jute, cloth, instead of plastic bags.
  • We should make compost of biomass collected from park such as food waste, leaf litters, etc,.
  • We should stop littering, throwing garbage and spitting on road sides, parks, etc.

Question 67.
Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving the environment. (A I2015, Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Differences between biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes are as follows:

Biodegradable Wastes Non-biodegradable Wastes
(i) These are biological in origin. These are mostly man-made.
(ii) These are degraded by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi. These are not degraded by micro-organisms.
(iii) These do not get biologically magnified in food chains. These enter into the food chains and get biologically magnified.
(iv) These can be converted into resource. Examples-sewage, cattle dung, household garbage, etc. Some of these can be recycled. Examples-plastic objects, synthetic fibres, glass objects, etc.

People should adopt the following changes in their habit to dispose off non-biodegradable waste, so as to save the environment.

  • Non-biodegradable household waste should be disposed in separate dustbins and should not be mixed with biodegradable waste.
  • Recyclable „ non-biodegradable wastes like glass, paper, metal, various types of plastics etc., can be sent to local recycling units.
  • People should try to reuse items as much as possible instead of disposing them as this reduces need of new materials and keeps ecological impact down.
  • Use of cloth bags/gunny bags/paper bags instead of polythene /plastic bags.
  • Use of compost, vermicompost instead of fertilisers.

Question 68.
What is ozone ? How and where is it formed in the atmosphere ? Explain how does it affect an ecosystem. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Ozone is a form of oxygen. It is a made up of three atoms of oxygen. It is highly poisonous. However, good amount of ozone is present in upper part of the atmosphere called stratosphere. In the stratosphere ozone is being photo- dissociated and generated simultaneously by absorption of harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiations coming from sun.
Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 Img 12
The two reactions are in equilibrium thereby maintaining a steady concentration of ozone in the stratosphere. Ozone layer is commonly called ozone blanket. It acts as a protective shield to protect all types of life from the harmful effect of UV radiation. Therefore, any thinning or depletion of ozone layer allows entry of high energy UV radiations into the earth’s surface, thereby causing harmful effects on plants, animals and human beings.

The harmful effects of ozone depletion on man, animals and plants includes :

  • Incidences of skin cancer and herps.
  • Damage to eye sight, photoburning as well as increased incidences of cataract in eyes.
  • Damage to immune system and hence lowering the body’s resistance to disease.
  • Increased embryonic mortality.
  • 10-25% decline of photosynthesis in plants.
  • Global warming.
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Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 16

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Science Chapter 16 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Science Chapter 16

Question 1.
Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which terms of 5R’s?
(a) Recycle
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Reduce (2020)
Answer:
(d) Reduce

Question 2.
“We need to manage our resources.” List two reasons to justify this statement. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
We need to manage our natural resources because (i) the resources of the earth are limited and (ii) the proper management of our resources ensures their equitable distribution.

Question 3.
List two items which can be easily recycled, but we generally throw them in the dust-bins. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Newspapers and tin cans are the two items that can be easily recycled.

Question 4.
How do advantages of exploiting natural resources with short term gains in mind differ from the advantages of managing our resources with a long-term perspective? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The advantages of exploiting resources with short term aim is to meet the immediate basic human needs. Short term exploitation of natural resources meets the current demand. It is beneficial for the present generation only whereas management of resources with long term perspective is aimed to fulfil the needs of future generations. Long term use of resources can be achieved through their sustainable use.

Question 5.
Why is an equitable distribution of resources essential in a society? List two forces which are against such distribution. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Equitable distribution of natural resources is necessary so that all and not just a handful of rich and powerful people use them. Two forces against equitable distribution of resources are :

  • Industrialisation
  • Profit makers who want to make profit from these resources.

Question 6.
“Reuse is better than recycling of materials”. Give reason to justify this statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Reuse is better than recycling because the process of reuse does not require any energy as in the case of recycling. I lie reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, used envelopes can be used again to make notes.

Question 7.
What is sustainable development? State its two main objectives. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Sustainable development can be defined as management of available resources and development of new techniques for use ol natural resources to meet the changing basic human needs, at the same time preserving the resources for the need of future generations. The two main objectives of sustainable development are:

  • To reduce the dependence on the conventional sources and adopt non-conventional sources of energy.
  • Evolving new technology and conserving natural resources.

Question 8.
(a) Why do we need to manage our resources carefully?
(b) Why management of natural resources requires a long term perspective? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) The resources of earth are limited and their demand is increasing day by day with ever growing population. So, we have to avoid their wastage and should properly manage, conserve and replenish our natural resources.
(b) Management of natural resources requires a long term perspective so that they can last for generations to come and may not be merely exploited for short term gains.

Question 9.
What is meant by “sustainable management”?
Why is reuse considered better than recycling? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Sustainable management means managing the use of natural resources in a way that they fulfill the needs of present generation and are also conserved for future generations.
Reuse is considered better than recycling because reusing products reduces the amount of waste and saves energy needed to recycle it.

Question 10.
Everyone of us can do something to reduce our personal consumption of various natural resources. List four such activities based on 3R approach. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Activities which can reduce consumption of natural resources are as follows:

  • If we take public transport instead of private transport to travel to our destinations then we can help reduce the use of fossil fuels.
  • Reusing the water used for washing vegetables, to water plants in the garden can help in saving water.
  • Repairing and reusing old mobiles, televisions, etc., help reduce consumption of natural resources.
  • Promoting the use of furniture made of metals, fabrics, etc., instead of wood can help to reduce the cutting of trees for making such items.

Question 11.
Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two-reuse and recycle-which, in your opinion is better to practise? Give reason. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary because:
(i) The resources of the earth are limited and because of the rapid increase in human population, the demand for resources is increasing day by day. Proper management can ensure that the natural resources are used judiciously so that they fulfill the needs of present generation and also last for the generations to come.

(ii) It also takes into consideration long-term perspective and prevents exploitation of natural resources for short-term gains.
The process of ‘reuse’ is better than that of ‘recycling’ because some energy is used to recycle old objects but no energy is required during reuse.

Question 12.
What is meant by three types of ‘R’ (3Rs) to save the environment? Explain with examples how would you follow the 3Rs in your school to save the environment. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
3Rs to save tire environment are reduce, recycle and reuse. For sustainable use of resources, the three Rs can be practised in school in following ways:
Reduce : Switching off unnecessary lights and fans when not in use, avoiding wastage of food, closing of over flowing taps.
Recycle : Students should segregate the wastes generated in classroom and should discard them in separate dustbins for their proper disposal. Reuse : Certain items can be reused like old books should not be thrown instead can be given to junior students for their use.

Question 13.
Write two advantages of sustainable management of natural resources. Out of the two – reuse and recycle – which is better and why? (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Two advantages of sustainable management of natural resources are :
(i) It avoids wasteful use of natural resources.
(ii) Benefits of the resources are conserved for present as well as future generations.
Of the two, reuse and recycle, reuse is better because reusing an item helps to conserve energy that may be required to recycle it.

Question 14.
Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two methods – reuse and recycle – which one would you suggest to practise and why? (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 11.

Question 15.
State the meaning of “sustainable management”. Reuse is better than recycling. How? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 9.

Question 16.
How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Suggest any three methods. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
In our daily lives, we generate a lot of useless materials and discard them. The useless left over or discarded materials are termed as wastes. Disposal of waste materials is a global problem of high magnitude. Waste disposal literally means getting rid of wastes. We can help in reducing the problem of waste disposal by adopting following approaches:
(i) Reduce : This means that we can use less of the things or resources. For example, we can reduce the use of electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans or the use of water by turning off the tap while brushing or shaving. We can use both sides of paper, for writing, do not waste food or take only that much food which we can finish, etc. Thus, by adopting such methods, we can reduce the problem of waste disposal to a larger extent.

(ii) Recycle : There are certain items such as plastic, clothes, paper, glass, metal, etc., in our houses which are usually thrown in the garbage when not of any use. This should not be practiced and we should try the practice of recycling. We should segregate wastes into biodegradable (domestic sewage, livestock wastes, etc.) and non- biodegradable (plastics, glass, metals, etc.). The biodegradable wastes should be dumped into preplanned site to be converted into manure or landfilling. The non-biodegradable wastes should be sent to respective recycling units where these are remoulded and again put to use.

(iii) Reuse : The reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, instead of throwing away used plastic bottles in which we buy various food items like jam or pickle, tea leaves, sweets, etc., we can use them for storing things in the kitchen. Mobile phones, camera, TV sets should be repaired when required instead of throwing them and getting new ones. Newspapers and magazines can be used to make envelopes and paper bags, etc.

Question 17.
Consider the following criticisms that are generally addressed when a new project is launched:
I. Displacement of peasants and local tribals without compensation.
II. Swallowing up large amount of public money without any benefits.
III. Deforestation and loss of biodiversity. The criticisms about large dams in particular are
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III. (2020)
Answer:
(d) I, II and III.

Question 18.
The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for
(a) monocultures of pine, teak and Eucalyptus
(b) Chipko movement
(c) extensive biodiversity
(d) participation of local people in efficient management of forests. (2020)
Answer:
(b) Chipko movement

Question 19.
The major ill effect of monoculture practice in forests is on the
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department. (2020)
Answer:
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction

Question 20.
What is meant by wildlife? How is it important for us? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Life in any form (plants or animals), which
exists in its natural hahiLaL is called wildlife. Wildlife is very important for us, as it provides ecological stability by maintaining the food chain. Wildlife is important to us in following ways:

  • Wildlife is a renewable source of large variety of commercial products like food, fur, lac, musk, leather, feather, ivory, timber, fibre, fodder, fuel, medicines, etc., which can be used from time to time.
  • Wildlife is considered as gene bank, which can be used for producing high yielding plants and animals through the process of selection and hybridisation.
  • The wildlife can be used commercially to earn money through tourism (jungle safari, etc.) as it provides best means of sports and recreation.

Question 21.
Management of forest and wild life resources is a very challenging task. Why? Give any two reasons. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Management of the forest and wildlife resources is considered as a challenging task as there are many stakeholders of forest. These stakeholders are directly or indirectly involved in forest and wildlife resources. These stakeholders are :

  • The people who live in or around forests and are dependent on forest products for various aspects of their lives.
  • The industrialists who use various forest products and the wildlife enthusiasts who want to conserve the forest and wildlife.
  • The Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and controls the resources from forests.

Maintaining the interest of all the stakeholders is a challenging task as:

  • Due to industrialisation and urbanisation forest resources are depleting.
  • There are profit makers who want to make money from this resource.

Question 22.
Why must we conserve our forests? List two factors responsible for causing deforestation. (AI 2017)
Answer:
We must conserve our forests as they are useful resources. Forests are useful to us in many ways:

  • They provide living places (natural habitats), shelter, protection and food to our wildlife.
  • They provide timber for making furniture, houses, boats and other useful things of daily use.
  • They provide raw materials for paper, rayon and many other industries,
  • They are the rich source of many other things like honey, lac, medicines, dyes, katha, sandalwood, spices, etc.
  • They help in maintaining a balance of gases like CO2 and O2 in the atmosphere, etc.

Two main reasons for deforestation are as follows:

  • Indiscriminate felling of trees for the purpose of timber, fuel and industrial demand of wood, building dams, etc.
  • Over-grazing by a large livestock population.

Question 23.
State two advantages of conserving (i) forests, and (ii) wildlife. (Al 2017)
Answer:
Two advantages of conserving forests and wildlife are:
(i) Forests
(a) Forests provide us a number of valuable goods i.e., wood, spices, rubber, etc.
(b) Forests help to reduce atmospheric pollution. They absorb CO2, collect suspended particles and reduce noise.
(ii) Wildlife
(a) Wildlife helps to maintain ecological balance of nature.
(b) Wild animals are a source of valuable products like ivory, honey, musk, etc.

Question 24.
Explain giving example where active involvement of local people lead to efficient management of forest. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Active participation of public and their support must be generated in order to conserve our forests and wildlife to achieve the real goal of eco- developmenl. An example of public participation in conservation of forest and wildlife is the case of the Bishnoi Community in Rajasthan. In 1731, Amrita Devi Bishnoi sacrificed her life along with 363 others for the protection of’Kheiri’ trees in Khejarli village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.

Question 25.
“What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment? (AI 2016)
Answer:
The Chipko Andolan (tree hugging movement) is an example of the contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incidence in a remote village of Garhwal, high up in the Himalayas in the early 1970s. A logging contractor had been allowed to cut down trees in a forest close to a village. The people of the village did not want this forest to be cleared because it would spoil their healthy environment. One day, when the men folk of the village were out for work, the contractor’s workers came in the forest to cut down the trees.

In the absence of men, the women of the village reached the forest quickly and clasped the tree trunks with their arms, preventing the workers from cutting them down. The forest trees were thus saved. The Chipko movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests thereby contributing to the service of mankind. Both local people and environment were benefitted due to conservation of food, fodder, fuel, fibre and fertiliser trees.

Question 26.
Forests are “biodiversity hotspots”. Justify this statement. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Forests are reservoirs of diversity. They contain different species of plants, animals and all sorts of living organisms. Forests are also under severe threat due to ‘habitat loss, climate change and extensive species loss. Hence, they are considered as biodiversity hotspots.

Question 27.
List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Major stakeholders of forest resources are:

  • Local people
  • The Forest department of the Government
  • The Industrialists
  • The nature and wildlife enthusiasts

Question 28.
List four causes of damage to forests. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Four causes of damage to forests are:

  • Increasing human population necessitates the expansion of human habilitation which requires clearing of forests to make more land available for residential purposes.
  • Rapid industrialisation also mandates setting up of new factories. Land for factory set up is also made available by clearing forests.
  • Ever increasing human population increases the demand of fresh supply of wooden furniture and other items for which trees are cut.
  • Forest fires resulting from mishandling of inflammable objects, left unattended campfire, negligently discarded cigarettes etc., by humans causes damage to forests on a large scale.

Question 29.
How did ‘Chipko Andolan ultimately benefit the local people? Explain briefly. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 25.

Question 30.
List four measures that can be taken to conserve forests. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Measures to conserve forests are :

  • Afforestation – Plantation of trees to meet basic needs.
  • Instead of cutting trees for fuel wood we should use alternative sources of energy such as biogas.
  • By adopting agro and urban forestry methods.
  • By limiting human interference such as settlement, cropping, recreation, etc.

Question 31.
Why are forests considered “biodiversity hot¬spots”? List two ways in which an individual can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife. (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 26.
Two ways in which individuals can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife are:

  • By protecting the natural habitats of wild animals by identification, breeding, nursing habitats of each species.
  • By planting trees and by maintaining the wildlife protected areas.

Question 32.
What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Biodiversity refers to the variety and variability of living organisms on earth or in a particular habitat. Biodiversity forms the foundation of the vast array of ecosystem services (pollination, food, timber, spices, etc.) that critically contribute to human well being. Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, has an important role to play. Hence, biodiversity is required for maintaining ecological balance. Loss of biodiversity will disturb ecological balance and create an ecological imbalance. Moreover it will deprive humans of some important ecological services.

Question 33.
What is meant by biodiversity? List two advantages of conserving forests and wildlife. (AI 2015, Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answers 32 and 23.

Question 34.
List two problems that may arise by planting trees of single variety over vast tracts of forest. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Two major problems that may arise by planting trees of single variety over a vast tract of forest are:

  • Loss of biodiversity
  • Varied need of the local people will not be fulfilled.

Question 35.
List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The basic criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area are:

  • The presence of varied number of organisms and the type of ecosystem present in the area.
  • Indicator organisms are also a measure of biodiversity.

Question 36.
Monoculture of a particular type of tree is no substitute for natural forests. List two reasons to justify this statement. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Monoculture of few plants is useful for few industries. It is a source of earning for the forest department only but leads to loss of biodiversity and also varied needs of villagers and local people cannot he met. Hence, it cannot he a substitute of natural forest.

Question 37.
(a) Why should National Parks be allowed to remain in their pristine form?
(b) Why is reuse of materials better than recycling? (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) National parks are the areas maintained by government and reserved for betterment of wildlife. It is a place where cultivation, grazing, forestry, habitat manipulation and other activities are restricted. They are allowed to remain in their pristine form because they contain highest biological diversity, natural habitats for many wild animals, flora and fauna. National parks are essential for stability of ecosystem and having influence on health and social prosperity. If these parks will not remain in their pristine form then the sustainable benefits for the present as well as future strategies will not obtained. We can easily harvest useful genes to develop high yielding plants and animals to remain them in their pristine form because population recovers in natural habitat.

(b) Reuse is better than recycling because the process of reuse does not require any energy as in the case of recycling. The reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, newspapers and magazines can be used to make envelopes.

Question 38.
Which one of the following is responsible for the sustenance of underground water?
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation (2020)
Answer:
(d) Afforestation

Question 39.
A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is given below:
The statement which defines the system and its parts is
Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 16 Img 1
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dugwell system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Khadin.
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.
(d) This is showing Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dugwell. (2020)
Answer:
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.

Question 40.
Bandharas and Tals are age old water harvesting concepts/structures found in
(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan. (2020)
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 41.
Which of the following are water intensive crops?
(a) Wheat and rice
(b) Wheat and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane and rice
(d) Wheat and gram (2020)
Answer:
(c) Sugarcane and rice

Question 42.
Water is a valuable resource. List two ways that you would suggest every family member to save this resource. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Water is a valuable resource and to save this resource two suggestive methods are :

  • Preventing wastage of water, in household by turning off tap when not in use while brushing, shaving, etc., and in public places.
  • Promoting reusing water like water used for washing vegetables can be reused for watering garden plants.

Question 43.
List two measures that you would suggest for the better management of water resources. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 42.

Question 44.
What is watershed management system? List two benefits derived by the communities that participate’ in this system. (AI2014)
Answer:
Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. The aim is to develop primary resources of land and water so that they can be used to produce secondary resources of plants and animals without causing the ecological imbalance. Benefits derived from watershed management are:

  • It identifies degraded area of land and emphasises the need of the improvement of quality and quantity of clean water to the local community and thus ensures their participation.
  • Construction of a series of long trenches and mounds to hold rain water and allow it to percolate into the ground, thus increasing the groundwater.

Question 45.
List two advantages of building dams. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Two advantages of building dams are :

  • It helps in irrigation.
  • It helps to generate electricity.

Question 46.
List two causes of pollution of river Ganga. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The two causes of pollution of river Ganga are:

  • Increasing human activities like bathing, washing clothes, bathing of animals, in river water.
  • Dumping of industrial wastes and ashes of corpses which are cremated in the water of river Ganga.

Question 47.
Explain two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Two advantages of water harvesting at community level are:

  • Water can be used for irrigation.
  • Water can be used to recharge wells and to raise the water table.

Question 48.
List four advantages of properly managed watershed management. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Four advantages of properly managed watershed management are:

  • It increases the crop production.
  • It increases the income of the watershed community.
  • It reduces the menace of drought and floods.
  • It enhances the life of downstream dams and reservoirs.

Question 49.
What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water? (AI 2016, AI 2014)
Answer:
Water harvesting is the technique used to capture and store rainwater for future use by making special water harvesting structures. Properly stored rainwater can be used for human consumption, irrigation and can be used to raise the water table. Hence, it helps in the conservation of water.

Question 50.
The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Social and environmental problems that arise due to building of dams are:
(a) Social problems :

  • People residing in the area where dam is being built are rendered homeless.
  • Unequal distribution of water is another social problem.

(b) Environmental problems :

  • Deforestation
  • Loss of biodiversity

Question 51.
List two advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 47.

Question 52.
List two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and contamination of the river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Two main causes of pollution of water of river Ganga are:

  • Human activities like bathing, washing clothes and cleaning of animals in the river water makes the water dirty.
  • Dumping of materials used in religious rituals like objects of worship (idols, sticks, flowers, sweets, plates made of banana leaves, etc.) as well as dumping ashes generated after cremation of dead bodies also pollutes river water.

Such contaminated and polluted river water poses various health hazards to the people living nearby. It contains various pathogenic microbes that cause diseases like typhoid, cholera, jaundice, etc., in the people who consume it. Bathing in such water can cause various skin diseases in humans.

Question 53.
List four advantages of water stored in the ground as “groundwater”. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Four advantages of conserving water in the form of groundwater are :

  • It does not evaporate hence can be used for longer time.
  • It provides moisture for vegetation over a large area.
  • It remains protected from contamination and hence is fit for human consumption.
  • Groundwater does not become a breeding site for mosquitoes.

Question 54.
Building of big dams gives rise to some problems. List three main problems that may arise. Suggest a solution to any one of these problems. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The three problems which arise due to construction of big dams are :

  • Social problems : Building of dams cause displacement of large number of local people without sufficient compensation and rehabilitation.
  • Economic problems : Large amount of money is used for construction of dams.
  •  Environmental problems : Construction of dams leads to enormous deforestation and loss of biodiversity.

A proper compensation must be given to the local people who are rendered homeless due to building of the dam.

Question 55.
List four advantages of conserving water in the form of groundwater. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 53.

Question 56.
List four advantages of water stored in the ground. (Foreign 2014, Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 53.

Question 57.
List and explain any two advantages associated with water harvesting at community level. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 47.

Question 58.
List three problems which arise due to construction of big dams. Suggest a solution for these problems. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 54.

Question 59.
What is water harvesting? List two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. Write two causes for the failure of sustained availability of ground- water. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Refer to answers 49 and 47.
Two causes for the failure of sustained availability of groundwater are:

  • Loss of vegetation cover
  • Pollution from industrial effluents and wastes.

Question 60.
What is dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? While building large dams, which three main problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people? Mention them. (2018)
Answer:
Dams are large water storing bodies usually built across the river to hold and regulate the flow of water. After independence, emphasis was laid on construction of large dams because large dams served dual purpose-storage of huge amount of water and helped in generation of electricity. From the dams, bigger canals and smaller canals are connected to supply water to the needy areas.
The three problems which arise due to construction of big dams are as follows :

  • Building of dams causes displacement of large number of local people without sufficient compensation and rehabilitation. A proper compensation must be given to the local people who are rendered homeless due to building of the dam.
  • Mismanagement and no equitable distribution of water from canals leads to discontentment of local people who live farther downstream from the dam.
  • Construction of dams leads to enormous deforestation and loss of biodiversity directly or indirectly effecting the local people who depend mainly on the forests and its products for their livelihood.

Question 61.
(a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity. “How to save water, the vital natural resource?” Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood on ‘how to save water’.
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Water is an important vital natural resource. Freshwater constitutes only a small proportion of total quantity of water present on Earth. However, proper management can lead to conservation of this important renewable resource. It can be preserved by the following ways:

  • Taps must be closed after use.
  • Water used for washing clothes, etc., can be reused to wash car and for other purposes.
  • Water discarded from RO purifier can be used to wash vegetables.

(b) By use of water harvesting technique, underground water can be recharged. It includes digging small pits and lakes, building small
earthen dams, constructing sand and limestone reservoirs and setting up roof top water collecting units. The water from trenches and pits seeps into deeper layer recharging groundwater levels.

Question 62.
The most poisonous product formed by incomplete combustion of fossil fuels is
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) nitrogen dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) sulphur dioxide. (2020)
Answer:
(c) carbon monoxide

Question 63.
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum
(A) Increases air pollution
(B) Increases efficiency of machines
(C) Reduces global warming
(D) Produces poisonous gases.
The correct option is
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (C) and (D). (2020)
Answer:
(b) (A) and (D)

Question 64.
“Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Burning of fossil fuels releases gases like carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. Of these gases, carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas, because it traps sun’s heat and keeps earth warm and hospitable. Excess of this gas results in enhanced greenhouse effect causing increase in mean annual temperature of earth (global warming).

Question 65.
List two products of combustion of fossil fuels other than carbon dioxide. What happens when combustion takes place in insufficient air? Name a greenhouse gas. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Two products of combustion of fossil fuels other than carbon dioxide are sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
In insufficient air, combustion of fossil fuel produces carbon monoxide.
Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

Question 66.
Burning of fossil fuels is a cause of global warming. Justify this statement. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 64.

Question 67.
List the products of combustion of fossil fuels. What are their adverse effects on the environment? (AI 2012)
Answer:
The products of combustion of fossil fuels are carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
Following are their adverse effects on the environment:
(i) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with rain water and make it acidic. It falls on earth as acid rain and damages trees, plants, buildings and metal structures.
(ii) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. Increase in amount of carbon dioxide in atmosphere causes enhanced greenhouse effect that leads to global warming.

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Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 16

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We have given these Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Science Chapter 16 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Science Chapter 16

Question 1.
Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which terms of 5R’s?
(a) Recycle
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Reduce (2020)
Answer:
(d) Reduce

Question 2.
“We need to manage our resources.” List two reasons to justify this statement. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
We need to manage our natural resources because (i) the resources of the earth are limited and (ii) the proper management of our resources ensures their equitable distribution.

Question 3.
List two items which can be easily recycled, but we generally throw them in the dust-bins. (AI 2014)
Answer:
Newspapers and tin cans are the two items that can be easily recycled.

Question 4.
How do advantages of exploiting natural resources with short term gains in mind differ from the advantages of managing our resources with a long-term perspective? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The advantages of exploiting resources with short term aim is to meet the immediate basic human needs. Short term exploitation of natural resources meets the current demand. It is beneficial for the present generation only whereas management of resources with long term perspective is aimed to fulfil the needs of future generations. Long term use of resources can be achieved through their sustainable use.

Question 5.
Why is an equitable distribution of resources essential in a society? List two forces which are against such distribution. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Equitable distribution of natural resources is necessary so that all and not just a handful of rich and powerful people use them. Two forces against equitable distribution of resources are :

  • Industrialisation
  • Profit makers who want to make profit from these resources.

Question 6.
“Reuse is better than recycling of materials”. Give reason to justify this statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Reuse is better than recycling because the process of reuse does not require any energy as in the case of recycling. I lie reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, used envelopes can be used again to make notes.

Question 7.
What is sustainable development? State its two main objectives. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Sustainable development can be defined as management of available resources and development of new techniques for use ol natural resources to meet the changing basic human needs, at the same time preserving the resources for the need of future generations. The two main objectives of sustainable development are:

  • To reduce the dependence on the conventional sources and adopt non-conventional sources of energy.
  • Evolving new technology and conserving natural resources.

Question 8.
(a) Why do we need to manage our resources carefully?
(b) Why management of natural resources requires a long term perspective? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) The resources of earth are limited and their demand is increasing day by day with ever growing population. So, we have to avoid their wastage and should properly manage, conserve and replenish our natural resources.
(b) Management of natural resources requires a long term perspective so that they can last for generations to come and may not be merely exploited for short term gains.

Question 9.
What is meant by “sustainable management”?
Why is reuse considered better than recycling? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Sustainable management means managing the use of natural resources in a way that they fulfill the needs of present generation and are also conserved for future generations.
Reuse is considered better than recycling because reusing products reduces the amount of waste and saves energy needed to recycle it.

Question 10.
Everyone of us can do something to reduce our personal consumption of various natural resources. List four such activities based on 3R approach. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Activities which can reduce consumption of natural resources are as follows:

  • If we take public transport instead of private transport to travel to our destinations then we can help reduce the use of fossil fuels.
  • Reusing the water used for washing vegetables, to water plants in the garden can help in saving water.
  • Repairing and reusing old mobiles, televisions, etc., help reduce consumption of natural resources.
  • Promoting the use of furniture made of metals, fabrics, etc., instead of wood can help to reduce the cutting of trees for making such items.

Question 11.
Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two-reuse and recycle-which, in your opinion is better to practise? Give reason. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary because:
(i) The resources of the earth are limited and because of the rapid increase in human population, the demand for resources is increasing day by day. Proper management can ensure that the natural resources are used judiciously so that they fulfill the needs of present generation and also last for the generations to come.

(ii) It also takes into consideration long-term perspective and prevents exploitation of natural resources for short-term gains.
The process of ‘reuse’ is better than that of ‘recycling’ because some energy is used to recycle old objects but no energy is required during reuse.

Question 12.
What is meant by three types of ‘R’ (3Rs) to save the environment? Explain with examples how would you follow the 3Rs in your school to save the environment. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
3Rs to save tire environment are reduce, recycle and reuse. For sustainable use of resources, the three Rs can be practised in school in following ways:
Reduce : Switching off unnecessary lights and fans when not in use, avoiding wastage of food, closing of over flowing taps.
Recycle : Students should segregate the wastes generated in classroom and should discard them in separate dustbins for their proper disposal. Reuse : Certain items can be reused like old books should not be thrown instead can be given to junior students for their use.

Question 13.
Write two advantages of sustainable management of natural resources. Out of the two – reuse and recycle – which is better and why? (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Two advantages of sustainable management of natural resources are :
(i) It avoids wasteful use of natural resources.
(ii) Benefits of the resources are conserved for present as well as future generations.
Of the two, reuse and recycle, reuse is better because reusing an item helps to conserve energy that may be required to recycle it.

Question 14.
Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two methods – reuse and recycle – which one would you suggest to practise and why? (AI 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 11.

Question 15.
State the meaning of “sustainable management”. Reuse is better than recycling. How? (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 9.

Question 16.
How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Suggest any three methods. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
In our daily lives, we generate a lot of useless materials and discard them. The useless left over or discarded materials are termed as wastes. Disposal of waste materials is a global problem of high magnitude. Waste disposal literally means getting rid of wastes. We can help in reducing the problem of waste disposal by adopting following approaches:
(i) Reduce : This means that we can use less of the things or resources. For example, we can reduce the use of electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans or the use of water by turning off the tap while brushing or shaving. We can use both sides of paper, for writing, do not waste food or take only that much food which we can finish, etc. Thus, by adopting such methods, we can reduce the problem of waste disposal to a larger extent.

(ii) Recycle : There are certain items such as plastic, clothes, paper, glass, metal, etc., in our houses which are usually thrown in the garbage when not of any use. This should not be practiced and we should try the practice of recycling. We should segregate wastes into biodegradable (domestic sewage, livestock wastes, etc.) and non- biodegradable (plastics, glass, metals, etc.). The biodegradable wastes should be dumped into preplanned site to be converted into manure or landfilling. The non-biodegradable wastes should be sent to respective recycling units where these are remoulded and again put to use.

(iii) Reuse : The reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, instead of throwing away used plastic bottles in which we buy various food items like jam or pickle, tea leaves, sweets, etc., we can use them for storing things in the kitchen. Mobile phones, camera, TV sets should be repaired when required instead of throwing them and getting new ones. Newspapers and magazines can be used to make envelopes and paper bags, etc.

Question 17.
Consider the following criticisms that are generally addressed when a new project is launched:
I. Displacement of peasants and local tribals without compensation.
II. Swallowing up large amount of public money without any benefits.
III. Deforestation and loss of biodiversity. The criticisms about large dams in particular are
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III. (2020)
Answer:
(d) I, II and III.

Question 18.
The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for
(a) monocultures of pine, teak and Eucalyptus
(b) Chipko movement
(c) extensive biodiversity
(d) participation of local people in efficient management of forests. (2020)
Answer:
(b) Chipko movement

Question 19.
The major ill effect of monoculture practice in forests is on the
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department. (2020)
Answer:
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction

Question 20.
What is meant by wildlife? How is it important for us? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Life in any form (plants or animals), which
exists in its natural hahiLaL is called wildlife. Wildlife is very important for us, as it provides ecological stability by maintaining the food chain. Wildlife is important to us in following ways:

  • Wildlife is a renewable source of large variety of commercial products like food, fur, lac, musk, leather, feather, ivory, timber, fibre, fodder, fuel, medicines, etc., which can be used from time to time.
  • Wildlife is considered as gene bank, which can be used for producing high yielding plants and animals through the process of selection and hybridisation.
  • The wildlife can be used commercially to earn money through tourism (jungle safari, etc.) as it provides best means of sports and recreation.

Question 21.
Management of forest and wild life resources is a very challenging task. Why? Give any two reasons. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Management of the forest and wildlife resources is considered as a challenging task as there are many stakeholders of forest. These stakeholders are directly or indirectly involved in forest and wildlife resources. These stakeholders are :

  • The people who live in or around forests and are dependent on forest products for various aspects of their lives.
  • The industrialists who use various forest products and the wildlife enthusiasts who want to conserve the forest and wildlife.
  • The Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and controls the resources from forests.

Maintaining the interest of all the stakeholders is a challenging task as:

  • Due to industrialisation and urbanisation forest resources are depleting.
  • There are profit makers who want to make money from this resource.

Question 22.
Why must we conserve our forests? List two factors responsible for causing deforestation. (AI 2017)
Answer:
We must conserve our forests as they are useful resources. Forests are useful to us in many ways:

  • They provide living places (natural habitats), shelter, protection and food to our wildlife.
  • They provide timber for making furniture, houses, boats and other useful things of daily use.
  • They provide raw materials for paper, rayon and many other industries,
  • They are the rich source of many other things like honey, lac, medicines, dyes, katha, sandalwood, spices, etc.
  • They help in maintaining a balance of gases like CO2 and O2 in the atmosphere, etc.

Two main reasons for deforestation are as follows:

  • Indiscriminate felling of trees for the purpose of timber, fuel and industrial demand of wood, building dams, etc.
  • Over-grazing by a large livestock population.

Question 23.
State two advantages of conserving (i) forests, and (ii) wildlife. (Al 2017)
Answer:
Two advantages of conserving forests and wildlife are:
(i) Forests
(a) Forests provide us a number of valuable goods i.e., wood, spices, rubber, etc.
(b) Forests help to reduce atmospheric pollution. They absorb CO2, collect suspended particles and reduce noise.
(ii) Wildlife
(a) Wildlife helps to maintain ecological balance of nature.
(b) Wild animals are a source of valuable products like ivory, honey, musk, etc.

Question 24.
Explain giving example where active involvement of local people lead to efficient management of forest. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Active participation of public and their support must be generated in order to conserve our forests and wildlife to achieve the real goal of eco- developmenl. An example of public participation in conservation of forest and wildlife is the case of the Bishnoi Community in Rajasthan. In 1731, Amrita Devi Bishnoi sacrificed her life along with 363 others for the protection of’Kheiri’ trees in Khejarli village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.

Question 25.
“What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment? (AI 2016)
Answer:
The Chipko Andolan (tree hugging movement) is an example of the contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incidence in a remote village of Garhwal, high up in the Himalayas in the early 1970s. A logging contractor had been allowed to cut down trees in a forest close to a village. The people of the village did not want this forest to be cleared because it would spoil their healthy environment. One day, when the men folk of the village were out for work, the contractor’s workers came in the forest to cut down the trees.

In the absence of men, the women of the village reached the forest quickly and clasped the tree trunks with their arms, preventing the workers from cutting them down. The forest trees were thus saved. The Chipko movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests thereby contributing to the service of mankind. Both local people and environment were benefitted due to conservation of food, fodder, fuel, fibre and fertiliser trees.

Question 26.
Forests are “biodiversity hotspots”. Justify this statement. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Forests are reservoirs of diversity. They contain different species of plants, animals and all sorts of living organisms. Forests are also under severe threat due to ‘habitat loss, climate change and extensive species loss. Hence, they are considered as biodiversity hotspots.

Question 27.
List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Major stakeholders of forest resources are:

  • Local people
  • The Forest department of the Government
  • The Industrialists
  • The nature and wildlife enthusiasts

Question 28.
List four causes of damage to forests. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Four causes of damage to forests are:

  • Increasing human population necessitates the expansion of human habilitation which requires clearing of forests to make more land available for residential purposes.
  • Rapid industrialisation also mandates setting up of new factories. Land for factory set up is also made available by clearing forests.
  • Ever increasing human population increases the demand of fresh supply of wooden furniture and other items for which trees are cut.
  • Forest fires resulting from mishandling of inflammable objects, left unattended campfire, negligently discarded cigarettes etc., by humans causes damage to forests on a large scale.

Question 29.
How did ‘Chipko Andolan ultimately benefit the local people? Explain briefly. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Refer to answer 25.

Question 30.
List four measures that can be taken to conserve forests. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Measures to conserve forests are :

  • Afforestation – Plantation of trees to meet basic needs.
  • Instead of cutting trees for fuel wood we should use alternative sources of energy such as biogas.
  • By adopting agro and urban forestry methods.
  • By limiting human interference such as settlement, cropping, recreation, etc.

Question 31.
Why are forests considered “biodiversity hot¬spots”? List two ways in which an individual can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife. (Delhi 2015, Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 26.
Two ways in which individuals can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife are:

  • By protecting the natural habitats of wild animals by identification, breeding, nursing habitats of each species.
  • By planting trees and by maintaining the wildlife protected areas.

Question 32.
What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Biodiversity refers to the variety and variability of living organisms on earth or in a particular habitat. Biodiversity forms the foundation of the vast array of ecosystem services (pollination, food, timber, spices, etc.) that critically contribute to human well being. Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, has an important role to play. Hence, biodiversity is required for maintaining ecological balance. Loss of biodiversity will disturb ecological balance and create an ecological imbalance. Moreover it will deprive humans of some important ecological services.

Question 33.
What is meant by biodiversity? List two advantages of conserving forests and wildlife. (AI 2015, Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answers 32 and 23.

Question 34.
List two problems that may arise by planting trees of single variety over vast tracts of forest. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Two major problems that may arise by planting trees of single variety over a vast tract of forest are:

  • Loss of biodiversity
  • Varied need of the local people will not be fulfilled.

Question 35.
List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The basic criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area are:

  • The presence of varied number of organisms and the type of ecosystem present in the area.
  • Indicator organisms are also a measure of biodiversity.

Question 36.
Monoculture of a particular type of tree is no substitute for natural forests. List two reasons to justify this statement. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Monoculture of few plants is useful for few industries. It is a source of earning for the forest department only but leads to loss of biodiversity and also varied needs of villagers and local people cannot he met. Hence, it cannot he a substitute of natural forest.

Question 37.
(a) Why should National Parks be allowed to remain in their pristine form?
(b) Why is reuse of materials better than recycling? (AI 2019)
Answer:
(a) National parks are the areas maintained by government and reserved for betterment of wildlife. It is a place where cultivation, grazing, forestry, habitat manipulation and other activities are restricted. They are allowed to remain in their pristine form because they contain highest biological diversity, natural habitats for many wild animals, flora and fauna. National parks are essential for stability of ecosystem and having influence on health and social prosperity. If these parks will not remain in their pristine form then the sustainable benefits for the present as well as future strategies will not obtained. We can easily harvest useful genes to develop high yielding plants and animals to remain them in their pristine form because population recovers in natural habitat.

(b) Reuse is better than recycling because the process of reuse does not require any energy as in the case of recycling. The reuse strategy comprises using things again and again. For example, newspapers and magazines can be used to make envelopes.

Question 38.
Which one of the following is responsible for the sustenance of underground water?
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation (2020)
Answer:
(d) Afforestation

Question 39.
A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is given below:
The statement which defines the system and its parts is
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 16 Img 1
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dugwell system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Khadin.
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.
(d) This is showing Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dugwell. (2020)
Answer:
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dugwell.

Question 40.
Bandharas and Tals are age old water harvesting concepts/structures found in
(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan. (2020)
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 41.
Which of the following are water intensive crops?
(a) Wheat and rice
(b) Wheat and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane and rice
(d) Wheat and gram (2020)
Answer:
(c) Sugarcane and rice

Question 42.
Water is a valuable resource. List two ways that you would suggest every family member to save this resource. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Water is a valuable resource and to save this resource two suggestive methods are :

  • Preventing wastage of water, in household by turning off tap when not in use while brushing, shaving, etc., and in public places.
  • Promoting reusing water like water used for washing vegetables can be reused for watering garden plants.

Question 43.
List two measures that you would suggest for the better management of water resources. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Refer to answer 42.

Question 44.
What is watershed management system? List two benefits derived by the communities that participate’ in this system. (AI2014)
Answer:
Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. The aim is to develop primary resources of land and water so that they can be used to produce secondary resources of plants and animals without causing the ecological imbalance. Benefits derived from watershed management are:

  • It identifies degraded area of land and emphasises the need of the improvement of quality and quantity of clean water to the local community and thus ensures their participation.
  • Construction of a series of long trenches and mounds to hold rain water and allow it to percolate into the ground, thus increasing the groundwater.

Question 45.
List two advantages of building dams. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Two advantages of building dams are :

  • It helps in irrigation.
  • It helps to generate electricity.

Question 46.
List two causes of pollution of river Ganga. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
The two causes of pollution of river Ganga are:

  • Increasing human activities like bathing, washing clothes, bathing of animals, in river water.
  • Dumping of industrial wastes and ashes of corpses which are cremated in the water of river Ganga.

Question 47.
Explain two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. (AI 2017)
Answer:
Two advantages of water harvesting at community level are:

  • Water can be used for irrigation.
  • Water can be used to recharge wells and to raise the water table.

Question 48.
List four advantages of properly managed watershed management. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Four advantages of properly managed watershed management are:

  • It increases the crop production.
  • It increases the income of the watershed community.
  • It reduces the menace of drought and floods.
  • It enhances the life of downstream dams and reservoirs.

Question 49.
What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water? (AI 2016, AI 2014)
Answer:
Water harvesting is the technique used to capture and store rainwater for future use by making special water harvesting structures. Properly stored rainwater can be used for human consumption, irrigation and can be used to raise the water table. Hence, it helps in the conservation of water.

Question 50.
The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Social and environmental problems that arise due to building of dams are:
(a) Social problems :

  • People residing in the area where dam is being built are rendered homeless.
  • Unequal distribution of water is another social problem.

(b) Environmental problems :

  • Deforestation
  • Loss of biodiversity

Question 51.
List two advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 47.

Question 52.
List two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and contamination of the river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas. (AI 2015)
Answer:
Two main causes of pollution of water of river Ganga are:

  • Human activities like bathing, washing clothes and cleaning of animals in the river water makes the water dirty.
  • Dumping of materials used in religious rituals like objects of worship (idols, sticks, flowers, sweets, plates made of banana leaves, etc.) as well as dumping ashes generated after cremation of dead bodies also pollutes river water.

Such contaminated and polluted river water poses various health hazards to the people living nearby. It contains various pathogenic microbes that cause diseases like typhoid, cholera, jaundice, etc., in the people who consume it. Bathing in such water can cause various skin diseases in humans.

Question 53.
List four advantages of water stored in the ground as “groundwater”. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Four advantages of conserving water in the form of groundwater are :

  • It does not evaporate hence can be used for longer time.
  • It provides moisture for vegetation over a large area.
  • It remains protected from contamination and hence is fit for human consumption.
  • Groundwater does not become a breeding site for mosquitoes.

Question 54.
Building of big dams gives rise to some problems. List three main problems that may arise. Suggest a solution to any one of these problems. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The three problems which arise due to construction of big dams are :

  • Social problems : Building of dams cause displacement of large number of local people without sufficient compensation and rehabilitation.
  • Economic problems : Large amount of money is used for construction of dams.
  •  Environmental problems : Construction of dams leads to enormous deforestation and loss of biodiversity.

A proper compensation must be given to the local people who are rendered homeless due to building of the dam.

Question 55.
List four advantages of conserving water in the form of groundwater. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Refer to answer 53.

Question 56.
List four advantages of water stored in the ground. (Foreign 2014, Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 53.

Question 57.
List and explain any two advantages associated with water harvesting at community level. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Refer to answer 47.

Question 58.
List three problems which arise due to construction of big dams. Suggest a solution for these problems. (AI 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 54.

Question 59.
What is water harvesting? List two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. Write two causes for the failure of sustained availability of ground- water. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Refer to answers 49 and 47.
Two causes for the failure of sustained availability of groundwater are:

  • Loss of vegetation cover
  • Pollution from industrial effluents and wastes.

Question 60.
What is dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? While building large dams, which three main problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people? Mention them. (2018)
Answer:
Dams are large water storing bodies usually built across the river to hold and regulate the flow of water. After independence, emphasis was laid on construction of large dams because large dams served dual purpose-storage of huge amount of water and helped in generation of electricity. From the dams, bigger canals and smaller canals are connected to supply water to the needy areas.
The three problems which arise due to construction of big dams are as follows :

  • Building of dams causes displacement of large number of local people without sufficient compensation and rehabilitation. A proper compensation must be given to the local people who are rendered homeless due to building of the dam.
  • Mismanagement and no equitable distribution of water from canals leads to discontentment of local people who live farther downstream from the dam.
  • Construction of dams leads to enormous deforestation and loss of biodiversity directly or indirectly effecting the local people who depend mainly on the forests and its products for their livelihood.

Question 61.
(a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity. “How to save water, the vital natural resource?” Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood on ‘how to save water’.
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Water is an important vital natural resource. Freshwater constitutes only a small proportion of total quantity of water present on Earth. However, proper management can lead to conservation of this important renewable resource. It can be preserved by the following ways:

  • Taps must be closed after use.
  • Water used for washing clothes, etc., can be reused to wash car and for other purposes.
  • Water discarded from RO purifier can be used to wash vegetables.

(b) By use of water harvesting technique, underground water can be recharged. It includes digging small pits and lakes, building small
earthen dams, constructing sand and limestone reservoirs and setting up roof top water collecting units. The water from trenches and pits seeps into deeper layer recharging groundwater levels.

Question 62.
The most poisonous product formed by incomplete combustion of fossil fuels is
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) nitrogen dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) sulphur dioxide. (2020)
Answer:
(c) carbon monoxide

Question 63.
Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum
(A) Increases air pollution
(B) Increases efficiency of machines
(C) Reduces global warming
(D) Produces poisonous gases.
The correct option is
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C)
(d) (C) and (D). (2020)
Answer:
(b) (A) and (D)

Question 64.
“Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement. (AI 2016)
Answer:
Burning of fossil fuels releases gases like carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. Of these gases, carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas, because it traps sun’s heat and keeps earth warm and hospitable. Excess of this gas results in enhanced greenhouse effect causing increase in mean annual temperature of earth (global warming).

Question 65.
List two products of combustion of fossil fuels other than carbon dioxide. What happens when combustion takes place in insufficient air? Name a greenhouse gas. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Two products of combustion of fossil fuels other than carbon dioxide are sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
In insufficient air, combustion of fossil fuel produces carbon monoxide.
Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

Question 66.
Burning of fossil fuels is a cause of global warming. Justify this statement. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Refer to answer 64.

Question 67.
List the products of combustion of fossil fuels. What are their adverse effects on the environment? (AI 2012)
Answer:
The products of combustion of fossil fuels are carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
Following are their adverse effects on the environment:
(i) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with rain water and make it acidic. It falls on earth as acid rain and damages trees, plants, buildings and metal structures.
(ii) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. Increase in amount of carbon dioxide in atmosphere causes enhanced greenhouse effect that leads to global warming.

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