Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 3 Climates of India Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 3 Climates of India Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions on Climates of India Important

Climates of India Class 7 Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the climate of India mainly influenced by? Ans. The climate of India is mainly influenced by latitude,
altitude, proximity to the ocean, wind patterns, and atmospheric pressure.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the difference between tropical and temperate climates?
Answer:
Tropical climates are warm and humid with high rainfall, while temperate climates have moderate temperatures with distinct seasons.

Question 3.
Which wind system brings rainfall to India?
Answer:
The monsoon winds bring rainfall to India.

Question 4.
Why do coastal areas have moderate temperatures? Ans. The sea heats up and cools down slower than land, keeping coastal temperatures moderate.

Question 5.
Which state receives the highest annual rainfall in India?
Answer:
Meghalaya, particularly Mawsynram, receives the highest annual rainfall in India.

Question 6.
What is a microclimate?
Answer:
A microclimate is a localized climate different from the surrounding area, like a forest being cooler than nearby open land.

Question 7.
What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by air on the Earth’s surface.

Question 8.
Why do higher altitudes have lower temperatures? Ans The air at higher altitudes is thinner and cannot retain heat as efficiently.

Question 9.
Which region in India has an equatorial climate? Ans. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have an equatorial climate.

Question 10.
What is a cyclone?
Answer:
A cyclone is a low-pressure system with strong winds and heavy rainfall, often forming over warm ocean waters.

Climates of India Class 7 Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How does latitude affect the climate of a place? Ans. Latitude determines how much sunlight a place receives. Areas near the Equator receive direct sunlight, making them warmer, while areas near the poles receive slanted sunlight, making them colder.
Answer:

Question 2.
How do monsoon winds affect the Indian climate?
Answer:
Monsoon winds bring seasonal rainfall, essential for agriculture and water resources. The summer monsoon brings heavy rains, while the winter monsoon brings dry winds except in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Why does Rajasthan receive very little rainfall?
Answer:
Rajasthan lies in the rain shadow region of the Aravali Hills, which prevents moisture-laden winds from reaching the area. This results in an arid climate with very little rainfall.

Question 4.
What is the importance of the Himalayas in influencing India’s climate?
Answer:
The Himalayas block cold winds from Central Asia, protecting northern India from extreme cold. They also influence monsoon patterns by forcing moisture-laden winds to rise, causing heavy rainfall.

Question 5.
Why do desert regions have extreme temperatures?
Answer:
Deserts have little vegetation and moisture, leading to rapid heating during the day and quick cooling at night, causing extreme temperature variations.

Question 6.
How do oceans influence climate?
Answer:
Oceans regulate climate by absorbing and releasing heat slowly. Coastal areas have milder temperatures, while inland areas experience extreme heat and cold.

Question 7.
What are the six traditional Indian seasons (ritus)?
Answer:
The six traditional Indian seasons are Vasanta (spring), Gr.Tshma (summer), Varsha (rainy), Sharad (autumn), Hemanta (pre-winter), and Shishir (winter).

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of an equatorial climate?
Answer:
An equatorial climate has high temperatures (22°C – 25°C), abundant rainfall, and high humidity throughout the year.

Question 9.
Why do hill stations have a cooler climate?
Answer:
Hill stations are located at high altitudes where the air is thinner and cannot retain heat, resulting in lower temperatures.

Question 10.
What is the difference between summer and winter monsoons?
Answer:
Summer monsoons bring heavy rainfall as winds blow from the sea to land, while winter monsoons are dry as winds blow from land to sea.

Climates of India Class 7 Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the factors that influence the climate of India.
Answer:
India’s climate is influenced by several factors:

1. Latitude: Areas near the Equator are warmer, while northern regions are cooler.
2. Altitude: Higher altitudes have lower tempera tures, making hill stations like Shimla cooler.
3. Proximity to the ocean: Coastal areas experience moderate temperatures, unlike inland regions,
4. Winds: Monsoon winds bring rainfall, while desert winds cause heatwaves.
5. Atmospheric Pressure: Low-pressure systems bring rain, while high-pressure systems lead to dry weather.

Question 2.
Describe the role of monsoons in India’s agriculture and economy.
Answer:
Monsoons are crucial for India’s agriculture as they provide the rainfall needed for crops like rice, wheat, and pulses. A good monsoon season leads to a good harvest, increasing food supply and economic stability. However, too much rain can cause floods, while too little rain leads to droughts, affecting farmers and food production. Monsoons also impact industries like hydroelectric power and fishing.

Question 3.
How do cyclones form, and what are their effects?
Answer:
Cyclones form over warm ocean waters when warm air rises, creating a low-pressure system. The surrounding air moves in, forming strong winds and heavy rainfall. Cyclones can cause destruction by flooding coastal areas, damaging homes, uprooting trees, and dismpting transport. India’s eastern coast is particularly vulnerable to cyclones like Amphan and Fani.

Question 4.
Why do some regions in India experience more rainfall than others?
Answer:
Rainfall distribution in India depends on monsoon winds and topography.

1.  The Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall as they block moisture-laden winds.
2. The Thar Desert remains dry as it lies in a rain shadow area.
3. Northeastern states like Meghalaya receive heavy rainfall due to their elevation and monsoon winds.
4. The Deccan Plateau gets moderate rainfall as it is located away from coastal moisture sources.

Question 5.
How does climate change impact India?
Answer:
Climate change is causing unpredictable monsoons, extreme temperatures, and rising sea levels in India. Droughts are becoming more frequent, affecting agriculture, while floods and cyclones are becoming stronger. Melting glaciers in the Himalayas impact river water supply, affecting millions. Human activities like deforestation and pollution worsen climate change, making it essential to adopt sustainable practices.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast continental and coastal climates with examples.
Answer:

1. Continental Climate:
   1. Found in inland areas like Delhi and Nagpur.
   2. Experiences extreme temperatures—hot summers and cold winters.
2. Coastal Climate:
   1. Found in cities like Mumbai and Chennai.
   2. Moderate temperatures due to ocean influence, with mild summers and winters.

Question 7.
What are the causes and effects of floods in India?
Answer:
Floods occur due to heavy monsoon rainfall, overflowing rivers, cyclones, and poor drainage. They cause destruction by damaging homes, displacing people, and disrupting transport. Flood- prone areas in India include Assam, Bihar, and Kerala. Preventive measures include building better drainage systems, planting trees, and constructing dams.

Question 8.
Why are Indian festivals often linked to seasons and agriculture?
Answer:
Indian festivals reflect the agricultural cycle and seasonal changes.

1. Baisakhi (Punjab) celebrates wheat harvesting,
2. Onam (Kerala) marks the rice harvest.
3. Lohri (North India) signals the end of winter,
4. Makar Sankranti celebrates the transition to longer daylight.

Question 9.
What steps can be taken to reduce the impact of climate-related disasters?
Answer:
To reduce disaster impact, India needs better weather forecasting, improved drainage systems, afforestation, and stricter building codes in flood- prone areas. Public awareness and disaster response teams like the NDRF help in preparedness and relief efforts.

Climates of India Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the following passages and answer the following questions:
1. The word monsoon comes from the Arabic word mausim, meaning “season.” Monsoons are seasonal winds that blow from the land to the sea in winters and from the sea to the land in summers, bringing distinct weather patterns to regions like India.
(i) What is the origin of the word “monsoon”?
Answer:
The word “monsoon” comes from the Arabic word mausim, meaning “season.”

(ii) How do monsoon winds blow in different seasons?
Answer:
Monsoon winds blow from land to sea in winter and from sea to land in summer.

(iii) How do monsoons affect the weather in India?
Answer:
Monsoons bring distinct weather patterns to India. In summer, they bring rainfall by carrying moisture from the sea, while in winter, they blow from the land, bringing dry and cold weather.

2. A landslide is the downward movement of rock, soil, or debris under the influence of gravity, often triggered by heavy rain, earthquakes or volcanic activity. Landslides are common in hilly and mountainous regions like the Himalayas. States like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh as well as the Western Ghats are more prone to landslides. These events often occur during the monsoon.

(i) What is a landslide?
Answer:
A landslide is the downward movement of rock, soil, or debris due to gravity.

(ii) Which regions in India are most prone to landslides?
Answer:
The Himalayas, Western Ghats, and states like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.

(iii) What are the main causes of landslides?
Answer:
Landslides are caused by heavy rain, earthquakes, and volcanic activity. They are common in hilly and mountainous regions, especially during the monsoon season.

Climates of India Class 7 Map Skill Questions

Question 1.
On the political map of India, draw the direction of wind that blows in the northern states from the west.
Answer:

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Students rely on NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit and Class 7th Sanskrit Deepakam Chapter 9 Question Answer अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि to clarify their doubts after class.

Sanskrit Class 7 Chapter 9 Question Answer अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि

Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 9 NCERT Solutions अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि

कक्षा 7 संस्कृत पाठ 9 के प्रश्न उत्तर अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि

१. अधः प्रदत्तानां प्रश्नानाम् पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरं लिखन्तु ।

(नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर पूर्ण वाक्य में दीजिए।)

(क) पुत्र्याः जिज्ञासा का ?
(ख) कस्मात् आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
(ग) अग्नेः कस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
(घ) पृथिव्याः केषाम् उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
(ङ) आहारात् के उत्पन्नाः ?
(च) माता किं किं पठितवती ?
उत्तरः
(क) पुत्र्याः जिज्ञासा यत् वयं मनुष्याः प्राणिनः कीटाः च कथं भूलोके आगताः।
(ख) ब्रह्मणः आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्।
(ग) अग्नेः जलस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
(घ) पृथिव्याः ओषधीनां सस्यानां वृक्षादीनां च उत्पत्तिः अभवत्।
(ङ) आहारात् कीटाः प्राणिनः मनुष्याः उत्पन्नाः।
(च) माता आधुनिक रसायनशास्त्रम् उपनिषद-ग्रन्थान् च पठितवती ।

२. पाठं पठित्वा रिक्तस्थानेषु समुचितं पदं लिखन्तु ।

(पाठ को पढ़कर खाली स्थानों में उचित पद लिखिए।)

(क) अम्ब! मम काचिद् ………… अस्ति।
(ख) प्रथमं ………. आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
(ग) साक्षात् ………… उत्पत्तिं वदतु।
(घ) ………. कीटाः, प्राणिनः, मनुष्याः उत्पन्नाः खलु अम्ब ?
(ङ) अहम् आधुनिकं ………., ………… च पठितवती ।
(च) अस्माकं ………. ज्ञानं तेषु एव निहितम् अस्ति ।
उत्तरः
(क) जिज्ञासा
(ख) ब्रह्मणः
(ग) मनुष्याणाम्
(घ) आहारात्
(ङ) रसायनशास्त्रम्; उपनिषद्-ग्रन्थान्
(च) मौलिकं

३. उदाहरणानुसारम् अधः प्रदत्तानां शब्दानां वचनपरिवर्तनं कुर्वन्तु ।

(उदाहरण के अनुसार नीचे दिए गए शब्दों के वचन परिवर्तन कीजिए।)

उत्तरः

४. उदाहरणानुसारम् अधः रेखाङ्कितानिपदानि आश्रित्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुर्वन्तु ।

(उदाहरण के अनुसार रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए।)

उत्तरः
(क) • राजेश कुतः पुस्तकम् आनयति ?
• राजेश कस्मात् पुस्तकम् आनयति ?
(ख) • विकासः कुतः लेखनीं स्वीकृतवान्?
• विकास: : कस्मात् लेखनीं स्वीकृतवान्?
(ग) • माता कुतः पुत्रं पश्यति?
• माता कस्मात् पुत्रं पश्यति?
(घ) • कुतः गङ्गा प्रवहति ?
• कस्मात् गङ्गा प्रवहति ?

५. अधः प्रदत्तानि पदानि पठन्तु, तेषां पदानां पर्यायपदानि पाठेषु सन्ति, तानि चित्वा निर्देशानुसारं पदरञ्जन्यां लिखन्तु ।

(नीचे दिए गए पदों को पढ़िए, उन पदों के पर्याय पाठ में हैं, उन्हें चुनकर पहेली में लिखिए।)

उत्तरः

६. उदाहरणानुसारं कः कस्मात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान् इति पूर्णवाक्येन लिखन्तु –

(उदाहरण के अनुसार किसने किससे विद्या प्राप्त किया, इसे पूर्ण वाक्य में लिखिए।)

उत्तरः
(ख) पदम्पादः शङ्कराचार्यात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान्।
(ग) विवेकानन्दः रामकृष्णात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान्।
(घ) रामः वशिष्ठात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान्।
(ङ) भीष्मः परशुरामात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान्।
(च) चन्द्रगुप्तः चाणक्यात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान्।
(छ) अर्जुनः द्रोणाचार्यात् विद्यां प्राप्तवान् ।

७. अधः प्रदत्तानि वाक्यानि पठित्वा मातृभाषाया / प्रान्तीयभाषाया/आङ्ग्लभाषाया वा अनुवादं कुर्वन्तु ।

(नीचे दिए गए वाक्यों को पढ़कर मातृभाषा या प्रान्तीयभाषा या अंग्रेज़ी भाषा में अनुवाद कीजिए ।)

(क) राधा नगरात् आगच्छति। …………………………
(ख) विनयः वृक्षात् पुष्पाणि चिनोति । …………………………
(ग) सन्दीप कार्यालयात् गृहं गतवान् । …………………………
(घ) भगिनी दूरात् वाहनं पश्यति । …………………………
(ङ) मित्रं शालाया: गृहम् आगतवान्। …………………………
(च) बालः कपाटिकायाः धनं स्वीकरोति । …………………………
उत्तरः
(क) राधा शहर से आती है।
(ख) विनय पेड़ से फूल चुनता है।
(ग) सन्दीप कार्यालय से घर गया ।
(घ) बहन दूर से वाहन को देखती है।
(ङ) मित्र शाला से घर आया।
(च) बालक अलमारी से धन लेता है।
नोट- यहाँ हिंदी अनुवाद दिया गया है। इसके आधार पर छात्र स्वयं अपनी मातृभाषा में अनुवाद कर सकते हैं।

NCERT Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि

प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखितं नाट्यांशं पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत।
(नीचे लिखे नाट्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए।)

(क) पुत्री – अम्ब! मम काचिद् जिज्ञासा अस्ति । वयं मनुष्याः प्राणिनः कीटाः च कथं भूलोके आगताः ?
माता – वत्से! तदर्थं भवती प्रथमं पृथिव्याः उत्पत्तिक्रमं जानीयात्।
पुत्री – अहो! रोचकं स्यात् कृपया श्रावयतु।
माता – अस्तु! प्रथमं ब्रह्मणः आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्।
पुत्री – ब्रह्म इत्युक्ते किम् अम्ब ?
माता – ब्रह्म इत्युक्ते ऊर्जा या सर्वत्र व्याप्ता अस्ति । यथा अणुः सर्वत्र व्याप्तः अस्ति।
पुत्री – अनन्तरम्?
माता – आकाशात् वायुः उत्पन्नः।
पुत्री – अम्ब! पृथिवी कदा उत्पन्ना ?
माता – शृणोतु, वदामि। वायोः अग्निः उत्पन्नः।
पुत्री – एतत् सर्वं किमर्थम् अम्ब? साक्षात् मनुष्याणाम् उत्पत्तिं वदतु।
माता – अरे वत्से ! एतत् सर्वं नास्ति चेत् कथं मनुष्याः प्राणिनः वा जीवन्ति ?

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत।

(i) पुत्र्याः मनसि का अस्ति ?
उत्तरः
जिज्ञासा

(ii) प्रथमं कस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
उत्तरः
आकाशस्य

(iii) आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः कस्मात् अभवत्?
उत्तरः
ब्रह्मणः

(iv) अग्निः कस्मात् उत्पन्नः अभवत्?
उत्तरः
वायो:

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत।

(i) ‘ब्रह्म:’ इत्युक्ते किम् अस्ति ?
उत्तरः
ब्रह्म इत्युक्ते ऊर्जा या सर्वत्र व्याप्ता अस्ति। यथा अणुः सर्वत्र व्याप्तः अस्ति ।

(ii) प्रथमं ब्रह्मणः कस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
उत्तरः
प्रथमं ब्रह्मणः आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत ।

(iii) सर्वप्रथमं कस्याः उत्पत्तिक्रमं जानीयात् ?
उत्तरः
सर्वप्रथमं पृथिव्याः उत्पत्तिक्रमं जानीयत् ।

III. भाषिककार्यम् ।

(i) ‘पवनात्’ इति पदस्य पर्यायपदं किं आगतम् ?
(क) वायोः
(ख) वायुः
(ग) वायुना:
उत्तरः
(क) वायोः

(ii) मातः ! इति सम्बोधनपदस्य कृते किं सम्बोधनपदं अत्र प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) माता!
(ख) अम्ब!
(ग) माते!
उत्तरः
(ख) अम्ब!

(iii) ‘पश्चात्’ इति अर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) अनन्तरम्
(ख) रोचकम्
(ग) प्रथमम्
उत्तरः
(क) अनन्तरम्

(iv) एतत् सर्वं ……….. चेत् कथं मनुष्याः प्राणिनः वा जीवन्ति ?
(क) अस्ति
(ख) नास्ति
(ग) न अस्ति
उत्तरः
(ख) नास्ति

(ख) पुत्री – जलम् आहार: वायुः च अस्ति चेत् पर्याप्तं खलु !
माता – आम्, अतः तेषामपि उत्पत्तिं जानातु ।
पुत्री – तर्हि अग्नेः कस्य उत्पत्तिं अभवत्?
माता – अग्नेः जलस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
पुत्री – जलात् मनुष्यस्य उत्पत्तिः एव खलु ?
माता – नैव वत्से! जलात् पृथिव्याः उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
पुत्री – अहो! सत्यं खलु, अहं विस्मृतवती एव । पृथिव्याः तु प्राणिनः मनुष्याः च उत्पन्नाः।
माता – नहि नहि, पृथिव्याः ओषधीनां सस्यानां वृक्षादीनां च उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
पुत्री – अहो अद्भुतम्!
माता – सस्येभ्यः आहारस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् ।
पुत्री – आम्, आहरस्य उत्पत्तेः परं भूमौ सर्वमपि आगतम् एव। अतः आहारात् कीटाः, प्राणिनः, मनुष्याः उत्पन्नाः खलु अम्ब ?

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत।

(i) जलस्य उत्पत्तिः कस्मात् अभवत्?
उत्तरः
अग्नेः

(ii) पृथिव्याः उत्पत्तिः कस्मात् अभवत्?
उत्तरः
जलात्

(iii) सस्येभ्यः कस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्?
उत्तरः
आहारस्य

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत।

(i) पृथिव्याः केषाम् उत्पत्ति अभवत्?
उत्तरः
पृथिव्याः ओषधीनां सस्यानां वृक्षादीनां च उत्पत्तिः अभवत्।

(ii) आहारात् के उत्पन्नाः अभवन् ?
उत्तरः
(ii) आहारात् कीटाः प्राणिनः मनुष्याः उत्पन्नाः अभवत्।

III. भाषिककार्यम् ।

(i) ‘वारि’ इति पदस्य पर्यायपदं किं आगतम् ?
(क) जलम्
(ख) वायुः
(ग) अग्नि
उत्तरः
(क) जलम्

(ii) ‘बहु चतुरा’ अत्र विशेषणं पदं किम् ?
(क) बहु
(ख) चतुरा
(ग) बहु चतुरा
उत्तरः
(क) बहु

(iii) ‘आहारस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् । ‘अत्र क्रियापदं किम् ?
(क) आहार:
(ख) उत्पत्तिः
(ग) अभवत्
उत्तरः
(ग) अभवत्

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नवाक्यानां लट्लकारात् भूतकाले परिवर्तयन्तु ।
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को वर्तमान काल से भूतकाल में परिवर्तित कीजिए।)

उत्तरः
(क) तौ बालकौ अलिखताम् ।
(ख) अहम् उपनिषदम् अपठम्।
(ग) त्वम् किम् अपठः ?
(घ) ताः अखेलन्।
(ङ) सिंहः पशून् अमारयत्।
(च) आवाम् अधावाव ।
(छ) ते अचलन्।

प्रश्न 3.
शुद्धं विकल्पं चित्वा निम्नलिखित – वाक्यानि संशोधयत ।
(शुद्ध विकल्प चुनकर निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध कीजिए ।)

(क) सूर्यांश: कलं पत्रं लिखति ।
(i) कलमात्
(ii) कलमेन
(iii) कलमानि
उत्तरः
(ii) कलमेन

(ख) शिष्यः अध्यापकं ज्ञानं प्राप्नोति ।
(i) अध्यापकात्
(ii) अध्यापका:
(iii) अध्यापकेन
उत्तरः
(i) अध्यापकात्

(ग) मेधा विदेशेन विमानेन आगच्छति ।
(i) विदेशम्
(ii) विदेशात्
(iii) विदेश:
उत्तरः
(ii) विदेशात्

(घ) जनकः कार्यालयं गृहम् आगच्छति।
(i) कार्यालयात्
(ii) कार्यालय:
(iii) कार्यालयेन
उत्तरः
(i) कार्यालयात्

(ङ) कृषकः क्षेत्रं घासम् आनयति।
(i) क्षेत्रेण
(ii) क्षेत्रात्
(iii) क्षेत्राणि
उत्तरः
(ii) क्षेत्रात्

प्रश्न 4.
उचित – धातुरूपैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयन्तु ।
(उचित धातुरूप से रिक्त स्थान भरिए ।)

(क) पुरा दशरथः नाम एकः राजा ……….। (आसीत्/आसन्)
(ख) ते बालकाः ……….। (अपठताम्/अपठन्)
(ग) त्वं दुग्धम् ……….। (अधिब:/अपिबम्)
(घ) अहम् ईश्वरं ……….। (नमामि / नमावः)
(ङ) सः गणेशं ……….। (स्मरामि / स्मरति)
(च) युवां पाठ ……….। (पठामः/पठथः)
उत्तरः
(क) आसीत्
(ख) अपठन्
(ग) अपिब:
(घ) नमामि
(ङ) स्मरति
(च) पठथः

प्रश्न 5.
‘सत्यम्’ ‘असत्यम्’ वा इति लिखत ।
(‘सत्य’ या ‘असत्य’ लिखिए।)

(क) जलात् पृथित्याः उत्पत्तिः अभवत्। ____
(ख) प्रथमं ब्रह्मणः वायोः उतपत्तिः अभवत्। ____
(ग) माता ज्योतिषं पठितवती । ____
(घ) अग्नेः जलस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत्। ____
(ङ) सस्येभ्यः आहारस्य विनाशः अभवत्। ____
(च) वायोः आकाशस्य उत्पत्तिः अभवत् । _____
उत्तरः
(क) सत्यम्
(ख) असत्यम्
(ग) असत्यम्
(घ) सत्यम्
(ङ) असत्यम्
(च) असत्यम्

The post NCERT Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 9 Question Answer Solutions अन्नाद् भवन्ति भूतानि appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 4 New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 4 New Beginnings Cities and States Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions on New Beginnings Cities and States

New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Janapada’?
Answer:
Janapada means the land where a tribe or ‘jana’ settles.

Question 2.
Name any two Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Magadha and Kosala.

Question 3.
What was the capital of the Vajji confederacy?
Answer:
Vaishali.

Question 4.
Which metal’s use led to agricultural expansion during the Mahajanapada period?
Answer:
Iron.

Question 5.
How many Mahajanapadas are mentioned in the Buddhist texts?
Answer:
Sixteen.

Question 6.
What type of government existed in the Vajji Mahajanapada?
Answer:
Republican or Gana-sangha system.

Question 7.
What was the role of a Kshatriya in the Varna system?
Answer:
Kshatriyas were expected to defend the society and the land, and to engage in warfare if necessary.

Question 8.
What is ‘Jati’?
Answer:
Jati refers to group based on birth and occupation. 9. Name one early Tamil kingdom mentioned in Sangam literature.
Answer:
Chola.

Question 10.
Name any one ancient southern kingdom that traded with other countries.
Answer:
Avanti.

New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What are Janapadas?
Ans.
Janapadas were the earliest territorial units in ancient India where people (jana) settled. These were formed as tribes became more settled and began to control land. Each Janapada had its own ruler and army.

Question 2.
What led to the emergence of Mahajanapadas?
Answer:
With the use of iron tools, agriculture flourished, and small Janapadas expanded into larger political units called Mahajanapadas. Increased trade, urbanization, and population growth also contributed to this transformation.

Question 3.
Name any four Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Magadha, Kosala, Avanti, and Vajji were among the sixteen Mahajanapadas mentioned in ancient texts like the Anguttara Nikaya.

Question 4
Describe one feature of the Vajji confederacy’s political system.
Answer:
Vajji was a republican Mahajanapada, where decisions were made by an assembly of representatives or elders, not by a single monarch. It is an early example of collective decision-making.

Question 5.
How did the use of iron affect ancient Indian society?
Answer:
Iron tools, especially iron ploughshares, improved farming efficiency. This led to food surpluses, population growth, and the rise of cities and states like the Mahajanapadas.

Question 6.
What is the difference between Vama and Jati? Ans. Vama was the ancient division of society based on
duties (Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra), while Jati refers to a more rigid system of sub-castes based on birth and occupation that evolved later.

Question 7.
What were the main occupations of the four Vamas?
Answer:

1. Brahmins: Priests and teachers
2. Kshatriyas: Warriors and rulers
3. Vaishyas: Traders and farmers
4. Shudras: Servants and laborers

Question 8.
Why were the southern kingdoms able to trade with other countries?
Answer:
The southern regions were rich in precious stones, gold, and spices. So, they traded profitably with other parts of India and with overseas kingdoms.

Question 9.
What kind of economy existed in the Mahajanapadas?
Answer:
The Mahajanapadas had an agricultural economy supported by trade, craft production, and the use of coins. Urban centers emerged, and taxes were collected to maintain armies and administration.

Question 10.
How were decisions made in republican Mahajanapadas like Malla and Vajji?
Answer:
In republican Mahajanapadas, decisions were made collectively in councils or assemblies of elders or elected representatives, rather than by a single king.

New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
Explain the political evolution from Janapadas to Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
The Janapadas were the earliest territorial units in ancient India formed as Vedic tribes settled in specific areas. Over time, as agriculture improved especially with the use of iron tools populations increased and societies became more complex. This led to the rise of larger and more organized political units known as Mahajanapadas around the 6th century BCE. There were sixteen such Mahajanapadas,. These states had capital cities, standing armies, and systems of taxation. While most were monarchies, some like Vajji and Malla developed republican forms of governance, making decisions through councils. This period laid the foundation for later empires like Magadha and the Mauryas.

Question 2.
How were the rulers selected and how did the assemblies work in ancient Indian janapada and mahajanapadas? Explain with examples.
Answer:
In ancient India, each janapada had a group of elders called sabha or samiti, who discussed important matters.

1. The raja (king) was not supposed to rule alone. He had to take advice from the sabha, ministers, and other leaders.
2. In mahajanapadas (bigger kingdoms), many kings ruled with help from their ministers and collected taxes, built forts, and kept armies.
3. Some powerful mahajanapadas were Magadha, Kosala, and Avanti.
4. But in Vajji and Malla, the people in the sabha chose their ruler and took decisions by discussion or voting.
5. These places were not ruled by kings alone, so they are called early republics similar to democracy today. This system shows that some parts of ancient India had a very special way of choosing leaders and taking decisions together.

Question 3.
What was the Vama system, and how did it evolve into the Jati system?
Answer:
The Varna system was a theoretical framework for social organization in early Vedic society. It divided people into four categories based on duties: Brahmins (priests), Kshatriyas (warriors), Vaishyas (traders), and Shudras (laborers). Initially, Vama was flexible and allowed movement between groups based on karma (action) and guna (qualities). However, over time, this evolved into the more rigid Jati system, where one’s birth determined social status, occupation, and marriage rules. The Jati system included thousands of sub-castes, each with its own rules and customs. This shift from a fluid to a fixed hierarchy contributed to social inequalities and rigid social structure that persisted for centuries.

Question 4.
Discuss the economic and technological developments that led to the rise of Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
The rise of Mahajanapadas was closely linked to technological and economic advancements. The introduction of iron tools especially the iron plough improved agricultural productivity, allowing people to settle permanently and support larger populations. This led to the emergence of cities and trade centers. The use of coins like punch-marked silver coins facilitated trade, taxation, and market transactions. Artisans, merchants, and farmers played cmcial roles in the economy. Trade routes connected the Indian subcontinent to Central Asia and beyond. This economic prosperity required organized administration, prompting the formation of stronger and larger states the Mahajanapadas with standing armies and bureaucracies to manage these growing societies.

Question 5.
Describe how trade and travel connected different parts of India in ancient times.
Answer:

1. In the 1st millennium BCE, many important roads were built for trade, travel, and military campaigns.
2. Two main trade routes were the Uttarapatha (north) and the Dakshinapatha (south).
3. Cities like Sisupalgarh became important centres of trade and had well-planned layouts.
4. In the south, kingdoms like the Cholas, Cheras, and Pandyas grew rich from trade.
5. Goods and culture moved across India and even reached other parts of Asia.
6. This made ancient India a vibrant and connected land.

Question 6.

Give the difference between janapada and mahajanapadas
Answer:

New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passage and answer the following questions:
In several regions of India, the techniques of extracting and shaping iron were actually perfected from the early 2nd millennium BCE, but it took a few centuries for iron to become a part of daily life. By the late 2nd millennium BCE, iron tools had become widespread, facilitating agriculture on a bigger scale. Iron also made better weapons than bronze, lighter and sharper-swords, spears, arrows, shields, etc.

(i) Which metal tools became common by the late 2nd millennium BCE?
Answer: Iron tools became common by the late 2nd millennium BCE.

(ii) Name two weapons made of iron mentioned in the passage.
Answer:
Swords and spears.

(iii) How did the use of iron tools affect agriculture and warfare in ancient India?
Answer:
Iron tools helped in fanning on a larger scale and made better weapons like swords and spears. These weapons were lighter and sharper than bronze ones, improving warfare.

 New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Examine the given image and answer the following.
(i) What can be seen in the given image?
Answer:
The image of Shishupalgarh shows a gateway with fortifications, a water-filled moat, and a narrow passage to control movement.

(ii) What is Shishupalgarh?
Answer:
Shishupalgarh is an ancient site near Bhubaneswar, first excavated in 1948.

(iii) What can be seen outside the gateway of Shishupalgarh?
Answer:
A water-filled moat is visible outside the gateway.

(iv) Why is the gateway of Shishupalgarh narrow?
Answer:
The narrowing of the gateway was meant to control the movement of people and goods.

New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 Map Skill Questions

Question 1.
Mark the following major Mahajanapadas on the given map of India: On the political map of India, locate and label the following Mahajanapadas:
(i) Kuru
(ii) Malla
(iii) Avanti
Answer:

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Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 5 The Rise of Empires Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 5 The Rise of Empires Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions on The Rise of Empires

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What was the role of Kautilya in Chandragupta Maurya’s life?
Answer:
He was a wise Brahmin who guided and helped Chandragupta to become king.

Question 2.
What type of currency was used during the Mauryan period?
Answer:
Punch-marked coins.

Question 3.
What is a moat and why was it used?
Answer:
A moat is a deep trench filled with water used for protecting the city.

Question 4.
Name two foreign countries that traded with Pataliputra.
Ansqwer:
China and Rome.

Question 5.
Name one river that provided a trade advantage to Magadha.
Answer:
Ganga or Son.

Question 6.
What type of bridge did Pataliputra have?
Answer:
A drawbridge.

Question 7.
Who founded the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya.

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Mention the reason to deploy trained army in the empire.
Answer:
The main reasons to deploy trained army are:

1. To conquer neighbouring kingdoms.
2. To employ control over them.
3. To defend the empire’s borders.

Question 2.
Why is maintaining an army a costly affair?
Answer:
For maintaining army soldiers need to be fed, clothed, equipped with weapons and paid, horses and elephants needed for the army, roads and ships have to be built. These all expenses need economic power, control over the workforce and access to resources.

Question 3.
Describe how Magadha rose to power and what made it suitable for empire-building.
Answer:
Magadha rose to power due to its fertile Ganga plains, access to iron and minerals, abundant forests, and rivers for trade. Kings like Ajatashatru and Mahapadma Nanda expanded it further. Iron ploughs and weapons increased agricultural and military strength, while flourishing trade boosted wealth.

Question 4.
Compare the Nanda and Maurya dynasties in terms of governance and public perception.
Answer:
The Nanda dynasty, especially under Dhana Nanda, was seen as oppressive despite economic strength. He issued coins and maintained a large army but became unpopular. In contrast, Chandrqgupta Maurya, mentored by Kautilya, established a strong central governance and expanded the empire efficiently, gaining support and creating a lasting legacy.

Question 6.
How has the Kautilaya’s central philosophy is in tune with Indian values?
Answer:
The Kautilaya’s central theme is completely in tune with Indian values. In the happiness of his subject lies the king’s happiness, his welfare in their happiness. Alternatively, however powerful a king may be, he must give first place to people’s interest.

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
Why is maintaining an army a costly affair, and what role does trade play in supporting it?
Answer:
Maintaining an army is costly because soldiers need to be fed, clothed, paid, and equipped with weapons. Elephants and horses require care, and infrastructure like roads or ships must be built. These needs require economic power, control over labour, and access to resources. Therefore, production and trade become key. Trade increases the quantity and variety of goods, benefits producers, and increases tax collections for the ruler. A strong economy supported by active trade allows the empire to fund its army and ensure the people’s welfare. Thus, economic strength and proper management of trade routes are essential for maintaining a powerful army and a stable empire.

Question 2.
What do we learn about the role of guilds (shrenis) in ancient Indian trade?
Answer:
Guilds, or shrenis, were powerful associations of traders, craftsmen, moneylenders, or agriculturists. A guild had a head and executive officers with ethical responsibilities. Guilds promoted collaboration rather than competition. They shared resources and market knowledge, benefiting all members. An ancient text says cultivators, traders, herdsmen, moneylenders, and artisans could make their own rules, and kings did not interfere. Guilds operated independently and supported trade and economic growth. They spread across India and lasted for centuries. Even after they formally disappeared, their ideas influenced trade and business. Guilds showed the self-organising nature of Indian society and its ability to support trade without heavy royal control.

Question 3.
What geographical and economic advantages helped Magadha become a powerful mahajanapada?
Answer:
Magadha was located in the resource-rich Ganga plains with fertile land and abundant forests. It also had access to elephants and iron ore from nearby hills. Iron was used to make ploughs that improved agriculture and weapons that made the army stronger. Surplus food allowed people to focus on crafts and trade. The Ganga and Son rivers made transport easy and supported trade. This increased income and helped the kingdom grow. These advantages allowed rulers like Mahapadma Nanda to unify many smaller kingdoms. With growing economic power, he issued coins, showing the kingdom’s wealth and strength. These factors helped Magadha rise as a powerful mahajanapada.

Question 4.
How did Kautilya help Chandragupta Maurya build the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, was a teacher at Takshashila University. He advised Chandragupta Maurya after being insulted by Dhana Nanda. Kautilya helped Chandragupta overthrow the Nandas and create the Maurya Empire. He used his knowledge of politics, governance, and economics to guide the new empire. In his book Arthashastra, he wrote about defence, law, administration, justice, agriculture, and people’s welfare. He introduced the idea of saptanga—seven parts of a kingdom. Kautilya believed the king’s happiness depended on the welfare of his people. His ideas helped Chandragupta rule wisely and build a strong, well- protected, and prosperous empire with Pataliputra as its capital.

Question 5.
What changes did Ashoka make after the Kalinga war, and how did he spread his message?
Answer:
After the Kalinga war, Ashoka was deeply affected by the death and destruction he witnessed. He gave up violence and adopted the Buddha’s path of peace and non-violence. He began spreading Buddhist teachings and sent emissaries to countries like Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Central Asia. Ashoka issued edicts official messages engraved on rocks and pillars—across the empire. Written in Prakrit and Brahmi script, they shared his thoughts on dharma, kindness, and religious tolerance. He called himself ‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’ beloved of the gods and kind to people. Ashoka also took steps for animal welfare, planted trees, built wells and rest houses, and supported all religious sects.

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the questions that follow:
1. Kautilya, also known as Chanakya, was a learned teacher at Takshashila and authored Arthashastra.
(i) Who was Kautilya and what was his major work?
Answer:
Kautilya was a teacher and advisor who authored the Arthashastra.

(ii) What was his role in Chandragupta Maurya’s rise to power?
Answer:
He guided and strategized for Chandragupta to overthrow the Nandas.

(iii) How did his teachings influence the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
They provided a foundation for strong governance and administration.

2. The Nanda king Dhana Nanda imposed heavy taxes and became unpopular among his subjects.
(i) Why was Dhana Nanda unpopular?
Answer:
Due to heavy taxation and possibly oppressive rule.

(ii) What effect did his rule have on the rise of the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
It created dissatisfaction, paving the way for Chandragupta’s rise.

(iii) How is this example important in understanding transitions in power?
Answer:
Unpopular rule often leads to revolts or the emergence of new leaders.

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Picture Based Questions

(i) What does the use of such coins suggest about the economy of ancient India?
Answer:
It suggests the presence of a formal currency system used in trade.

(ii) Which ruler had issued the punch-marked coins?
Answer:
Mahapadma Nanda.

(iii) What does the use of coins indicate about ancient India?
Answer:
It indicates a well- developed economy and the importance of trade.

The Rise of Empires Class 7 Map Skill Questions

Question 1.
On the political map of India, locate and label the following rock edicts:
(i) Girnar
(ii) Brahmagiri
(iii) Samath
Answer:

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Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 6 The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 6 The Age of Reorganisation Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions on The Age of Reorganisation

The Age of Reorganisationa Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Which Shunga architectural site is known for its beautifully carved railings and reliefs depicting stories from the Buddha’s life?
Answer:
The Bharhut Stupa.

Question 2.
Which region did the Satavahana dynasty primarily rule over?
Answer:
The Satavahana dynasty primarily ruled over present-day Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Maharashtra.

Question 3.
Why Gautami Balashri significant in Satavahana history?
Answer:
Gautami Balashri was significant for donating land to Buddhist monks.

Question 4.
Which ruler is associated with the Udayagiri- Khandagiri caves?
Answer:
Kharavela.

Question 5.
Which three powerful kingdoms rose to prominence in India’s southern region between the 2nd century BCE and the 3rd century CE?
Answer:
The Cheras, the Cholas, and the Pandyas.

Question 6.
Which kingdoms did King Karikala defeat to establish his supremacy?
Answer:
The Cheras and Pandyas.

Question 7.
Where did Kovalan and Kannagi travel after Kovalan lost his wealth?
Answer:
They travelled to Madurai, the capital of the Pandyas.

Question 8.
Where was the capital of the Cheras located?
Answer:
The capital of the Cheras was at Vanji, present-day Karur in Tamil Nadu.

Question 9.
What was the role of Sangam literature in Tamil society?
Answer:
It depicted the cultural and social life of Tamil people.

Question 10.
What influence did the Kushana Empire have on art?
Answer:
It blended Greco-Roman and Indian styles.

The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Explain the significance of Kanishka in the spread of Buddhism.
Answer:
King Kanishka of the Kushana Empire played a pivotal role in spreading Buddhism to Central Asia. He is credited with convening the Fourth Buddhist Council, which helped formalize Buddhist teachings. His patronage led to the expansion of Buddhist influence, particularly along the Silk Road.

Question 2.
How did the inclusion of the mother’s name in the title of post-Maurya rulers reflect their political strategy?
Answer:
Including the mother’s name in the title helped rulers strengthen their political legitimacy, as it emphasized royal lineage, especially in dynasties where maternal descent or heritage was considered important in establishing the ruler’s authority.

Question 3.
Describe the contribution of Sangam literature to our understanding of ancient Tamil society.
Answer:
Sangam literature provides a vivid depiction of the social, economic, and cultural life of ancient Tamil society. It highlights the themes of love, heroism, and ethics, offering insights into the values, customs, and governance during the Sangam period.

Question 4.
What is the importance of Ajanta Caves in the context of post-Maurya architecture?
Answer:
The Ajanta Caves are important examples of rock- cut architecture developed during the post-Maurya period. These caves feature intricate carvings and paintings depicting Buddhist themes, contributing significantly to the art and architecture of ancient India.

Question 5.
What role did the Kushana Empire play in the development of trade and culture?
Answer:
The Kushana Empire, through its strategic location along the Silk Road, facilitated trade between India, Central Asia, and China. It also fostered cultural exchanges, with influences from Greek, Roman, and Indian traditions blending in art, architecture, and religion.

Question 6.
What was the significance of the Pandya kingdom?
Answer:
The Pandya kingdom, with its capital at Madurai, was a prosperous and powerful kingdom in Tamil Nadu. It was known for its strong administration, active trade with the Greeks and Romans, and naval power. The Pandyas contributed to the region’s art, architecture, and culture. Their kingdom played a major role in the economic and cultural history of South India.

Question 7.
What was the Shaka Samvat calendar, and when was it adopted as the Indian National Calendar?
Answer:
The Shaka Samvat calendar was developed during the rule of the Shakas (Indo-Scythians) in the northwest of the Subcontinent. It is 78 years behind the Gregorian calendar, except from January to March, when it is behind by 79 years. This calendar was adopted as the Indian National Calendar in 1957.

Question 8.
Who was Kharavela, and what notable achievements are recorded in the Hathigumpha inscription?
Answer:
Kharavela was a ruler of the Chedi dynasty in Kalinga, known for his devotion to Jainism and being called “bhikshu-raja” (monk-king). The Hathigumpha inscription, located near Bhubaneswar, records his military victories, benevolent works for the welfare of his people, and the establishment of a ‘council of ascetics and sages’ from a hundred regions. He is also praised for his respect for all schools of thought and efforts to repair temples.

Question 9.
How did the Cheras contribute to the cultural and economic history of southern India?
Answer:
The Cheras promoted Tamil literature and patronized Sangam poets, contributing significantly to the cultural history of the region. Economically, they developed extensive trade connections with the Roman Empire and West Asia, exporting goods like spices, timber, ivory, and pearls, thus boosting the region’s economy.

The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Long Question Answer

Discuss the architectural achievements of the post- Maurya era, citing specific examples.
Answer:
The post-Maurya era saw significant advancements in architecture, particularly in the development of Buddhist monuments. One notable example is the Sanchi Stupa in Madhya Pradesh, which, although constructed during the Mauryan period, influenced later architectural styles. The Ajanta Caves, developed during the early centuries CE, are another remarkable example, with their rock-cut designs and intricate sculptures.

These caves, known for their Buddhist frescoes, reflect the religious and artistic advancements of the time. The Gandhara art style, which developed during the Kushana Empire, was another significant architectural and artistic achievement. The blend of Greco-Roman and Indian influences created a unique style that is evident in sculptures and stupas from the period.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of the Kushana Empire on Indian history and culture.
Answer:
The Kushana Empire, established by the Kushan dynasty, was instrumental in shaping the political, cultural, and religious landscape of ancient India. Under King Kanishka, the empire expanded its reach across North India and Central Asia. Kanishka’s patronage of Buddhism played a key role in its spread beyond India, particularly to Central Asia and China, contributing to the establishment of the Silk Road as a major trade route. The Kushanas also had a significant impact on art, especially through the development of Gandhara art, which combined Greek, Roman, and Indian artistic traditions.

The empire’s monetary system, which introduced new forms of coinage, is another important contribution. The Kushana period also saw the flourishing of trade and commerce, which further integrated India into global economic networks. The Kushana Empire, thus, helped in the cross-pollination of cultures and ideas, leaving a lasting legacy in the history of India.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of King Karikala in the history of the Chola dynasty, focusing on his military achievements and contributions to agriculture.
Answer:
King Karikala was one of the most prominent rulers of the Chola dynasty, which ruled southern India from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. He is especially known for his military prowess, having defeated a combined force of the Cheras and Pandyas, which helped him establish Chola supremacy in the region. Beyond his military achievements, Karikala is renowned for his contributions to agriculture and infrastructure, particularly through the construction of the Kallanai or Grand Anicut.

This massive water diversion system was strategically placed just downstream of Srirangam Island and was designed to channel waters from the Kaveri River to the central and southern parts of the Kaveri delta. The irrigation system expanded the area suitable for cultivation, earning the region the nickname “rice bowl of the South.” The Kallanai has been restored several times over the centuries but continues to be in use today, providing crucial irrigation for millions of people in Tamil Nadu and supporting the region’s agricultural economy. This project reflects Karikala’s vision of ensuring prosperity for his people through sustainable agricultural practices.

Question 4.
How did the Indo-Greeks influence the northwestern regions of India, and what is the significance of their cultural interaction with local traditions?
Answer:
The Indo-Greeks, who arrived in the northwestern regions of India after Alexander’s brief campaign, left a lasting impact on the subcontinent. They established independent satrapies and were greatly influenced by the rich local culture. This led to a blend of Greek and Indian elements in governance, art, language, and daily life. A notable example of this cultural fusion is the Heliodorus pillar near Vidisha, which features an inscription praising Vasudeva as the ‘god of gods.’ The inscriptions highlight values such as self-restraint, charity, and consciousness.

Additionally, Indo-Greek coins, often depicting both Greek and Indian deities like Vasudeva-Krishna and Lakshmi, serve as valuable archaeological evidence of their rule. These coins, made from gold, silver, copper, and nickel, reveal the syncretic nature of their cultural influence.

Question 5.
How did the Satavahana dynasty contribute to the economic and cultural development of ancient India?
Answer:
The Satavahana dynasty, which ruled large parts of the Deccan from the 2nd century BCE, made significant contributions to both the economic and cultural development of ancient India. They facilitated flourishing trade and commerce, with coins found from Gujarat to Andhra Pradesh, indicating active trade across the western and eastern coasts. The kingdom engaged in maritime trade, evidenced by coins depicting ships, suggesting advanced shipbuilding and navigation skills. Agriculture, particularly in the Krishna-Godavari River system, provided economic stability.

The Satavahanas had trade networks extending as far as the Roman Empire, with goods like spices, textiles, ivory, and gold being exchanged. Culturally, they patronized literature, art, and religious institutions, with inscriptions found in places like Nashik and Naneghat that highlight their support for Vedic rituals, Buddhism, and Jainism. Additionally, they are noted for promoting the development of early numerals, which eventually led to modem numerical systems.

The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the following questions:
Coins issued by the Satavahana rulers have been found in various regions of India, from Gujarat to Andhra Pradesh – India’s western and eastern coasts. Indeed, many coins depicted ships, suggesting that maritime trade was an important part of economic life. The type of ship depicted on the coin above suggests advanced shipbuilding and navigation technologies. Agriculture flourished in the Krishna Godavari River system, which provided economic ; stability to the kingdom. The Satavahanas had active trade networks that reached as far as the Roman Empire and included an exchange of goods like spices, textiles, sandalwood, and luxury items like gold-plated pearls, ivory, etc. Imports included glass and perfumed ointments. Tolls and taxes on trade added revenue to the kingdom.

(i) In which two regions of India were Satavahana coins found?
Answer:
Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

(ii) What kind of trade is shown by ships on Satavahana coins?
Answer:
Maritime (sea) trade.

(iii) How did agriculture and trade help the Satavahana kingdom become rich?
Answer:
Agriculture in the Krishna-Godavari River area gave food and stability. Trade with other places, like the Roman Empire, brought money through tolls, taxes, and selling goods like spices and pearls.

2. Very little is known about Ashoka’s successors to the throne. It is generally accepted, however, that the last Maurya emperor was assassinated around 185 BCE by his commander-in-chief Pushyamitra Shunga. This led to a breakup of the empire – hardly half a century after Ashoka. Many new kingdoms emerged across the subcontinent, which, often, were earlier tributary. kingdoms under the Maurya empire. The northwest region became weak, exposing it to invasions from outside the subcontinent. This period is also known ; as the ‘age of reorganisation’ by some scholars as the existing regions were being reorganised into new kingdoms that were constantly competing to become powerful. The map of India changed significantly in that age, as did people’s lives.

(i) Who killed the last Maurya ruler?
Answer:
Pushyamitra Shunga.

(ii) What do some scholars call the time after the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
The ‘age of reorganisation’.

(iii) What happened in India after the fall of the Maurya Empire?
Answer:
The empire broke into many small kingdoms. The northwest became weak and open to attacks. Old regions were changed into new kingdoms that fought for power.

The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Examine the given image and answer the following.

(i) Who is depicted in this image?
Answer:
The image depicts Kannagi, the central character of the Tamil epic Silappadikaram.

(ii) Which city did Kannagi bum in her rage and grief?
Answer:
Madurai

(iii) What is the symbolic meaning of Kannagi in Tamil literature and culture?
Answer:
Kannagi symbolizes chastity, justice, and righteous anger in Tamil literature and culture. She is revered as a divine figure who stood against injustice and is celebrated for her unwavering loyalty to her husband and moral strength.

The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Map Skill Questions

Question 1.
On the political map of India, locate and label the following prominent dynasties:
(i) Cheras
(ii) Cholas
(iii) Pandyas
Answer:

Class 7 The Age of Reorganisation Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The Naneghat Caves are located near
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Mysore

Question 2.
Coin of the Satavahanas has an inscription in
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Roman
(c) Pali
(d) Brahmi script

Question 3.
Who was sometimes called bhikshu-raja or monk-king?
(a) Kharavela
(b) Karikala
(c) Kanishka
(d) Ashoka

4. Who was the most powerful ruler of the Kushana dynasty?
(a) Kanishka
(b) Karikala
(c) Vikramaditya
(d) Ashoka

Question 5.

There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer below:
Assertion (A): The Cheras were also known as the Keralaputra (sons of Kerala).
Reason (R): The Cheras ruled over the western parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do the Sangams refer to?

Question 2.
Who created a ‘council of ascetics and sages’ from a hundred regions?

Question 3.
In which state of India are Udayagiri caves located?

Question 4.
Who had founded the Shunga dynasty?

Question 5.
What does Jagdish Chandra Bose say about the land of India?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why was the Ashvamedha yajna conducted by many rulers?

Question 2.
Where are the Naneghat Caves? Why were they built?

Question 3.
Why were Udayagiri caves built?

Question 4.
Where is Gandhara located?

Question 5.
How is the Mathura style different from the Gandhara style?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do coins issued by the Satavahana rulers give detail of the maritime trade of the rulers?

Question 2.
Write the tale of Kannagi in your own words.

Question 3.
How did the invasion of Greeks, particularly, Alexander, influence Indian subcontinent?

Question 4.
Why would a powerful ruler like Kanishka feature Buddha and Shiva on his coins? What does it say about his values and priorities?

The post The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 7 The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 7 The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions on The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Important

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who was the most famous poet in the Gupta period?
Answer:
Kalidasa.

Question 2.
Name one famous astronomical work of Aryabhata.
Answer:
Aryabhatiya.

Question 3.
Which religion was mainly promoted by the Gupta rulers?
Answer:
Hinduism.

Question 4.
Name one important temple built during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh.

Question 5.
Who was the Gupta emperor during whose reign the empire reached its peak?
Answer:
Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya).

Question 6.
Which script was used for writing during the Gupta period?
Answer:
Brahmi script.

Question 7.
Name one important scientific contribution of Varahamihira.
Answer:
Brihat Samhita – a compendium on astronomy, astrology, and natural sciences.

Question 8.
What type of governance system did the Guptas follow?
Answer:
Monarchy with a decentralized administrative system.

Question 9.
Name one famous painting site from the Gupta period.
Answer:
Ajanta Caves.

Question 10.
What new idea about Earth did Aryabhata propose?
Answer:
He proposed that the Earth rotates on its axis.

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the main features of Gupta art and architecture?
Answer:
Gupta art is known for its elegance, balance, and spiritual expression. The period saw the rise of structural temples, intricate sculptures, and beautiful wall paintings like those in the Ajanta Caves.

Question 2.
How did religion influence life during the Gupta period?
Answer:
Hinduism became the dominant religion, supported by royal patronage, but Buddhism and Jainism also coexisted. Temples were built, and religious texts were composed, influencing daily life and values.

Question 3.
Describe the administrative system of the Gupta Empire.
Answer:
The Gupta Empire had a well-organised system of administration. Instead of controlling from a central authority, they divided the empire into provinces.

Question 4.
What role did Nalanda University play during the Gupta period?
Answer:
Nalanda became a world-renowned center for learning, especially in Buddhist studies, attracting students from across Asia. It offered education in various subjects including philosophy, astronomy, and medicine.

Question 5.
What contributions did Aryabhata make in science?
Ans.
Aryabhata was a great mathematician and astronomer. He wrote the Aryabhatiya, explained the concept of zero, place value, and proposed that the Earth rotates on its axis.

Question 6.
Who was Kalidasa and why is he famous?
Answer:
Kalidasa was a classical Sanskrit poet and playwright. He is famous for works like Abhijnanasakuntalam, Meghaduta, and Raghuvamsha,
known for their poetic beauty and deep emotions.

Question 7.
What were Varahamihira’s contributions to Indian knowledge?
Answer:
Varahamihira was a scholar of astronomy, astrology, and natural sciences. His famous work Brihat Samhita covers a wide range of topics from weather forecasting to architecture and gemology.

Question 8.
How did the Gupta period promote education and learning?
Answer:
The Guptas encouraged learning through institutions like Nalanda and supported scholars. Sanskrit became the main language of education, and significant works in science, literature, and philosophy were composed.

Question 9.
What is the significance of the Ajanta Caves in Gupta art?
Answer:
The Ajanta Caves contain exquisite murals and sculptures that depict the Jataka tales (stories of the Buddha’s previous lives) and showcase the artistic excellence of the Gupta period.

Question 10.
Why is the Gupta period called the “Golden Age” of India?
Answer:
The Gupta period is called the Golden Age due to advancements in art, literature, science, mathematics, and a stable political system that fostered peace and prosperity across the empire.

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Long Answer Questions

Question 1
Describe the significance of Chandragupta I in the rise of the Gupta Empire.
Answer:
Chandragupta I played a crucial role in laying the foundation of the Gupta Empire. He is considered the first important ruler of the Gupta dynasty. His strategic alliances helped him gain both prestige and political power, which expanded his influence in the region. His reign marked the beginning of the Gupta era. Chandragupta I established a stable and efficient administration, which set the stage for future expansion under his successors. His rule is notable for consolidating territories and creating a base for a powerful and culturally rich empire.

Question 2
Discuss the achievements of Samudragupta and why he is known as the “Napoleon of India.”
Answer:
Samudragupta, son of Chandragupta I, was a brilliant military commander and an able administrator. His military campaigns, both in North and South India, are recorded in the Allahabad Pillar Inscription composed by his court poet Harisena. He defeated numerous kings and expanded the Gupta Empire significantly. He is often called the “Napoleon of India” due to his military prowess and extensive conquests. Apart from warfare, Samudragupta was a patron of arts, music, and literature. He was a skilled veena player and supported scholars and poets. His reign marked the beginning of the Golden Age of the Gupta Empire.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) to the Gupta Empire.
Answer:
Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, was one of the most celebrated Gupta rulers. He continued the work of expansion and consolidation started by his predecessors. Chandragupta II’s court was adorned with the “Navaratnas” or nine gems, including Kalidasa and Varahamihira. His reign is associated with peace, prosperity, and cultural achievements. Art, sculpture, and architecture flourished during this time. He promoted Hinduism but was tolerant of other religions, including Buddhism and Jainism.

Question 4.
Explain the contributions of Kalidasa, Aryabhata, and Varahamihira during the Gupta period.
Answer:

1. The Gupta period is known for remarkable achievements in literature and science, largely due to the works of scholars like Kalidasa, Aryabhata, and Varahamihira.
2. Kalidasa was a classical Sanskrit poet and playwright whose works like Abhijnanasakuntalam, Meghaduta, and Raghuvamsha are still celebrated for their literary beauty.
3. Aryabhata, a mathematician and astronomer, wrote the Aryabhatiya. He introduced the concept of zero, explained the decimal system, and proposed that the Earth rotates on its axis.
4. Varahamihira was a polymath who wrote the Brihat Samhita, covering astronomy, astrology, architecture, and natural sciences. These scholars laid the foundations for Indian science and literature and influenced future generations.

Question 5.
Write a note on the Prayaga Prashasti, a pillar inscription of Prayagraj.
Answer:
The prayaga prashasti, a pillar inscription in Prayagraj, praises the achievements of Samudragupta. According to the author of the inscription-the court poet Harisena – the king’s ambition was to ‘unify the Earth’. To this end, he fought many wars, defeating kings, taking over their kingdoms and expanding his empire. Many defeated kings were reinstated and offered tribute to Samudragupta, while others, fearing his might, submitted without protest. Harisena also wrote about how the king supported art, learning and trade, making his kingdom rich and successful. Samudragupta himself is portrayed as a veena player in one of the coins he minted.

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the following questions:
1. Theprayagaprashasti,apillarinscriptioninPrayagraj, praises the achievements of Samudragupta, Chan- dragupta II’s father. According to the author of the : inscription-the court poet Harisena – the king’s am¬bition was to be ‘dharani-bandha’ or to ‘unify the Earth’. To this end, he fought many wars, defeating kings, taking over their kingdoms and expanding his empire. Many defeated kings were reinstated and of¬fered tribute to Samudragupta, while others, fearing his might, submitted without protest. Harisena also wrote about how the king supported art, learning and trade, making his kingdom rich and successful. Samudragupta himself is portrayed as a veena player in one of the coins he minted.

(i) What does the term ‘dharani-bandha’ mean? Whose ambition was it?
Answer:
The term ‘dharani-bandha’ means to ‘unify the Earth’ and it was the ambition of King Samudragupta.

(ii) Who was the author of prayaga prashasti inscription?
Answer:
The author of the prayaga prashasti inscription was the court poet Harisena.

(iii) What does prayaga prashasti inscription contain?
Answer:
The prayaga prashasti, a pillar inscription in Prayagraj, praises the achievements of Samudragupta. It contains how Samudragupta tried to conquer other kings to unify the Earth.

2. Indeed, the prolonged period of peace and stability during the Gupta period promoted notable achievements in various fields, leading some ; historians to label this period the ‘classical age’of India. It was also the time when knowledge from previous eras was consolidated and compiled into numerous texts. Sanskrit literature flourished, ; with Kalidasa’s works and many major Puranas. ! Aryabhata and Varahamihira recorded major advancements in mathematics and astronomy, while medical texts compiled and refined medical theories and practices. Metallurgy also progressed, as we saw with the rustresistant Iron Pillar.

(i) Which age was termed as the ‘classical age’ by historians?
Answer:
The Gupta period was termed by the historian as ‘classical age’. .

(ii) Who were the prominent figures during the Gupta period who made it a ‘classical age’?
Answer:
Kalidas, Aryabhata and Varahamihira contributed in their respective field to make the Gupta period a ‘classical age’.

(iii) Which evidence suggests that the Gupta period had achieved great height in the field of metallurgy?
Answer:
The 1600 year-old rust-resistant Iron Pillar located in Delhi is the proof of the achievement of the Gupta period in the field of metallurgy.

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Look at the below picture and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which monument is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The picture shows the ruins of Nalanda University.

(ii) Where is it located?
Answer:
It is located at Nalanda in Bihar.

(iii) Why is it famous for?
Answer:
During the Gupta period Nalanda University became a world-renowned center for learning, especially in Buddhist studies, attracting students from across Asia.

The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Map Skill Questions

Question 1.
On the outline map of India label and locate the following:
(i) Saketa
(ii) Prayaga
(iii) Magadha
Answer:

Class 7 The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is a famous literary work of Kalidasa?
(a) Arthashastra
(b) Abhijnanasakuntalam
(c) Manusmriti
(d) Brihat Samhita

Question 2.
What was Aryabhata’s major scientific contribution?
(a) Discovery of zero and Earth’s rotation
(b) Development of Ayurveda
(c) Discovery of atoms
(d) Translation of Greek texts

Question 3.
Which of the following best describes the religion supported by Gupta rulers?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainsm
(c) Hinduism
(d) Islam

Question 4.
What is Varahamihira known for?
(a) Writing epic poetry
(b) Military leadership
(c) Contributions to astronomy and astrology
(d) LstabIishing Nalanda University

Question 5.
What was a key feature of Gupta administration?
(a) Complete centralization
(b) Rule by local elected bodies
(c) A monarchy with decentralized provincial governance
(d) Theocratic rule

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name one famous poet of the Gupta period.

Question 2.
What was the main religion followed by Gupta rulers?

Question 3.
Who wrote the book Brihat Samhita?

Question 4.
Name one important art site of the Gupta period.

Question 5.
Which script was commonly used during the Gupta Empire?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the main features of Gupta administration?

Question 2.
Write a short note on Kalidasa and his literary contributions.

Question 3.
How did the Gupta period contribute to the growth of Hindu temple architecture?

Question 4.
Explain the importance of Aryabhata’s scientific ideas.

Question 5.
Describe the role of religion in the daily life of people during the Gupta Empire.

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the cultural and artistic achievements of the Gupta Empire with examples.

Question 2.
Describe the contributions of Aryabhata, Kalidasa, and Varahamihira to science and literature during the Gupta period.

Question 3.
Explain the structure and functioning of administration and governance under the Gupta rulers.

Question 4.
How did religion influence art and education during the Gupta period?

Question 5.
Evaluate why the Gupta period is known as the “Golden Age” of Indian history.

The post The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 7 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 8 How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 8 How the Land Becomes Sacred Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions on How the Land Becomes Sacred

How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What does ‘sacredness’ mean in the context of geography?
Answer:
Sacredness refers to the spiritual or religious importance of a place. It could be a natural site like a river or mountain, or a man-made structure like a temple or shrine.

Question 2.
Name two sacred rivers in Flinduism and explain why they are respected.
Answer:
The Ganga and Yamuna are considered goddesses and worshipped in Hinduism. They are believed to purify the soul and are important in various rituals and festivals.

Question 3.
What is the significance of Bodh Gaya in Buddhism?
Answer:
Bodh Gaya is where Siddhartha Gautama, the Buddha, attained enlightenment. It is one of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Buddhists worldwide.

Question 4.
What are sacred groves and who protects them?
Answer:
Sacred groves are forest areas protected by tribal communities because of their spiritual significance. Hunting and tree cutting arc usually forbidden there.

Question 5.
How are pilgrimage routes important besides religious reasons?
Answer:
Pilgrimage routes encouraged travel, trade, and cultural exchange. They helped spread art. stories, goods, and knowledge across different regions of India.

How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
How do sacred places reflect the connection between nature and spirituality in India?
Answer:
Sacred places in India often include natural features like rivers, mountains, and forests. These are worshipped and protected due to their religious significance. For example, the Ganga River is seen as a goddess, and many forests are preserved as sacred groves. This connection teaches people to respect and care for the environment while also practicing their faith.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Golden Temple in Sikhism.
Answer:
The Golden Temple, also known as Harmandir Sahib, is the holiest site in Sikhism. Located in Amritsar, it symbolizes equality, peace, and devotion. People from all faiths are welcomed here. The temple is built around a sacred pool of water believed to have healing powers. It also houses the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of the Sikhs.

Question 3.
What role do sacred trees play in Indian religious traditions?
Answer:
Sacred trees like the Peepul are respected in Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism. They are often seen as homes of gods or symbols of life and wisdom. People worship them, tie threads around them for blessings, and avoid cutting them. These practices promote environmental conservation as well.

Question 4.
Why are places like Shatrunjaya and Gimar sacred in Jainism?
Answer:
Shatrunjaya and Girnar hills are sacred to Jains because they are believed to be places where Jain Tirthankaras meditated and attained enlightenment. Many Jain temples are built on these hills. Pilgrims visit them as acts of devotion and spiritual growth.

Question 5.
Describe how sacred geography can influence daily life and behavior.
Answer:
Sacred geography teaches respect for nature, encourages eco-friendly practices, and promotes values like peace and harmony. People avoid polluting sacred rivers, protect forests, and celebrate nature through rituals and festivals. It shapes how people travel, live, and interact with the environment in meaningful ways.

How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
How do sacred places contribute to environmental protection and sustainability?
Answer:
Sacred places in India, such as rivers, forests, and mountains, are not just religious landmarks—they play a key role in environmental conservation. Sacred groves, for example, are forests preserved by tribal communities and are off-limits for hunting or deforestation. Worship of rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna teaches people not to pollute them. Sacred trees like the Peepul are rarely cut down due to religious respect. These beliefs and practices foster an attitude of environmental care and sustainability, showing how faith can support ecological balance.

Question 2.
Discuss how sacred geography in India promotes unity in diversity.
Answer:
Sacred geography in India includes places from all major religions—Hindu temples, Sikh gurdwaras, Islamic dargahs, Buddhist stupas, Christian churches, and Jain hills. People of different communities often visit each other’s sacred sites, especially during festivals or pilgrimages. This shared respect builds harmony and mutual understanding. For example, the Dargah Sharif in Ajmer is visited by both Muslims and Hindus. Sacred geography, therefore, helps people connect spiritually while respecting cultural differences, reinforcing India’s identity as a land of unity in diversity.

Question 3.
What lessons can modern society learn from the concept of sacred geography?
Answer:
Modern society can learn valuable lessons from sacred geography. First, it teaches respect for nature, reminding us to preserve rivers, forests, and mountains. Second, it emphasizes peaceful coexistence and spiritual unity among diverse communities. Third, sacred geography highlights the importance of balance between development and tradition. As people become more urbanized, they often lose their connection with nature. Sacred places help maintain that bond and promote sustainable lifestyles. Lastly, sacred geography fosters tourism, cultural heritage, and education about environmental responsibility.

Question 4.
Explain the connection between pilgrimage and the spread of culture and knowledge in ancient India.
Answer:
In ancient India, pilgrimage routes were not just for religious travel but also served as important paths for cultural exchange. As pilgrims traveled across regions, they brought with them stories, art, music, and local traditions. These routes became channels for sharing knowledge, including medicinal practices, philosophical ideas, and crafts. Markets and rest stops developed along these paths, encouraging trade and interaction among different communities. Sacred geography, therefore, helped bind the country together and contributed to its cultural richness.

Question 5.
How are sacred rivers and trees examples of India’s deep cultural and spiritual bond with nature?
Answer:
India’s sacred geography includes natural features like rivers and trees that are worshipped and protected. Rivers such as the Ganga and Yamuna are seen as divine mothers and are central to many religious rituals. Trees like the Peepul are worshipped for their life-giving qualities and are linked to deities. These natural elements are part of everyday life, from prayer to festivals. This reverence fosters an emotional and spiritual connection with nature, encouraging people to care for and preserve their environment. These practices reflect a worldview where nature and spirituality are deeply intertwined.

How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the questions that follow:
Another example is the pilgrimage to Sabarimala temple (Kerala), dedicated to the deity Ayyappa, which draws over ten million devotees every year. This hilltop shrine was traditionally reached by an immensely difficult trek through hills and forests. Such a challenging approach, common to many hilltop or mountain shrines all over the country, symbolises the difficulties of the inner path, with natural landmarks along the route being considered sacred.

(i) In which state is the Sabarimala temple located?
Answer:
The Sabarimala temple is located in Kerala.

(ii) To which deity is the Sabarimala temple dedicated?
Answer:
It is dedicated to Lord Ayyappa.

(iii) Why is the trek to Sabarimala considered symbolic in spiritual terms?
Answer:
The difficult trek to Sabarimala through hills and forests is symbolic of the inner spiritual journey, with the natural landmarks along the route seen as sacred.

2. In many parts of India, trees are adorned with offerings like turmeric and kumkum. One species of fig tree commonly called ‘peepul’ (or ‘pipal’), ‘bo tree’ or ‘bodhi tree’ (ashvattha in Sanskrit) is sacred to Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism and Jainism. In fact, its botanical name is Ficus religiosa (literally, in Latin, the ‘religious’ or sacred fig tree).

(i) What offerings are often placed on sacred trees in India?
Answer:
Offerings like turmeric and kumkum are placed on sacred trees.

(ii) What is the botanical name of the peepul tree?
Answer:
The botanical name of the peepul tree is Ficus religiosa.

(iii) Why is the peepul tree considered sacred in India?
Answer:
The peepul tree is considered sacred because it is revered in Hinduism, Buddhism, Sikhism, and Jainism, and symbolizes deep religious and spiritual significance.

How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Question 1.
Look at the below picture and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the image?
Answer:
Golden Temple at Amritsar.

(ii) Which religion is it associated with?
Answer:
It is associated with the Sikh religion.

(iii) Mention two important features of the above picture.
Answer:
The two important features are:
(a) The Golden Temple is built in the middle of a holy tank called the Amrit Sarovar.
(b) It is open to people of all religions, castes, and backgrounds, symbolising equality and unity.

Class 7 How the Land Becomes Sacred Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is considered a sacred river in India?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga
(d) Tapti

Question 2.
Why are sacred groves important?
(a) For building temples
(c) For preserving biodiversity
(b) For urban development
(d) For agriculture

Question 3.
Which religious site is located in Amritsar?
(a) Meenakshi Temple
(b) Dargah Sharif
(c) Golden Temple
(d) Mahabodhi Temple

Question 4.
What is the main reason behind considering certain natural features sacred?
(a) Their economic value
(b) Mythological and spiritual beliefs
(c) Government protection
(d) Their aesthetic beauty

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Sacred trees are often left untouched due to their religious value.
Reason (R): People fear punishment from gods if they harm sacred trees.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is sacred geography?

Question 2.
Why is the Ganga considered sacred in India?

Question 3.
Mention two examples of sacred groves in India.

Question 4.
Why do people visit pilgrimage sites?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do sacred places contribute to environmental protection?
What is the cultural importance of pilgrimage routes in India?

I. Explain the significance of the Golden Temple in Sikhism.
How do different religions in India express sacredness in geography?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the connection between nature and sacredness in Indian traditions.

Question 2.
Describe the role of sacred places in uniting communities and preserving culture.

Question 3.
How do sacred places help in the preservation of biodiversity? Give examples.

Question 4.
Explain the significance of sacred geography in different religious traditions in India.

The post How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 8 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 9 From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 9 From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions on From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments

From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What is a government?
Answer:
A government is a group of people who make decisions and manage the affairs of a country or region.

Question 2.
Name any two services provided by the government. Ans The government provides services like schools and hospitals.

Question 3.
What is the role of the police in maintaining law and order?
Answer:
The police enforce laws and protect people from crime and danger.

Question 4.
Who elects the government in a democracy?
Answer:
Citizens elect the government by voting in elections.

Question 5.
What is a monarchy?
Answer:
A monarchy is a form of government where a king or queen rules the country.

Question 6.
Give an example of a country with a dictatorship. Ans North Korea is an example of a country with a dictatorship.

Question 7.
What is the minimum age to vote in India?
Answer:
The minimum age to vote in India is 18 years.

Question 8.
What is the role of the army in a country?
Answer:
The army protects the country from external threats and attacks.

Question 9.
What is meant by “rule of law”?
Answer:
“Rule of law” means everyone, including the leaders, must follow the law.

Question 10.
Name one country that follows a constitutional monarchy.
Answer:
The United Kingdom follows a constitutional monarchy.

From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Explain the different types of government with examples.
Answer:
There are several types of government:
(i) Democracy (e.g., India, USA): Citizens elect their leaders.
(ii) Monarchy (e.g., Saudi Arabia – absolute, UK- constitutional): A monarch rules.
(iii) Dictatorship (e.g.. North Korea): One person has complete control.
(iv) Theocracy (e.g., Iran): Religious leaders rule.
(v) Oligarchy (e.g., Ancient Sparta): A small group controls the country.

Question 2.
How does the Indian government help during natural disasters?
Answer:
The Indian government provides immediate support during natural disasters by sending rescue teams, distributing food and water, and providing medical care. It helps in rebuilding damaged infrastructure, restoring essential services, and offering financial assistance to those affected, ensuring quick recovery and relief.

Question 3.
Why is democracy considered the best form of government by many?
Answer:
Democracy is considered the best form of government because it allows people to choose their leaders through free and fair elections. It protects citizens’ rights and freedoms, ensures accountability, and prevents misuse of power. It also fosters participation, making citizens feel involved in decisions that affect their lives.

Question 4.
What are the functions of the central government in India?
Answer:
The Central Government in India handles national affairs like defense, foreign relations, and transportation. It creates laws that affect the entire country and coordinates with state governments. Additionally, it manages key sectors such as health, education, and the economy, working towards national growth and stability, llow do state governments function in India?
State governments in India manage areas such as education, healthcare, and agriculture within their respective states. They ensure local needs are met, provide public services, and enforce laws that affect the state. Each state has a Chief Minister and a legislative assembly to make decisions for the region.

From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
Compare absolute monarchy and constitutional monarchy.
Answer:
In an absolute monarchy, the king or queen holds complete power over the country and makes all decisions. An example is Saudi Arabia. In contrast, a constitutional monarchy has a monarch whose powers arc restricted by a constitution. The actual decision-making is handled by elected leaders. For instance, in the United Kingdom, the monarch plays a ceremonial role, while the government runs the country. The constitution ensures that the monarchy cannot make laws or govern without the involvement of the elected parliament.

Question 2.
What is the structure of the Indian government?
Answer:
The Indian government has three levels: Local, State, and Central. At the local level, municipalities and Panchayats take care of local needs. The state government handles issues related to state welfare, such as education and health, and is led by a Chief Minister. The central government deals with national matters like defense, foreign policy, and law-making. India’s government is democratic with three branches: Legislative (makes laws), Executive (implements laws), and Judiciary (interprets laws), ensuring checks and balances within the system.

Question 3.
What are the responsibilities of local governments in villages and cities?
Answer:
Local governments play a key role in managing essential services in villages and cities. In villages, Panchayats look after public amenities like roads, sanitation, and clean drinking water. In cities, municipal corporations manage garbage collection, drainage, street lighting, parks, and local transport services. These local bodies are responsible for day-to-day governance, ensuring that citizens have access to the basic infrastructure needed for a comfortable life. They also work to improve the quality of life by addressing local issues quickly.

Question 4.
How can the government ensure justice for all citizens?
Answer:
Governments can ensure justice for all citizens by creating fair and just laws that protect everyone’s rights. Independent courts and judges play a crucial role in resolving disputes impartially. The government must ensure that law enforcement, including the police, acts fairly and respects human rights. Additionally, protecting minorities and marginalized groups, preventing discrimination, and making sure all citizens have access to legal assistance are vital in upholding justice for everyone in society.

Question 5.
What challenges do governments face in providing services to all citizens?
Answer
Governments face several challenges in delivering services to citizens. One major issue is limited financial resources, which makes it difficult to fund infrastructure, education, healthcare, and other public services. Another challenge is managing a large and diverse population, with varying needs in different regions. Corruption, poor governance, and political instability further complicate efforts to provide efficient services. Additionally, natural disasters and regional disparities in development can disrupt services and make it harder for governments to reach remote areas.

From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the questions given below:
l. In the Shanti Parva of the Mahabharata, when Bhishma, the wise elder of the Kuru dynasty, lies on a bed of arrows awaiting his death, he shares advice on good governance, justice, and the moral responsibilities of a raja. A raja is not just a ruler; the welfare of his people is his highest priority. He must apply the law without bias to ensure fairness and equality. He must not get attached to power, as it fosters ego and corruption. He must seek guidance from wise advisors to ensure just and well-informed decisions. The raja must understand that his authority is temporary and bound by dharma.

(i) What is the highest priority of a raja according to Bhishma’s advice in the Shanti Parva?
Answer:
The welfare of his people.

(ii) What does Bhishma warn a raja against in terms of power?
Answer:
Getting attached to power, as it fosters ego and corruption.

(iii) What are the key responsibilities of a raja as described by Bhishma in the Shanti Parva?
Answer:
(a) A raja must apply the law without bias to ensure fairness and equality.
(b) He must seek guidance from wise advisors to make just and well-informed decisions.
(c) He must understand that his authority is temporary and bound by dharma.

2. In this form of government, the executive works independently of the legislature. The president is elected by the people. The president does not need to have the confidence of the legislature for his her position. In some countries like India, states within the country such as Rajasthan or Kerala have their own governments, but they are not completely independent. They are still governed by a larger national government, the Union Government of India.

(i) Who elects the president in a presidential democracy?
Answer:
The president is elected by the people.

(ii) Do states like Rajasthan and Kerala have their own governments?
Answer:
Yes, they have their own state governments.

(iii) Explain how a presidential democracy works and give an example related to India.
Answer:
In a presidential democracy, the executive is independent of the legislature. The president is directly elected by the people and does not need the legislature’s support to stay in power. In India, although it follows a parliamentary system, the example of states like Rajasthan and Kerala shows that they have their own governments, but they still function under the authority of the Union Government, which highlights the federal structure of governance.

Class 7 From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the main feature of democracy?
(a) Rule by a monarch
(b) Rule by the people
(c) Rule by religious leaders
(d) Rule by a small group of elites

Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of an absolute monarchy?
(a) Britain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) India
(d) United States

Question 3.
What is the role of the council of elders in a tribe?
(a) To enforce laws
(b) To make decisions about hunting, gathering, and settling disputes
(c) To elect the king
(d) To manage external relations

Question 4.
What is theocracy?
(a) A government ruled by a monarch.
(b) A government ruled by religious leaders.
(c) A government ruled by elected representatives.
(d) A government ruled by a small group of elites.
Assertion (A): Democracy is considered the most prevalent form of government in the world today. Reason (R): In a democracy, people have the right to elect their leaders, making it a rule by the people.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an oligarchy?

Question 2.
What is the main role of courts in a country?

Question 3.
How can citizens take part in a democracy besides voting?

Question 4.
Name the three levels of government in India.

Question 5.
What is a constitutional monarchy?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are three main functions of a government?

Question 2.
How is a dictatorship different from a democracy?

Question 3.
Why do governments collect taxes?

Question 4.
Describe the functions of the Central Government in India.

Question 5.
What challenges do governments face in providing services to all citizens?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are some ways the government helps during natural disasters?

Question 2.
How can government ensure justice for all citizens?

Question 3.
Explain the two types of monarchies that are presently in practice.

Question 4.
Explain the following terms
(i) Legislature
(ii) Upper and lower House
(iii) Separation of power
(iv) Executive

The post From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 9 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Solving questions with the help of Ganita Prakash Class 7 Solutions and Class 7 Maths Chapter 2 Arithmetic Expressions NCERT Solutions Question Answer improves confidence.

NCERT Class 7 Maths Chapter 2 Arithmetic Expressions Solutions Question Answer

Ganita Prakash Class 7 Chapter 2 Solutions Arithmetic Expressions

NCERT Class 7 Maths Ganita Prakash Chapter 2 Arithmetic Expressions Solutions Question Answer

2.1 Simple Expressions

NCERT In-Text Questions (Page 24)

Choose your favourite number and write as many expressions as you can having that value.
Solution:
Let us choose the number 20.
We can write the arithmetic expressions for the number as follows:
12 + 8 = 20; 4 × 5 = 20; 40 ÷ 2 = 20, etc.

Figure it Out (Page 25)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks to make the expressions equal on both sides of the ‘=’ sign:
(a) 13 + 4 = _________ + 6
(b) 22 + _________ = 6 × 5
(c) 8 × _________ = 64 ÷ 2
(d) 34 – _________ = 25
Solution:
(a) 13 + 4 = 17
11 + 6 = 17
Therefore, 13 + 4 = 11 + 6

(b) Since 6 × 5 = 30
22 + 8 = 30
Therefore, 22 + 8 = 6 × 5

(c) Since 64 ÷ 2 = 32
8 × 4 = 32
Therefore, 8 × 4 = 64 ÷ 2

(d) Since 34 – 25 = 9
Therefore, 34 – 9 = 25

Question 2.
Arrange the following expressions in ascending (increasing) order of their values.
(a) 67 – 19
(b) 67 – 20
(c) 35 + 25
(d) 5 × 11
(e) 120 ÷ 3
Solution:
(a) 67 – 19 = 48
(b) 67 – 20 = 47
(c) 35 + 25 = 60
(d) 5 × 11 = 55
(e) 120 ÷ 3 = 40
Clearly, 40 < 47 < 48 < 55 < 60
Therefore, 120 ÷ 3 < 67 – 20 < 67 – 19 < 5 × 11 < 35 + 25
Thus, (e) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (c).

Comparing Expressions

NCERT In-Text Questions (Page 26)

Use ‘>’ or ‘<’ or ‘=’ in each of the following expressions to compare them. Can you do it without complicated calculations? Explain your thinking in each case.
(a) 245 + 289 246 + 285
(b) 273 – 145 272 – 144
(c) 364 + 587 363 + 589
(d) 124 + 245 129 + 245
(e) 213 – 77 214 – 76
Solution:

Terms in Expressions

NCERT In-Text Questions (Pages 28-29)

Check if replacing subtraction by addition in this way does not change the value of the expression, by taking different examples.
Solution:
Let us take numbers 56 and 17.
56 – 17 = 39
Now, 56 + (-17) = 39
Hence, if we replace the subtraction sign with the addition sign in this way, the value of the expression does not change.
(Answer may vary by taking the different numbers.)

Can you explain why subtracting a number is the same as adding its inverse, using the Token Model of integers that we saw in the Class 6 textbook of mathematics?
Solution:
Do it yourself.

In the following table, some expressions are given. Complete the table.

Solution:

Does changing the order in which the terms are added give different values?
Solution:
No. Since in the expression, each term is separated by a ‘+’ sign.
So, changing the order in which the terms are added does not change the value.
As, 4 + 15 +(-9) = 10 or (-9) + 15 + 4 = 10

Swapping and Grouping

NCERT In-Text Questions (Pages 29-31)

Will this also hold when there are terms having negative numbers as well? Take some more expressions and check.
Solution:
Yes, swapping the terms having negative numbers does not change the sum.
As (-3) + (-2) = -5 or (-2) + (-3) = -5
(Answer may vary)

Can you explain why this is happening using the Token Model of integers that we saw in the Class 6 textbook of mathematics?
Solution:
Yes

Will this also hold when there are terms having negative numbers as well? Take some more expressions and check.
Solution:
Yes, while adding the terms having negative numbers, grouping them in any order gives the same result.
As,

Can you explain why this is happening using the Token Model of integers that we saw in the Class 6 textbook of mathematics?
Solution:
Yes

Does adding the terms of an expression in any order give the same value? Take some more expressions and check. Consider expressions with more than 3 terms also.
Solution:

Can you explain why this is happening using the Token Model of integers that we saw in the Class 6 textbook of mathematics?
Solution:
Do it yourself.

Manasa is adding a long list of numbers. It took her five minutes to add them all and she got the answer 11749. Then she realised that she had forgotten to include the fourth number 9055. Does she have to start all over again?

Solution:
No, there is no need to start all over again. She has to add fourth number that is 9055 to the sum she got (11749) to get the correct sum of the list of given numbers.
That is 11749 + 9055 = 20804

More Expressions and Their Terms

NCERT In-Text Questions (Pages 32-33)

If the total number of friends goes up to 7 and the tip remains the same, how much will they have to pay? Write an expression for this situation and identify its terms.
Solution:
Since the total number of friends = 7
and the cost of each dosa = ₹ 23
Therefore, the total cost of 7 dosas = 7 × 23
As the tip remains the same, that is ₹ 5.
So, the expression for describing the total cost is 7 × 23 + 5 = 7 × 23 + 5 = 161 + 5 = ₹ 166.
The terms in the expression 7 × 23 + 5 are 7 × 23, 5.

Think and discuss why she wrote this.
The expression written as a sum of terms is-

Solution:
Do it yourself.

For each of the cases below, write the expression and identify its terms:
If the teacher had called out ‘4’, Ruby would write _________
If the teacher had called out ‘7’, Ruby would write _________
Solution:
If the teacher had called our ‘4’, Ruby would write 8 × 4 + 1
Terms: 8 × 4, 1
If the teacher had called our ‘7’, Ruby would write 4 × 7 + 5
Terms: 4 × 7, 5

Write an expression like the above for your class size.
Solution:
Do it yourself.

Identify the terms in the two expressions above.
Solution:
432 = 4 × 100 + 1 × 20 + 1 × 10 + 2 × 1
Terms: 4 × 100, 1 × 20, 1 × 10, and 2 × 1
432 = 8 × 50 + 1 × 10 + 4 × 5 + 2 × 1
Terms: 8 × 50, 1 × 10, 4 × 5, and 2 × 1

Can you think of some more ways of giving ₹ 432 to someone?
Solution:
Do it yourself.

Figure it Out (Pages 34-35)

Question 1.
Find the values of the following expressions by writing the terms in each case.
(a) 28 – 7 + 8
(b) 39 – 2 × 6 + 11
(c) 40 – 10 + 10 + 10
(d) 48 – 10 × 2 + 16 + 2
(e) 6 × 3 – 4 × 8 × 5
Solution:
(a) 28 – 7 + 8 = 28 + (-7) + 8
Terms: 28, -7, and 8
28 – 7 + 8
= 28 + (-7) + 8
= 21 + 8 = 29

(b) 39 – 2 × 6 + 11 = 39 + (-2 × 6) + 11
Terms: 39, -2 × 6, and 11
39 – 2 × 6 + 11
= 39 + (-2 × 6) + 11
= 39 + (-12) + 11
= 27 + 11
= 38

(c) 40 – 10 + 10 + 10 = 40 + (-10) + 10 + 10
Terms: 40, -10, 10, and 10
40 – 10 + 10 + 10
= 40 + (-10) + 10 + 10
= 30 + 10 + 10
= 40 + 10
= 50

(d) 48 – 10 × 2 + 16 + 2 = 48 + (-10 × 2) + (16 + 2)
Terms: 48, -10 × 2, 16 + 2
48 – 10 × 2 + 16 + 2
= 48 + (-10 × 2) + (16 + 2)
= 48 + (-20) + (8)
= 28 + 8 = 36

(e) 6 × 3 – 4 × 8 × 5 = (6 × 3) + (-4 × 8 × 5)
Terms: 6 × 3, 4 × 8 × 5
6 × 3 – 4 × 8 × 5
= (6 × 3) + (-4 × 8 × 5)
= 18 + (-160)
= -142

Question 2.
Write a story/situation for each of the following expressions and find their values.
(а) 89 + 21 – 10
(b) 5 × 12 – 6
(c) 4 × 9 + 2 × 6
Solution:
(a) 89 + 21 – 10
Riya and Siya are cousins. They went to the beach, from where Riya collected 89 stones and Siya collected 21 stones. When they reached home, their other younger sister asked them for some stones. They give her 10 stones from their collection. How many stones were left with both Riya and Siya?
89 + 21 – 10 = 89 + 21 + (-10) = 89 + 11 = 100

(b) 5 × 12 – 6
Radha bought 5 pens from a stationery shop. The cost of each pen is ₹ 12. The shopkeeper also gave her a discount of ₹ 6 on the total cost. Find the total amount that she has to pay to the shopkeeper.
5 × 12 – 6 = 5 × 12 + (-6) = 60 + (-6) = 54

(c) 4 × 9 + 2 × 6
Sumit bought 4 pencils, the cost of each pencil is ₹ 9, and he also bought 2 erasers, which cost ₹ 6 each. How much money does he have to spend to buy these items?
4 × 9 + 2 × 6 = 36 + 12 = 48

Question 3.
For each of the following situations, write the expression describing the situation, identify its terms, and find the value of the expression.
(а) Queen Alia gave 100 gold coins to Princess Elsa and 100 gold coins to Princess Anna last year. Princess Elsa used the coins to start a business and doubled her coins. Princess Anna bought jewellery and has only half of the coins left. Write an expression describing how many gold coins Princess Elsa and Princess Anna together have.
(b) A metro train ticket between two stations is ₹ 40 for an adult and ₹ 20 for a child. What is the total cost of the tickets?
(i) for four adults and three children?
(ii) for two groups having three adults each?
(c) Find the total height of the window by writing an expression describing the relationship among the measurements shown in the picture.

Solution:
(a) Number of gold coins Princess Elsa got = 100
Number of gold coins Princess Anna got = 100
Princess Elsa used the coins to start the business and doubled her coins.
So, the number of coins Princess Elsa has = 2 × 100
Princess Anna bought jewellery and has only half of the coins left.
So, the number of coins Princess Anna has = \(\frac{100}{2}\)
Therefore, the total number of gold coins Princess Elsa and Princess Anna have together = 2 × 100 + \(\frac{100}{2}\)
Thus, the expression describing the above situation is 2 × 100 + \(\frac{100}{2}\)
Terms: 2 × 100, \(\frac{100}{2}\)
Now, 2 × 100 + \(\frac{100}{2}\) = 200 + 50 = 250

(b) (i) Metro train ticket for an adult = ₹ 40
So, the metro train ticket for four adults = 4 × 40
Metro train ticket for a child = ₹ 20
So, the metro train ticket for three children = 3 × 20
Therefore, the expression describing the total cost of tickets for four adults and three children is 4 × 40 + 3 × 20
Terms: 4 × 40, 3 × 20
Now, 4 × 40 + 3 × 20 = 160 + 60 = 220

(ii) Metro train ticket for an adult = ₹ 40
So, the metro train ticket for a group of three adults = 3 × 40
Therefore, the expression describing the total cost of tickets for the two groups having three adults each is 2 × (3 × 40).
Terms: 2 × (3 × 40)
Now, 2 × (3 × 40) = 2 × 120 = 240

(c) By observing the given picture, the total height of the window = number of gaps × 5 cm + number of grills × 2 cm + number of borders × 3 cm = 7 × 5 + 6 × 2 + 2 × 3
Terms: 7 × 5, 6 × 2, 2 × 3
Now, 7 × 5 + 6 × 2 + 2 × 3 = 35 + 12 + 6 = 47 + 6 = 53

Tinker the Terms I

NCERT In-Text Questions (Pages 36-37)

Some expressions are given in the following three columns. In each column, one or more terms are changed from the first expression. Go through the example (in the first column) and fill in the blanks, doing as little computation as possible.

Solution:

Figure it Out (Pages 37-38)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with numbers, and boxes with operation signs such that the expressions on both sides are equal.
(a) 24 + (6 – 4) = 24 + 6 _________
(b) 38 + (_________ ________) = 38 + 9 – 4
(c) 24 – (6 + 4) = 24 6 – 4
(d) 24 – 6 – 4 = 24 – 6 _________
(e) 27 – (8 + 3) = 27 _________ 8 _________ 3
(f) 27 – (_________ ________) = 27 – 8 + 3
Solution:
(a) 24 + (6 – 4) = 24 + 6 – 4
(b) 38 + (9 – 4) = 38 + 9 – 4
(c) 24 – (6 + 4) = 24 – 6 – 4
(d) 24 – 6 – 4 = 24 – 6 – 4
(e) 27 – (8 + 3) = 27 – 8 – 3
(f) 27 – (8 – 3) = 27 – 8 + 3

Question 2.
Remove the brackets and write the expression having the same value.
(a) 14 + (12 + 10)
(b) 14 – (12 + 10)
(c) 14 + (12 – 10)
(d) 14 – (12 – 10)
(e) -14 + 12 – 10
(f) 14 – (-12 – 10)
Solution:
(a) 14 + (12 + 10)
= 14 + 12 + 10
= 14 + 22
= 36

(b) 14 – (12 + 10)
= 14 – 12 – 10
= 14 – 22
= -8

(c) 14 + (12 – 10)
= 14 + 12 – 10
= 14 + 2
= 16

(d) 14 – (12 – 10)
= 14 – 12 + 10
= 14 – 2
= 12

(e) -14 + 12 – 10
= -14 + 2
= -12

(f) 14 – (-12 – 10)
= 14 + 12 + 10
= 14 + 22
= 36

Question 3.
Find the values of the following expressions. For each pair, first try to guess whether they have the same value. When are the two expressions equal?
(a) (6 + 10) – 2 and 6 + (10 – 2)
(b) 16 – (8 – 3) and (16 – 8) – 3
(c) 27 – (18 + 4) and 27 + (-18 – 4)
Solution:
(a) (6 + 10) – 2 and 6 + (10 – 2)
(6 + 10) – 2 = 16 – 2 = 14
and 6 + (10 – 2) = 6 + 8 = 14
Clearly, (6 + 10) – 2 = 6 + (10 – 2)
Hence, the expressions in part (a) have the same value.

(b) 16 – (8 – 3) and (16 – 8) – 3
16 – (8 – 3) = 16 – 5 = 11
and (16 – 8) – 3 = 8 – 3 = 5
16 – (8 – 3) ≠ (16 – 8) – 3
Hence, the expressions in part (b) do not have the same value.

(c) 27 – (18 + 4) and 27 + (-18 – 4)
27 – (18 + 4) = 27 – 22 = 5
and 27 + (-18 – 4) = 27 + (-22) = 5
Clearly, 27 – (18 + 4) = 27 + (-18 – 4)
Hence, the expressions in part (c) have the same value.

Question 4.
In each of the sets of expressions below, identify those that have the same value. Do not evaluate them, but rather use your understanding of terms.
(a) 319 + 537, 319 – 537, -537 + 319, 537 – 319
(b) 87 + 46 – 109, 87 + 46 – 109, 87 + 46 – 109, 87 – 46 + 109, 87 – (46 + 109), (87 – 46) + 109
Solution:
(a)

Expressions having the same terms have the same value. Therefore, 319 – 537 and -537 + 319 have the same value.

(b)

Expressions having the same terms have equal values.
Therefore, 87 + 46 – 109, 87 + 46 – 109, 87 + 46 – 109 have the same value.
Also, 87 – 46 + 109 and (87 – 46) + 109 have the same value.

Question 5.
Add brackets at appropriate places in the expressions such that they lead to the values indicated.
(a) 34 – 9 + 12 = 13
(b) 56 – 14 – 8 = 34
(c) -22 – 12 + 10 + 22 = – 22
Solution:
(a) 34 – (9 + 12) = 34 – 21 = 13
(b) (56 – 14) – 8 = 42 – 8 = 34
(c) -22 – (12 + 10) + 22 = -22 – 22 + 22 = -22

Question 6.
Using only reasoning of how terms change their values, fill the blanks to make the expressions on either side of the equality (=) equal.
(a) 423 + ________ = 419 + ________
(b) 207 – 68 = 210 – ________
Solution:
(a) 423 + 419 = 419 + 423
(b) 207 – 68 = 210 – 71

Question 7.
Using the numbers 2, 3, and 5, and the operators ‘+’ and ‘-‘, and brackets, as necessary, generate expressions to give as many different values as possible.
For example, 2 – 3 + 5 = 4 and 3 – (5 – 2) = 0
Solution:
Here are a few expressions formed by using numbers 2, 3, and 5 and the operators ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and brackets having different values.
(2 + 3) – 5 = 5 – 5 = 0,
5 + (3 – 2) = 5 + 1 = 6,
-5 + (2 – 3) = -5 + (-1) = -6,
(-2 + 3) – 5 = 1 – 5 = – 4, etc.

Question 8.
Whenever Jasoda has to subtract 9 from a number, she subtracts 10 and adds 1 to it.
For example, 36 – 9 = 26 + 1.
(a) Do you think she always gets the correct answer? Why?
(b) Can you think of other similar strategies? Give some examples.
Solution:
(a) Yes, she will always get the correct answer if she subtracts 10 from a number and then adds 1 to the result instead of directly subtracting 9 from the number, because subtracting 10 and adding 1, i.e., -10 + 1 = -9, is equivalent to subtracting 9 from the number.
As 36 – 9 = 27 or (36 – 10) + 1 = 26 + 1 = 27
(b) Do it yourself.

Question 9.
Consider the two expressions:
(a) 73 – 14 + 1
(b) 73 – 14 – 1
For each of these expressions, identify the expressions from the following collection that are equal to it.
(a) 73 – (14 + 1)
(b) 73 – (14 – 1)
(c) 73 + (-14 + 1)
(d) 73 + (-14 – 1)
Solution:
Given expressions:
73 – 14 + 1 = 60 and 73 – 14 – 1 = 58
Now,
(a) 73 – (14 + 1) = 73- 15 = 58
(b) 73 – (14 – 1) = 73 – 13 = 60
(c) 73 + (-14 + 1) = 73 – 13 = 60
(d) 73 + (-14 – 1) = 73 + (-15) = 58
Hence, expressions (b) and (c) are equal to the expression 73 – 14 + 1, and expressions (a) and (d) are equal to the expression 73 – 14 – 1.

Removing Brackets-II

NCERT In-Text Questions (Pages 39-40)

If another friend, Sangmu, joins them and orders the same items, what will be the expression for the total amount to be paid?
Solution:
If another friend, Sangmu, joins them (Lhamo and Norbu) and orders the same items, then the expression for the total amount will be 3 × (43 + 24).

5 × 4 + 3 ≠ 5 × (4 + 3). Can you explain why?
Is 5 × (4 + 3) = 5 × (3 + 4) = (3 + 4) × 5?
Solution:
Expression 5 × 4 + 3 means 3 more than 5 × 4, which is equal to 23, but 5 × (4 + 3) means 5 times (4 + 3), which is equal to 35.
Hence, 5 × 4 + 3 ≠ 5 × (4 + 3)
5 × (4 + 3), 5 × (3 + 4), and (3 + 4) × 5 have the same meaning, which is 5 times the sum of 3 and 4, and give the same value.
Hence, 5 × (4 + 3) = 5 × (3 + 4) = (3 + 4) × 5

Tinker the Terms II

NCERT In-Text Questions (Page 41)

Use this method to find the following products:
(а) 95 × 8
(b) 104 × 15
(c) 49 × 50
Is this quicker than the multiplication procedure you use generally?
Solution:
(a) 95 × 8 = (100 – 5) × 8
= 100 × 8 – 5 × 8
= 800 – 40
= 760

(b) 104 × 15 = (100 + 4) × 15
= 100 × 15 + 4 × 15
= 1500 + 60
= 1560

(c) 49 × 50 = (50 – 1) × 50
= 50 × 50 – 50 × 1
= 2500 – 50
= 2450
Yes, this procedure is quicker than the general multiplication procedure.

Which other products might be quicker to find, like the ones above?
Solution:
Do it yourself.

Figure it Out (Pages 41-42)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with numbers and boxes by signs, so that the expressions on both sides are equal.
(а) 3 × (6 + 7) = 3 × 6 + 3 × 7
(b) (8 + 3) × 4 = 8 × 4 + 3 × 4
(c) 3 × (5 + 8) = 3 × 5 3 × ________
(d) (9 + 2) × 4 = 9 × 4 2 × ________
(e) 3 × ( ________ + 4) = 3 ________ + ________
(f) (________ + 6) × 4 = 13 × 4 + ________
(g) 3 × (________ + ________) = 3 × 5 + 3 × 2
(h) (________ + ________) × ________ = 2 × 4 + 3 × 4
(i) 5 × (9 – 2) = 5 × 9 – 5 × ________
(j) (5 – 2) × 7 = 5 × 7 – 2 × ________
(k) 5 × (8 – 3) = 5 × 8 5 × ________
(l) (8 – 3) × 7 = 8 × 7 3 × 7
(m) 5 × (12 – ________) = ________ 5 × ________
(n) (15 – ________) × 7 = ________ 6 × 7
(o) 5 × (________ – ________) = 5 × 9 – 5 × 4
(p) (________ – ________) × ________ = 17 × 7 – 9 × 7
Solution:
(а) 3 × (6 + 7) = 3 × 6 + 3 × 7
(b) (8 + 3) × 4 = 8 × 4 + 3 × 4
(c) 3 × (5 + 8) = 3 × 5 + 3 × 8
(d) (9 + 2) × 4 = 9 × 4 + 2 × 4
(e) 3 × (10 + 4) = 30 + 12
(f) (13 + 6) × 4 = 13 × 4 + 24
(g) 3 × (5 + 2) = 3 × 5 + 3 × 2
(h) (2 + 3) × 4 = 2 × 4 + 3 × 4
(i) 5 × (9 – 2) = 5 × 9 – 5 × 2
(j) (5 – 2) × 7 = 5 × 7 – 2 × 7
(k) 5 × (8 – 3) = 5 × 8 – 5 × 3
(l) (8 – 3) × 7 = 8 × 7 – 3 × 7
(m) 5 × (12 – 3) = 60 – 5 × 3
(n) (15 – 6) × 7 = 105 – 6 × 7
(o) 5 × (9 – 4) = 5 × 9 – 5 × 4
(p) (17 – 9) × 7 = 17 × 7 – 9 × 7

Question 2.
In the boxes below, fill in ‘<’, ‘>’ or ‘=’ after analysing the expressions on the LHS and RHS. Use reasoning and understanding of terms and brackets to figure this out, and not by evaluating the expressions.
(a) (8 – 3) × 29 (3 – 8) × 29
(b) 15 + 9 × 18 (15 + 9) × 18
(c) 23 × (17 – 9) 23 × 17 + 23 × 9
(d) (34 – 28) × 42 34 × 42 – 28 × 42
Solution:
(a) (8 – 3) × 29 > (3 – 8) × 29
Because, (3 – 8) × 29 = -(8 – 3) × 29
⇒ (8 – 3) × 29 > (3 – 8) × 29

(b) 15 + 9 × 18 < (15 + 9) × 18
Because, (15 + 9) × 18 = 15 × 18 + 9 × 18 and 15 × 18 > 15
So, 15 + 9 × 18 < (15 + 9) × 18

(c) 23 × (17 – 9) < 23 × 17 + 23 × 9
Because, 23 × (17 – 9) = 23 × 17 – 23 × 9
Clearly, 23 × 17 > 23 × 17 – 23 × 9
⇒ 23 × (17 – 9) < 23 × 17 + 23 × 9

(d) (34 – 28) × 42 = 34 × 42 – 28 × 42

Question 3.
Here is one way to make 14: 2 × (1 + 6) = 14. Are there other ways of getting 14? Fill them out below:
(a) ________ × (________ + ________) = 14
(b) ________ × (________ + ________) = 14
(c) ________ × (________ + ________) = 14
(d) ________ × (________ + ________) = 14
Solution:
(a) 2 × (5 + 2) = 14
(b) 2 × (3 + 4) = 14
(c) 2 × (4 + 3) = 14
(d) 2 × (6 + 1) = 14

Question 4.
Find out the sum of the numbers given in each picture below in at least two different ways. Describe how you solved it through expressions.

Solution:
For I: 5 × 4 + 4 × 8 = 20 + 32 = 52
or 4 × (4 + 8) + 4 = 4 × 12 + 4 = 52

For II: 8 × (5 + 6) = 8 × 11 = 88
or 8 × 5 + 8 × 6 = 40 + 48 = 88

Figure it Out (Pages 42-44)

Question 1.
Read the situations given below. Write appropriate expressions for each of them and find their values.
(a) The district market in Begur operates on all seven days of the week. Rahim supplies 9 kg of mangoes each day from his orchard, and Shyam supplies 11 kg of mangoes each day from his orchard to this market. Find the number of mangoes supplied by them in a week to the local district market.
(b) Binu earns ₹ 20,000 per month. She spends ₹ 5,000 on rent, ₹ 5,000 on food, and ₹ 2,000 on other expenses every month. What is the amount Binu will save by the end of the year?
(c) During the daytime, a snail climbs 3 cm up a post, and during the night, while asleep, accidentally slips down by 2 cm. The post is 10 cm high, and a delicious treat is on top. In how many days will the snail get the treat?
Solution:
(a) Supplies of mangoes by Rahim in the market each day = 9 kg
Supplies of mangoes by Shyam in the market each day = 11 kg
Total supplies of mangoes in the market on each day = (9 + 11) kg
Therefore, total supplies of mangoes in the market in all 7 days = 7 × (9 + 11) kg
= 7 × 20
= 140 kg

(b) Binu’s per month earning = ₹ 20,000
Binu’s total monthly expenditures = ₹ 5,000 on rent + ₹ 5,000 on food + ₹ 2,000 on other expenses
= 5,000 + 5,000 + 2,000
Therefore, Binu’s monthly savings = ₹ 20,000 – ₹(5,000 + 5,000 + 2,000)
= ₹ 20,000 – ₹ 12,000
= ₹ 8,000
Thus, Binu’s total yearly savings = 12 × 8000 = 96000
Hence, Binu will save ₹ 96000 by the end of the year.

(c) Since the snail climbs 3 cm up the post in daytime and slips down by 2 cm at night.
So, the distance climbed by the snail of the post = 3 – 2 = 1 cm in a day.
∴ The distance climbed in 7 days = 7 cm
The height of the post is 10 cm.
The distance climbed on the 8th day before slipping = 7 + 3 = 10 cm
So, the snail will take 8 days to reach the top of the post and get the delicious treat.

Question 2.
Melvin reads a two-page story every day except on Tuesdays and Saturdays. How many stories would he complete reading in 8 weeks? Which of the expressions below describes this scenario?
(a) 5 × 2 × 8
(b) (7 – 2) × 8
(c) 8 × 7
(d) 7 × 2 × 8
(e) 7 × 5 – 2
(f) (7 + 2) × 8
(g) 7 × 8 – 2 × 8
(h) (7 – 5) × 8
Solution:
Number of days in a week except Tuesday and Saturday = 7 – 2
Since Melvin reads a two-page story every day except Tuesday and Saturday.
Therefore, number of stories read in a week = 1 × (7 – 2)
So, number of stories read in 8 weeks = 8 × 1 × (7 – 2)
= 8 × (7 – 2) or (7 – 2) × 8 [Expression (b)]
or 7 × 8 – 2 × 8 [Expression (g)]
Only expressions (b) and (g) describe this scenario.

Question 3.
Find different ways of evaluating the following expressions:
(а) 1 – 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + 7 – 8 + 9 – 10
(b) 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1
Solution:
(a) 1 – 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + 7 – 8 + 9 – 10
= (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) + (-2 – 4 – 6 – 8 – 10)
= 25 + (-30)
= -5
or
1 – 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + 7 – 8 + 9 – 10
= (1 – 2) + (3 – 4) + (5 – 6) + (7 – 8) +(9 – 10)
= (-1) + (-1) + (-1) + (-1) + (-1)
= -5

(b) 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1
= (1 – 1) + (1 – 1) + (1 – 1) + (1 – 1) + (1 – 1)
= 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0
= 0
or
1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1 + 1 – 1
= (1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1) + (-1 – 1 – 1 – 1 – 1)
= 5 + (-5)
= 0

Question 4.
Compare the following pairs of expressions using ‘<’, ‘>’, or ‘=,’ or by reasoning.
(a) 49 – 7 + 8 49 – 7 + 8
(b) 83 × 42 – 18 83 × 40 – 18
(c) 145 – 17 × 8 145 – 17 × 6
(d) 23 × 48 – 35 23 × (48 – 35)
(e) (16 – 11) × 12 -11 × 12 + 16 × 12
(f) (76 – 53) × 88 88 × (53 – 76)
(g) 25 × (42 + 16) 25 × (43 + 15)
(h) 36 × (28 – 16) 35 × (27 – 15)
Solution:
(a) 49 – 7 + 8 = 49 – 7 + 8
(∵ All the terms on both sides are the same)

(b) 83 × 42 > 83 × 40
∴ 83 × 42 – 18 > 83 × 40 – 18

(c) 17 × 8 > 17 × 6
⇒ -17 × 8 < -17 × 6
∴ 145 – 17 × 8 < 145 – 17 × 6

(d) 23 × (48 – 35) = 23 × 48 – 23 × 35
and 35 < 23 × 35 23 × 48 – 35 > 23 × (48 – 35)

(e) (16 – 11) × 12 = 16 × 12 – 11 × 12 = -11 × 12 + 16 × 12
∴ (16 – 11) × 12 = -11 × 12 + 16 × 12

(f) (76 – 53) × 88 = 76 × 88 – 53 × 88 = -(53 – 76) × 88
∴ (76 – 53) × 88 > 88 × (53 – 76)

(g) 43 + 15 = 42 + 1 + 15 = 42 + 16
⇒ 25 × (43 + 15) = 25 × (42 + 16)
∴ 25 × (42 + 16) = 25 × (43 + 15)

(h) 35 × (27 – 15) = 35 × (28 – 16)
∴ 36 × (28 – 16) > 35 × (27 – 15)

Question 5.
Identify which of the following expressions are equal to the given expression without computation. You may rewrite the expressions using terms or removing brackets. There can be more than one expression that is equal to the given expression.
(a) 83 – 37 – 12
(i) 84 – 38 – 12
(ii) 84 – (37 + 12)
(iii) 83 – 38 – 13
(iv) -37 + 83 – 12
(b) 93 + 37 × 44 + 76
(i) 37 + 93 × 44 + 76
(ii) 93 + 37 × 76 + 44
(iii) (93 + 37) × (44 + 76)
(iv) 37 × 44 + 93 + 76
Solution:
(a) 83 – 37 – 12 = 83 – 37 – 12 + (1 – 1)
= (83 + 1) – 37 – 1 – 12
= 84 – 38 – 12 (option (i))
= 34
Or
83 – 37 – 12 = -37 + 83 – 12
= 46 – 12
= 34 (option (iv))
Hence, (i) and (iv) are equal to the given expression 83 – 37 – 12.

(b) (iv) 37 × 44 + 93 + 76
Rearrange the terms, and we get 93 + 37 × 44 + 76, which is equal to the given expression.
Hence, (iv) is equal to the given expression 93 + 37 × 44 + 76.

Question 6.
Choose a number and create ten different expressions having that value.
Solution:
Do it yourself.

The post Arithmetic Expressions Class 7 Solutions Ganita Prakash Maths Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students rely on NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Sanskrit and Class 7th Sanskrit Deepakam Chapter 10 Question Answer दशमः कः to clarify their doubts after class.

Sanskrit Class 7 Chapter 10 Question Answer दशमः कः

Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 10 NCERT Solutions दशमः कः

कक्षा 7 संस्कृत पाठ 10 के प्रश्न उत्तर दशमः कः

१. कोष्ठकात् समीचीनम् उत्तरं चित्वा लिखन्तु ।

(कोष्ठक से सही उत्तर चुनकर लिखिए | )

(क) कति बालकाः स्नातुं गताः ? (पञ्च, द्वादश, दश)
(ख) कतमः बालकः नद्यां मग्नः इति निश्चयम् अकुर्वन् ? (प्रथमः, दशमः, पञ्चमः)
(ग) दशमः कः आसीत्? (नायकः, पथिकः, नदी)
(घ) कः सम्यक् रूपेण बालकान् गणितवान्? (नायकः, पथिकः, बालक:)
(ङ) बालकाः कां तीर्त्वा पारं गता: ? (पुष्करिणीम्, समुद्रम्, नदीम् )
उत्तरः
(क) दश
(ख) दशमः
(ग) नायकः
(घ) पथिकः
(ङ) नदीम्

२. पाठस्य आधारेण एकवाक्येन प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखन्तु ।

(पाठ के आधार पर प्रश्नों के उत्तर एक वाक्य में दीजिए।)

(क) दश बालकाः किमर्थं नदीम् अगच्छन्?
(ख) नायकः किम् अपृच्छत्?
(ग) बालकाः स्नानाय कुत्र अगच्छन् ?
(घ) बालकाः किं निश्चयम् अकुर्वन् ?
(ङ) बालकाः कथं गृहम् अगच्छन्?
उत्तरः
(क) दश बालकाः स्नानाय नदीम् अगच्छन्।
(ख) नायक: अपृच्छत् – अयि बालकाः ! युष्माकं दुःखस्य कारणं किम्?
(ग) बालकाः स्नानाय नदीम् अगच्छन्।
(घ) बालकाः निश्चयम् अकुर्वन् यत् दशमः नद्यां मग्नः ।
(ङ) बालकाः मिलित्वा आनन्देन गृहम् अगच्छन्।

३. पट्टिकातः उचितं विशेषणपदं योजयित्वा वाक्यानि रचयन्तु।

(पट्टिका से उचित विशेषण पद को जोड़कर वाक्य बनाइए ।)

उत्तरः
(क) द्वितीया
(ख) चतुर्थी
(ग) प्रथमा
(घ) पञ्चमी
(ङ) तृतीया

४. पट्टिकां दृष्ट्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखन्तु ।

(पट्टिका को देखकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए।)

(क) सप्ताहस्य प्रथमः दिवसः कः ? ………………
उत्तरः
रविवासरः

(ख) सप्ताहस्य कतमः दिवसः रविवासरः अस्ति ? ……………..
उत्तरः
प्रथमः

(ग) सप्ताहस्य षष्ठः दिवसः कः ? ……….
उत्तरः
शुक्रवासरः

(घ) सप्ताहस्य कतमः दिवसः शनिवासरः अस्ति ? ………..
उत्तरः
सप्तमः

(ङ) सप्ताहस्य अन्तिमः दिवसः कः अस्ति ? …………
उत्तरः
शनिवासरः

५. वाटिकां दृष्ट्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखन्तु ।

(पट्टिका को देखकर प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए।)

(क) मासेषु पञ्चमः मासः कः ?
(ख) मार्गशीर्षः कतमः मासः अस्ति ?
(ग) मासेषु दशमः मासः कः ?
(घ) कार्त्तिकः कतमः मासः अस्ति ?
(ङ) मासेषु अन्तिमः मासः कः ?
उत्तरः
(क) श्रावण:
(ख) नवमः
(ग) पौषः
(घ) अष्टमः
(ङ) फाल्गुनः

६. मञ्जूषां पश्यन्तु, उत्तरं लिखन्तु –

आङ्ग्लमासाः
(मंजूषा देखिए और उत्तर लिखिए ।)

(क) आङ्ग्लमासेषु दशमः मासः ………………
(ख) फरवरीमासः ……………… मासः अस्ति ।
(ग) आङ्ग्लमासेषु अष्टमः मासः ………………
(घ) सितम्बरमास: …….. मासः अस्ति ।
(ङ) आङ्ग्लमासेषु अन्तिमः मासः …………।
उत्तरः
(क) अक्तूबरमासः
(ख) द्वितीयः
(ग) अगस्तमासः
(ङ) दिसम्बरमास:
(घ) नवमः

७. अधोलिखिते गद्यांशे अङ्कानां स्थाने संख्यावाचकशब्दान् लिखन्तु ।

(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश में अंकों के स्थान पर संख्यावाचक शब्द लिखिए।)

यथा- (१) पाठशाला – एका पाठशाला।

उत्तरः

NCERT Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers दशमः कः

प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखित- अङ्कानां स्थाने संख्यावाचक- पदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत। (नीचे दिए गए अंकों के स्थान पर संख्यावाचक शब्दों से रिक्तस्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए।)

उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः उचितसंख्यावाचकपदेन क्रियताम् ।
(रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्तिसंख्यावाचक पदों से कीजिए ।)
(क) धर्म-अर्थ-काममोक्षाः इति ……… (४) पुरुषार्थाः सन्ति ।
(ख) हस्ते (५) ………. अङ्गुल्यः भवन्ति।
(ग) ईश्वरः ……… (१) अस्ति ।
(घ) ………. (३). पत्राणि पतन्ति ।
(ङ) सप्ताहे ……… (७) दिनानि भवन्ति ।
(च) मासे ………. (२) पक्षौ भवतः शुक्लपक्षः कृष्णपक्षः च।
(छ) (१) ……… वर्षे …….. (१२) मासः भवन्ति ।
(ज) धातवः …….. (८) भवन्ति ।
(झ) वेदा: …….. (४) सन्ति ऋग्वेद:, यजुर्वेदः, सामवेदः, अथर्ववेदः च ।
उत्तरः
(क) चत्वारः
(ख) पञ्च
(ग) एक:
(घ) त्रीणि
(ङ) सप्त
(च) द्वौ
(छ) एकस्मिन् ; द्वादश
(झ) चत्वारः
(ज) अष्ट

प्रश्न 3.
अधोलिखितानि क्रमानुसारेण लिखन्तु ।
(निम्नलिखित को क्रमानुसार लिखिए |)
यथा- मासः, पक्षः, दिवसः, वर्षम् ।
• दिवसः, पक्षः, मासः, वर्षम्।

(क) कलियुगम्, द्वापरम्, त्रेता, सतयुगम्।
(ख) चतुर्थी, प्रतिपदा, त्रयोदशी, अष्टमी।
(ग) वर्षा, वसन्तः, ग्रीष्मः, हेमन्तः ।
(घ) आषाढः, चैत्रः, ज्येष्ठः, वैशाखः ।
उत्तरः
(क) सतयुगम्, त्रेता, द्वापर, कलियुगम्।
(ख) प्रतिपदा, चतुर्थी, अष्टमी, त्रयोदशी।
(ग) वसन्तः, ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, हेमन्तः ।
(घ) चैत्रः, वैशाखः, ज्येष्ठः, आषाढः।

प्रश्न 4.
अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत ।
(निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए।)

(क) एकदा दश बालकाः स्नानाय नदीम् अगच्छन्। ते नदीजले चिरं स्नानम् अकुर्वन् । ततः ते तीर्त्वा पारं गताः । तदा तेषां नायकः अपृच्छत्— अपि सर्वे बालकाः नदीम् उत्तीर्णा : ? तदा कश्चित् बालकः सर्वान् पङ्क्तौ स्थापयित्वा अगणयत् एकः द्वौ, त्रयः, चत्वारः, पञ्च, षट्, सप्त, अष्ट, नव इति । सः आत्मानं न अगणयत् । अतः सः अवदत् – अरे वयं नव एव स्मः भोः! दशमः नास्ति । अपरः अपि बालक : पुनः आत्मानं त्यक्त्वा अन्यान् बालकान् अगणयत् । तदा अपि नव एव आसन्। अतः ते निश्चयम् अकुर्वन् यत् दशमः नद्यां मग्नः । ते विषण्णाः तूष्णीम् अतिष्ठन् ।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत।

(i) कति बालकाः नदीम् अगच्छन् ?
उत्तरः
दश

(ii) बालकाः कीदृशा: अतिष्ठन् ?
उत्तरः
विषण्णाः

(iii) एकः बालकः कंम न अगणयत् ?
उत्तरः
आत्मानं

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत ।

(i) बालकानां नायकः किम् अपृच्छत् ?
उत्तरः
बालकानां नायकः: अपृच्छत्-अपि सर्वे बालकाः नदीम् उत्तीर्णा : ?

(ii) बालकाः किमर्थम् अगच्छन् ?
उत्तरः
बालकाः स्नानाय नदीम् अगच्छन्।

(iii) बालकाः किं कृत्वा पारं गता: ?
उत्तरः
बालकाः तीर्त्वा पारं गताः ।

(iv) अपरः बालकः किम् अकरोत् ?
उत्तरः
अपरः बालकः अपि पुनः आत्मानं त्यक्त्वा अन्यान् बालकान् अगणयत्।

III. भाषिककार्यम्।

(i) ‘सर्वे बालकाः’ अत्र विशेषणपदं किम् ?
(क) सर्वे
(ख) बालकाः
(ग) सर्वे बालकाः
उत्तरः
(क) सर्वे

(ii) कश्चित् बालकः सर्वान् …….. स्थापयित्वा अगणयत्। रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः क्रियताम् ।
(क) पंक्तिः
(ख) पंक्तौ
(ग) पंक्तेः
उत्तरः
(ख) पंक्तौ

(iii) ‘अतः सः अवदत् ।’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम् ?
(क) अवदत्
(ख) सः
(ग) अतः
उत्तरः
(क) अवदत्

(iv) ‘ते विषण्णाः अभवन् ।’ अत्र कर्तृपदं किम् ?
(क) अभवत्
(ख) ते
(ग) विषण्णाः
उत्तरः
(ख) ते

(ख) तदा कश्चित् पथिकः तत्र आगच्छत्। सः तान् बालकान् दुःखितान् दृष्ट्वा अपृच्छत् – अयि बालकाः ! युष्माकं दुःखस्य कारणं किम्? बालकानां नायक: अकथयत् ‘वयं दश बालकाः स्नातुम् आगताः । इदानीं नव एव स्मः । एकः नद्यां मग्नः’ इति ।

पथिक : तान् अगणयत्। तत्र दश बालकाः तु आसन्। सः नायकम् आदिशत् त्वं बालकान् गणय । सः नव बालकान्
एव अगणयत्। तदा पथिकः अवदत् – दशमः त्वम् असि इति । तत् श्रुत्वा सर्वे प्रहृष्टाः भूत्वा अकथयन् – दशमः प्राप्तः दशमः प्राप्तः इति । ततः सर्वे मिलित्वा आनन्देन गृहम् अगच्छन्।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत।

(i) तत्र कः आगच्छत् ?
उत्तरः
पथिकः

(ii) पथिकः कान् अगणयत् ?
उत्तरः
बालकान्

(iii) बालकाः कति आसन् ?
उत्तरः
दश

(iv) पथिकः कम् आदिशत् ?
उत्तरः
नायकम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत।

(i) पथिकः किम् अपृच्छत् ?
उत्तरः
पथिकः अपृच्छत्- अयि बालकाः ! युष्माकं दुःखस्य कारणं किम् ?

(ii) पथिकः किम् अवदत् ?
उत्तरः
पथिकः किम् अवदत् – ‘दशमः त्वम् असि ।’

(iii) किं श्रुत्वा बालकाः प्रसन्नाः अभवन्?
उत्तरः
‘दशमः त्वम् असि ।’ इति श्रुत्वा बालकाः प्रसन्नाः अभवन्।

(iv) नायकः किम् अकथयत् ?
उत्तरः
नायक: अकथयत् ‘वयं दश बालकाः स्नातुम् आगताः । इदानीं नव एव स्मः एकः नद्यांमग्नः’ इति ।

III. भाषिककार्यम् ।

(i) ‘तदा कश्चित् पथिकः तत्र आगच्छत् । ‘ अस्मिन् वाक्ये अव्ययपदानि प्रयुक्तानि –
(क) त्रीणि
(ख) चत्वारि
(ग) पञ्च
उत्तरः
(क) त्रीणि

(ii) ‘आकर्ण्य’ इति पदस्य समानार्थकपदं किं प्रयुक्तम् ?
(क) सर्वे
(ख) प्रहृष्टाः
(ग) श्रुत्वा
उत्तरः
(ग) श्रुत्वा

(iii) ‘त्वं बालकान् गणय ।’ अत्र कर्तृपदं किम् ?
(क) बालकान्
(ख) त्वम्
(ग) गणय
उत्तरः
(ख) त्वम्

(iv) ‘सः बालकान् अगणयत्।’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम् आगतम्?
(क) सः
(ख) बालकान्
(ग) अगणयत्
उत्तरः
(ग) अगणयत्

प्रश्न 5.
विलोमपदानि मेलयत।
(विलोम पदों को मिलाइए।)

उत्तरः
(क) – (iv)
(ख) – (i)
(ग) – (vi)
(घ) – (v)
(ङ) – (ii)
(च) – (iii)

प्रश्न 6.
पर्यायपदानि मेलयत ।
(पर्याय पदों को मिलाइए।)

उत्तरः
(क) – (iv)
(ख) – (i)
(ग) – (viii)
(घ) – (ii)
(ङ) – (vii)
(च) – (iii)
(छ) – (vi)
(ज) – (v)

The post NCERT Class 7 Sanskrit Chapter 10 Question Answer Solutions दशमः कः appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 10 The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 10 The Constitution of India An Introduction Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 10 Extra Questions on The Constitution of India An Introduction

The Constitution of India An Introductiona Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a key role in framing the Indian Constitution.

Question 2.
When did the Indian Constitution come into effect?
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into effect on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated every year as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are Fundamental Duties?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations for Indian citizens, added in 1976, to promote discipline, patriotism, and respect for the Constitution and national symbols.

Question 4.
How many parts and schedules does the Indian Constitution have today?
Answer:
Currently, the Indian Constitution has 25 parts and 12 schedules, outlining government structure, citizen rights, and responsibilities.

Question 5.
What does the Preamble of the Constitution state?
Answer:
The Preamble declares India as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and promises justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to its citizens.

The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Why is the Indian Constitution called the longest written constitution in the world?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution because of the country’s vast diversity in culture, language, religion, and geography. It includes detailed provisions for the functioning of the central and state governments, Fundamental Rights and Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy, and many special features adapted from other global constitutions to suit India’s unique conditions and challenges.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the Preamble in the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The Preamble serves as an introduction to the Constitution. It outlines the values and goals the nation upholds, such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It also defines India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. Though not legally enforceable, it reflects the spirit and essence of the Constitution and guides interpretation of its provisions.

Question 3.
What are Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the government to create social and economic conditions that ensure welfare and justice for all. Though not enforceable in court, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and aim to reduce inequality and promote economic and social democracy.

Question 4.
What is the role of the judiciary according to the Constitution?
Answer:
The judiciary ensures justice, interprets the laws, and protects the Constitution. It acts as a check on the other branches of government and guarantees the rights of citizens. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority.

Question 5.
How is the Constitution of India amended?
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended by Parliament through a defined process. Some amendments need only a simple majority, while others require a special majority and ratification by states. This allows the Constitution to adapt to changing needs.

The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
What were the influences behind the framing of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was influenced by various sources. The ideals and experiences of the Indian freedom struggle had a strong impact. The Constitution also drew from India’s civilisational values such as pluralism, equality, and respect for nature. Internationally, features like the parliamentary system came from Britain, the concept of a written constitution and judicial review from the USA, Directive Principles from Ireland, and liberty, equality, and fraternity from the French Constitution. The framers aimed to create a system that was democratic, inclusive, and flexible enough to accommodate India’s vast diversity and changing needs over time.

Question 2.
Explain the separation of powers in The Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India clearly separates the powers and responsibilities of the three main organs of government: the legislature, executive, and judiciary. The legislature makes laws, the executive implements them, and the judiciary interprets them and ensures they align with the Constitution. This separation of powers helps maintain a system of checks and balances where no single organ becomes too powerful. It ensures fairness, accountability, and smooth functioning of democracy by preventing misuse or concentration of power.

Question 3.
What is the significance of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are essential for protecting the freedoms and dignity of individuals. They guarantee citizens the right to equality, freedom, education, protection against exploitation, religious freedom, and constitutional remedies. These rights ensure that every citizen can live with dignity and have access to basic liberties. They are enforceable by courts, meaning any violation can be challenged. These rights are essential to safeguard democracy and prevent abuse of power by the state.

Question 4.
Describe the importance and purpose of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 to frame the Indian Constitution. It consisted of members from various backgrounds, professions, and regions, including 15 women. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was its President, and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar headed the Drafting Committee. The Assembly debated and discussed every provision carefully over nearly three years. It represented the hopes and dreams of the people of India, aiming to create a just, democratic, and united nation after gaining independence from British rule.

Question 5.
How does the Constitution ensure justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution ensures justice through legal safeguards and an independent judiciary. Liberty is protected through Fundamental Rights, such as freedom of speech and religion. Equality is upheld by providing equal rights and opportunities to all citizens, regardless of caste, gender, or religion. Fraternity is promoted by recognizing India’s diversity and encouraging unity and brotherhood among its people. The Preamble reflects these ideals, and the Constitution provides mechanisms to enforce them in governance and daily life.

The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the questions that follow:
1. The Indian Constitution was developed and written by the Constituent Assembly over a period of almost three years. It was formed on 9 December 1946, with its members elected by the legislative assemblies of the provinces (whose members had been, in turn, elected by the people). Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly. The work was completed on 26 November 1949, and the resulting document was adopted as the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950, which is ’ why we celebrate this day annually as Republic Day.

(i) When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
Answer:
It was formed on 9 December 1946.

(ii) Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman.

(iii) Why is 26 January celebrated as Republic Day in India?
Answer:
26 January is celebrated as Republic Day because the Constitution of India was adopted on this day in 1950, marking the beginning of India as a republic with its own set of laws and governance system.

2. The initial text of the Constitution was prepared by a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, an eminent social reformer and the first Law and Justice minister of independent India.
(i) Who chaired the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee.

(ii) What was Dr. B.R. Anrbedkar’s role in independent India’s first government?
Answer:
He was the first Law and Justice Minister.

(iii) What were the contributions of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to the making of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a key role in framing the Constitution. He also served as India’s first Law and Justice Minister, guiding legal reforms.

The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Observe the picture and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What is the significance of the word “Sovereign” in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
It means that India is free to make its own laws and decisions without interference from any external authority.

(ii) Which four key values are highlighted at the beginning of the Preamble?
Answer:
Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.

(iii) Explain the meaning of the phrase “We, the people of India…” as used in the Preamble.
Answer:
The phrase “We, the people of India…” emphasizes that the Constitution has been adopted and enacted by the people themselves. It reflects the democratic principle that the ultimate authority rests with the citizens of India. 

Class 7 The Constitution of India An Introduction Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the Fundamental Duties of citizens?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part IVA
(d) Part V

Question 2.
Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 3.
When did the Indian Constitution come into effect?
(a) 15 August 1947
(b) 26 November 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 2 October 1950

Question 4.
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the constitution of:
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) France
(d) United Kingdom

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world.
Reason (R): India is a large and diverse country with many regions, languages, and cultures.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 6.
Match Column A with Column B

Options:
(a) (i) (c), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (b)
(b) (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (c), (iv) (d)
(c) (i) (b), (ii) (c), (iii) (d), (iv) (a)
(d) (i) (d), (ii) (a), (iii) (b), (iv) (c)

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of the judiciary in a democracy?

Question 2.
Mention any two features that make the Indian Constitution unique.

Question 3.
What arc Fundamental Rights?

Question 4.
What does the term ‘Sovereign’ mean in the Preamble of India?

Question 5.
Who was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and what role did he play in the framing of the Constitution?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of the ‘separation of powers’ in the Indian Constitution.

Question 2.
What were the major influences on the Indian Constitution from other countries?

Question 3.
What are the Directive Principles of State Policy and why are they important?

Question 4.
Describe the composition and role of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 5.
How does the Constitution reflect the values of the Indian freedom struggle?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the key features of the Indian Constitution that make it the longest written constitution in the world.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Preamble and how it reflects the vision of the Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
Discuss the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution. Why were they added?

Question 4.
How does the Constitution ensure justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all citizens?

Question 5.
Why was it important to create a Constitution for independent India? What challenges did the framers face?

The post The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 10 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Parents use Class 3 Maths Mela Solutions Chapter 14 सूरजकुंड मेला in Hindi to help their children understand concepts.

Class 3 Maths Mela Chapter 14 Solutions in Hindi Medium सूरजकुंड मेला

Class 3 Maths Mela Chapter 14 Solutions in Hindi सूरजकुंड मेला

आइए चर्चा करते

पृष्ठ 177

क्या आप मेला देखने गए हैं? आपने मेले में क्या-क्या देखा?
उत्तर :
हम विभिन्न दुकानों पर विभिन्न पैटनों और सममिति वाली भिन्न-भिन्न वस्तुएँ देखते हैं जो आकर्षक रूप से सजाई गई होती हैं।

चित्र में ऐसी चीजें खोजिए जो बाईं और दाईं तरफ से एक जैसी दिख रही हैं।
उत्तर :
इन वस्तुओं को घेरा लगाकर चित्र में दर्शाया गया है।

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 178

प्रश्न 1.
आपने जो माला बनाई है, उसे दिखाने के लिए मोतियों को दो रंगों  से रंगिए-
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
पिछले पृष्ठ पर उन मालाओं पर निशान (✓) लगाइए जो सममितीय हैं।
उत्तर :
उपरोक्त प्रश्न 1 में, पहली, तीसरी, छठी, सातवीं  (✓) का निशान लगाया गया है।

प्रश्न 3.
ऐसी कितनी मालाएँ बनाई जा सकती हैं? चर्चा कीजिए।
उत्तर :
दो भिन्न-भिन्न रंगों के मोतियों को लेकर हम ऐसी 6 मालाएँ बना सकते हैं।

(क) जो मालाएँ सममितीय हैं, उन पर सही (✓) का निशान लगाइए और जो मालाएँ सममितीय नहीं हैं, उन पर गलत (✗) का निशान लगाइए।

उत्तर :

(ख) अब एक रंग के 6 मोतियों और दूसरे रंग के 2 मोतियों का उपयोग करके सममितीय माला बनाइए।
उत्तर :
इन मोतियों को लेकर चार विभिन्न सममित मालाएँ बनाई जा सकती हैं। एक को नीचे दर्शाया गया है।

आइए सोचते हैं

पृष्ठ 180

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दी गई रंगोली को देखिए। क्या सभी रंगोली सममितीय हैं?

उत्तर :
हाँ।

प्रश्न 2.
इन रंगोलियों को एक कागज पर बनाइए। कागज को इस तरह मोड़िए कि रंगोली का एक आधा हिस्सा बिल्कुल दूसरे आधे हिस्से पर रहे।
उत्तर :
मोड़ने पर, प्रत्येक रंगोली का एक आधा भाग दूसरे आधे भाग को ठीक-ठीक (पूर्णत:) ढक लेता है।

प्रश्न 3.
दी गई रंगोली में. रेखाएँ बनाइए जो उन्हें दो समान आधे भागों में विभाजित करती हैं।
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 4.
अपने आस-पास कागज की अन्य चीजों को देखिए और चर्चा कीजिए।
नोट : निर्देशानुसार कीजिए। कुछ कर दिए गए हैं :
तितली, ताजमहल जैसे स्मारकों के चित्र, एक घड़ा तथा आपकी कॉपी का एक पृष्ठ।

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 181

प्रश्न  1.
नीचे दी गई सममितीय रंगोलियाँ बनाकर पूरी कीजिए-
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
अपनी कॉपी में कुछ और सममितीय रंगोलियाँ बनाइए।
नोट : कोई भी रंगोली बनाई जा सकती है। अनेक उत्तर हैं। निर्देशानुसार कीजिए।

आइए सोचते हैं

पृष्ठ 183

प्रश्न 1.
चित्रकार कौन-सी चाल चल रहा है? चित्रकार को ऐसी वस्तुओं के चित्र बनाने के लिए कहिए जिन्हें एक जैसे दो बराबर हिस्सों में न बाँटा जा सके। ऐसी तीन वस्तुओं के चित्र यहाँ बनाइए।
उत्तर :
चित्रकार बच्चों को मूर्ख बनाने के लिए, दर्पण प्रतिबिंब की धारणा का उपयोग कर रहा है।
निर्देशानुसार कीजिए। ये वस्तुएँ हो सकती हैं : संख्या 20 , चाकू।

आइए पता लगाएँ

पृष्ठ-185

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दिए गए चित्रों में से सबसे अलग चित्र पर गोला लगाइए और कारण बताइए।

उत्तर :

नोट : यदि हम इन सभी को आकार के दृष्टिकोण से देखें, तो प्रत्येक दूसरे से अलग है।

प्रश्न 2.
4 बक्सों को लाल रंग से और 3 बक्सों को नीले रंग से इस प्रकार भरिए कि एक तरफ दूसरी तरफ का आईने (दर्पण) में बनने वाला चित्र हो।

इसे आप कितने तरीकों से भर सकते हैं?
सोचो सोचो!

उत्तर :
बहुत तरीकों से (200)

प्रश्न 3.
चूहे की तरफ को बिल्ली की तरफ जैसा बनाइए। आप चूहे की तरफ में केवल तीन गेंदों को हिला सकते हैं-

नोट : नीचे दर्शाए अनुसार पुनर्व्यवस्थित कीजिए :

प्रश्न 4.
अलग-अलग आकार के कटआउट से दी गई आकृति में बिना जगह छोड़े और बिना एक-दूसरे के ऊपर चढ़े आकृति को पूरा भरिए।

उत्तर :
त्रिभुज (6), सभी समान भुजाओं वाले हैं, जैसा नीचे दर्शाया गया है :

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 186

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतियों को बिना जगह छोड़े और एक-दूसरे के ऊपर चढ़े बिना भरने के लिए रंगोमेट्री आकृतियों का उपयोग कीजिए।
उत्तर :

[नोट : यहाँ उत्तर अद्वितीय नहीं है। प्रत्येक स्थिति में, आकारों को अनेक विधियों से भरा जा सकता है।]

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 187

प्रश्न 1.
अपनी टाइलें बनाने के लिए दो या दो से अधिक रंगोमेट्री आकृतियों का उपयोग कीजिए। अब टाइलों की मदद से अलग-अलग रास्ते बनाइए।

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दिए हुए रास्तों को बनाने का प्रयास कीजिए।–

नोट : निर्देशानुसार कीजिए। इन रास्तों को बनाने के लिए त्रिभुज और वर्ग के आकारों का उपयोग कीजिए।

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 189-190

प्रश्न 1.
सोनी और अवि को मानचित्र पढ़ने और निम्नलिखित को ढूँढ़ने में सहायता कीजिए-

(क) यह चिह्न किस स्थान को दर्शाता है?
उत्तर : चौपाल

( ख ) मानचित्र में उस चित्र पर गोला लगाइए जो खेल क्षेत्र को दर्शाता है?
उत्तर :

(ग) यह चिह्न किस स्थान को दर्शाता है?
उत्तर : पार्किंग

(घ) मेले में कितने निकास मार्ग हैं?
उत्तर : दो

प्रश्न 2.
अवि और सोनी जिस रास्ते पर चल रहे हैं, आप भी उस रास्ते पश चलिए-

(क) नीले मार्ग पर चलिए।
(ख) हरे मार्ग से दाएँ मुड़िए।
(ग) आपको अपनी दाहिनी ओर एक रेस्तरां दिखाई देगा। वहाँ मत बैठिए।
(घ) लाल मार्ग की ओर बाईं ओर मुड़िए।
(ङ) सुनहरे मार्ग की ओर पहला बायाँ मोड़ लीजिए। रास्ते में जगह-जगह दुकानें दिखेंगी।
(च) दुकानों से आगे बढ़िए, आपको चौपाल में दादा-दादी मिल जाएँगे।
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 3.
दादा जी को ए.टी.एम. जाना है। आप उन्हें चौपाल से ए.टी.एम. का रास्ता बताइए।
उत्तर :
(क) निकास मार्ग की ओर सुनहरी रास्ते पर चलिए।
(ख) बाहर नहीं निकलिए।
(ग) कोने के बिंदु के बाईं ओर ए.टी.एम. है।

आइए करते हैं

पृष्ठ 191

प्रश्न 1.
सूरजकुंड मेले से बाहर जाने के दो रास्ते हैं। इसमें एक रास्ता भूलभुलैया जैसा है और दूसरा सीधा बाहर चला जाता है। सोनी और अवि को मेले से बाहर निकलने के लिए भूलभुलैया वाला रास्ता पार करने में मदद कीजिए

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
आप भूलभुलैया से कैसे निकले, बताइए। रास्ते में आपको जो चीजें मिलीं, उनके नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर :
(क) दाईं ओर एक बिल्ली (खिलौना)।
(ख) बाईं ओर एक हीरा।
(ग) दाईं ओर एक तारा।
(घ) निकास : दादा, दादी, सोनी और अवि।

The post Class 3 Maths Chapter 14 Solutions in Hindi सूरजकुंड मेला appeared first on Learn CBSE.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science SST with Answers Pdf, Exploring Society India and Beyond MCQ of SST Class 7, Social Science Quiz for Class 7 with Answers, NCERT Class 7 Social Science MCQ Chapter Wise.

Class 7 Social Science MCQ Chapter Wise: SST MCQ Class 7

Class 7 SST Extra Questions MCQ

Class 7 Social Science MCQ Theme A India and the World: Land and the People

• Chapter 1 Geographical Diversity of India Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 2 Understanding the Weather Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 3 Climates of India Class 7 MCQ

SST Class 7 MCQ Theme B Tapestry of the Past

• Chapter 4 New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 5 The Rise of Empires Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 6 The Age of Reorganisation Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 7 The Gupta Era An Age of Tireless Creativity Class 7 MCQ

MCQ of SST Class 7 Theme C Our Cultural Heritage and Knowledge Traditions

• Chapter 8 How the Land Becomes Sacred Class 7 MCQ

Class 7 SST MCQ Theme D Governance and Democracy

• Chapter 9 From the Rulers to the Ruled Types of Governments Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 10 The Constitution of India An Introduction Class 7 MCQ

MCQ for Class 7 Social Science Theme E Economic Life Around Us

• Chapter 11 From Barter to Money Class 7 MCQ
• Chapter 12 Understanding Markets Class 7 MCQ

Also Read

• Exploring Society India and Beyond Class 7 Solutions
• Class 7 Social Science Notes (SST)
• Class 7 Social Science MCQ
• NCERT Solutions for Class 7
• NCERT Books for Class 7

7th CBSE Social Science MCQ Questions, Class 7 SST MCQ Online Test, Class 7 SST Extra Questions MCQ, Social Science Class 7 MCQ Objective Questions.

The post MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers Pdf: Class 7 SST MCQ appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 11 From Barter to Money Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 11 From Barter to Money Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions on From Barter to Money

From Barter to Money Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What is the meaning of barter?
Answer:
Exchange of goods or services without using money.

Question 2.
Which fair in Assam still follows the barter system?
Answer:
Junbeel Mela

Question 3.
How did the barter system function?
Answer:
People exchanged goods or services directly for other goods or services.

Question 4.
How does money act as a store of value?
Answer:
Money can be saved and used for future purchases, unlike perishable goods.

Question 5.
What is the importance of the Junbeel Mela?
Answer:
It shows that the barter system still exists and helps preserve cultural heritage.

Question 6.
Describe the material used in ancient coins.
Answer:
Gold, silver, copper, and their alloys were used.

Question 7.
Explain the term “double coincidence of wants”.
Answer:
It means both parties must want what the other has in order to exchange goods.

Question 8.
Why was coinage considered better than barter?
Answer:
Coins were easier to carry, divide, and store, and had a defined value.

From Barter to Money Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What do you know about the Karshapana?
Answer:
The coins were made from precious metals like gold, silver and copper or their allows. They were called Karshapanas or panas. They had symbols punched on them called rupas.

Question 2.
Explain four major problems of the barter system with examples.
Answer:
(i) Double coincidence of wants: Both parties had to need each other’s goods.
(ii) Lack of standard value: No fixed measure for comparing goods.
(iii) Divisibility: Some goods couldn’t be divided, like an ox.
(iv) Portability and durability: Goods like wheat rotted; oxen were hard to carry.

Question 3.
Describe the evolution from barter system to digital payments.
Answwer:
Exchange started with barter, moved to commodity money, then to coinage, followed by paper currency, and now digital payments through phones and computers.

Question 4.
How did coinage help in improving trade in ancient India? Describe the importance of the rupee symbol
Answer:
Coins had defined values, were portable and durable, and accepted across kingdoms, boosting maritime and inland trade. Introduced in 2010, it blends Devanagari ‘Ra’ and Roman ‘R’, symbolizes Indian identity, and helps distinguish the Indian currency internationally.

Question 5.
Explain how the RBI controls the currency system in India.
Answer:
RBI is the sole authority to issue notes and coins in India. It regulates supply, maintains value stability, and ensures security features in currency.

From Barter to Money Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
What is the barter system and how does it work? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The barter system is the oldest form of trade where people exchanged goods or services without using money. It worked only when both people needed what the other had. This is called a “double coincidence of wants.” For example, if you have an extra eraser and need a pencil, and your friend has a pencil but needs an eraser, you can exchange them. Both of you get what you want. Barter was common in olden times, but it had many problems. People found it hard to fix the value of items, carry heavy goods, or store perishable things. Because of these issues, money was later invented to make trade easier.

Question 2.
How does the Junbeel Mela show that the barter system still exists today?
Answer:
The Junbeel Mela is a fair held every year in Assam, India. It shows that the barter system still exists in some places. This fair began in the 15th century and is attended by tribal groups like the Tiwa, Karbi, and Khasi. People come to exchange goods such as fruits, vegetables, herbs, rice cakes, and handmade items— without using money. People from the hills trade with people from the plains. The fair also starts with a traditional Agni Puja (fire worship) for peace and well-being. The Junbeel Mela is not just a market but a cultural event that keeps an old tradition alive in the modem world.

Question 3.
Why was money invented? How did it solve the problems of the barter system?
Answer:
Money was invented because the barter system had many problems. In barter, people had to find someone who wanted what they had and had what they needed. This was called the double coincidence of wants, and it was hard to find. There were also issues like no common value, lack of divisibility, and no durability of goods like food or grain. Carrying big items was also difficult. Money solved these problems. It became a common medium of exchange, and people could easily buy or sell anything. It also worked as a store of value and helped in measuring and comparing prices. This made trade and daily life much easier for everyone.

Question 4.
What are the main functions of money?
Answer:
Money is a medium of exchange that makes buying and selling easy. Unlike the barter system, you don’t need to find someone who wants exactly what you have. Money also acts as a store of value—you can keep it and use it later. It is durable, so it doesn’t spoil like food items. Another function is that money helps us measure value. We can compare prices and know how much something is worth. Money is also used for deferred payments, which means paying later, like buying something now and paying in the future. These functions make money better and more useful than the barter system.

Question 5.
How has money changed over time, and what are the new forms of money today?
Answer:
Money has changed a lot over time. First, people used barter, then came metal coins made of gold, silver, and copper. Later, paper money was introduced as it was easier to carry and store. Today, we also use digital money, which you cannot touch but can use through mobile phones and computers. For example, shopkeepers use QR codes, and customers pay using UPI, debit cards, or net banking.
Digital money goes directly from one bank account to another. It is fast, safe, and doesn’t require carrying cash. This shows how money has changed from old metal coins to modem digital payments.

From Barter to Money Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the following questions:
1. Beginning in the 15th century, the chiefs of the Tiwa, Karbi, Khasi, and Jaintia tribal communities of Assam and Meghalaya would gather every year to discuss political issues and to maintain friendly relationships. Members of these communities began to gather around this event and soon it turned into a fair, where people would bring their produce and began exchanging them among each other. Bartering begins early in the morning, with the trade of local products such as roots, vegetables, fruit, herbs, and spices. Also seen at the fair are handmade goods and artifacts, made from natural materials sourced from the forests of the hilly region. These are often exchanged with people from the plains for rice cakes, and other types of food that cannot be grown in the hills.
(i) Which tribal communities originally gathered for the Junbeel Mela?
Answer:
Tiwa, Karbi, Khasi, and Jaintia communities.

(ii) What is the significance of Junbeel Mela in today’s context?
Answer:
It is a living example of the barter system still being practiced for exchanging local produce and goods.

(iii) How did the Junbeel Mela start and what was its original purpose?
Answer:
The Junbeel Mela started in the 15th century when chiefs of the Tiwa, Karbi, Khasi, and Jaintia tribes gathered to discuss political issues and maintain friendly relationships. It later turned into a fair where people exchanged goods.

2. As time has progressed and technology has advanced, other forms of money have come to be used today. Apart from tangible forms of money ; such as coins and paper notes, money has taken intangible forms that we cannot touch and feel. ; This is called digital money which is in electronic form. Different payment methods like debit cards, credit cards, net banking, UPI (Unified Payments ; Interface), etc. are also used for transactions. These mediums directly transfer money from one person’s bank account into another.

(i) What is digital money?
Answer:
Digital money is money in electronic form that cannot be touched or felt.

(ii) What are some examples of digital payment methods used today?
Answer:
Examples of payment methods used today include debit cards, credit cards, net banking, and UPI (Unified Payments Interface).

(iii) How does digital money work in today’s world?
Answer:
Digital money is used for transactions through payment methods like debit cards, credit cards, net banking, and UPI. These methods directly transfer money from one person’s bank account to another, making payments fast and easy without the need for physical money.

From Barter to Money Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Observe the below image and answer the following Questions:

(i) What is depicted in this image?
Answer:
The image depicts two ancient coins: a Chalukya coin and a Chola silver coin.

(ii) What types of symbols were engraved on these ancient coins?
Answer:
The coins had symbols like animals, trees, hills, kings, queens, and deities engraved on them.

(iii) What was depicted on the other side of the Chalukyan coins?
Answer:
The other side of the Chalukyan coins had a decorated three-tiered parasol.

Class 7 From Barter to Money Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
What is the barter system?
(a) A system where people use money to buy goods
(b) A system where people exchange goods and services directly
(c) A system where people use mobile phones for transactions
(d) A system where people work for wages

Question 2.
What is a problem faced by people using the barter system?
(a) There is a common standard measure of value
(b) People find it hard to store goods
(c) It is difficult to find someone who wants exactly what you offer
(d) People cannot use digital payments

Question 3.
What do people exchange at the Junbeel Mela in Assam?
(a) Digital money
(b) Local products like roots, vegetables, and fruits
(c) Paper currency
(d) Gold and silver coins

Question 4.
What were coins in ancient times made of?
(a) Plastic
(b) Paper
(c) Gold, silver, and copper
(d) Wooden materials

Question 5.
Which of the following is an example of modem digital payment methods?
(a) Barter system
(b) Using coins
(c) Scanning a QR code for payment
(d) Exchanging goods directly

Question 6.
There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer as per the options given below:
Assertion (A): Coins were one of the earliest forms of money used in ancient times.
Reason (R): Rulers controlled the minting and issuing of coins for transactions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are tme but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is tme.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term currency?

Question 2.
Which commodities are used as medium of exchange during barter system?

Question 3.
What do know about the stone money?

Question 4.
Give an example of digital money.

Question 5.
What was the Tajadero used by the Aztecs?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Difference between tangible and non tangible resources.

Question 2.
Define the term transaction. What is used as money on the Solomon islands.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of coins in respect to divisibility and portability.

Question 4.
What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

Question 5.
What are some modem methods of making payments?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Necessity is the mother of invention.” Justify the statement in context of coinage.

Question 2.
Explain the barter system. What were its advantages and disadvantages? Give examples to support your answer.

Question 3.
Describe the journey of money from barter to digital form. How has the use of money changed over time?

Question 4.
What is coinage? Describe the use and importance of coins in ancient times with suitable examples.

The post From Barter to Money Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 11 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can keep Class 7 SST Extra Questions and Class 7th SST Chapter 12 Understanding Markets Class 7 Important Extra Question Answer handy for quick reference during exams.

Class 7 SST Chapter 12 Understanding Markets Extra Questions

NCERT Class 7 Social Science Chapter 12 Extra Questions on Understanding Markets

Understanding Markets Class 7 Very Short Question Answer

Question 1.
Define a market.
Answer:
A market is a place where buyers and sellers exchange goods and services.

Question 2.
What is the primary role of a retailer?
Answer:
A retailer sells goods directly to consumers.

Question 3.
What does ISI certification ensure?
Answer:
It ensures the quality and safety of industrial products.

Question 4.
What is an online market?
Answer:
A market where buying and selling happen over the internet.

Question 5.
Define a monopoly market.
Answer:
A market in which a single seller controls the entire supply of goods or services.

Question 6.
What is the purpose of AGMARK certification?
Answer:
It ensures the quality of agricultural products.

Question 7.
Who introduced the concept of the “Invisible Hand” in economics?
Answer:
Adam Smith.

Question 8.
What is the primary function of wholesalers?
Answer:
They buy goods in bulk and sell them to retailers.

Question 9.
What is meant by price regulation?
Answer:
It is a government policy to control the price of essential goods.

Question 10.
What is meant by consumer rights?
Answer:
The rights that protect consumers from unfair trade practices.

Understanding Markets Class 7 Short Question Answer

Question 1.
What are the key features of a market?
Answer:
The key features of a market include the presence of buyers and sellers who engage in the exchange of goods and services. The prices of products are determined by the forces of demand and supply, ensuring a dynamic economic environment where goods and services flow according to consumer needs and market trends.

Question 2.
How does a physical market differ from an online market?
Answer:
A physical market differs from an online market in several ways. Physical markets require the direct presence of buyers and sellers, whereas online markets facilitate virtual transactions. While physical markets operate at fixed locations such as malls, grocery stores, and local shops, online markets provide access to goods and services from anywhere with an internet connection. Additionally, online markets offer the convenience of home delivery, while physical markets allow direct interaction with products before purchase.

Question 3.
Why do some families prefer to buy from supermarkets instead of local vendors?
Answer:
Some families prefer to buy from supermarkets instead of local vendors due to various reasons. Supermarkets provide better packaging and hygiene, ensuring the safety and quality of food products. They also offer a wide variety of goods under one roof, making it convenient for customers to find everything they need in a single location. Moreover, supermarkets have fixed prices, eliminating
the need for bargaining and ensuring a hassle-free shopping experience.

Question 4.
How do wholesalers help in the distribution of goods?
Answer:
Wholesalers play a crucial role in the distribution of goods by acting as intermediaries between producers and retailers. They purchase goods in bulk from manufacturers, ensuring that producers can sell large quantities efficiently. Wholesalers then distribute these goods to retailers in smaller quantities, making products accessible to consumers. Additionally, they help stabilize market prices by managing supply and demand, preventing sudden fluctuations.

Question 5.
Why do farmers throw away their produce in times of oversupply?
Answer:
Farmers sometimes throw away their produce in times of oversupply due to economic and logistical challenges. When supply exceeds demand, prices drop significantly, making sales unprofitable for farmers. The lack of proper storage facilities results in spoilage, forcing them to discard their produce. In some cases, transportation costs become unaffordable, preventing farmers from selling their goods in distant markets where they could get better prices.

Question 6.
What factors influence the pricing of a product in the market?
Answer:
Several factors influence the pricing of a product in the market. The primary determinants are demand and supply; when demand increases and supply remains limited, prices rise, and vice versa. The availability of substitutes and competition among sellers also affect pricing, as consumers opt for more affordable alternatives. Furthermore, the cost of production, including raw materials, labor, and transportation, plays a crucial role in setting the final price of a product.

Question 7.
How does the barter system differ from the modem market system?
Answer:
The barter system differs from the modem market system in significant ways. In a barter economy, goods and services are exchanged directly without using money, requiring a double coincidence of wants, where both parties must need what the other has to offer. In contrast, modem markets use money as a medium of exchange, simplifying transactions and making trade more efficient.

Question 8.
What is the importance of AGMARK certification?
Answer:
AGMARK certification is essential for ensuring the quality and authenticity of agricultural products in India. It sets quality standards that help protect consumers from adulterated or substandard goods. Farmers benefit from AGMARK certification as it helps them get better prices for high-quality produce, making their products more competitive in the market. This certification also builds consumer trust, ensuring that they receive safe and genuine agricultural goods.

Understanding Markets Class 7 Long Question Answer

Question 1.
What are the different types of markets? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Markets can be classified into various types based on their structure and function. Physical markets, like local vegetable markets and shopping malls, involve direct face-to-face transactions, while online markets, such as Amazon and Flipkart, allow digital purchases. Domestic markets operate within a country, whereas international markets involve trade across nations. Wholesale markets sell goods in bulk, like grain markets, while retail markets, such as supermarkets, sell directly to consumers in smaller quantities.

Question 2.
How do demand and supply affect market prices?
Answer:
Market prices are determined by the interaction of demand and supply. When demand is high and supply is low, prices rise due to scarcity, whereas low demand and high supply result in price drops. The equilibrium price is reached where supply matches demand. Seasonal factors also influence prices, especially for agricultural products. Sudden market shifts, such as natural disasters or economic changes, can further affect pricing trends.

Question 3.
What factors affect buying decisions apart from price?
Answer:
Several factors influence consumer buying decisions beyond price. Brand reputation and product quality play a crucial role in ensuring trust and reliability. Convenience and product availability make purchases easier and more appealing. Packaging, hygiene standards, and eco-friendliness also impact choices, especially for food and personal care items. Additionally, good customer service and an enjoyable shopping experience encourage repeat purchases.

Question 4.
Explain the role of retailers in the market system.
Answer:
Retailers act as intermediaries between wholesalers and consumers, making products easily accessible. They buy goods in bulk from wholesalers and sell them in smaller quantities to customers. Retailers ensure product variety, offer customer support, and enhance convenience through physical and online stores. They also play a significant role in brand promotion and help maintain a steady supply of goods in the market.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of online markets for buyers and sellers?
Answer:
Online markets offer numerous advantages for both buyers and sellers. Buyers benefit from convenience, as they can shop anytime from home and access a wider variety of products at competitive prices. Sellers reach a larger customer base without the need for physical stores, reducing operational costs. Additionally, online platforms provide flexible pricing, efficient inventory management, and 24/7 availability, enhancing business growth.

Question 6.
Why is FSSAI certification important in the food industry?
Answer:
FSSAI certification is essential for maintaining food safety and hygiene standards. It ensures that food products are free from adulteration and contamination, protecting consumer health. The certification builds trust in packaged food items by guaranteeing quality and regulatory compliance. It also helps food businesses adhere to legal guidelines and enhances their credibility in the market. Compliance with FSSAI regulations supports overall industry standardization and safety.

Question 7.
How do international markets impact a country’s economy?
Answer:
International markets play a significant role in boosting a country’s economy by increasing foreign trade revenue. They promote the exchange of technology, resources, and goods, fostering economic growth. These markets create employment opportunities, especially in export-oriented industries. However, they also bring competition, which can impact local businesses. International trade influences currency values and economic policies, affecting overall national development.

Question 8.
What are the major challenges faced by farmers in selling their produce?
Answer:
Farmers encounter several difficulties in selling their crops, including unpredictable price fluctuations that affect their income. They often lack proper storage and transportation facilities, leading to spoilage and waste. Dependence on middlemen reduces their bargaining power, making them vulnerable to unfair pricing. Limited access to direct markets forces them to sell at lower prices, impacting their overall profitability and financial stability.

Question 9.
What role does the Minimum Support Price (MSP) play in agriculture?
Answeer:
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) plays a vital role in agriculture by ensuring that farmers receive a fixed price for their crops, protecting them from market fluctuations. MSP provides financial security to farmers, preventing losses when market prices fall below production costs. It also encourages them to cultivate essential crops, ensuring food security in the country. Additionally, MSP helps stabilize agricultural prices by providing a guaranteed rate, reducing uncertainties in the farming sector.

Question 10.
Why do prices remain high for some products even with fewer buyers?
Answer:
Prices remain high for some products even when there are fewer buyers due to various factors. Some goods, such as luxury and branded products, maintain high prices due to exclusivity and brand value. Additionally, items with high production costs, such as handmade or technologically advanced products, are priced higher to cover expenses. Essential commodities with limited supply, like rare food items or imported goods, also tend to remain expensive despite low demand.

Understanding Markets Class 7 Source Based Questions

Read the below passages and answer the following questions:
1. Markets function with the combination of demand from buyers and supply by sellers. However, there are some situations in which this may not work very well. The government plays a crucial role in such situations. It monitors the interaction between consumers and producers, and that the price is determined fairly. Controlling prices to protect buyers and sellers.

The government controls the prices of certain goods. For example, it sets the maximum price that the seller can charge. Several essential goods and services, such as life-saving drugs, have an upper limit on their prices. Another situation where the government plays a role is with some essential agricultural products like wheat, paddy and maize. The minimum prices at which these products can be sold are set by the government. This ensures that farmers do not incur losses. The government also sets minimum wages for work done by employees so that employers make fair payments to them.

(i) What role does the government play in the market regarding prices?
Answer:
The government monitors and controls prices to ensure they are determined fairly.

(ii) What is an example of a good for which the government sets a maximum price?
Answer:
Lifesaving drugs.

(iii) Explain two ways in which the government controls prices to protect buyers and sellers.
Answer:
The two ways in which the government controls prices to protect buyers and sellers are:

(a) The government sets a maximum price that sellers can charge for certain essential goods and services, such as lifesaving drugs, to protect consumers from high prices.
(b) The government sets minimum prices for essential agricultural products like wheat, paddy, and maize to ensure farmers do not incur losses.

2. Wholesalers buy goods in large quantities from the producer or manufacturer of the product. For example, grains, vegetables, and fruits are bought by wholesalers directly from the farms. The produce is then stored in large warehouses called godowns. In the case of perishables, the warehouses may also have cold storage facilities. They are then brought to markets called mandis.

Similarly, there exist wholesale markets for other commodities like chemicals, electronic items and components, construction materials, automotive parts, etc. The wholesalers supply goods to the shops and stores located near the households. These shopkeepers are called retailers. They sell goods to the final consumers like us. Unlike wholesalers, retailers sell in smaller quantities, and the products are meant for consumption rather than resale.

(i) What is the role of wholesalers in the market?
Answer:
Wholesalers buy goods in large quantities from producers and sell them to retailers.

(ii) What are the storage facilities called where wholesalers store goods?
Answer:
Godowns.

(iii) Explain the difference between wholesalers and retailers in the supply chain.
Answer:
(a) Wholesalers buy goods in bulk from producers and sell them to retailers.
(b) Retailers sell goods in smaller quantities directly to consumers for personal use, unlike wholesalers who focus on resale.

Understanding Markets Class 7 Picture Based Questions

Look at the below picture and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What type of market does this represent?
Answer:
Retail Market.

(ii) What role does branding play in influencing consumer choices?
Answer:
Branding builds trust and influences purchasing decisions.

Class 7 Understanding Markets Extra Questions for Practice

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the primary role of a market?
(a) To provide entertainment
(b) To facilitate transactions between buyers and sellers
(c) To create government policies
(d) To produce goods

Question 2.
What is the term for buying goods or services from another country?
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Wholesale
(d) Retail

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of a public good?
(a) A private car
(b) A public park
(c) A smartphone
(d) A restaurant meal

Question 4.
What does the FSSAI symbol on food products indicate?
(a) The product is expensive
(b) The product is safe to eat
(c) The product is imported
(d) The product is organic

Question 5.
What is the role of a wholesaler in the market?
(a) To sell directly to consumers
(b) To buy goods in large quantities from producers and sell to retailers
(c) To manufacture goods
(d) To set prices for goods

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The government sets minimum prices for agricultural products like wheat and paddy.
Reason (R): This ensures that farmers do not incur losses and are paid fairly.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) The Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect.
(d) The Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is correct.

II. Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the term for the reduction in price offered by a seller to a buyer?

Question 2.
What is the primary function of a retailer in the market?

Question 3.
Which certification mark ensures the quality and safety of agricultural products in India?

III. Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the difference between a physical market and an online market.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the BEE STAR rating on electronic appliances?

Question 3.
How do wholesalers and retailers differ in their roles in the market?

Question 4.
What is the role of the government in ensuring quality and safety standards in markets?

IV. Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the supply chain in the Surat textile market.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of markets in connecting people, traditions, and ideas, using the example of Ima Keithal Market in Manipur.

Question 3.
Explain how the interaction between demand and supply determines prices in a market.

Question 4.
Analyze the government’s role in controlling prices and ensuring fair trade in markets.

The post Understanding Markets Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers SST Chapter 12 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students often review Class 7 SST MCQ and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 1 Geographical Diversity of India MCQ Questions Online Test with Answers for quick revisions before tests.

Class 7 Geographical Diversity of India MCQ with Answers

MCQ on Geographical Diversity of India Class 7

Class 7 SST Chapter 1 Geographical Diversity of India MCQ Questions with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following natural feature is known as ‘Water Tower of Asia’?
(a) The Himalayan Ranges
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Thar Desert
(d) The Islands
Answer:
(a) The Himalayan Ranges

Question 2.
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhagirathi river:
(i) It is the major tributary of the Yamuna.
(ii) It originates from Gaumukh (Cow’s mouth).
(iii) It is the edge of the Gangotri glacier.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii)

Question 3.
Where is the Bhandhavgarh National Park located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Madhya Pradesh

Question 4.
The Indian islands scattered across
(a) The Indian Ocean
(b) The Arabian Sea
(c) The Bay of Bengal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 5.
Which of the following is wrongly paired?
(a) Nainital- Uttarakhand
(b) Darjeeling- Odisha
(c) Shimla- Himachal Pradesh
(d) Mussoorie- Uttarakhand
Answer:
(b) Darjeeling- Odisha

Question 6.
Which natural boundary marks India’s western limit?
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Himalayas
(c) Indian ocean
(d) Thar Desert
Answer:
(d) Thar Desert

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the East Coast?
(a) The East Coast lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
(b) It has wide plains and major river deltas.
(c) The main rivers are the Narmada and the Tapi
(d) Important waterbodies like the Chilika Lake and the Pulicat Lake present here.
Answer:
(c) The main rivers are the Narmada and the Tapi

Question 8.
Which of the following lies to the south of India?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Deserts
(d) The Ganges
Answer:
(b) The Indian Ocean

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The first astronaut to go into the space is _______
Answer:
Rakesh Sharma

2. _______ is a bigger landmass that has Indian part.
Answer:
Gondwana

3. _______ are the home to the Royal Bengal Tigers.
Answer:
Sundarbans

4. The Northern Portion of Western Ghat is known as _______ .
Answer:
shayadri

5. _______ is the only active volcano in India.
Answer:
Barren Island

6. _______ is known as the lower Himalayas.
Answer:
Himachal

7. East coast lies between the Eastern Ghats and the _______ .
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

8. _______ plants catches small insects in sticky traps and digest them.
Answer:
Insectivorous

9. _______ is a reptile on the verge of extinction.
Answer:
The Indian Gharial

III. True or False

1. Aravallis are the oldest mountains in the world.
Answer:
True

2. Rhododendron is a type of sherbat made up of flower.
Answer:
True

3. Ganga, Brahamputra and Yamuna rivers are named after goddesses.
Answer:
False

4. All Lakshadweep islands are inhabited by the people.
Answer:
False

5. The west coastline stretches from Ganga delta to Kanyakumari.
Answer:
True

6. India was the part of Gondwanaland.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following

1. Match the Column A with Column B and choose the correct option.

Answer:

2. Match the Column A with Column B and choose the correct option.

Answer:

V. Assertion-Reason Type Questions

There are two statements in each question marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer as per the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Thar is a vast arid region.
Reason (R): The region span in the state of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion (A): Lakshadweep island is located in the Bay of Bengal.
Reason (R): It is made up of 36 islands made of corals.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

3. Assertion (A): Himalayas are sometimes called the Water tower of Asia.

Reason (R): The snow on the mountain melts and feeds the major rivers
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Assertion (A): The geographical features like the Himalayas and the Thar Desert play a significant role in separating India from the rest of the continent.
Reason (R): These geographical features are responsible for shaping India’s climate, culture, and history.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

The post Geographical Diversity of India Class 7 MCQ Questions SST Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can use Class 4 Maths Solutions and Maths Mela NCERT Class 4 Maths Chapter 9 Equal Groups Question Answer Solutions to explore alternative problem-solving methods.

Class 4 Maths Chapter 9 Equal Groups Question Answer Solutions

Equal Groups Class 4 Maths Solutions

Class 4 Maths Chapter 9 Solutions

NCERT Textbook Pages 128-130 Animal Jumps

Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate numbers. Find how many jumps the animal needs to take to reach its food.

Question 1.
The frog jumps 3 steps at a time. Which numbers will the frog touch? Will it touch 67?

Solution:

Frog will touch the numbers which are multiples of 3. That is 0, 3, 6, 9, …. But 67 is not a multiple of 3. So, frog will not touch the number 67.

Question 2.
The squirrel jumps 4 steps at a time. Which numbers will the squirrel touch? How many times should the squirrel jump to reach 60?

Solution:

Squirrel touches the number 0, 4, 8, 12, …, which are multiples of 4.
Since squirrel jumps 4 steps at a time, and we know that 4 × 15 = 60
Thus, squirrel has to jump 15 steps to reach 60.

Question 3.
The rabbit jumps 6 steps at a time. Which numbers will the rabbit touch? What is the smallest 3-digit number on which the rabbit will land? How many times did the rabbit jump to reach this number?

Solution:

The rabbit will touch the numbers 0, 6, 12, 18, 24, …
Since 6 × 16 = 96 and 6 × 17 = 102
So, the smallest 3-digit number on which the rabbit will land is 102.
Rabbit had jumped 17 times to reach the number 102.

Question 4.
The kangaroo jumps 8 steps at a time. Which numbers will the kangaroo touch?
Are there numbers that both the rabbit and the kangaroo will touch?

Solution:

The kangaroo touches the number 0, 8, 16, 24, …, which are multiples of 8.
Rabbit touches the numbers 0, 6, 12, 18, 24, …………
So, there are numbers which both the rabbit and the kangaroo will touch, that are 24, 48, 72, …

Question 5.
To reach 48, how many times did the rabbit jump?

How many times did the Kangaroo jump to reach the same number?
What did you observe? Share your thoughts,
Solution:
Since the rabbit jumped 6 steps at a time, 6 steps × 8 = 48. So, the rabbit jumped 8 times to reach 48.
And the kangaroo jumped 8 steps at a time, 8 steps × 6 = 48. So, the kangaroo jumped 6 times to reach the number 48.
We observe that due to size, rabbit take shorter steps than kangaroo and so reach later than kangaroo.

Question 6.
To reach 60, how many times did the frog jump? How many times did the rabbit jump to reach the same number?
What do you observe? Share your thoughts.
Solution:
Since a frog jumped 3 steps at a time and 3 steps × 20 = 60.
So, the frog jumped 20 times to reach the number 60.
And the rabbit jumped 6 steps at a time, 6 steps × 10 = 60.
So, the rabbit jumped 10 times to reach the number 60.
We observe that due to difference in jump size, frog has to take more steps to reach the number 60.

Question 7.
If the cat and the rat land on the same number, the cat will catch the rat. The cat is now on 6 and the rat on 12. When the cat jumps 3 steps forward, the rat jumps 2 steps forward. Will the cat catch the rat? If yes, at which number?

Solution:
The cat will jump at the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27,…
And the rat will jump at the numbers 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26, 28, ….
In their 6th jump, both the cat and rat will be at 24. Hence, the cat will catch the rat at 24.

Question 8.
Find multiplication and division sentences below. Shade the sentences. How many can you find? Two examples are done for you.

Solution:

We can make 15 such sentences.

NCERT Textbook Page 130 – Common Multiples

Question 1.
Which numbers do both the frog and the squirrel touch? A few common multiples of 3 and 4 are
Solution:
The frog touches the numbers 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36, 39, 42, 45, 48, ….
The squirrel touches the numbers 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48, ….
So the frog and squirrel both touch the numbers 12, 24, 36, 48, ….
Thus, the common multiples of 3 and 4 are 12,24, 36, 48, ….

Question 2.
Which numbers do both the rabbit and the kangaroo touch? A few common multiples of 6 and 8 are .
Solution:
The rabbit touches the numbers 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, 84, 90, 96, ….
The kangaroo touches the numbers 8,16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 72, 80, 88, 96, ….
Both the rabbit and kangaroo touch the numbers 24, 48, 72, 96, ….
So, the common multiples of 6 and 8 are 24^48, 72, 96, ….

NCERT Textbook Pages 131-133 Gulabo’s Garden

Question 1.
Gulabo’s garden has lily flowers. Each lily flower has 3 petals.
How many petals are there in 12 flowers? Show how you found your answer.

Gulabo will have 12 × 3 petals.
Petals in 10 lilies = 10 × 3 petals = 30 petals
Petals in 2 lilies = _______________________
Petals in 12 lilies = _______________________
Solution:
Gulabo will have 12 × 3 petals.
Petals in 10 lilies = 10 × 3 petals = 30 petals
Petals in 2 lilies = 2×3 petals = 6 petals
Petals in 12 lilies = 12 × 3 petals = 36 petals

Question 2.
In a hibiscus flower there are 5 petals. Gulabo counted all the petals and found them to be 80. How many flowers did she have?

Gulabo has 80 ÷ 5 flowers.
5 petals is 1 flower.
10 petals are 2 flowers.
50 petals are 10 flowers.
Then, 80 petals are _______ flowers.
Solution:
Then, 80 petals are 80 ÷ 5 = 16 flowers.

Question 3.
Gulabo plants some marigold saplings in a box as shown in the picture.

There are _______ saplings in each row.
There are _______ rows.
How many saplings has she planted? How did you calculate it?
Mathematical Statement _______
Solution:
There are 11 saplings in each row.
There are 3 rows.
Gulabo has planted a total of 33 saplings in the box.
By using multiplication, we found the number of saplings.
Mathematical statement: There are 3 rows in the box, where the saplings planted are 11 times the number of rows.
Total saplings planted = 3 × 11 = 33

Question 4.
“Dailyfresh” supermarket has kept boxes of strawberries in a big tray.
How many boxes of strawberries does the supermarket have?
Show how you found them.

There are _______ columns of strawberry boxes.
There are _______ boxes in each column.
There are _______ boxes in all.
Mathematical Statement _______
Solution:
There are 16 columns of strawberry boxes.
There are 6 boxes in each column.
There are 96 boxes in all.
Mathematical statement: The number of boxes of strawberry = Number of columns of strawberry boxes × number of boxes in each column = 16 × 6 boxes = 96 boxes

Question 5.
Radha runs a bakery shop. She bakes 18 cupcakes in one tray of the size shown below,
(a) Complete arranging the cupcakes in the two trays given below.

Solution:

(b) She can use two such trays in her oven at a time. How many cupcakes can she make in one attempt? _______
Solution:
Number of cupcakes in a tray = 18
Number of cupcakes in two trays = 2 × 18 = 36
The number of cupcakes, she can make in one attempt = 36

(c) Today she has received a special order. She has made 108 cupcakes. How many trays has she baked?
Solution:
Number of cupcakes in two trays = 36
Number of cupcakes in 4 trays = 2 × 36 = 72
Number of cupcakes in 6 trays = 3 × 36 = 108
So, the required number of trays = 6

(d) She has another square baking tray. She can bake 36 mini cupcakes in such a tray. Complete the arrangement below.

Number of columns: _______________________
Number of cup cakes in each column: _______________________
Multiplication statement _______
Find different ways for arranging the following numbers of cupcakes in rows and columns in your notebook.
36, 8, 12, and 24
Solution:
Number of columns = 6
Number of cupcakes in each column = 6
Multiplication statement: 6 × 6 = 36.

• 36 cupcakes can also be arranged in a tray having 9 rows, and each row has 4 cupcakes.
• 8 cupcakes can be arranged in 4 columns, with 2 cupcakes in each column.
• 12 cupcakes can be arranged in 2 rows, with each row having 6 cupcakes.
• 24 cupcakes can be arranged in 6 columns, and each column has 4 cupcakes.

NCERT Textbook Pages 133-136 The Doubling Magic

Magician Anvi came one day,
To Gulabo’s house, ready to play.
From her coat, with a grand display,

How many flowers are there now? ___
Solution:
46

Solution:

What magic did Anvi do?
a) Double of 32 =_____
b) Double of 14 =_____
c) Double of 26 =_____
d) Double of 17 =_____
e) Double of 39 =_____
f) Double of 45 =_____
Solution:
Magician Anvi makes the flowers double after her magic.
(a) Double of 32 = 64
(b) Double of 14 = 28
(c) Double of 26 = 52
(d) Double of 17 = 34
(e) Double of 39 = 78
(f) Double of 45 = 90

Question 1.
Guess what will be the ones digit of the following numbers when doubled.
Write the ones digit in the space provided,
a) 28 ______ b) 56 ______ c) 45 ______ d) 17 ______
Solution:
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4

Question 2.
Give examples of numbers that when doubled give the following digits in the ones place,
a) 0 _______
b) 2 _______
c) 4 _______
d) 6 _______
e) 8 _______
Solution:
(a) 5
(b) 2 6
(c) 2
(d) 8
(e) 4
(Answers may vary)

What do we noticfe about the numbers that we get after doubling? Even or Odd?
Solution:
Doubling is simply an arithmetic operation, i.e., multiplication by 2. After doubling any number, we always get an even number.

Can we get 3, 5, 7, 9 as the ones digit after doubling?
Solution:
Since we only get even numbers after doubling any number. So we cannot get 3, 5, 7, or 9 as the ones digit after doubling the number.

Fill each square in the chart by multiplying the row number by the column number.

Solution:

What do you notice about the numbers shaded in green? Why is this happening?
Solution:
We notice that the numbers shaded in green, show that when we multiply any two numbers, the order does not matter. For example, 1 × 2 = 2 = 2 × 1, 2 × 3 = 6 = 3 × 2, 5 × 2 = 10 = 2 × 5 and so on.

What do you notice about the numbers shaded in green? Why is this happening?
Solution:
We notice that the numbers shaded in green, show that when we multiply any two numbers, the order does not matter. For example, 1 × 2 = 2 = 2 × 1, 2 × 3 = 6 = 3 × 2, 5 × 2 = 10 = 2 × 5 and so on.

Question 1.
Share the patterns that you notice in the table.
Solution:
We notice that each row/column is a multiple of its row/column number. Also its diagonal cells are all perfect squares.

Question 2.
Are the numbers in row 7 the same as the numbers in column 7? In general, are the numbers in a given row the same as the numbers in the corresponding column? Why does this happen?
Solution:
Yes. In multiplication two numbers can be multiplied in any order, the product remains the same for both the orders.

Question 3.
Is there a row where all answers (products) are even numbers? Which rows have this property?
Solution:
Yes, there are rows where all answers (products) are even numbers. The rows of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 have all the products as even numbers.

Question 4.
Is there a row having only odd numbers as products?
Solution:
No.

Question 5.
Are there rows that have both even and odd numbers? What do you notice? Why is it so?
Solution:
Yes, the rows of 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9 have both even and odd numbers. It is because when an odd number is multiplied with an even number, we get an even number, but when an odd number is multiplied with another odd number, we get an odd number.

Question 6.
Are there more even numbers in the chart or odd numbers? How do you know?
Solution:
There are more even numbers in the chart as the tables of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 have only even numbers.

Question 7.
Colour the common multiples of the following numbers. Use different colours for each item.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 and 8
(c) 7 and 9
Share your observations regarding the numbers that are common multiples in each case.
Solution:
(a) Common multiples of 2 and 3 are 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, 84, 90, 96.
The common multiples are the multiples of 6 which is the product of 2 and 3.

(b) Common multiples of 4 and 8 are 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 72, 80, 88, 96.
The common multiples of 4 and 8 are the multiples of 8 which itself is a multiple of 4.

(c) Common multiples of 7 and 9 are 63.
The common multiple of 7 and 9 is the multiple of 63 which is the first common multiple of 7 and 9.

Question 8.
Observe the pattern in the ones digit of the products in row 5?
Observe the ones digit of the products in other rows also. What patterns do you notice?
Solution:
We observe that the ones digits in the products of row 5 are only 0 and 5.
We also observed some other patterns in the ones digits of the products in other rows, like the ones digit in row 1 are the counting numbers from 0 to 10, the ones digits in row 2 are even numbers, the ones digit in row 10 is only 0 and so on.

Question 9.
ere is row 8 of the chart: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 72, 80.
The ones digit of the products are: 8, 6, 4, 2, 0, 8, 6, 4, 2,0 .
Do’ you see a repeating pattern here?
Guess the ones digit of the following products. Verify your answer by multiplying. Write the digit in the space given.
11 × 8 = _____ 12 × 8 = _____ 13 × 8 = _____
Solution:
Yes, the pattern of ones digits is 8, 6, 4, 2, 0 and is repeating.

Since 1 × 8 = 8,
2 × 8 = 16, 3 × 8 = 24. So, the ones digits of 11 × 8, 12 × 8, and 13 × 8 are 8, 6, and 4, respectively.
11 × 8 = 88 12 × 8 = 96 13 × 8 = 104

Question 10.
In row 8 of the chart, there is no number whose ones digit is 1. What other digits do not appear as the ones digit?
Solution:
The digits 3, 5, 7, and 9 do not appear as the ones digit in the row 8 of the chart.

Question 11.
Is there a row in which all the digits from 0 to 9 appear as the ones digit? Which rows have this property?
Solution:
Yes, rows 1, 3, 7, and 9 have this property.

Question 12.
It can be seen in row 8 that 0 appears as the ones digit two times.
___ × 8 gives 0 as the ones digit.
What numbers can go in the box? Give 5 examples of such numbers.
Solution:
5 × 8 = 40 or 10 × 8 = 80, gives 0 as the ones digit.
15 × 8 = 120, 20 × 8 = 160, 25 × 8 = 200, 30 × 8 = 240, 35 × 8 = 280.

Question 13.
Is there a row in which 0 appears as the ones digit only once?
Which rows have this property?
Solution:
Yes, the rows of 1, 3, 7, and 9 have this property.

Question 14.
What do you notice about the answers for Questions 11 and 13? Share in the grade.
Solution:
Do it yourself.

NCERT Textbook Page 137 Multiples of Tens

Question 1.
Let us count the number of wheels in tricycles.

Number of wheels in 10 tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 10 × 3 wheels = ______ wheels.
Number of wheels in 10 more tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 10 × 3 wheels = _______ wheels.
Number of wheels in 20 tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 20 × 3 wheels = ______ + _____ = ______ wheels.
10 × 3 = _____
20 × 3 = _____
Solution:
Number of wheels in 10 tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 10 × 3 wheels = 30 wheels.
Number of wheels in 10 more tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 10 × 3 wheels = 30 wheels.
Number of wheels in 20 tricycles with 3 wheels in each is 20 × 3 wheels = 30 + 30 = 60 wheels.
10 × 3 = 30
20 × 3 = 60

Question 2.
Let us count the number of wheels in cars.

Number of wheels in 10 cars with 4 wheels in each is 10 × 4 wheels = _______ wheels.
Number of wheels in 30 cars with 4 wheels in each is 30 × 4 wheels = _____ + _____ + _____ = _____ wheels.
Solution:
Number of wheels in 10 cars with 4 wheels in each is 10 × 4 wheels = 40 wheels.
Number of wheels in 30 cars with 4 wheels in each is 30 × 4 wheels = 40 + 40 + 40 = 120 wheels.
10 × 4 = 40
30 × 4 = 120

Solve the following in a similar way. Share how you found the answers.
a) 10 × 6 = ____
b) 40 × 6 = ____
c) 10 × 8 = ____
d) 60 × 8 = ____
e) 6 × 8 = ____
g) 4 × 6 = ____
f) 60 × 8 = ____
h) 40 × 8 = ____
Solution:
(a) 10 × 6 = = 60
(b) 40 × 6 = = 60 + 60 + 60 + 60 = 240
(c) 10 × 8 = 80
(d) 60 × 8 = 80 + 80 + -80 + 80 + 80 + 80 = 480
(e) 6 × 8 = 48
(f) 60 × 8 = = 10 × 48 = 480
(g) 4 × 6 = 24
(h) 40 × 8 = 40 + 40 + 40 + 40 + 40 + 40 + 40 + 40 = 320

What happens when the number of groups is a multiple of 10?
Solution:
If a number of groups is a multiple of 10, then it always ends with 0 as ones digit.

NCERT Textbook Page 138-139 Multiplying Using 10s

Question 1.
Radha is packing cupcakes in boxes of 4. She has packed 18 boxes. How many cupcakes are there in the packed boxes?

18 boxes have 4 cupcakes in each.
So, there are 18 × 4 cupcakes.

10 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain
10 × 4 cupcakes = ______ cupcakes.

8 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain
8 × 4 cupcakes = _________ cupcakes.

18 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain
____ + ____ cupcakes
= _________ cupcakes.

Solution:
18 boxes have 4 cupcakes in each.
So, there are 18 × 4 cupcakes.
10 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain 10 × 4 cupcakes = 40 cupcakes
8 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain 8 × 4 cupcakes = 32 cupcakes
18 boxes with 4 cupcakes in each contain 40 + 32 cupcakes = 72 cupcakes

Question 2.
8 bamboo rods are needed to make a bullock cart. How many bamboo rods are needed for 23 carts?

One cart needs 8 bamboo rods. 23 carts need 23 × 8 rods.
20 carts with 8 rods in each need 20 × 8 rods = ________ rods.
3 carts with 8 rods in each need 3 × 8 rods = _________ rods

Solution:
20 carts with 8 rods in each need 20 × 8 rods = 160 rods.
3 carts with 8 rods in each need 3 × 8 rods = 24 rods.
So, 23 carts need = 160 rods + 24 rods = 184 rods.

NCERT Textbook Page 139 – Let Us Solve

Question 1.
A flock of 25 geese and 12 sheep have gathered around a pond. Chippi the lizard sees many legs. How many legs does it see?

Solution:
Each goose has 2 legs, and each sheep has 4 legs.
25 geese have, 25 × 2 legs = 50 legs
12 sheep have, 12 × 4 legs = 48 legs
Total legs seen by Chippi = 25 geese’s legs + 12 sheep’s legs = 50 legs + 48 legs = 98 legs.

Question 2.
In an auditorium, 8 children are sitting in each row. There are 15 such rows in the school auditorium. How many children are in the auditorium?
Solution:
Children sitting in 1 row = 8
Children sitting in 15 rows = 15 × 8 = 120
So, 120 children are in the auditorium.

Question 3.
A book shop has kept 9 books in each pile. There are 14 such piles. How many books does the shop have?
Solution:
1 pile has 9 books.
14 piles have, 14 × 9 books = 126 books
So, the shop has a total of 126 books.

Question 4.
Surya is making a patch work with beads of two colours as shown in the picture. How many beads has he used? How many each of golden colour  beads and white colour beads has he used in making this patch work?

Solution:
Number of columns in the patch = 8
Number of beads in 1 column = 4 × 5 = 20
Total number of beads used by Surya = 20 × 8 = 160
Number of white beads in each consecutive 2 columns = 20,
so total number of white beads in the patch = 20 × 4 = 80
Also, Number of golden beads in each consecutive 2 columns = 20,
so total number of golden beads in the patch = 20 × 4 = 80

Question 5.
For each of the following multiplication problems, make your own stories as above. Then find out the product.
(a) 34 × 3
(b) 75 × 5
(c) 46 × 6
(d) 50 × 9
Solution:
(a) In a park, 3 people can sit on 1 bench. There are 34 such benches in the park. How many people can sit on the benches in the park?
34 × 3 = 102 people.

(b) A library has 5 books in 1 shelf. There are 75 such shelves. How many books are there in the library?
75 × 5 = 375 books.

(c) 6 flowers are required to make a bouquet. How many flowers are required to make 46 such bouquets?
46 × 6 = 276 flowers.

(d) Aman is packing 9 cups in a box. He has packed 50 boxes. How many cups are there in the packed boxes?
50 × 9 = 450 cups. (Stories may vary)

NCERT Textbook Pages 140-141 Division

Question 1.
A factory has ordered 58 wheels for the small tempos that they make. Each tempo has 3 wheels.

In how many tempos can they fix the wheels? Discuss your thinking in each step.
Number of tempos is 58 ÷ 3
30 wheels are needed for 10 tempos. _______wheels are left.
15 wheels are needed for _______ tempos. _______wheels are left.
9 wheels are needed for_______ tempos. _______ wheels are left.
_______ wheels are needed for_______ tempos.
_______ wheels are left
Solution:
Number of tempos is 58 ÷ 3
30 wheels are needed for 10 tempos. 28 wheels are. left.
15 wheels are needed for 5 tempos. 13 wheels are left.
9 wheels are needed for 3 tempos. 4 wheels are left.
3 wheels are needed for 1 tempos. 1 wheel is left.

Can we make another tempo?
Solution:
No, as only 1 wheel is left.

Question 2.
A dairy farm has many cows. Chippi the lizard is surprised to see 88 legs.
How many cows are there in the farm? Write appropriate sentences as above to show your thinking.

Number of legs of a cow: ________
Number of cows is 88 ÷ ________
Show your work using the table below.
Hint: Taking out groups of 10s is easy.

Total number of cows = ______
Solution:
Number of legs of a cow: 4
Number of cows is 88 ÷ 4

Total number of cows = 10 + 7 + 5 = 22

NCERT Textbook Page 141 – Let Us Solve

Question 1.
In a big aquarium, Jolly fish sees 72 legs of octopuses. How many octopuses are there in the aquarium?

Solution:
Number of legs of an octopus = 8
Number of octopuses in the aquarium = 72 ÷ 8

Total number of octopuses = 5 + 3 + 1 = 9.

Question 2.
A sports store packs 4 shuttlecocks in a bigger box. They have 50 shuttlecocks. How many boxes will they need to pack all of them? Can they pack all the shuttlecocks in the boxes? How many are left?
Solution:
Number of shuttlecocks in a bigger box = 4
Total shuttlecocks = 50;
Number of required boxes to pack all the shuttlecocks = 50 ÷ 4

Total number of bigger }oxes needed to pack
the shuttlecocks = 10 + 2 = 12
But 12 boxes only pack 48 shuttlecocks.
Left shuttlecocks = 50 – 48 = 2

Question 3.
Rakul Chachi uses a part other farm to grow flowering plants for the upcoming festive season. She has planted 75 saplings of roses. Each row has 5 saplings. How many rows of saplings has she planted?
Solution:
Number of saplings in a row = 5
Number of rows of saplings planted = 75 ÷ 5

Total number of rows of saplings = 10 + 4 + 1 = 15

Question 4.
Make stories for the following problems and solve them:
(a) 70 ÷ 5
Solution:
Reema packs 5 balls in a box. She has a total of 70 balls. How many boxes will she need to pack all of them?
So, 70 ÷ 5 = 10 + 4 = 14

(b) 84 ÷ 7
Solution:
Rakul made cupcakes for ?70(10+2 the children. She arranged 7 cupcakes in one row on a cT tray. She made a total of 84 cupcakes. How many rows of cupcakes has she arranged?
So, 84 ÷ 7 = 10 + 2 = 12

(c) 69 ÷ 3
Solution:
Mohan fixes 69 wheels for autorickshaws. How many rickshaws can he fix the wheels of, if he fixes all the – 9 wheels of each rickshaw?
Number of auto rickshaws = 69 ÷ 3 = 10 + 10 + 3 = 23

(d) 93 ÷ 6
Solution:
A group of 93 students is going to a field trip. Six mini buses are available for the trip. If all 30 buses carry an equal number of 3 students, how many do not go on trip?
93 ÷ 6 = (10 + 5) = 15, 3 students will not go on the trip. (Stories may vary)

NCERT Textbook Pages 142-143 – Multiples of 100

100 bikes with 2 people on each have
100 × 2 people = _____ people.
200 bikes with 2 people on each have ______people. How did you find it?
100 cars with 4 people in each have 100 × 4 people = _______ people.
500 cars with 4 people in each have ______people.
How did you find it?
Solution:
100 bikes with 2 people on each have
= 100 × 2 people
= 200 people.

200 bikes with 2 people on each have
= 200 × 2 people
= 100 × 2 people + 100 × 2 people
= 200 people + 200 people
= 400 people

100 cars with 4 people in each have
= 100 × 4 people
= 400 people.

500 cars with 4 people in each have
= 500 × 4 people
= (100 × 4 + 100 × 4 + 100 × 4 + 100 × 4 + 100 × 4)
= (400 + 400 + 400 + 400 + 400) people
= 2000 people

How did you find it?

500 × 4 = _____
100 × 4 = _____
5 × 4 = _____
50 × 4 = _____
Solution:
We multiplied the number of bikes by the number of people on each bike.
500 × 4 = 2000
5 × 4 = 20
100 × 4 = 400
50 × 4 = 200

What do you notice about multiplying by multiples of 100s.
Solution:
When multiplying a number by multiples of 100s, we get the product of non-zero numbers with the number of zeros that present in multiples of 100s.

Observe the pattern and complete the answers.

Solution:

NCERT Textbook Pages 143-144 More Multiplication

Question 1.
Big electric autorickshaws run in small towns of India and can carry 8 passengers.

How many people can travel in 125 such autos in a single round?
i
The total number of passengers 125 × 8.
100 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have 100 × 8 passengers = ______ passengers.
20 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have 20 × 8 passengers = _______ passengers.
5 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have 5 × 8 passengers = __________ passengers.
125 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have ____ + ____ + ______= _________ passengers.

Solution:
The total passengers are 125 100 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have
= 100 × 8 passengers
= 800 passengers
20 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have = 20 × 8 passengers = 160 passengers
5 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have = 5 × 8 passengers = 40 passengers
125 autorickshaws with 8 passengers in each have = 800 + 160 + 40 = 1000 passengers

Question 2.
Kahlu and Rabia are potters and make earthen pots (kulhad) for trains.
They pack 6 kulhads in a box and have packed 174 boxes for delivery. How many kulhads have they made?

Solution:
The total number of kulhads is 174 × 6 = 600 + 420 + 24 = 1044

NCERT Textbook Pages 144-145 Let Us Solve

Question 1.
BP Girl’s school has decided to give all its students two pencils on the first day of school. It has 465 students.
How many pencils does the school need to buy?
Solution:

Number of pencils given to each student = 2
Total number of students = 465
Total pencils school need to buy = 465 × 2 = 800 + 120 + 10 = 930

Question 2.
234 children of a school have decided to organise a school mela. Each child contributes ?5 for the organisation of the mela. How much money do they collect?
Solution:
Money contributed by each child = ₹ 5
Total children in school mela = 234
Money collected for school mela = 234 × ₹ 5

The total money collected from 234 children, with each contributing ₹ 5 = ₹ 1000 + ₹ 150 + ₹ 20 = ₹ 1170

Question 3.
Make stories for the following problems and solve them.
(a) 439 × 4
(b) 514 × 8
(c) 356 × 5
(d) 623 × 7
Solution:
(a) An NGO organise a game show for children in which they provide tickets of 4 games to each child. There are 439 children. How many tickets are distributed to children?

Total tickets distributed = 439 × 4
= 1600 + 120 + 36 = 1756

(b) Raman and Ishita are toymakers and make toys for children. They packed 8 toys in a box and delivered 514 boxes to a company. How many toys have they made?

Total number of toys made = 514 × 8 = 4000 + 80 + 32
= 4112

(c) A machine packets 5 notebooks in 1 one bundle.
If the machine packed 356 bundles, how many books were packed?
Total number of books packed = 356 × 5 = 1500 + 250 + 30
= 1780

(d) A factory has ordered 623 packets of bottles, containing 7 bottles in each packet. How many bottles are ordered by the factory?
Total number of bottles ordered = 623 × 7 = 4200 + 140 + 21
= 4361
(Stories may vary)

NCERT Textbook Page 146 – Patterns in Division

How much money will each get? Draw arrows linking the money and the children to answer the questions.

1. ₹ 30 shared equally among 3 children ______________
2. ₹ 900 shared equally among 3 children ______________
Solution:
1. ₹ 30 shared equally among 3 children = ₹ 30 + ₹ 3 = ₹ 10
2. ₹ 900 shared equally among f 3 children = ₹ 900 + ₹ 3 = ₹ 300

Using the above way of thinking, solve the following problems. Observe and explain the patterns that you notice below.

Solution:

Question 1.
A load carrying truck has 6 tyres. Chippi the lizard sees 60 tyres. How many trucks are there?
Solution:
Number of tyres in a truck = 6

Total tyres = 60
Number of trucks = 60 + 6 = 10 (i.e., 60 tyres are divided by 6 as each truck has 6 tyres.)

Question 2.
Chippi sees 80 wheels in a car parking space. How many cars are standing in the parking space?
Solution:
Number of wheels in a car = 4
Total wheels of cars in parking space
= 80
Number of cars = 80 + 4 = 20 (i.e., 80 wheels are divided by 4 as there are 4 wheels in one car)

Question 3.
Chippi sees 600 legs of ants walking towards the anthill. How many ants are there?
Solution:
Number of legs of an ant = 6
Total legs of ants walking towards the anthill = 600
So, Ants walking towards the anthill = 600 + 6 = 100 (i.e., 600 legs are divided by 6 as there are 6 legs of an ant)

Question 4.
A fancy shop has packed 800 rubber bands in several packets. Each packet has 4 rubber bands. How many packets of rubber bands does the shop have?
Solution:
Rubber bands in 1 packet = 4

Total rubber bands = 800
Number of packets of rubber bands = 800 + 4 = 200 (i.e., 800 rubber bands have been packed, with 4 rubber bands in each packet)

NCERT Textbook Pages 147-148 Let Us Solve

Question 1.
A school bus hires 7 buses to take 245 children to the transport museum. Each bus carry the same number of children. How many children are traveling in each bus?
Solution:
Number of children travelling museum = 245
Number of buses hired by school = 7

Number of children in each bus = 245 ÷ 7 = 10 + 10 + 10 + 5 = 35

Question 2.
The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway is fondly called as the “Toy Train”. This toy train ride is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
This amazing train runs between New Jalpaiguri and Darjeeling and it also passes through one of the highest stations in the world, namely, Ghum. It runs 88 km daily. How much distance does it travel in a week?

Solution:
Distance travelled by “Toy Train” daily = 88 km
Number of days in a week = 7
Distance travelled by “Toy Train” in a week = 88 km × 7 = 560 km + 56 km = 616 km

Question 3.
The 16 km river rafting from Shivpuri to Rishikesh in the Ganga provides the most interesting rafting opportunity. In the summer months, VentureOut company took 259 people for rafting. Each raft can take 7 people. How many rafts did it take?
Solution:
Number of people for rafting = 259

Each raft takes 7 people.
Number of rafts required = 259 ÷ 7
= 10 + 10 + 10 + 7 = 37

Question 4.
Anu saves ₹ 45 every month by putting it in her piggy bank.
(a) How much money will Anu save in 6 months?
Solution:
Money saved by Anu in 6 months = ₹ 45 × 6 = ₹ 40 × 6 + ₹ 5 × 6 = ₹ 240 + ₹ 30 = ₹ 270

(b) She distributes the total money saved after 6 months among 6 of her friends. How much does each friend get?
Solution:
Total money distributed equally 210 among 6 friends.
So, money got by each 90- friend = ₹ 270 ÷ 3
= ₹(10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 5)
= ₹ 45

(c) If she decides to distribute the saved money among 3 friends after 6 months, how much money will each get?
Solution:
Money saved by Anu in 6 months = ₹ 270
Money got by each of 3 friends = ₹ 270 – 3
= ₹ (10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10) = ₹ 90

Question 5.
Raju drives an auto in his village and takes people to the bus stand.
He makes 8 trips in a day. Which of the following questions can be exactly calculated with the above statement?
(a) How much money does he make in a day?
(b) How many trips does he make in 7 days?
(c) How much time does one trip take? *
(d) How many trips does he make in 4 weeks?
Solution:
(a) We cannot say how much money he makes in a day as the price of each trip is not given.
(b) Number of trips made in 7 days = 8 trips × 7 = 56 trips
(c) We cannot say how much time he takes for a trip, as time is not mentioned.
(d) Number of trips in a week (7 days) = 8 × 7 = 56
Number of trips in 4 weeks = 56 × 4 = 50 × 4 + 6 × 4 = 200 + 24 = 224

Question 6.
Solve
(a) 45 × 9
Solution:
45 × 9
So, 45 × 9 = 360 + 45
= 405

(b) 507 × 7
Solution:
507 × 7
So, 507 × 7
= 500 × 7 + 7 × 7
= 3549

(c) 94 ÷ 4
Solution:
When 94 is divided by 4, we get(10 + 10 + 3) = 23, with remainder 2.

(d) 778 ÷ 6
Solution:
When 778 is divided by 6, we get (100 + 10 + 10 + 5 + 4) = 129, with remainder 4.

(e) 94 × 5
Solution:
94 × 5
So, 94 × 5
= 90 × 5 + 4 × 5
= 450 + 20
= 470

(f) 396 × 4
Solution:

396 × 4
So, 396 × 4
= 300 × 4 + 90 × 4 + 6 × 4
= 1200 + 360 + 24
= 1584

(g) 83 ÷ 3
Solution:
When 83 is divided by 3, we get (10 + 10 + 5 + 2) = 27, with remainder 2.

(h) 635 ÷ 5
Solution:

When 635 is divided by 5, we get 100 + 10 + 10 + 7 = 127.

Question 7.
In mathematics, some statements are always true, some are sometimes true, and some are never true. Tick (√) in the appropriate column.

Solution:

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Students often review Class 7 SST MCQ and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 2 Understanding the Weather MCQ Questions Online Test with Answers for quick revisions before tests.

Class 7 Understanding the Weather MCQ with Answers

MCQ on Understanding the Weather Class 7

Class 7 SST Chapter 2 Understanding the Weather MCQ Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather takes place?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer:
(b) Troposphere

Question 2.
Which instrument is used to measure temperature?
(a) Barometer
(b) Rain gauge
(c) Thermometer
(d) Anemometer
Answer:
(c) Thermometer

Question 3.
What does a rain gauge measure?
(a) Wind speed
(b) Temperature
(c) Air pressure
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(d) Rainfall

Question 4.
What is the movement of air from high pressure to low pressure called?
(a) Rain
(b) Wind
(c) Storm
(d) Snow
Answer:
(b) Wind

Question 5.
Which instrument measures wind speed?
(a) Wind vane
(b) Thermometer
(c) Anemometer
(d) Barometer
Answer:
(c) Anemometer

Question 6.
What is humidity?
(a) Movement of wind
(b) Bright sunlight
(c) Water vapour in the air
(d) Snowfall
Answer:
(c) Water vapour in the air

Question 7.
Which unit is used to measure atmospheric pressure?
(a) Celsius
(b) Kilometers
(c) Millibar
(d) Litres
Answer:
(c) Millibar

Question 8.
What happens when air pressure drops below 1000 mb?
(a) Snowstorm
(b) Rain
(c) Depression or storm
(d) Sunshine
Answer:
(c) Depression or storm

Question 9.
What is the motto of the Indian Meteorological Department?
(a) Weather is power
(b) Rain is life
(c) Adityat Jayate Vrishti
(d) Watch the sky
Answer:
(c) Adityat Jayate Vrishti

Question 10.
Which instrument shows the direction of the wind?
(a) Rain gauge
(b) Wind vane
(c) Thermometer
(d) Hygrometer
Answer:
(b) Wind vane

Fill in the blanks

1. The ______ is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where weather occurs.
Answer:
troposphere

2. A ______ is used to measure temperature.
Answer:
thermometer

3. The amount of water vapour in the air is called ______.
Answer:
humidity

4. A ______ measures the speed of wind.
Answer:
anemometer

5. A rain gauge measures the amount of ______.
Answer:
rainfall

6. ______ is the movement of air from high- pressure to low-pressure areas.
Answer:
Wind

7. Atmospheric pressure is measured using a ______.
Answer:
barometer

8. The unit used to measure atmospheric pressure is ______.
Answer:
millibar

9. The Indian Meteorological Department was set up in the year ______.
Answer:
1875

10. The motto of the Indian Meteorological Department is “Adityat Jayate” ______.
Answer:
Vrishti

True or False

1. The troposphere is the highest layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:
False

2. A barometer is used to measure air pressure.
Answer:
True

3. Rain, snow, and hail are all forms of precipitation.
Answer:
True

4. On a humid day, clothes dry very quickly.
Answer:
False

5. Wind moves from low pressure to high pressure areas.
Answer:
False

6. Hygrometer is used to measure humidity.
Answer:
True

7. The Indian Meteorological Department was set up in 2000.
Answer:
False

8. An anemometer helps measure the direction of wind.
Answer:
False

9. Automated Weather Stations (AWS) can work without people.
Answer:
True

10. Pine cones close in dry weather and open when it rains.
Answer:
False

Match the following

Question 1.
Match the instrument to its use. Instruments Uses

Answer:

Question 2.
Match the weather element to its description. Weather Element Description

Answer:

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

There are two statements in each question marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer as per the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

1. Assertion (A): The troposphere is the layer where weather occurs.
Reason (R): The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

2. Assertion (A): A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.
Reason (R): Atmospheric pressure is the weight of the air above us.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3. Assertion (A): Wet clothes dry faster in high humidity.
Reason (R): High humidity means the air is already saturated with moisture.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

4. Assertion (A): Anemometers measure wind direction.
Reason (R): Wind direction is indicated by a wind vane.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5. Assertion (A): Acclimatisation is important for high-altitude travel.
Reason (R): The body needs time to adapt to lower oxygen levels.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

6. Assertion (A): Pine cones open in dry conditions.
Reason (R): Pine cones close to protect their seeds from rain.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

7. Assertion (A): The Indian Meteorological Department was established in 1875.
Reason (R): Its motto is “From the sun arises the rain.”
Answer:

8. Assertion (A): High humidity makes the air feel uncomfortable.
Reason (R): Sweat evaporates quickly in high humidity.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

9. Assertion (A): Automated Weather Stations (AWS) require human intervention.
Reason (R): AWS measures and records weather data automatically.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

10. Assertion (A): On humid days, our clothes take longer to dry.
Reason (R): Humid air contains more water vapour, which slows down the evaporation process.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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Students often review Class 7 SST MCQ and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 3 Climates of India MCQ Questions Online Test with Answers for quick revisions before tests.

Class 7 Climates of India MCQ with Answers

MCQ on Climates of India Class 7

Class 7 SST Chapter 3 Climates of India MCQ Questions with Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which factor has the most direct influence on the temperature of a place?
(a) Altitude
(b) Latitude
(c) Proximity to the ocean
(d) Atmospheric pressure
Answer:
(b) Latitude

Question 2.
Which region in India receives the highest annual rainfall?
(a) Cherrapunji
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Assam
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
(b) Mawsynram

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting climate?
(a) Distance from the sea
(b) Wind direction
(c) Vegetation type
(d) Air pressure
Answer:
(c) Vegetation type

Question 4.
The Thar Desert experiences extreme temperatures due to:
(a) Its proximity to the sea
(b) High humidity levels
(c) Lack of vegetation and moisture
(d) Its high altitude
Answer:
(c) Lack of vegetation and moisture

Question 5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the equatorial climate?
(a) Heavy rainfall and high humidity
(b) Hot summers and cold winters
(c) Very low rainfall throughout the year
(d) Extreme temperature variations
Answer:
(a) Heavy rainfall and high humidity

Question 6.
What is the primary cause of monsoons in India?
(a) Rotation of the Earth
(b) Differences in land and sea temperatures
(c) Movement of ocean currents
(d) Change in atmospheric composition
Answer:
(b) Differences in land and sea temperatures

Question 7.
Which city has a moderate climate due to its coastal location?
(a) Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Mumbai
(d) Lucknow
Answer:
(c) Mumbai

Question 8.
Why do higher altitude areas have lower temperatures?
(a) More exposure to the Sun
(b) Thinner air cannot retain heat
(c) Stronger winds at high altitudes
(d) Increased cloud cover
Answer:
(b) Thinner air cannot retain heat

Question 9.
Which of these winds bring rain to India?
(a) Westerlies
(b) Easterlies
(c) Monsoon winds
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(b) Easterlies

Question 10.
Which of the following best describes a cyclone?
(a) High-pressure system over the sea
(b) Rotating storm with high-speed winds
(c) A type of wind system that moves toward the poles
(d) A local wind phenomenon Answer:
Answer:
(c) A type of wind system that moves toward the poles

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Climate refers to the long-term _______ conditions of a region.
Answer:
weather

2. The Himalayas prevent cold winds from entering _______
Answer:
India

3. The western side of the Aravalli hills receives _______ rainfall.
Answer:
scanty

4. Mumbai experiences a _______ climate due to its proximity to the sea.
Answer:
moderate

5. The Thar Desert remains hot and dry due to lack of _______
Answer:
moisture

6. Winds that bring heavy rainfall to India are called _______ winds.
Answer:
monsoon

7. The Indian monsoons are caused by temperature differences between land and _______
Answer:
sea

8. The retreating monsoon causes rainfall in _______ during winter.
Answer:
Tarnil Nadu

9. _______ refers to the weight of air pressing down on Earth’s surface.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure

10. A _______ is a localized climate that differs from the surrounding region.
Answer:
microclimate

III. True or False

1. The climate of a place remains the same over short periods.
Answer:
False

2. Latitude influences the climate of a place.
Answer:
True

3. India has only four seasons—summer, winter, autumn, and spring.
Answer:
False

4. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is stronger than the Bay of Bengal branch.
Answer:
False

5. Cyclones are high-pressure systems.
Answer:
False

6. Mumbai has a continental climate.
Answer:
False

7. Mawsynram receives the highest annual rainfall in the world.
Answer:
True

8. The Thar Desert receives heavy rainfall.
Answer:
False

9. The monsoon winds blow from land to sea in winter.
Answer:
True

10. Higher altitudes generally have lower temperatures. Answer:
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following

Answer:

V. Assertion-Reason Type Questions 

There are two statements in each question marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer as per the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

1. Assertion (A): The coastal areas of India have a moderate climate.
Reason (R): Large water bodies heat up and cool down slower than land.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

2. Assertion (A): The Himalayas block the cold winds from Central Asia.
Reason (R): The Himalayas have high altitude and form a natural barrier.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3. Assertion (A): The monsoon is crucial for India’s agriculture.
Reason (R): Indian agriculture depends heavily on seasonal rainfall.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4. Assertion (A): India’s climate is influenced by various factors such as latitude, altitude, and proximity to the ocean.
Reason (R): Coastal areas experience more moderate temperatures compared to inland regions due to the cooling effect of the ocean.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

5. Assertion: Monsoons are critical to India’s agriculture as they provide necessary rainfall for crops like rice and wheat.
Reason: A good monsoon season leads to a high crop yield, which boosts economic stability and food security in India.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

6. Assertion: Cyclones primarily form over warm ocean waters.
Reason: The low-pressure system created by rising warm air causes the surrounding cooler air to rush in, forming strong winds and heavy rainfall.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

7. Assertion: The Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall due to their location and topography.
Reason: The Western Ghats block moisture-laden winds, causing them to rise and cool, resulting in heavy rainfall.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

8. Assertion: Climate change in India has led to more frequent droughts.
Reason: The increasing unpredictability of monsoons due to climate change is a major factor contributing to droughts.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

9. Assertion: Coastal cities in India, like Mumbai and Chennai, have moderate temperatures throughout the year.
Reason: The cooling influence of the ocean on coastal areas keeps temperatures mild in both summer and winter.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

10. Assertion: Floods in India are caused mainly by heavy monsoon rains, overflowing rivers, and poor drainage systems.
Reason: Flood-prone areas like Assam, Bihar, and Kerala experience the worst flooding due to these factors.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The post Climates of India Class 7 MCQ Questions SST Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students often review Class 7 SST MCQ and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 4 New Beginnings Cities and States MCQ Questions Online Test with Answers for quick revisions before tests.

Class 7 New Beginnings Cities and States MCQ with Answers

MCQ on New Beginnings Cities and States Class 7

Class 7 SST Chapter 4 New Beginnings Cities and States MCQ Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

What was a Janapada in ancient India?
(a) A religious center
(b) A small tribal village
(c) A territory or kingdom ruled by a king or a clan
(d) A market town
Answer:
(c) A territory or kingdom ruled by a king or a clan

Question 2.
What major development helped the growth of urban centers during the 1st millennium BCE?
(a) The discovery of copper
(b) The rise of Buddhism
(c) Iron metallurgy and use of iron tools
(d) Arrival of foreign traders
Answer:
(c) Iron metallurgy and use of iron tools

Question 3.
Which Mahajanapada had its capital at Raj agriha and later at Pataliputra?
(a) Avanti
(b) Kosala
(c) Magadha
(d) Vatsa
Answer:
(c) Magadha

Question 4.
How were some rulers chosen in the early Yedic period before hereditary monarchy became common?
(a) By divine selection
(b) By war
(c) By elections or decisions made in tribal assemblies
(d) By priests only
Answer:
(c) By elections or decisions made in tribal assemblies

Question 5.
Which two Mahajanapadas are known for their early democratic or republican traditions?
(a) Kashi and Kosala
(b) Magadha and Avanti
(c) Vajji and Malla
(d) Anga and Gandhara
Answer:
(c) Vajji and Malla

Question 6.
In early Vedic society, the term ‘Varna’ referred to:
(a) The different occupations people could choose
(b) A fixed caste system based on hereditary roles
(c) The ideal division of society based on function and qualities
(d) A term used for warriors only
Answer:
(c) The ideal division of society based on function and qualities

Question 7.
What major innovation contributed to the rise of the Mahajanapadas?
(a) The introduction of iron tools and weapons
(b) The discovery of writing
(c) The use of horses in warfare
(d) The establishment of Buddhist monasteries
Answer:
(a) The introduction of iron tools and weapons

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word Janapada literally means “the land where a ______ lives.”
Answer:
Jana (tribe)

2. ______ was one of the most powerful Mahajanapadas and later became the core of the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
Magadha

3. The capital of the Vajji confederacy, known for its democratic governance, was ______.
Answer:
Vaishali

4. In the Later Vedic period, society was divided into four main Vamas: Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, and ______
Answer:
Shudras

5. The use of ______ tools in agriculture helped increase food production and led to the growth of settled societies.
Answer:
Iron

6. The Jati system, unlike the Vama system, was based more on ______ and hereditary occupation.
Answer:
Birth

7. The Mahajanapada of Kosala had its capital at ______
Answer:
Shravasti

Question 8.
In early republics like Vajji, decisions were often made through assemblies called ______
Answer:
Sabha or Samiti

Question 9.
______ connected the northwest regions to the Ganga plains, all the way to eastern India.
Answer:
Uttarapatha

III. True or False

Question 1.
The term Mahajanapada means a small village or hamlet.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The Vajji confederacy is considered one of the earliest examples of a democratic republic.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
In the Vama system, people’s status was originally based on birth, not on their abilities or duties.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
The use of iron tools helped increase agricultural production in the later Vedic period.
Answer:
False

Question 5.
Mahajanapadas were governed only by kings with no input from councils or assemblies.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
The Janapadas existed before the Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Shudras were the warrior class in the Vama system.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
The Mahajanapada of Magadha was located in the region of present-day Bihar.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The capital of the Mahajanapada of Avanti was Ujjayini.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following

Answer:

V. Assertion-Reason Type Questions

There are two statements in each question marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose your answer as per the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

1. Assertion (A): The Vajji confederacy is considered one of the earliest examples of a republican form of government.
Reason (R): It was ruled by a monarch with absolute powers.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

2. Assertion (A): In the early Vedic period, the Varna system was more flexible.
Reason (R): People could change their vama based on their karma (actions) and guna (qualities).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3. Assertion (A): The introduction of iron tools contributed to the growth of the Mahajanapadas. Reason (R): Iron tools increased agricultural productivity and supported larger settlements.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4. Assertion (A): All Mahajanapadas followed hereditary monarchies.
Reason (R): Democracy was unknown in ancient India.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

5. Assertion (A): The Sangam literature provides evidence of urban centers and trade in ancient South India.
Reason (R): It was written during the later Vedic period in North India.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

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