CBSE Rivision Notes for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor

Chapter Sketch
Ausable, a secret agent, is expecting to get a very important report. Another secret agent, Max, threatens him with a pistol, demanding the report. This story tells how Ausable outwits Max by making up convincing stories.

About the Characters

• Ausable He is a secret agent who does not look like one at all, but shows great presence of mind to outwit another secret agent.
• Fowler He is a young and romantic writer who is looking for some excitement in the company of a secret agent like Ausable.
• Max A rival secret agent who is fooled by Ausable and falls to his death.

OVERVIEW OF THE CHAPTER
Meeting of Secret Agent Ausable and Writer Fowler :
Ausable was a smart secret agent, but did not look like one at all, being short and very fat. Fowler was a young writer who wanted to write about Ausable and so spent an evening with him. Fowler was feeling disappointed so far, as he could not find any characteristic of a secret agent in Ausable.

Another Secret Agent Max seen with a Pistol :
When both Ausable and fowler entered Ausable’s hotel room, another secret agent rmmed Max was waiting in the room with an automatic pistol pointed at them. Max was there because he had come to know that Ausable was going to receive an important report about some new missiles that night. Max threatened to shoot if Ausable tried to act smart.

Ausable Confuses Max :
To ensure the report’s safety as well as his own and the writer’s safety, Ausable invented a story about anybody entering his room easily through a balcony just below the window in his room. Actually there was no balcony – if anybody climbed out from the window, he would fall to his death, as the room was on the sixth floor. However, Max told them that he had entered the room through the door using a passkey.

Max Jumps In the Non-existing Balcony and Dies :
Suddenly there was a knocking on the door and Ausable pretended that it was the local police, who had been asked to provide him extra security for the important document he was about to receive. When the knocking was repeated, Max became angry at Ausable and decided to wait in the balcony (which he thought existed) until the police went away. He stepped out of the window and fell to his death.
When the door opened, a waiter came in with drinks which Ausable had ordered to be delivered to his room when he had returned to the hotel.

Chapter Highlights

1.  Ausable was a smart secret agent, but did not look like one at all, being short and very fat. Fowler was a young writer who wanted to write about Ausable and so spent an evening with him.
2.  When both of them returned to Ausable’s sixth floor hotel room, another secret agent named Max was waiting for them with a gun so that he could take the important report on new missiles from Ausable.
3.  To ensure the report’s and their own safety, Ausable invented a story about anybody entering his room easily through a balcony just below the window in his room. Actually there was no balcony.
4.  Suddenly there was a knocking on the door and Ausable pretended that it was the local police.
5.  When the knocking was repeated, Max decided to wait in the balcony (which he thought existed) until the police went away. He stepped out of the window and fell to his death.
6.  When the door opened, a waiter came in with drinks which Ausable had ordered to be delivered to his room when he had returned to the hotel.

WORD MEANINGS
The given page nos. correspond to the pages in the prescribed textbook.

The post CBSE Rivision Notes for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Rivision Notes for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 4 A Question of Trust

Chapter Sketch
Horace Danby collects rare books, and finances his hobby by breaking safes. This year, however, he is caught by a pretty young lady claiming to be the wife of the house owner. She tricks him into opening the safe and handing her the jewels. Horace is later arrested for the jewel robbery.

About the Characters
Horace Danby : He is a lock-opening expert who is caught for a jewellery robbery by trusting a woman who pretended to be a family member of the owner.
The Unknown : Woman She is a smart thief who uses Horace’s lock-opening skills to rob the jewellery from a safe.

OVERVIEW OF THE CHAPTER
Horace Danby: A Businessman and an Unusual Thief :
Horace Danby had a good reputation in society. He was about fifty years old and unmarried. He ran a business of making locks and had two helpers. But Horace was not totally honest. He loved rare and expensive books. Horace robbed a safe every year to finance his expensive hobby. He was now going for committing a robbery.

Horace Plans a Theft :
For two weeks Horace had studied the country house at Shotover Grange, whose owners normally lived in London. He wanted to burgle the jewellery lying in the safe in this house. Horace entered the house when the servants were away. He had an allergy to flowers called hay fever. He started sneezing. Then he heard a lady’s voice. She told him a cure for the sneeze.

Horace Meets a Young and Pretty Lady :
Then a young and pretty lady appeared in the doorway. She was young and pretty. His first thought was to run, as the lady told him that she would telephone the police. Horace told her to let him go and forget she ever saw him.

Lady’s Condition for Horace’s Freedom :
The lady put one condition for letting Horace go. She told him that she had promised her husband to take her jewels to the bank. She had, however, left the jewels in the safe, as she wanted to wear the jewels in a party that night. She came down to get them, but had forgotten the number combination to open the safe. So she needed his help to break open the safe. So Horace opened the safe for her and handed her the jewels to get his freedom.

Horace Got Arrested :
After two days a policeman arrested him for the jewel robbery at Shotover Grange. Horace’s fingerprints were found all over the room. He had opened the safe without using his gloves. He told the police that the lady of the house had told him to open the safe. But the actual lady was a sixty year-old woman. She said that Horace’s story was nonsense. Then Horace realised that the pretty young woman was also a jewel thief who had used his skill to steal the jewels.
Horace is now assistant librarian in prison. He often thinks of the charming and clever young lady. She was in the same profession as him. She had simply tricked him. So he gets angry when anyone talks about “honour among thieves”.

Chapter Highlights

1.  Horace Danby, who ran a business of making locks, had a good reputation in society. But he was not totally honest.
2. His hobby was collecting rare and expensive books. Horace robbed one safe every year to finance his costly hobby.
3. Horace had been studying the country house at Shotover Grange, whose owner normally lived in London, as he wanted to burgle the jewellery, worth about 15000 pounds, lying in the safe in this house.
4. Horace entered the house when the servants were away. But Horace started sneezing because he had an allergy to flowers called hay fever.
5.  Suddenly he heard a young lady’s voice saying that she could cure him. He then saw her appear in the doorway.
6.  His first thought was to run, as the lady told him that she would telephone the police. Horace told her to let him go and forget she ever saw him.
7. . The lady agreed on one condition – he should open the safe for her, as she had to wear the jewels in the safe for a party the same night, but she had forgotten the combination to open the safe.
8.  So Horace opened the safe for her and handed her the jewels to get his freedom.
9. After two days Horace was arrested for the jewel robbery at Shotover Grange. Horace’s fingerprints were found, as he had opened the safe without using his gloves.
10.  When he told the police that the lady of the house had asked him to open the safe, he was surprised to learn that the actual lady was a 60-year old woman. Horace then realised that the young woman was also a jewel thief who had used his skill to steal the jewels.
    11. Horace is now in prison. He understands now that the charming and clever young lady had simply tricked him.

WORD MEANINGS
The given page nos. correspond to the pages in the prescribed textbook.

The post CBSE Rivision Notes for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 4 A Question of Trust appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery

Read and Find Out     (Page 1)
Question 1.
Why is Mrs Pumphrey worried about Tricki?
Answer:
Mrs Pumphrey is worried about Tricki because he is unwell. He has refused to eat food and had bouts of vomiting. She feels that he is suffering from a serious health issue such as malnutrition.

Question 2.
What does she do to help him? Is she wise in this?
Answer:
Mrs Pumphrey starts giving him extra snacks like malt, cod-liver oil and Horlicks, apart from his main meals, to improve his condition. She also continues to satisfy his sweet tooth with cream cakes and chocolates. She does not give him any exercise, considering his listlessness as well. She is not wise in doing so because overfeeding Tricki is worsening his conditions instead of improving it. It has made him very fat and lazy.

Question 3.
Who does ‘I’ refer to in this story?
Answer:
‘I’ refers to the narrator, Mr James Herriot, a veterinary doctor.

Page 3

Question 4.
Is the narrator as rich as Tricki’s mistress?
Answer:
No, the narrator is not as rich as Tricki’s mistress, Mrs Pumphery. We can say so because the narrator seems fascinated by how lavishly Mrs Pumphrey spends on the well-being and maintenance of her pet. He is unusually surprised by the enriching items she sends for Tricki, as he cannot afford them for himself.

Question 5.
How does he treat the dog?
Answer:
James Herriot treats Tricki just like he would treat an overweight and lazy dog, which Tricki is. He cuts down his food intake and keeps him under strict observation for the initial days at hospital. He gradually increases Tricki’s food and sets him free for physical activities to improve his health.

Question 6.
Why is he tempted to keep Tricki on as a permanent guest?
Answer:
Mr Herriot is tempted to keep Tricki on as a permanent guest because of the good food and wine he is enjoying in Tricki’s name. He does not want to lose the luxurious inflow of fresh eggs, wine and brandy.

Question 7.
Why does Mrs Pumphrey think the dog’s recovery is ‘a triumph of surgery’?
Answer:
Mrs Pumphrey thinks that Tricki’s recovery is a triumph of surgery because his illness was very serious. She was of the opinion that there were very few chances of Tricki to improve and he needed immediate medical attention. Thus, his revival without any medicinal treatment was a great achievement, according to her.

Think About It             (Page 6)
Question 1.
What kind of a person do you think the narrator, a veterinary surgeon, is? Would you say he is tactful as well as full of common sense?
Answer:
The narrator, a veterinary surgeon, is a capable and wise doctor. He handles Tricki properly which shows that he is sincere about his profession.
He does not operate upon the dog unnecessarily and cures him by altering his diet and activities.
He is a tactful person as he knew exactly how to convince Mrs Pumphrey to hospitalise Tricki for a surgery. His decision to inform Mrs Pumphrey to collect Tricki supports his sensibilities even though he was tempted to keep Tricki as a permanent guest.

Question 2.
Do you think Tricki was happy to go home? What do you think will happen now?
Answer:
Tricki was happy to go back home as he really loved his mistress and the comfort of his lavish life. He didn’t have any friends at home like in the hospital, but he seemed equally excited at the sight of Mrs Pumphrey. I think that Mrs Pumphrey will now be careful about Tricki’s diet and health. She may also give him exercise daily as prescribed by the vet earlier.

Question 3.
Do you think it is a real-life episode or mere fiction? Or is it a mixture of both?
Answer:
The story seems to be a mixture of both. It may be possible for rich persons to overfeed their pets due to love. It is not unusual for them to maintain a vast wardrobe for them either. But it is unlikely for a veterinary doctor to go out of the way and lie in order to save an animal. It is also unusual for anyone to consume food which is given in the name of a pet’s health.

Talk About It            (Page 7)
Question 1.
This episode describes the silly behaviour of a rich woman who is foolishly indulgent, perhaps because she is lonely. Do you think such people are merely silly or can their actions cause harm to others?
Answer:
Mrs Pumphrey’s actions had a harmful reaction on Tricki’s health. She was overparenting’ and overfeeding Tricki in the name of love. This worsened his condition to an extent that he had to be hospitalised. People like Mrs Pumphrey are not just merely silly but their actions can definitely have dangerous consequences for others.

Question 2.
Do you think there are also parents like Mrs Pumphrey?
Answer:
Yes, there are some parents like Mrs Pumphrey who spoil their children by pampering them. They overfeed their children/pets despite being aware of the harmful effects on their health. Parents like Mrs Pumphrey should maintain a healthy lifestyle of their family and pets.

Question 3.
What would you have done if you were :

1. a member of the staff in Mrs Pumphrey’s household,
2.  a neighbour? What would your life have been like, in general?

Answer:

1.  If I were a member of the staff in her household I would have not followed Mrs Pumphrey’s command to feed Tricki blindly. In fact, I would have fed him according to the vet’s advice. I would have also skipped sending the unnecessary stuff like toys, cushions etc to the hospital. My life would have been a very busy one, as I would have had to take care of the household chores and meet Tricki’s demands on time.
2.  If I were Mrs Pumphrey’s neighbour, I would have advised her to consult a vet and follow his advice strictly keeping in mind Tricki’s deteriorating health. I would have also been supportive in their hard time when Tricki was hospitalised. My life as Mrs Pumphrey’s neighbour would have been full of surprises and gifts as Mrs Pumphrey was a loving lady.

Question 4.
What would you have done if you were in the narrator’s place?
Answer:
If I were in the narrator’s place, I would have treated Tricki with a similar amount of compassion and love. I would have been equally caring as Mr James Herriot towards Tricki. I would have just been a little more stern while advising Mrs Pumphrey to put Tricki on a strict diet knowing her way of showing love. I would have also not consumed Tricki’s share of eggs, wine and brandy sent by Mrs Pumphrey.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 2 The Thief’s Story

Read and Find Out Page 8
Question 1.
Who does ‘I’ refer to in this story?
Answer:
I refers to Hari Singh, the narrator of the story who is a 15 year old experienced thief.

Question 2.
What is he “a fairly successful hand” at?
Answer:
He is a fairly successful hand at stealing. He is an experienced thief. He is so clean and swift in his work that he robs people without being caught.

Question 3.
What does he get from Anil in return for his work?
Answer:
In return of Hari Singh’s work, Anil gives him food and a place to live in.

Page 10
Question 4.
How does the thief think Anil will react to the theft?
Answer:
According to Hari, Anil would be sad not because of the loss of money but because of the loss of trust he had in Hari.

Question 5.
What does he say about the different reactions of people when they are robbed?
Answer:
Hari’s experience at theft had made him aware of differences in reactions of peofJle when they’re robbed. According to him, a greedy man shows fear; the rich, anger and a poor man, acceptance.

Question 6.
Does Anil realise that he has been robbed?
Answer:
Yes, Anil realised that he had been robbed, as he gave a fifty rupee note to Hari which was still damp due to the night’s rain.

Think About It (Page 13)
Question 1.
What are Hari Singh’s reactions at the prospect of receiving an education? Do they change overtime? {Hint: compare, for example, the thought: ‘I knew that once I could write like an educated man there would be no limit to what I could achieve’ with these later thoughts:
‘Whole sentences, I knew, could one day bring me more than a few hundred rupees. It was a simple matter to steal and sometimes just as simple to be caught. But to be a really big man, a clever and respected man, was something else.’) What makes him return to Anil?
Answer:
Hari was very happy and grateful when he learned to write his name. He was very excited when Anil promised to teach him to write whole sentences as well. He knew that being an educated man will add to his abilities and he could achieve anything. But when he left Anil’s house, he realised that stealing was simply a crime to indulge himself but being educated was an entirely different thing. He knew the respect, reputation and possibilities that would come to him once he was educated. And so his urge to receive education compelled him to return to Anil.

Question 2.
Why does Anil not hand the thief over to the police? Do you think most people would have done so? In what ways is Anil different from such employers?
Answer:
Unlike others, Anil does not handover Hari to the police on theft charges. He knew about the theft but he did not thrash him nor even mentioned it in front of Hari. He was glad that Hari had realised his mistake and the importance of education in life.
Anil wanted Hari to become a literate man and lead a respectful life.
He is different from other such employers because he is very understanding. Hari’s return gave him the hope of a change in him.

Talk About It (Page 13)
Question 1.
Do you think people like Anil and Hari Singh are found only in fiction, or are there such people in real life?
Answer:
People like Anil and Hari Singh are found only in fiction. Though exceptions might be there, these people are rarely found. Anil was a kind and considerate person who was concerned, about Hari’s education and future. And Hari was a thief whose heart changes after realising the importance of education for his future. People like these are imaginary in today’s world.

Question 2.
Do you think it is a significant detail i story that Anil is a struggling writer? this explain his behaviour in any way
Answer:
Yes, it is a significant detail that Anil is a struggling writer. His lifestyle was simple and used to spend according to his pocket at all time His struggle sometimes gave him a lot of income while at other times he used to worry about the next payment. Hari’s observation about the discontinuation in his work justifies his behave regarding money.

Question 3.
Have you met anyone like Hari Singh? Can you think and imagine the circumstances that can turn a fifteen year old boy into a thief?
Answer:
No, I haven’t met anyone like Hari Singh but the existence of such people is certain. A fifteen year old boy can be forced by circumstances to become a thief. It may be the need to feed the stomach, to satisfy illegal addiction, to maintain health, to fulfil luxurious demands etc

Question 4.
Where is the story set? (You can get clues from the names of the persons and places mentioned in it). Which language or languages are spoken in these places? Do you think the characters in the story spoke to each other in English?
Answer:
The story is set somewhere in Uttar Pradesh near Lucknow. We can say so because the story mentions that there is a railway station for Express train to Lucknow. The presence of sweet shops and bazaars also indicate it to be a decent-sized town. No, the characters in the story do not speak to each other in English but probably in Hindi.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 2 The Thief’s Story appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor

Read and Find Out     (Page 14)
Question 1.
How is Ausable different from other secret agents?
(or)
What great qualities made Ausable a successful secret agent? CBSE 2013
(or)
How was Ausable different from other secret agents? CBSE 2011
(or)
How is Ausable different from other secret agents? How does he deal with Max? CBSE 2012
Answer:
Ausable is different from other secret agents in more ways than one. He has a small room in the musty corridor of a gloomy French hotel. It was on the sixth and top floor and it was scarcely the setting for a romantic adventure. He was extremely fat. In spite of living in Paris for over twenty years, he spoke French and German with difficulty and had an American accent. Instead of getting messages passed secretly to him by beautiful girls, he got only a routine telephone call making an appointment. In these ways, he was different from the conventional notion of a secret agent.
He dealt with Max by inventing some stories and convincing Max to act on them, so that he could get rid of Max permanently.

Question 2.
Who is Fowler and what is his first authentic thrill of the day?
Answer:
Fowler is a writer and he had come to meet Ausable. His first authentic thrill of the day came when he saw a man in Ausable’s room pointing a pistol towards Ausable and himself.

Page 15
Question 3.
How has Max got in?
Answer:
Max had got into the room using a passkey or master key.

Question 4.
How does Ausable say he got in?
Answer:
Ausable said that he thought Max had got into the room through the balcony. He said that it was the second time in a month that somebody had got into his room this way.

Think About It                (Page 18)
Question 1.
‘Ausable did not fit any description of a secret agent Fowler had ever read.” What do secret agents in books and films look like, in your opinion? Discuss in groups or in class some stories or movies featuring spies, detectives and secret agents, and compare their appearance with that of Ausable in this story. (You may mention characters from fiction in languages other than English. In English fiction you may have come across Sherlock Holmes, Hercule Poirot, or Miss Marple. Have you watched any movies featuring James Bond?)
Answer:
Secret agents in fiction are projected like ideal men, ‘Tall dark and handsome’. They are usually well-built and keep beautiful women for company. They would smoke a pipe (like Sherlock Holmes) or a cigar and execute death-defying stunts (like James Bond). Movies based on James Bond show hi-tech gadgets which assist the detective in countering villains. However, there are some exceptions to this appearance of a secret agent also. A character named Feluda was created by Satyajit Ray, the famous Bengali filmmaker. Feluda was a tall athletic figure who relied on his superb analytical ability and observation skill.

Question 2.
How does Ausable manage to make Max believe that there is a balcony attached to his room? Look back at his detailed description of it. What makes it a convincing story?
Answer:
Ausable creates a detailed description of how his office was part a bigger apartment and how the next room had a direct connection with a balcony. His statement that . somebody else also broke into his office through that balcony earlier made it a convincing story. Ausable’s ability to think quickly and calmly in a situation of panic makes it convincing.

Question 3.
Looking back at the story, when do you think Ausable thought up his plan for getting rid of Max? Do you think he had worked out his plan in detail right from the beginning? Or did he make up a plan taking advantage of events as they happened?
Answer:
No, I don’t think that he had worked out his plan in detail earlier. He took advantage of events as they happened. Ausable made up a story of the balcony outside the room and as there was a knock at the door, he said that it would be the police. All these made Max desperate. He became restless and without seeing below, jumped out of the window.

Talk About It                   (Page 18)
Question 1.
In this story, Ausable shows great ‘presence of mind’, or the ability to think quickly and act calmly and wisely, in a situation of danger and surprise. Give examples from your own experience, or narrate a story, which shows someone’s presence of mind.
Answer:
This story refers to the play ‘If I Were You’. Gerrard was held hostage by a criminal. However, Gerrard treated the criminal as a guest and trapped him with his confidence. He managed to convince the criminal to run away as the police is behind him. He told the criminal to run through the exit door, which was actually a cupboard door. The criminal exited through the door and was trapped in the cupboard.

Question 2.
Discuss what you would do in the situations described below. Remember that presence of mind comes out of a state of mental preparedness. If you have thought about possible problems or dangers, and about how to act in such situations, you have a better chance of dealing with such situations if they do arise.

1. A small fire starts in your kitchen.
2. A child starts to choke on a piece of food.
3. An electrical appliance starts to hiss and gives out sparks.
4. A bicycle knocks down a pedestrian.
5. It rains continuously for more than twenty-four hours.
6. A member of your family does not return home at the usual or expected time.

You may suggest other such situations.
Answer:

1. If a blanket is available, it should be put over the fire to shut out the air. If the fire is not due to an electrical problem, water can be thrown on it. If it is due to a short-circuit, electricity must be disconnected immediately from everything in the kitchen before taking any other measure.
2. The child’s back must be thumped slowly until the piece of food stuck is vomited out. However, in case it continues, the child should be given trained medical aid immediately.
3. Electricity to the appliance should be immediately disconnected. If it is plugged into a socket, the plug must be removed from the socket. Later on the appliance may be got repaired by an authorised person.
4. First aid should be given to the pedestrian at once. Public help may also be asked, if necessary. Depending on the seriousness of the injury, the affected person may be shifted to hospital.
5. Flooding may be caused by a heavy downpour. So all necessary precautions for saving various possessions should be taken, besides informing the concerned authorities to take preventive action.
6. A family member not returning home at the usual time should be enquired for at the place he or she was expected to visit. If he or she was with friends, these friends or the friends’ families should be contacted. If there is no result from these enquiries, as a last resort, the lcical police may be informed.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 International Organisations

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the veto power:
(a) Only the permanent members of the Security Council possess the veto power.
(b) It’s a kind of negative power.
(c) The Secretary General uses this power when not satisfied with any decision.
(d) One veto can stall a Security Council resolution.
Answer: (a) Correct (b) Correct
(c) Wrong (d) Correct
(e) India (f) Maldives
(g) India (h) Nepal

2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the way the UN functions:
(a) All security and peace related issues are dealt within the Security Council.
(b) Humanitarian policies are implemented by the main organs and specialised agencies spread across the globe.
(c) Having consensus among five permanent members on security issues is vital for its implementation.
(d) The members of the General Assembly are automatically the members of all other principal organs and specialised agencies of the UN.
Answer: (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

3. Which among the following would give more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council?
(a) Nuclear capability
(b) It has been a member of the UN since its inception.
(c) It is located in Asia.
(d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system.
Answer: (d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system.

4. The UN agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology is:
(a) The UN Committee on Disarmament
(b) International Atomic Energy Agency
(c) UN International Safeguard Committee
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b) International Atomic Energy Agency

5. WTO is serving as the successor to which of the following organisations:
(a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) UN Development Programme
Answer: (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

6. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The prime objective of UN is
(b) The highest functionary of the UN is called
(c) The UN Security Council has permanent and non permanent members.
(d) is the present UN Secretary General.
Answer: (a) to maintain peace and security
(b) Secretariat
(c) 5, 10
(d) Ban-ki-Moon

7. Match the principal organs and agencies of the UN with their functions:
A. 1. Economic and Social Council
2. International Court of Justice
3. International Atomic Energy Agency
4. Security Council
5. UN High Commission for Refugees
6. World Trade Organisation
7. International Monetary Fund
8. General Assembly
9. World Health Organisation
10. Secretariat
B. (a) Oversees the global financial system.
(b) Reservation of international peace and security.
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member countries.
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology.
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.
(i) Providing good health for all.
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
Answer: 1. Economic and Social Council—
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member
countries.
2. International Court of Justice—
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
3. International Atomic Energy Agency—
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology
4. Security Council—
(b) Reservation of international peace and security
5. UN High Commission for Refugees—
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
6. World Trade Organisations—
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
7. International Monetary Fund—
(a) Overseas the global financial system.
8. General Assembly—
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
9. World Health Organisation—
(j) Providing good health for all.
10. Secretariat—
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.

8. What are the functions of Security Council?
Answer: Its main function is to maintain peace and security in the world and the other functions are as follows:
1. The Security Council recommends methods to adjust disputes among nations.
2. Security Council can take military action if required.
3. Security Council elects the judges of International Court of Justice and appoints the Secretary General by recommending to the General Assembly.
4. Security Council can apply economic sanction also to stop any aggression.
5. The Security Council can investigate the disputes in case a friction arises.

9. As a citizen of India, how would you support India’s candidature for the permanent membership of Security Council? Justify your proposal.
Answer: As a citizen of India, we may support India’s candidature for the permanent membership of Security Council in the following manner:
1. India is the most populous country in the world with one-fifth of world population.
2. India is world’s largest democracy.
3. India’s economic emergence on the World Stage.
4. India is a regular financial contributor to the UN.
5. India signifies a growing importance in world affairs in conduct of its foreign policy.
6. India participated in all the initiatives of the UN.

10. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN.
Answer: The following are the question marks in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN:
1. How big an economic and military power may qualify to become UNSC membership?
2. What level of budget contribution should be enabled?
3. No guarantee to be effective as Council Member in respect for democracy and human rights.
4. Why should the issue of equitable representation decided by geography? Why not by levels of economic development?
5. Why not to give more seats to members of developing world?
All the above mentioned criteria which were adopted bud not universally accepted. Hence, the difficulties were involved.

11. Though the UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation. What makes the UN an indispensable organisation?
Answer: 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international organisations such as the UN.
2. To enforce cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the world,, the UN and its specialised agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the best possible way.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing related wars and miseries, despite the nations require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace and understanding.

12. “Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council”. Do you agree with this statement? Give arguments for or against this position.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because Security Council plays a crucial role in functioning of the UN. In today’s scenario power equations have been changed with the disintegration of USSR and many new countries are entering into the UN:
1. The UN charter has given a privileged position to permanent members to bring stability all over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
2. Except permanent members enjoy veto power to be placed in a valuable position.
3. Permanent members category is from industrialised developed country which should be balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members.
4. Hence, Security Council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more effective i.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of contribution to peace keeping initiatives.

MORE QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Who is present Secretary General of the United Nations?
Answer: Ban-Ki-Moon from South Korea.

2. Name any two member states of the European Union who are permanent members of the UN Security Council.
Answer: Britain and France

3. What is the main objective of the United Nations?
Answer: To prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states.

4. Mention any two agencies of the United Nations.
Answer: 1. International Monetary Fund.
2. World Health Organisation.
Ans. Amnesty International is an NGO, which was established to campaign for protection of human rights all over the world. Its objective is to promote respect for all the human beings and human rights in the universal declaration of Human Rights.

5. How many member countries have got veto power in the UN Security Council and why?
Answer: Five permanent member countries i.e France, Russia, UK, the US, China got veto power because they have been emerged as industrialised developed countries to stall any decision.

6. Mention any two advantages of having international organisation in the world?
Answer: 1. To help countries in the matters of conflicts and differences.
2. To make the countries cooperate and create better living conditions for humanity.

7. State any two objectives of the UN.
Answer: 1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To facilitate cooperation among member countries by avoiding conflicts and war.

8. State any two objectives of Human Rights watch.
Answer: 1. To draw global media’s attention to human rights abuses.
2. To help in building international coalitions like the campaigns to ban land-mines, to stop the use of child soldier, and to establish international criminal court.

9. What reforms in the UN are required?
Answer: Following reforms are required in the UN:
1. Reform of the organisation’s structures and processes.
2. A review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction of the organisation.
3. Reforms are required due to certain limitations to the UN i.e. only five members on permanent basis in the UN Security Council and their veto power, dominance of few powerful countries etc.

10. Discuss the resolution adopted by General Assembly in 1992 over the reform of the UN Security Council.
Answer: In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution, which reflected three main complaints:
1. The UN Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
2. Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few7 powers.
3. It lacks equitable representation. Considering above mentioned demands for restructuring of the UN on 01 January 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry into how the UN should be reformed.

11. What is the veto power? Should it be modified?
Answer: The veto power is a negative vote to stall any decision by five permanent members of UN Security Council. Sometimes the moves have been made to modify this but it is presumed to have a danger to lose interest by great powers, and without their support and involvement such organisation would become ineffective.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the U.N.
Answer: In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main complaints—
• The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
• Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
• It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?
1. India’s nuclear weapon capabilities
2. If India is included, some emerging powers (Brazil, Germany, Japan, South Africa) will also be accommodated.
3. France and the US advocate that Africa and South America must be represented for they do not have any representation in the present structure.

2. What steps should be taken to make the UN more relevant in the changing context?
Answer: (a) Creation of Peace Building Commission.
(b) Acceptance of responsibility of international community in case of failures of national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
(c) Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
(d) An agreement to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Countries have conflicteand differences with each other. That does not necessarily mean they must go to war to deal with their antagonisms. They can instead discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions, indeed, even though this is rarely noticed most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war. The role of an international organisation is not a super-state with authority over its members. It is created by and responds to states. It comes into being when states agree to its creation. Once created, it can help member states resolve their problems peacefully.

Questions
1. Is this necessary to engage into wars during conflicts among countries?
2. Is an international organisation a super state?
3. What is the significance of international organisation?
Answer:
1. No, instead countries can discuss contentious issues to find peaceful solutions.
2. No, it is created by and responds to states and comes into being when study agrees to its creation.
3. To help member states to resolve problems peacefully without going to war.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
By 2006, the UN had 192 member states. These included almost all independent states. In the UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each. In the UN Security Council, there are five permanent members. These are the US, UK, Russia, France, China. These states were selected as permanent members as they were most powerful immediately after the Second World War and because they constituted the victors in the war.

Questions
1. How many member states were there in the UN 2006?
2. Name five permanent members of UN Security Council.
3. Why these states were selected as permanent?
Answer:
1. There were 192 member states in the UN by 2006.
2. The UK, US, China, Russia and France are the permanent members.
3. Because they were most powerful immediately after the Second World War and constituted the victors in the war.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Describe any six criteria for the new membership of Security Council as suggested after 1997.
Answer: A new member, as suggested after 1997, should be
(i ) A major economic power
(ii) A major military power.
(iii) A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
(iv) A big nation in terms of its populations.
(v) A nation that respects democracy and human rights
(vi) A country that would make the Council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic system, and culture.

2. Examine the role played by India in the implementation of UN policies and programmes.
Answer: 1. India believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in the changing world.
2. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation among states.
3. India believes that the development
should be central to the UN’s agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of international peace and security.
4. India debates more representation in Security Council may enjoy greater support in world community.
5. India has major concern about restructuring of UN Security Council.
6. India supports the role of developing countries should be represented in Security Council in decision making.

3. How far did the UN perform its role successor fully in maintaining peace in the world? Explain.
Answer: 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international organisations such as the UN.
2. To enhance cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the world, the UN and its specialized agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the best possible.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing any related wars and miseries, despite the nations require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace and understanding.

4. Suggest any six steps since 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.
Answer: In September 2005, the UN celebrated its 60th anniversary and leaders decided to make it more relevant in the changing context by following steps:
1. Creation of Peace Building Commission.
2. Acceptance of the responsibility of the international community in case of failures of national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
3. Establishment of a Human Rights Council (Operational Since 19 June 2006).
4. Agreements to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
5. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
6. Creation of a Democracy Fund.
7. An agreement to wind up the Trusteeship Council.

5. Can the UN serve as a balance against the US dominance?
Answer: No, the UN can not serve against the US dominance in a comfort zone because:
1. The US has been the only superpower after 1991 and may ignore international organisations economically and militarily.
2. Its veto power can stop any move damaging its interests.
3. The US enjoys a considerable degree of say in the selection of the UN Secretary General.
Besides the above mentioned grounds, the UN is playing an effective role to argument against the US attitudes and policies and makes compromises and concessions even or the part of the US. The EU performs as an important bloc in International Economic Organisations such as WTO but SAARC has initiated SAFTA only to cooperate economically among its member states.

Picture/Map Based Questions[5 Marks]
Al. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Who is the person being commented in the cartoon?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. It represents role of the UN on attack on Lebanan by Israeli forces.
2. The UN Secretary General.
3. It conveys message on relevance of the UN as immediate follow-up was not there by Israeli forces despite passing a resolution from the UN.

2. Study the picture  given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What type of crisis does the cartoon show?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. A humanitarian crisis in Darfur, Sudan.
2. Starvation, genocide, horror etc.
3. ‘A Big Helping of Words’ only because during these crises, the international organisations performed debates, speeches on these but no actual aid or support was reached to peoples.

B. On a political outline map of the world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. Five permanent members of UN Security Council and symbolise them as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2. Locate and label peace keeping operations.
Answer:
1. 1. France 2. Russia
3. The UK
4. The US
5. China
2. (A) Cyprus 1964
(B) Lebanon 1978
(C) Israel 1974
(D) Sudan 2005
(E) East Timor 2006

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science International Organisations appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2  The End of Bipolarity

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which among the following statements that describe the nature of Soviet economy is wrong?
(a) Socialism was the dominant ideology.
(b) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production.
(c) People enjoyed economic freedom.
(d) Every aspect of the economy was planned and contained by the state.
Answer: (c) People enjoyed economic freedom.

2. Arrange the following in chronological order:
(a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(b) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(c) Disintegration of Soviet Union
(d) Russian Revolution
Answer:  I. (d) Russian Revolution (1917)
II. (a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan (1979)
III. (b) Fall of the Berlin Wall (Nov 1989)
IV. (c) Disintegration of Soviet Union

3. Which among the following is NOT an outcome of the disintegration of the USSR?
(a) End of the ideological war between the US and USSR
(b) Birth of CIS
(c) Change in the balance of power in the world order
(d) Crises in the Middle East
Answer:  (d) Crises in the Middle East

4. Match the following:

Answer:  (i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iti)-(a); (iv)-(e); (v)-(b)

5. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The Soviet Political System was
based on ideology.
(b) was the military alliance
started by the USSR.
(c) party dominated the
Soviet Union’s political system.
(d) initiated the reforms
in the USSR in 1985.
(e) The fall of the symbolised
the end of the Cold War.
Answer: (a) socialist (b) Warsaw Pact
(c) Communist (d) Gorbachev
(e) Berlin wall

6. Mention any three features that distinguish the Soviet economy from that of a capitalist country like the US.
Answer:  The three features that distinguish the Soviet economy from that of a capitalist country like the US, can be summed up as follows:
1. Soviet economy experienced a complex communication network, vast energy resources and an efficient transport sector to connect its remotest areas.
2. Soviet Union industries produced every domestic product from pin to cars, whose quality might not match with that of the west technology.
3. Soviet Union ensured a minimum standard of living for all its citizens. Consequently Government subsidised basic necessities including health, education, children and other welfare schemes.
4. There was an absence of unemployment in Soviet Union.
5. Land and productive assets were owned by the state only.

7. What were the factors that forced Gorbachev to initiate the reforms in the USSR?
Answer:  Mikhail Gorbachev was the General Secretary of Communist Party of Soviet Union in 1985. He was forced to initiate the reforms in the USSR due to following reasons:
1. To keep the USSR abreast of information and technological revolutions at par the West.
2. To normalise the relations with that of the West.
3. To democratise the Soviet System.
4. To loosen the administrative system which exempted ordinary people from the privileges.

8. What were the major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for countries like India?
Answer: The major consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union for countries like India can be analysed as follows:
1. Disintegration of Soviet Union gave an end to Cold War confrontations and to ideological disputes between two superpowers.
2. Military alliances had been abolished and demand arose for world peace and security.
3. Multipolar system was surpassed to exist where no single power could dominate and a group of countries could play a crucial role in world politics like NAM Countries.
4. The US became the sole superpower and capitalist economy became dominant at international level. World Bank and IMF became powerful advisors due to their economic support to these countries during transitional period.
5. The motion of liberal democracy emerged as a way to organise political life.
6. Due to disintegration of Soviet Union many new countries emerged with the independent aspirations and choices.
7. The Baltic and East European states wanted to join European Union and became the part of NATO. The Central Asian countries took the advantage of their geographical location and continued close ties with Russia, West, China and others.

9. What was Shock Therapy? Was this the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism?
Answer:  Shock Therapy was a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. This transformation system was influenced by the world bank and the IMF in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe. Though it varies in intensity and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite similar.
This was not the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism due to following drawbacks:
1. Russia, the large state controlled industrial complex lost about 90 per cent of its industries through sales to private individuals and companies
2. It created “the largest garage sale in history” which led virtual disappearance of entire industries for the restructuring was carried out by market forces in place of government owned policies.
Hence, industries were undervalued and sold at throwaway prices.
3. It systematically destroyed old system of social welfare.
4. The value of ‘ruble’, the Russian currency, declined dramatically due to high rate of inflation and real GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.
5. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of society into poverty and it emerged mafia to start controlling many economic activities.
6. Privatisation led to new disparities which divided Russia between rich and poor people creating economic inequality.
7. Hence, Shock Therapy brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire region.

10. Write an essay for or against the following proposition. “With the disintegration of the second world, India should change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with the US rather than with traditional friends like Russia”.
Answer:  India should not change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with US, but India is required to maintain healthy relations with Russia because India has experienced a long band of mutual trust, interests and popular perceptions with Russia in the following manner:
1. Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order i.e. co¬existence of several world powers internationally, collective security, greater regionalism, democratisation with the decision-making through bodies like the UN.
2. More than 80 bilateral agreements have been experienced between India and Russia as a part of the Indo- Russia Strategic Agreement of 2001.
3. India has been benefitted from its relationship on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia and balancing its relation with China.
4. Russia is also important for India’s nuclear energy plane and assisting India’s space industry by giving cryogenic rocket to India whenever needed.
5. Co-operation with Russia and its republics like Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan in the form of partnership and investment in oil fields has also benefitted India.
6. Russia is also benefitted from India on ground of the second largest arms market for Russia. Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
7. Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects also.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. When did Socialist Revolution take place in Russia?
Answer:  1917.

2. What was Shock Therapy?
Answer:  Shock Therapy was the transitional form from authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe under the influence of the World Bank and IMF.

3. What was the largest garage sale in history?
Answer:  Largest garage sale in history was resulted due to shock therapy to undervalue the valuable industries of the USSR to sell them at throwaway prices.

4. What was the immediate cause of disintegration of USSR?
Answer:  The rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty within various republics including Russia and the Baltic Republic (Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania), Ukraine, Georgia and others proved to be the most immediate cause for disintegration of the USSR.

5. What was Socialist Bloc?
Answer:  The Second World countries or the group of east European countries who were liberated from fascist forces, followed the model of the USSR, known as Socialist Bloc.

6. What is the new name of former USSR?
Answer:  Russia.

7. When did the Berlin Wall fall?
Answer:   November 1989.

8. Who was the General Secretary of Communist Party of Soviet Union in 1985?
Answer:   Mikhail Gorbachev.

9. Mention the role of Boris Yeltsin in the disintegration of the USSR.
Answer:  Boris Yeltsin had emerged as national hero after popular election in Russian Republic. In Dec 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared themselves independent.

10. What does CIS stand for?
Answer:  Commonwealth of Independent States.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. What is meant by Shock Therapy?
Answer:  The ‘Shock Therapy’ was the state of affairs which signifies the collapse of communism followed by a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system-
1. ‘Shock Therapy’ administered in the year 1900 not to lead the people into the promised utopia of mass consumption.
2. It brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire region.

2. Why is it said that collapse of Berlin wall signified the collapse of bipolar world?
Answer:  Collapse of Berlin Wall unified the
divided Germany and eight east European countries of the Soviet Bloc replaced their Communist government resulting into disintegration of Soviet Union. With the disintegration of Soviet Union, military alliances came to an end and the world became unipolar.

3. Mention any two characteristics of Soviet Political System.
Answer:  1. The Soviet Political System central around the Communist Party and no other political party or opposition was allowed.
2. The economy was planned and controlled by the state only.
Or
The one party system had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to people.
3. People locked democracy and were snatched away their right to freedom of speech and expression.

4. “The Soviet Union lagged behind the West”. Comment. 
Answer. The Soviet Union lagged behind the West in technology, infrastructure (transport, power etc.) as it could not cope with the political and economic aspirations of people and resulted in:
1. Though wages continued to grow but productivity and technology fell considerably behind that of the West.
2. This led to shortage of consumer goods and increased food import every year.
3. The above mentioned reasons made the Soviet economy stagnant.

5. Mention some features of Soviet Society.
Answer:  1. Soviet Society gave priority to the state and party institutions only.
2. Only the Communist Party was ruling over there and no opposition was allowed.
3. The economy was planned and controlled by the state only.
4. The Soviet Union became the great power after the Second World War.

6. Write anote onformationof Commonwealth of Independent States.
Answer:  Disintegration of the USSR gave birth to Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) when under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared themselves as independent and gave a surprise to other republics especially to central Asian Republics. This issue was resolved quickly by making these republics as founding
members of the CIS and Russia became the successor state who inherited the Soviet sea in the UN and accepted all the international treaties and commitments.

7. Mention any two possibilities which were being presumed in changed scenario of world politics after disintegration of the USSR.
Answer: 1. The US, the only superpower could dominate the world and make a unipolar world.
2. A multipolar world could also exist where no other power could dominate or the group of countries could participate in the international affairs.

8. How did the USSR come into existence?
Answer:  The USSR came into existence after the Socialist revolution in Russia in 1917 with the inspiration of socialism and a need of egalitarian society who opposed capitalism. This was considered the biggest attempt in human history to abolish the institution of private property and to design a society based on equality.

9. Who was Gorbachev? Why did he seek to reform Soviet Society?
Answer:  Gorbachev was the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985. He was forced by the following factors to seek reforms in Soviet Society:
1. To keep the USSR abreast of the
information and technological revolutions.
2. To bring Soviet economy at par with the west.
3. To loosen the administrative system.
4. To democratise Soviet System and to normalise relations with the west.

10. How did Shock Therapy affect trade and commerce of Russia?
Answer. Shock Therapy affected trade and commerce of Russia in the following manner:
1. The value of Ruble, the Russian ’ currency declined.
2. Inflation rose at a very high rate and it lost all savings of people.
3. Lack of productivity and technology created shortage of food which increased food imports every year.
4. The GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.

11. When and how did Russia revive its economy?
Answer: Russia revived its economy in 2000 by the export of natural resources like oil, natural gas and minerals. Even other countries have also gained due to crossing of pipelines from their region and they have been paid a rent. Russia has started some manufacturing units also to revive its economy.

12. Write a note on tension and conflicts that occurred in Russia.
Answer:  In Russia, two republics—Chechnya and Dagestan—had violent secessionist movements. Moscow’s method of dealing with the Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings have led to many human rights violation but failed to deter the aspirations for ‘independence’.

13. Mention the methods of‘Shock Therapy’ amongst the former Second World countries.
Answer:  1. The newly evolved criterion required to make a total shift to a capitalist economy to root out completely any structures evolved during Soviet period.
2. Shock therapy involved a drastic change in the external orientation.
3. Sudden and complete switch to free trade was considered essential.
4. It also involved openness to foreign investment, financial opening up and currency convertibility.

14. “ The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed”. With reference to Shock Therapy, justify the statement. 
Ans:  1. The Government withdrew subsidies and pushed people into poverty.
2. The middle classes were pushed to the periphery of society and the academic and intellectual manpower migrated.
3. A mafia had been emerged and started controlling many economic activities.
4. Privatisation led to new disparities.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Describe any four consequences of the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Answer: (i) The disintegration of Soviet Union meant the end of Cold War confrontations which demanded the end of armed race and restoration of possible peace.
(ii) This disintegration created the possibility to bring in a ‘multipolar system’ where no power could dominate.
(iii) The US became the sole superpower and the ‘capitalist economy’ was now dominant economic system at international level.
(iv) This disintegration emerged in many new countries dividing Soviet Union into 15 independent countries alongwith their own aspirations and choices.

2. Explain any two reasons for disintegration of the USSR.
Answer:  1. The internal weaknesses of Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the aspirations of the people.
2. Economic stagnation for many years led to severed consumer shortage and a large section of Soviet society began to double the system because Communist Party was not accountable to peoples.

3. What were the political reasons for disintegration of Soviet Union?
Answer:  1. The Communist Party of Soviet Union had ruled for over 70 years but it was not accountable to people.
2. Ordinary people had been alienated and were exempted from enjoying the privileges and to participate actively in political affairs.
3. Due to slow and stifling administration, the inability of system to correct mistakes lost popular support.
4. The centralisation of authority in > vast land.

4. In what manner Gorbachev’s reform policy was protested? Who took the command during these events?
Answer. 1. The East European countries which were the part of the Soviet Bloc, started to protest against their own
government and Soviet control.
2. Boris Yeltsin took the command during these events as he got popular support of people in the elections and began to shake off centralised control.
3. Power began to shift from centre to the republics which declared themselves independent.
4. In December 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Baltics declared themselves as sovereign states.

5. Why did Soviet system become so weak and Soviet economy stagnant?
Answer:  Soviet system became so weak and Soviet economy stagnant due to the following reasons:
1. The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals.
2. Soviet economy concentrated on the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe especially in the five central Asian Republics.
3. This led to a huge economic burden on people to be coped up with.
4. Ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advancement of the West and backwardness of Soviet system.

6. Why did Gorbachev’s reform policy fail in spite of his accurate diagnosis of the problem?
Answer. 1. When Gorbachev carried out his reforms and loosened the system, he set in motion forces and expectations that few could have predicted and became virtually impossible to control.
2. Some sections of Soviet Society felt that Gorbachev should have moved much faster and were disappointed and impatient with him.
3. The members of communist party felt that their power and privileges were eroding and Gorbachev was moving too quickly.
4. In this tug of war, Gorbachev lost support on all sides and divided public opinion with the disillusionment of inadequate dependence.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 27) carefully and answer the questions:
In eastern Europe, Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two, with the Czechs and the Slovaks forming independent countries. But the most severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia. After 1991, it broke apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovenia and Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence. Ethnic Serbs opposed this, and a massacre of non-Serb Bosnians followed. The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter¬ethnic civil war.

Questions
1. In Eastern Europe which republic split into two?
2. Name the republic/place where severe conflict took place.
3. Name various provinces with which Yugoslavia had been broken in 1991?
4. Which incidents resulted into inter-ethnic civil war?
Answer: 
1. Czechoslovakia split into two with Czechs and Slovaks.
2. Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
3. Croatia, Slovenia, Bosnia, Herzegovina.
4. 1. Ethnic Serbs opposed the breakirigup
of several provinces independently following a massacre of non-serb Bosnians.
2. NATO intervention and bombing on Yugoslavia.
2. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 18) carefully and answer the questions:
The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform : the one-party system
represented by the communist party of the Soviet union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics then together constituted the USSR in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.

Questions
1. What was Soviet system?
2. How many republics formed Soviet Union?
3. Which republic dominated in the USSR?
4. Why did people become dissatisfied
with the rule of Communist Party of Soviet Union?
Answer: 
1. 1. Soviet system was bureaucratic and
authoritarian making life difficult for citizens.
2. Soviet system lacked democracy and the freedom of speech of people was also snatched away.
2. 15 Republics.
3. Russia.
4. 1. Soviet Union had tight control over
all institutions.
2. Soviet Union was unaccountable to people.
3. Soviet Union refused 15 republics to manage their own affairs.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. What was Soviet system? Assess any four features of Soviet system.
Answer:  Soviet system was introduced after Socialist Revolution in Russia in 1917. It was based on the principle of egalitarian society and planned economy controlled by the state. Its four features can be summed up in the following ways:
1. The Soviet system ensured a minimum standard of living for its citizens.
2. The government subsidised basic necessities including health,education, childcare and other welfare schemes.
3. There was no unemployment in the Soviet system.
4. State ownership was the dominant owned and controlled by the Soviet state.

2. Explain six factors which helped Soviet Union becoming superpower after Second World War.
Answe:  The following factors helped Soviet Union becoming superpower after Second World War:
1. The east European countries the Soviet army had liberated from the fascist forces came under the control of the USSR.
2. The political and economic systems of all these countries were modelled after the USSR and collectively were called the second world.
3. The WARSAW PACT, a military alliance held them together and the USSR was the leader of the bloc.
4. The Soviet economy was then more developed than the rest of the world except for the US.
5. It had a complex communication network, vast energy resources including oil, iron and steel, (machinery) production and a transport sector that connected its remotest _areas with efficiency.
6. It had a domestic consumer industry that produced everything from pins to cars to make themselves self-dependent.

3. “During the Cold War era India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of Soviet camp”. Examine the statement.
Or
“India and the USSR enjoyed mutual dimensional relationship.” Justify the statement.
Answer:  During the Cold War era India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of the Soviet camp. It was a multi-dimensional relationship:
1. Economic:
(a) The Soviet Union assisted India’s public sector companies at a time when such assistance was difficult to get.
(b) It gave aid and technical assistance for steel plants like Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam and machinery plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
(c) The Soviet Union accepted Indian currency for trade when India was short of foreign exchange.
2. Political:
(а) The Soviet Union supported India’s positions on the Kashmir issue in the WN.
(b) The Soviet Union also supported India during its major conflicts during the war with Pakistan in 1971.
(c) India too supported Soviet foreign policy in some crucial but indirect ways.
3. Military:
(a) India received military hardware from Soviet Union.
(b) India got technological know-how regarding maintenance of military arsenal.
(c) India and Soviet Union got mutual agreements to produce military equipments.
4. Cultural:
(a) Hindi films and Indian culture were popular in the Soviet Union.
(b) A large number of Indian writers and artists visited the USSR.
(c) Indian heroes from Raj Kapoor to Amitabh Bachhan are household names in Russia.

4. Mention the causes of Soviet disintegration.
Answer:  The causes of Soviet disintegration can be summed up as follows:
1. Economic Stagnancy:
(a) Economic institutions experienced internal weaknesses to meet the aspirations of people.
(b) Economic stagnation for many years to severe consumer shortages.
2. Political and Administrative Causes:
(a) The only ruling Communist Party was not accountable despite its rule of 70 years.
(b) Theordinaiypeoplewereabstained from taking participation in political riots, hence the system became incapable of correcting its mistakes.
(c) The ordinary citizens were exempted from gaining the privileges.
(d) Due to non-participation of people, the government lost popular support from all sides.
3. Gorbachev’s Reform Policies:
(а) Gorbachev’s reforms aimed at keeping the USSR abreast of information and technological revolutions taking place in the west.
(b) Gorbachev focused to normalise relations with the west.
(c) Gorbachev worked to democratise the Soviet System.
(d) But Society was divided into two sections towards Gorbacheve’s reforms and both of them had contradictory views towards him.
4. Rise of Nationalism and Desire for Sovereignty:
(a) The rise of nationalism in various republics of Soviet Union proved to be immediate cause of revolutions in Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Ukraine and Georgia.
(b) The nationalist dissatisfaction with the Soviet Union was strongest in European and prosperous part in Russia and the Baltic areas as well as Ukraine and Georgia.
(c) Ordinary people felt alienated from Central Asia.

5. What sot of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain.
Answer:  1. In Russia:
(a) Chechnya and Dagestan had violent secessionist movements.
(b) Moscow’s method to deal with Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings led to many human rights violation but for deter aspirations for independence.
2. In Central Asia:
(a) Tajikistan witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years till 2001.
(b) In Azerbaijan’s provinces of Nagorno-Karobakh, some local Armenians want to secede and join Armenia.
(c) In Georgia, the demand for independence came from two provinces resulting in a civil war.
(d) There are still movements against the existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan and Georgia.
(e) Even countries and provinces are fighting over river water.
3. In Eastern Europe:
(a) Czechoslovakia, split peacefully into two with the Czechs and Slovaks, forming independent countries.
(b) The severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
(c) After 1991, Yugoslavia broke \ apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovania, Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence.
(d) Ethnic Serbs opposed this and a massacre of non-Serbs Bosanians followed.
(e) The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter-ethnic Civil war.

Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
On a political map of world locate and label the following by giving symbols to them:

Questions
1. A republic of Eastern Europe split into two independent countries peacefully.
2. Most dominating republic of Soviet Union.
3. Identify two major oil and gas producers of Soviet Union.
members of Commonwealth of Independent States.
Answer: 
1. Czechoslovakia Czechs (1) and Slovakia(2).
2. Russia (3).
3. Turkmenistan (4) and Uzbekistan (5).
4. Yugoslavia (6).
5. Ukraine (7) and Belarus (8).

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science The End of Bipolarity appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Rise of Popular Movements

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which of these statements are incorrect: The Chipko Movement
(а) was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees.
(b) raised questions of ecological and economic exploitation.
(c) was a movement against alcoholism started by the women.
(d) demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources.
Answer: (c) was a movement against alcoholism started by the women.

2. Some of the statements below are incorrect. Identify the incorrect statements and rewrite those with necessary correction.
(а) Social movements are hampering the functioning of India’s democracy.
(b) The main strength of social movements lies in their mass base across social sections.
(c) Social movements in India emerged because there were many issues that political parties did not address.
Answer:(a) Rewritten-Social movements involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems.
(c) Rewritten-Social movements in India emerged to reduce the possibility of deep social conflict and disaffection of groups from democracy.

3. Identify the reasons which led to the Chipko Movement in U.P. in early 1970s. What was the impact of this movement?
Answer: 1. The Chipko movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand on refusal of permission to villages to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools and allotted the same land to
sports manufacturers for commercial uses.
2. The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by government.
3. Villagers used a novel tactic to hug the trees to protect them from being cut down.
Impact of movement:
1. It soon spread across many parts of Uttarakhand and larger issues of ecological and economic exploitation were also raised.
2. Government issued a ban on felling of tress in Himalayan region for fifteen years until green cover was fully restored.
3. Active participation of women was also a very novel aspect of the movement.
4. This movement was started with a single issue but became symbol of many such popular movements emerging in different parts of country during 1970s.

4. The Bharatiya Kisan Union is a leading organisation highlighting the plight of farmers. What were the issues addressed by it in the nineties and to what extent were they successful?
Answer: Bharatiya Kisan Union was one of the leading farmers’ movement to protest against the policies of process of liberalisation of Indian economy:
Issues addressed by BKU:
1. Higher government floor prices for sugarcane and wheat,
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.
3. To wave off repayments due on loan to farmers.
4. To provide government pension to farmers.
5. Abolition of restrictions on the inter¬state movement of farm produce. Highlighted the plight of farmers:
1. BKUconductedrallies, demonstrations, and Jail Bharo agilations.
2. These protests involved thousands 20 over lakhs farmers from western UPs adjoining regions.
3. BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.
Extent of Success:
1. BKU became the most successful social movements.
2. It sustained for a longtime due to clannetworks among its members.
3. These networks mobilised funds, resources and activities of BKU.
4. An outcome of political bargaining powers by its members.
5. BKU farmers dominated regional electoral politics also.

5. The anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh drew the attention of the country to some serious issues. What were these issues?
Answer: 1. Anti-arrack movement was the movement of rural women in Andhra Pradesh to protest against alcoholism, mafias and government.
2. This movement had its roots in “adult literacy drive” where women complained of increased consumption of locally brewed alcohol arrack by men in their families to effect on rural economy also.
3. Women in Nellore came together in spontaneous local initiatives to protest against arrack and forced the closure of wine shop.
And this movement spread slowly all over the state
Issues relating to movements:
1. The Anti-arrack movement aimed at prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Its demand touched upon larger section of social, economic and political issues which had established a close nexus between crime and politics.
3. Women openly discussed the issues of domestic violence like dowry, sexual violence etc.
4. Anti-arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

6. Would you consider the anti-arrack movement as a women’s movement? Why?
Answer: Yes, we would consider the Anti¬arrack movement as a part of women’s movement to provide a platform for women to discuss private issues of domestic violence:
1. This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or outside.
2. Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based on gender equality.
3. These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
4. Consequently, movement demanded equal representation to women in politics during the nineties. Hence 73rd and 74th amendments granted reservations to women in local level political offices.
5. Thus, it can be concluded to be a part of women’s movement.

7. Why did the Narmada Bachao Aandolan oppose the dam projects in the Narmada Valley?
Answer: Narmada Bachao Aandolan was a collective local organisation’s movement to save river Narmada which opposed the construction of multi-purpose dam „ “The Narmada Sagar Project” and questioned the ongoing developmental projects in country:
1. Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficiency of model of development that the country followed and about what constituted public interest in a democracy.
2. It demanded that there should be a cost benefit analysis of the major developmental projects due to construction of dam submerged around 245 villages to require two and a half lakh population to be relocated.
3. The movement demanded proper rehabilitation of all those to be effected from the construction of these projects.
4. This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in framing of mega scale development projects.
5. Movement also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decision making alongwith an effective control over natural resources.
6. Hence, NBA achieved a comprehensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by government in 2003.

8. Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your answer with examples.
Answer: Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for:
1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to reduce possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy.
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democrac i. e., Anti-arrack movement and Dalit Panthers. Arguments against:
1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the years creating a vacuum in politics.
Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, demand and expectations.

9. What issues did the Dalit Panthers address?
Answer: Dalit Panthers was a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in Maharashtra:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material injustices that Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride. Hence, they demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social justice.

10. Read the passage and answer questions below:
…., nearly all ‘new social movements’ have emerged as corrective to new maladies – environmental degradation, violation of the status of women, destruction of tribal cultures and the undermining of human rights – none of which are in and by themselves transformative of the social order.
They are in that way quite different from revolutionar}1- ideologies of the past. But their weakness lies in their
being so heavily fragmented
…a large part of the space occupied by the new social movements seem to be suffering from … various characteristics which have prevented them from being relevant to the truly oppressed and the poor in the form of a solid unified movement of the people. They are too fragmented, reactive, ad hocish, providing no comprehensive framework of basic social change. Their being anti-this or that (anti-West, anti-capitalist, anti-development, etc.) does not make them any more coherent, any more relevant to oppressed and peripheralized communities.
-Rajni Kothari
(a) What is the difference between new social movements and revolutionary ideologies?
(b) What according to the author are the limitations of social movements?
(c) If social movements address specific issues, would you say that they are ‘fragmented’ or that they are more focused? Give reasons for you answer by giving examples.
Answer: (a) The difference is that like revolutionary ideologies none of new social movements are in and by themselves transformative of the social order but they emerged as corrective of new malodies.
(b) According to author these movements are not any more coherent, relevant to oppressed and peripheralised communities. To some extent these are effected by party politics.
(c) If social movements address specific issues, we would say that these are fragmented which provide no comprehensive framework of social change i.e., Anti-arrack movement, Dalit Panthers etc.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. Mention the two main demands of Bharatiya Kisan Union in 1980s.
Answer: 1. Higher government floor price for sugarcane and wheat.
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.

2. What was the most novel aspect of Chipko movement?
Answer: Women’s active participation in Chipko agitation was the novel aspect of Chipko movement.

3. What was Anti-arrack movement?
Answer: Anti-arrack movement was the movement of rural women from Andhra Pradesh to fight against alcoholism, mafias and government during this periods.

4. What was main objective of ‘Dalit Panthers’?
Answer:  Dalit Panthers aimed at the destroy of caste system and to build on organisation of all oppressed sections like landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers alongwith Dalits.

5. What is meant by non-party movement?
Answer: Non-party movements are started by voluntary organisations or group of people (Students/Workers) who did not get support of political parties and not contest elections also.

6. What are popular movements?
Answer: Popular movements are the movements organised by dalits and farmers under the banner of various social organisations to voice their demands.

7. What does the term ‘Dalit Panthers’ mean?
Answer: Dalit Panthers denotes to a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in Maharashtra.

8. In the poem what does the term “Pilgrims of darkness” signify? To whom the poet has referred as the liberator?
Answer: It signifies Dalit Communities who had experienced brutal caste injustices. The poet refers to Dr. Ambedkar as their liberator as well as ‘Sun flower giving Fakir’.

9. Who wrote the poem on Dalit? What does the poem signify?
Answer: The Marathi poet Namdeo Dhsal wrote poem on Dalit during the decade of seventies which expresses the anguish that the Dalit masses continued to face even after twenty years of Independence.

10. WTiy did the cash crop market face on crisis?
Answer: Due to beginning of the process of “Liberalisation of Indian Economy” when agricultural sector came under threat and a debate between industry and agriculture has become one of the prominent issues in India’s model of development.

11. What strategies were used by Narmada Bachao Aandolan to put forward its demands?
Answer: 1. Mobilisation of support at international level.
2. Appeals to judiciary.
3. ‘Public rallies.
4. Forms of Satyagraha to convince people.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. What was the main demand of Chipko movement?
Answer: 1. The villagers demanded that no forest exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders.
2. Local communities should have effective control over natural resources like water, land and forests.
3. They also demanded the government to provide low cost materials to small industries and ensure development of region without disturbing ecological
– balance.
4. This movement took up economic issues of landless forest workers and asked for guarantees of minimum wages.

2. Highlight any two main demands of Anti¬arrack movement.
Answer: 1. Prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

3. Mention any two demands of Bharatiya Kisan Union.
Answer: 1. Higher government floor price for sugarcane and wheat.
2. Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.

4. How does party based movement differ from non-party movement?
Answer: Party based movements are those movements supported by political parties i.e. Trade Union Movement in Mumbai, Kolkata and Kanpur etc., whereas non-party movements have lost faith in existing democratic institutions and electoral politics to be merged of students and young political activists in mass-mobilisation.

5. Which two issues were addressed by Dalit Panthers? 
Answer: Dalit Panthers was a militant organisation of Dalit Youth formed in 1972 in Maharashtra:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material injustices that Dalits faced inspite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride. Hence, they demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social just.
Ans. 1. The villagers demanded that no forest exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders.
2. Local communities should have effective control over natural resources like water, land and forests.

7. Mention any two party based movement.
Answer: 1. Naxalite movements.
2. Trade Union movement of Mumbai, Kolkata and Kanpur.

8. List any four activities conducted by Bharatiya Kisan Union to pressurize the state for accepting its demands.
Answer: 1. BKU conducted rallies, demonstrations and Jail Bharo agitations.
2. These protests involved thousands so over lakhs farmers from western UP’s adjoining regions.
3. BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.

9. Which action of the government of India threatened the fish workers’ lives in a major way? Which organisation did they form at national level?
Answer: The government policies of economic liberalisation opened up India’s waters to large commercial vessels including multinational fishing companies which threatened the local fishworkers who came together on a national level platform in the form of organisation ‘National Fishworkers Forum’ needed by fishworkers from Kerala.

10. In what ways social movement raised various issues about the model of economic development of India at the time of independence?
Answer: 1. Chipko movement brought about the issues of ecological depletion.
2. The BKU farmers organisation complained a neglect of agricultural sector.
3. Dalits led mass struggle against social and material conditions.
4. Anti-arrack movement focused on negative fallouts of what was considered development.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Assess any two positive aspects of the Chipko Movement.
Answer: (i) The Chipko Movement started in early 1973 in the state that is now Uttarakhand. The movement was unique in the sense that it presented a very unusual form of collective action in which men and women from a village of this state were engaged. These villagers protested against the practices of commercial logging that the government had permitted. They used a novel tactic for their protest— that of hugging the trees to prevent them from being cut down. The struggle soon spread across many parts of the Uttarakhand region.
(ii) Women’s active participation in the Chipko agitation was a very novel aspect of the movement. The forest contractors of the region usually doubled up as suppliers of alcohol to men. Women held sustained agitations against the habit of alcoholism and broadened the agenda of the movement to cover other social issues. The movement achieved a victory when the government issued a ban on felling of trees in the Himalayan region for fifteen years, until the green cover was fully restored.

2. Where and when was the organisation ‘Dalit Panthers’ formed? Describe any three of its activities.
Answer: Dalit Panthers denotes to a militant organisation of Dalit Youth to be formed in 1972 in Maharasthra.
Its activities can be summed up as follows:
1. These groups mainly fought against the perpetual caste based inequalities and material injustices that Dalits faced in spite of constitutional guarantees of equality and justice.
2. Dalits faced collective atrocities over minor symbolic issues of caste pride.
3. They demanded effective implementation of reservations and other such policies of social justice.

3. What are popular movements? Explain any three issues related to women which brought social awareness amongst them.
Answer: Popular movements are the movements organised by dalits and farmers under the banner of various social organisations to voice their demands.
Women in Nellore came together in spontaneous local initiatives to protest against arrack and forced the closure of wine shops.
And this movement spread slowly all over the state.
Issues relating to movements:
1. The Anti-Arrack movement aimed at prohibition on the sale of arrack.
2. Its demand touched upon larger section of social, economic and political issues which had established a close nexus between crime and politics.
3. Women openly discussed the issue of domestic violence like dowry, sexual violence etc.
4. Anti-Arrack movement provided a platform to discuss private issues of domestic violence.

4. What is the Right to Information Act? When was it passed in India?
Answer: The ‘Right to Information Act’ is a law to empower the people to find out happenings in government and act as a watchdog of democracy:
1. It was passed in October 2005 by Government of India.
2. This Act ensures its citizens all information about functioning of government machinery.
3. This right has been expanded to cover various services provided by government i.e., if any purchased product is defective it can be -asked for replacement.
4. This right gives political actors incentives to good things to help to control corruption.

5. What was Narmada Bachao Aandolan? What was criticism against it?
Answer: Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing development projects with the . dreams of cost benefit analysis due to construction of dams submerged around 245 villages to require two and a half lakh population to be relocated.
Its criticism:
1. The obstruction to the process of development.
2. Denial to the access to water to many people.
3. Hurdle to economic development.

6. “Movement are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests but something else as well”. Justify.
Answer: Though movements are the result of collective assertions, still these are associated with a “Gradual process of coming together of people” with common intentions, common problem, demands and common expectations. These movements make people aware also by performing educative role towards expansions of democracy.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Sardar Sarovar Project is a multipurpose mega-scale dam. Its advocates say that it would benefit huge areas of Gujarat and the three adjoining states in terms of availability of drinking water and water for irrigation, generation of electricity and increase in agricultural production. Many more subsidiary benefits like effective flood and drought control in the region were linked to the success of this dam. In the process of construction of the dam 245 villages from these States were expected to get submerged. It required relocation of around two and a half lakh people from these villages. Issues of relocation and proper rehabilitation of the project- affected people were first raised by local activist groups. It wrns around 1988-89 that the issues crystallised under the banner of the NBA – a loose collective of local voluntary organisations.
Questions
1. Why is Sardar Sarovar Project mentioned as multipurpose mega scale dam?
2. Why was it opposed by villagers?
3. Name the organisation which led the movement against this project.
4. What was the main demand of Local Activist Groups?
Answer:
1. Because it fulfilled the various purposes together as to benefit huge areas of Gujarat and three adjoining states:
1. Availability of drinking water
2. Water for irrigation
3. Generation of electricity
4. Effective floods and drought control in the region.
2. Because in the process of construction of dam about 245 villages from these states were expected to be submerged alongwith the population of two and a half lakh people.
3. Local Activist Group under the banner of Narmada Bachao Andolan.
4. To relocate and proper rehabilitation of project affected people.

2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Movements are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests. They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demands and similar expectations. But then movements are also about making people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic institutions. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.
Questions
1. What is the importance of popular movements in democracy?
2. How do popular movements help the
government?
3. What factors make the people come together in a particular movement?
Answer:
1. Popular movements make people aware of their rights and expectations which can be drawn from democratic institutions.
2. Popular movements let the government be aware of the similar demands, similar problems and expectations of
people through an educative task for expansion of democracy rather than disrupting it.
3. Similar problems, similar demands, and similar expectations of the same group/people.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Suppose you are an important leader of the Farmers’ agitation. The government authorities ask you to present any three demands on behalf of the farmers. On priority basis, which three demands will you make? Support your demands with appropriate arguments.
Answer: Farmers’ agitation is not new in our country. It has been in existence time to time for particular goals. We know that the Indian farmers have been the worst sufferers in the country. They are the backbone of the country in development, yet they are not given much attention. Governments come and go, but the tragedy of our farmers remain the same. Being the leader of the farmers’ agitation I have several demands in my mind for the benefit of the poor farmers but here I would mention only three demands on their behalf:
(i) Proper banking facilities so that farmers should not depend on the village moneylenders who give them money at a very high rate. Most of the time the poor farmers fall into debt trap which make their life a hell.
(ii) Proper irrigation facilities in case there is poor/weak monsoon.
(ii) Insurance of crops will save farmers from committing suicide. The unexpected rain in the months of March and April this year devastated the standing crops in the field. The nature’s fury aggravated the miseries of the farmers some of whom could not bear and committed suicide.

2. What was Narmada Bachao Aandolan? What were its main issues? What democratic strategies did it use to put forward its demands?
Answer: 1. Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficacy of model of development that the country followed and what constituted public interest in a democracy.
2. It demanded that there should be a cost benefit analysis of the major developmental projects due to construction of dam submerged around 245 villages to require two a half lakh population to be relocated.
3. The movement demanded proper rehabilitation of all those to be affected from the construction of these projects.
4. This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in forming of mega scale development projects.
5. Movement also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decision making alongwith an effective control over natural resources.
6. Hence, NBA achieved a compreh ensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by government in 2003.
Democratic strategies used by it:
1. Mobilisation of support at inter-national level.
2. Appeals to judiciary.
3. Public rallies
4. Forms of Satyagraha

3. What is meant by Chipko movement? When did it start and where? What is the significance of this movement?
Answer: 1. The Chipko movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand on refusal of permission to villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools, and allotted the same land to sports manufacturers for commercial uses.
2. The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by the government.
3. Villagers used a novel tactic to hug the trees to protect them from being cut down.
Impact of movement:
1. It soon spread across many parts of Uttarakhand and larger issues of ecological and economic exploitation were also raised.
2. Government issued a ban on felling of trees in Himalayan region for fifteen years until green cover was fully restored.
3. Active participation of women was also a very novel aspect of the movement.
4. This movement was started with a single issue but became symbol of many such popular movements emerging in different parts of country during 1970s.

4. Mention any three social movements of India. Explain their main objectives.
Answer: 1. The Chipko Movement:
(a) It raised the issues of ecological and economic exploitation.
(b) Active participation of women was a novel aspect of the movement.
(c) The villagers protested against the practices of logging to be permitted by the government.
2. Anti-Arrack movement:
(a) This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or outside.
(b) Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based on gender equality.
(c) These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
3. Narmada Bachao Aandolan:
(a) Narmada Bachao Aandolan linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects.
(b) It demanded cost benefit analysis of major developmental projects to relocate the people suffered from construction of dams.
(c) This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in framing of mega scale development projects.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated.

Questions
1 .The state where Anti-Arrack movement started in October 1992.
2. The state where Dalit Panthers Organisation was active.
3. The state related with Chipko movement.
4. The states associated with Narmada Bachao Aandolan.
Answer:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttarakhand
4. (a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Rise of Popular Movements appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Match the terms with their meaning:
1. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs)
2. Arms Control
3. Alliance
4. Disarmament
(a) Giving up certain types ofweapons.
(b) A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis.
(c) A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against military attacks.
(d) Regulates the acquisition of development of weapons.
Answer: (i)-(b); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(a).

2. Which among the following would you consider as a traditional security concern/non-traditional/not a threat?
(a) The spread of chikungunya/dengue fever
(b) Inflow of workers from a neighbouring nation.
(c) Emergence of a group demanding nationhood for their region.
(d) Emergence of a group demanding autonomy for their region.
(e) A newspaper that is critical of the armed-forces in the country.
Answer: (a) Non-traditional (b) Non-traditional !(c) Traditional id) Not a threat
(e) Not a threat

3. What is the difference between traditional and non-traditional security? Which category would the creation and sustenance of alliances belong to?
Answer:

Creation and sustenance of alliances belong to traditional notion of security.

4. What are the differences in the threats that people in the third world face and those living in the First World face?
Answer: The threats are different in the third world and first world peoples because their regions are changed, hence they face different security challenges.in the following manner:
1. The newly independent countries faced the military conflicts even with their neighbouring states.
2. These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbours, but also from within.
3. Internally, new states worried about threats from separatist movements which wanted to form independent countries.
4. Sometimes, the external and internal threats merged.
5. For the new states, external wars with neighbours and internal wars posed a serious challenge to their security.

5. Is terrorism a traditional or non- traditional threat to security?
Answer: Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to wound the peace and order in the country:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are usually terrorised to be it as a weapon against national government and other parties in the conflict.
3. Terrorism involves hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other crowded places.
4. After a terrorist attack on World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001, the other governments and public also are paying more attention to terrorism.

6. What are the choices available to a state when its security is threatened, according to traditional security perspective?
Answer: Traditional security perspective emphasises on compromises to limit the violence by giving following three choices to the state if its security is threatened:
1. To surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of country.
2. To prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an unacceptable level.
3. To defend to protect itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or to defeat the attacking forces altogether
4. Hence, state’s security policy is to prevent war which is called deterrence and with limiting or heading war called defence.

7. What is Balance of Power? How could a state achieve this?
Answer: ‘Balance of Power’ is a balance between bigger and smaller countries by cooperating with each other economically and technologically. A smaller country is always suspicious to break out a war from bigger or powerful country. Hence, they maintain a balance of power to build up one’s military power together with economic and technological power-to protect one’s own security.

8. What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning military alliance with its specific objectives.
Answer: Objectives:
1. Alliance building is important component of traditional security to threats to deal between states and nations to deter or defend against military attacks.
2. Alliances are formalised in written treaties and identification of who constitutes the threats.
3. Alliances are formed to increase their effective power relative to another alliance.
4. Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interest change. Example-The US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in 1980s, but later attacked them when Al-Qaeda, a group of Islamic militants, led by Osama Bin Laden launched terrorist strikes against America on 11th September 2001.

9. Rapid environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because in some situations one country may have to disproportionately bear the brunt of a global problem i.e. environmental degradation causing a serious threat to security, for example, due to global warming, a sea level rise of 1.5-2.0 meters would flood 20% of Bangladesh, inundate most of Maldives and threaten nearly half the population of Thailand, Hence, international cooperation is vital due to global nature of these problems.

10. Nuclear weapons as deterrence or defence have limited usage against contemporary security threats to states. Explain the statement.
Answer: Nuclear weapons have limited usage due to arms-control method of cooperation. One of the arms-control treaty was the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 to regulate the acquisition of nuclear weapons. As per this treaty those countries that had fasted and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

11. Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the arguments?
Answer: India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad components i e :
1. To strengthen its military capabilities because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is
surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998 was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions:
(a) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

12. Read the cartoon below and write a short note in favour or against the connection between war and terrorism depicted in this cartoon.

Answer: Terrorism is non-traditional threat to security as it is goal oriented political

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Define security.
Answer: Security is an essence for existence of human life to protect from threats either external or internal.

2. What is meant by disarmament?
Answer: Disarmament bounds states to give up certain kinds of weapons to avoid mass- destruction through signing various treaties.

3. Mention any two human rights in political field. 
Answer: 1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.

4. Define cooperative security.
Answer: Cooperative security is the involvement of international cooperation depending on the nature of the threat and the willingness and ability of countries to respond.

5. Which is the greatest danger to a security as per traditional notion of security?
Answer: It is from military threats which lies in another country to endanger the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integration of a country.

6. Why human security is more important in the contemporary world than territorial security?weapon. It is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are targeted to be terrorised to use it as a weapon into this war.
3. Even, the US superpower could not escape itself from terrorism and it became a global phenomenon i.e. terrorist attack on World Trade Tower on 11th September 2001
Answer: Human security is about the protection of people more than protection of states because, during the last 100 years more people have been killed by their own governments than by foreign armies:
1. Protecting citizens from foreign
attack ‘
2. Security from violent threats
3. Security from threats to human dignity.

7. What is Global Security?
Answer: Global Security implies protection from threats which may have effect on people and states globally. It emerged in 1990 to respond global warming, terrorism, health epidemics etc.

8. What is Global Poverty?
Answer: Global Poverty signifies a condition available in the states to be suffered from low incomes and less economic growth i.e. developing or underdeveloped countries.

9. Is the same notion of security applicable to all the states?
Answer: All states do not experience the same threats at a time, hence security is grouped into two as per requirements:
(a) Traditional conception
(b) Non-traditional conception

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Suggest any one effective step which would limit war or violence between countries.
Answer: An effective step may be in the form of cooperative security only that involves international cooperation which may be bilateral, regional, continental or global which depends on the nature of the threat and the willingness, and ability of countries to respond to limit war or violence cooperative security place at national and international levels.

2. Highlight any two threats of a country’s security at per traditional notion of security. 
Or
Explain traditional concept of security.
Answer: The “Traditional Notion of Security” covers both the external and internal threats of a country’s security. External threats consist of four components i.e. military threats, threat of war, balance of power, alliance building. Internal threats include maintenance of internal peace and order and recognise cooperative security to limit violence.

3. Write a note on Human Security.
Answer: Human Security refers to the protecting people more than protection of states which includes:
1. To protect citizens from foreign attack.
2. To secure people from violence.
3. To protect from individual economic threats.
4. To protect human dignity also.

4. What is military threat?
Answer: Military threat refers to military action from another country to endanger the core values of country’s sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity.Military action often targets the men and women i.e. ordinary citizens.

5. Mention some human rights.
Answer: Human rights are the basic conditions which an individual is supposed to be entitled as a human being for all round
development. These rights have been categorised as follows:
1. Political rights
2. Freedom of speech and expression
3. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.
4. Economic rights
5. Social and civil rights
6. Rights of indigenous minorities

6. Human security stresses on “freedom from want” and “freedom from fear”. Justify the statement.
Answer: 1. ‘Freedom from want’ refers to economic equality i.e. equal opportunity and economic privileges.
2. ‘Freedom from fear’ refers to protection from hunger, disease, natural disaster, military threats, genocide and terrorism.

7. Explain Non-traditional concept of security.
Answer: Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover the states only but also the individual and communities.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Explain any four components of India’s security strategy.
Answer: (a) To strengthen its military capa¬bilities:
(i) India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971, 1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries.
(b) To strengthen international norms and institutions:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(ii) It used non-alignment to help to carry out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(c) To meet security challenges within country:
(i) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(ii) India has made efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
(d) To develop its economy:
(i) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(ii) A democraticallj^ elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

2. Identify and explain any four new sources of threats to security.
Answer: Four new sources of threats to security can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity. It refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against national government. It has become a global phenomena because even superpower is not free from terrorist attacks.
2. Human rights are those basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human being. These rights include political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil rights and rights of indigenous people to lead as honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to a country’s security because severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue etc. diseases spread across countries through migration business, tourism and military operations.

3. How is global poverty a source of insecurity? Explain.
Answer.: Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries. It is a source of insecurity because:
1. Half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries- India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia, considered developing countries and even in poorest countries population is expected to triple in next 50 years.
2. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the northern and southern countries of the world.
3. Poverty in south has also led a large migration to seek a better economic opportunities in the north.
4. All these created international political friction as international law and norms make a distinction between migrants and refugees as they do not get ready to accept migrants.

4. Which third weapon both the superpowers did not want to give up under the concept of disarmament?
Answer: Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of weapons i.e. the 1972 Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and 1992 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) banned the production and possession of these weapons. Despite the US and Soviet Union were not ready to give up the third type of weapons of mass-destruction namely nuclear weapons.

5. “The secure states do not imply the secure people in itself’. Examine the statement.
Answer: The secure states are supposed to protect their people from individual in security also rather the territorial security only. Hence they are required to provide security from foreign attack hunger, diseases and natural disasters etc. because it destructs the people rather more than a war.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The US and Soviet’Union signed a number of other arms control treaties including the Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II) and the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START). The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons, those countries that had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons; rather, it limited the number of countries that could have them.

Questions
1. What is arms control treaty?
2. Was NPT an arms control treaty? Why?
3. What was the intention behind regulation of NPT?
Answer:
1. To regulate the acquisition or development of wTeapons among countries.
2. Yes, because it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons to protect world from large seat destruction.
3. It did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Global poverty is another source of insecurity. World population-now at 650 crore-will reach 700 to 800 crore within 25 years and many eventually level out at 900 to 1000 crore. Currently, half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries — India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the world’s poorest countries, population is expected to triple in next 50 years whereas many rich countries will see population shrinkage in that period, high per capita income and low population growth make rich states or rich social groups get richer, whereas low incomes and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer. puui O ta tco CUJ.IL puux gi u upo get puui d.

Questions
1. Name the countries expected to occur half the world’s population growth.
2. Mention two reasons to make rich states more richer.
3. What makes poor countries more poorer?
Answer:
1. India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh, Indonesia.
2. (i) High per capita income (ii) Low population growth.
3. Low income and high population growth.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. What is meant by Security? Mention any four components of Indian security strategy.
Answer: At its most basic, security implies freedom from threats. Human existence and the life of a country are full of threats. We generally say that only those things that threaten ‘core values’ should be regarded as being of interest in discussions of security. Thus, security relates only to extremely dangerous threats — threats that could so endanger core values that those values would be damaged beyond repair if we did not do something to deal with the situation.
India’s security strategy has four broad components which have been used in a varying combination from time to time: (i) The first component was strengthening its military capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours — Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962. Since it is surrounded by nuclear-armed countries in the South Asian region, India’s decision to conduct nuclear tests in 1998 was justified by the Indian government in terms of safeguarding national security.
(ii) The second component of India’s
security strategy has been to strengthen international norms and international institutions to protect its security interests.
(iii) The third component of Indian security strategy is geared towards meeting security challenges within the country. Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, the Punjab and Kashmir among others have from time to time sought to break away from India. India has tried to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system.
(iv) There has been an attempt in India to develop its economy in a way that the vast mass of citizens are lifted out of poverty and misery and huge economic inequalities are not allowed to exist.

2. Give a comparative analysis of Indian expenditure on traditional and non- traditional security.
Answer: India spends more on traditional security than non-traditional because
(i) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(iii) India’s first tested nuclear device in 1974.
Though India has made efforts to develop its economy and an individual’s security from poverty but still it is lagging behind even now and we are supposed to make more efforts.

3. Mention and explain the components and India’s security strategy. 
Answer: India has faced traditional military and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad components i.e.:
1. To Strengthen its Military Capa¬bilities:
Because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours, as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To Strengthen International Norms and International Institu¬tions:
(a) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation regime to enjoy same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of place outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To Meet Security Challenges
within the Country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To Develop its Economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

4. Explain the areas of operation of non- traditional notion of security.
Answer: Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover only the states but
also the individuals and communities also.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.
Its sources can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against national government.
2. Human Rights refer to basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human being as political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil rights to lead an honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to country’s security because severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (ARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue diseases spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations.

5. Write a note on Arms control.
Answer: Arms control regulates the acquisition or development of weapons by adopting following measures:
1. The Anti Ballistic Missiles Treaty in 1992 stopped the US and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles to limit large scale production.
2. Other arms control treaties were also signed i.e. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START), Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty and Nuclear non-proliferation treaty (NPT) to limit the weapons which many bring large scale destruction.
3. NPT regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons in 1968.
4. NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited number of countries that could have them.

Picture Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the pigeon and man with goods symbolise?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. The movement of Peace Keeping Force i.e. pigeon (White) a symbol of peace and an army personnel is flying it.
2. Pigeon symbolises peace and a man with goods to maintain peace at a place where threat has occurred.
3. Peace Keeping Forces are also supposed to bear arms to initiate peace.

2.Study the picture given below and answer the questions as that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Is it any different from our country?
3. What message does this cartoon convey?
Answer:
1. The US’s massive expenditure of defence and lack of money for peace related issues.
2. Our country spends a lot on peaceful initiations first as well as make efforts to find out a peaceful solution first.
3. This cartoon conveys message that the countries are ready to spend on military rather than on peaceful initiation.

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Security in the Contemporary World appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 US Hegemony in World Politics 

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which among the following statements
about hegemony is incorrect?
(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one State.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athens in the ancient Greece.
(c) The country having hegemonic position will possess unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.
Answer: (d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a hegemon.

2. Which among the following statements is wrong about the contemporary world order?
(a) There is an absence of world government, which could regulate the State’s behaviour.
(b) The US is the predominant player in world affairs.
(c) States are using force against one another.
(d) States, which violate international law, are severely punished by the UN.
Answer: (c) States are using force against one another.

3. Which among the following statements is wrong with regard to Operation Iraqi Freedom?
(a) More than forty countries joined in the US led coalition of the willing to invade Iraq.
(b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from developing weapons of mass destruction.
(c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN.
(d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi forces.
Answer: (c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN.

4. Give an example each of the three types of hegemony that are dealt within the chapter. Do not cite examples that are in the chapter.
Answer: 1. Hegemony as Hard Power:
Tabasum was an artist living in Nigeria and was planning to join Art and Craft Academy to give proficiency to her artistic aptitude. But she lost her leg in 2003 missile attack by the US. After she overcame it, she made efforts to achieve and fulfill her dreams if the foreign armies leave her country.
2. Hegemony as Structural Power: Tabish is very good in his studies in the countryside of Middle East Asia and is planning to study subjects from Arts stream to accommodate himself in different aspects as per requirements. But parents want him to be a master in computers to become Software Engineer due to flair for job opportunities in the same.
3. Hegemony as Soft Power: Mayank is a young and energetic man of Melbourne, immigrants from Russia. His father gets upset when he puts on black shirt with white jeans while he goes to church. He justifies that black colour signifies protest for freedom and white signifies freedom in a peaceful manner.

5. Mention three ways in which US dominance since the Cold War is different from its position as a superpower during the Cold War.
Answer: 1. During Cold War, the US found it difficult to win over the Soviet Union as hard power due to retaliating capacity of the Soviet Union and to protest world from large scale destruction. But in the areas of structural and soft power, the US dominated.
2. During Cold War years, the Soviet Union provided an alternate model of socialist economy to maximise welfare of states. Still the world economy throughout the Cold War years adapted capitalist economy under the US.
3. In the area of soft power, the US became triumphant. As the example of blue jeans shows that the US could engineer a generational gap even in Soviet Society on culture basis.

6. Match the following:

Answer:(i)-(c); (ti)-(a); (iii)—(d); (iv)-(b)

7. WTiat are the constraints on American hegemony today? Which one of these do you expect to get more important in the future?
Answer. “We can identify three constraints on American Power” which were actually not in operation in the years following 9/11. Hence the US could establish its hegemony. Recently all these constraints are slowly beginning to operate in the following ways:
1. The US bears institutional architecture in the American State itself. It refers division of powers between the three branches of government where American military’s executive branch can place significant brakes upon the unrestrained and immoderate exercise.
2. The second constraint on American hegemony emerges from open nature of American society. American society and suffering from a deep skepticism towards purposes and methods of government in America despite an imposition of particular perspectives on domestic opinion in the US. This is a huge constraint on US military action overseas.
3. The third constraint on US hegemony is the possession of NATO to moderate the exercise of the US hegemony today. The US has an enormous interest in keeping the alliance of democracies to follow the market economies alive and it may be possible to its allies in NATO to moderate the exercise of the US hegemony through their own liberal policies to fulfill their own ends.

8. Read the three extracts in the chapter from Lok Sabha debate on the Indo-US deal. Develop any one of these into a full speech defending a certain position on Indo-US relations.
Answer: The following speech has been developed based on the excerpts from Lok Sabha debate as presented by Major General (Retired) B.C. Khanduri of BJP:
Sir, I would respectfully draw the attention of august house towards the US hegemony in today’s scenario. But we should not ignore the fact that India might be next waiting in the wings to perform as a superpower to maintain its own identity. Moreover, hegemony can not stand forever due to its weaknesses. Therefore, we are supposed to have a good and harmonious relations with that of the US for mutual promotion of trade and technology. But India should not compromise from the same on the cost of its own security and identity.
Hence, India should work in a diplomatic manner while it thinks to go hand-in¬hand the US in such a manner that India could extract best benefits from the US hegemony and find out mutual options for itself.
Thanks.

9. “If big and resourceful states cannot resist the US hegemony, it is unrealistic to expect much smaller and weaker non-state actors to offer any resistance”. Examine this proposition and give your opinion.
Answer. This proposition focuses only on, the powers of the state and believes that only big and resourceful states can challenge the US hegemony which it approaches right in a practical manner, but if we think deeply these are thoughts and pens of writers, expressions of artists, media and intellectuals who have no boundaries including hegemony itself to be criticised and resisted in the form of non-government organisations (NGOs), social movements and public opinion. Hence, non-state actors may challenge the US hegemony also in their own way and it can work out also.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
l.What is meant by ‘Hegemon/?
Answer: The term ‘Hegemony’ stands for an international system which is dominated by a sole superpower or hyper-power. The collapse of the Soviet Union left the world with only one single power, the United States of America.

2. What was first Gulf War?
Answer: A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries faught against
Iraq and defeated it in what came to be known as the First Gulf War.

3. What was ‘Operation Iraqi’ Freedom?
Answer: On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraqi under the codename ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’. More than 40 other countries joined in the US coalition of the willing after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.

4. What is meant by hegemony?
Answer: Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower.

5. First Gulf War was fought against in which troops from countries fought.
Answer: Iraq, 34 countries.

6. What does the term ‘hegemony’ imply?
Answer: The word ‘hegemony’ implies the dominance of one state means world power in the form of military dominance, economic power, political clout and cultural superiority.

7. What is meant by 9/11 in the context of USA?
Answer:  9/11 denotes a series of attacks on the US by hijackers from Arab countries on 11 Sep 2001. It was the most disastrous attack on the US.

8. What is the New World Order?
Answer: The sudden collapse of Soviet Union led to the New World Order in the form of the US hegemony.

9. What is World Politics?
Answer: World Politics refers to distribution of power among the countries of the world. These countries are engaged to gain and retain power by their capabilities.

10. Mention the period of beginning of US hegemony.
Answer: 1991.

11. Name the elected president of the USA in the year 1992 and 1996.
Answer: William Jefferson Bill Clinton.

12. What was the focus of foreign policy of Bill Clinton?
Answer: The Clinton government tended to focus on ‘Soft issues’ like democracy promotion, climate change and world trade rather than on the hard politics of military power.

13. What was the Guantanamo Bay?
Answer: A naval base in Cuba set up by the US where prisoners forbidden of the protection of international law or law of their own country or that of the US.

14. Mention any two constraints operated in the US hegemony.
Answer: Two constraints operated in the US hegemony are institutional architecture of American state (division of power) and open nature of American Society.

15. What are Global Public Goods?
Answer: Goods that can be consumed by people without reducing the amount of available goods for others are known as the global public goods.
Examples: Fresh air, roads, sea-lanes of communications (SLoCs).

16. What is SLoCs?
Answer: SLoCs stands for Sea Lanes of Communications. It is the naval power of hegemon that underwrites the law of the sea and ensures freedom of navigation in international water.

17. What is the full form of WMD?
Answer: WMD stands for Weapons of Mass Destruction.

18. What is meant by hegemony as hard power?
Answer. Hegemony as hard power implies dominance of superpower on ground of military power.

19. What is meant by hegemony as structural power?
Answer: Hegemony as structural power implies dominance of superpower on grounds of economic structure. The superpower must possess both the ability and the desire to establish norms for order and must sustain the global structure.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. When and why did the New World Order begin?
Answer: The New World Order began in 1991 after the collapse of Soviet Union. The world was left only with single superpower the US and came to be known as the US Hegemony to show the superiority of its military power. The US hegemony also shaped world economy and emerged in the form of military domination, economic order, political clout and cultural superiority.

2. Why did US launch a war against Iraq?
Answer: On 19 March 2003, the US launched a war against Iraq under the codename of ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’ to be joined by forty other countries under the leadership of the US on the ground to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) without no evidence against Iraq. Hence, the ostensible purposes were different as controlling Iraqi Oilfields and installing a regime friendly to the US.

3. How was Kuwait liberated from Iraq in 1990?
Answer: In August 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait rapidly occupying and subsequently annexing it. All diplomatic attempts were a failure in convincing Iraq to quit its aggression. The United Nations took a dramatic decision to mandate the liberation of Kuwait by force. A massive coalition force of 66,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it, known as the First Gulf War also.

4. What was ‘Operation Infinite Reach’ ordered by President Clinton?
Answer: Operation Infinite Reach was a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan. For this, the US did not bother of any international law. This operation was ordered by President Clinton in response to bombing of the US embassies in Narobi, Kenya, Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania in 1998.

5. What was Operation Enduring Freedom?
Answer: Operation Enduring Freedom was the US response against 9/11 attack to arrest all those who were suspected to be behind the attack, mainly Al-Qaeda and the Taliban regime in Afghanistan. The US arrested the persons all over the world often without the knowledge of government of the person being arrested, transported them and detained in secret prisons.

6. How can hegemony be overcome?
Answer: To overcome hegemony there are different strategies developed by analysts. As the bandwagon strategy reveals to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system. ‘To hide’ strategy implies staying as far from the dominant power as possible. And it may be possible that various challenges to occur from non-state actors in the form of their writings, expressions to mould the minds of people.

7. “The US did not start behaving like a hegemonic power right from 1991, it became clear much later that world was living in fact in a period of hegemony”. Examine the statement.
Answer: The US hegemony was the beginning of New World Order and process for its establishment had been started in August 1990 when Iraq invaded Kuwait and occupied it to make a part of Iraq. Despite UN’s diplomatic attempts to liberate Kuwait from Iraq, it was not liberated. Hence UN mandated liberation of Kuwait by force, a dramatic decision. A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it under UN’s ‘Operation Desert Storm’. But it was led by the US because 75 per cent of the coalition forces were from the US only. This war is popularly known as the First Gulf War establishing the US hegemony.

8. With reference to Iraq invasion, mention the American weaknesses.
Answer: Imperial powers have used military forces to accomplish only four tasks to conquer, deter, punish and police in a historical perspective. As the Iraq invasion shows American capacity to conquer is formidable and capability to deter and to punish is self evident. American weakness has been revealed in performing fourth task i.e. the policing in an occupied territory.

9. What was 9/11 event? How did the US respond to it?
Answer: 9/11 event implies a series of attacks on the US by hijackers from Arab countries on 11 September 2001. It was the most disastrous attack on the US. The hijackers attacked on important US building as World Trade Centre in New York, Pentagon building and Capital building of US Congress in Pennsylvania.
The US responded to it by launching ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’ to arrest all those who were suspected to be behind this attack. The US forces made arrest all over the world without the knowledge of the government of the persons being arrested, transported and detained them in secret prisons mainly against Al-Qaeda and Taliban regime in Afghanistan.

10. “The US hegemony does not dominate the world only as hard and structural power but as a soft power also.” Justify the statement.
Answer: The US hegemony does not dominate the world only as militarily and economically but it has the capacity to create ‘manufacturing consent’ from the rest of the world in the cultural dimensions also. The cultural dimension implies class ascendancy in the social, political and ideological spheres where the ideas of ‘good life’ are flourished. Its most appealing example is of‘blue jeans’ from the US, which had the capacity to engineer even as generational divide.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. How far is it correctYo say that the 9/11 attack on the World Trade Centre was the attack on the US hegemony? Explain.
Answer: The US had established its hegemony through the launch of two operations namely ‘Operation Desert Storm’ where 75 per cent of the coalition forces were from the US and ‘Operation Infinite Reach’, a series of Cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda. These operations made the US more confident of the establishment of the US hegemony that no one could dare to challenge the US. But, suddenly hijackers from Arab countries attacked on the World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001 alongwith the other important buildings also as Pentagon building (the US defence department) and the capital building of US the Congress. It was the most severe attack on the US soil since the founding of the country in 1776.
Thus, it can be concluded that the 9/11 attack was the attack on US hegemony which challenged the US in its own way.

2. Describe any two constraints of American hegemony.
Answer: The US domination in military, economic, cultural aspects over other nations to show her supremacy is known as US hegemony.
Its constraints are as follows-
1. The institutional architecture of American State itself i.e. they follow the system of division of powers between three organs of government.
2. The open nature of American Society and Political Culture i.e. the American mass media may promote a particular issue on domestic public opinion but never opposed the purposes and methods of government in American Political Culture.

3. What military actions were taken by Clinton government despite their lack of interest were different from military power?
Answer: The US President William Jefferson Bill Clinton believed in the policy of soft issues like democracy promotion, climate change and the world trade in place of military dominance. But the US revealed its military dominance even during the Clinton era wherever it was required by the US in the following manner:
1. In 1999, the US responded.to Yugoslavian action against the predominant Albanian population in the province of Kosovo. The NATO air force countries under the US leadership bombarded targets around Yugoslavia for two months forcing the downfall of the government of Slobodan Milosevic and the stationary of NATO force in Kosovo.
2. In 1998, the US launched an ‘Operation Infinite Reach’ a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan in response to the bombings of US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya, Dar-es- Salaam and Tanzania.

4, Explain the hegemony of the United States of America as a structural power.
Answer: Hegemony as a structural power implies economic perspective of world economy. It can be summed up in the following ways:
1. An open world economy requires a dominant power to support its creation and existence.
2. The hegemon must possess both the ability and the desire to establish certain norms for order and must sustain global structure i.e. Bretton Woods system set up by the US after Second World Wan
3. The US reflects this hegemony by providing the global public goods, those can be consumed by one person without reducing the amount of goods available for someone else.
4. A classical example of structural power of the US is the academic degree Master’s in Business Administration (MBA) to sharpen business skills in a University.

5. “Economic preponderance of the US is inseparable from its structural power”. Discuss.
Answer: Economic preponderance of the US is inseparable from its structural power, it can be justified in the following manner:
1. The hegemon shapes the basic global economy in a particular manner aS
the US provided the Bretton Woods system after Second World War.
2. We can regard the World Bank, International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Trade Organisation (WTO) as the products of American hegemony.

6. In reference of structural power mention the global public goods by which the US established its hegemony?
Answer:  The global public goods can be consumed by one person without reducing the amount of the goods available for someone else:
1. Sea lanes of communications (SLoCs) is the naval power of the hegemon to underwrite the law of the sea and to ensure freedom of navigational international waters. These sea routes are commonly used by merchant ships.
2. Internet is the direct outcome of a US military research project that began in 1950. Even today, internet relies on a global network of satellites.

7. How does India maintain its relations with the US during post Cold War?
Answer: After the collapse of Soviet Union India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with global economy. India’s impressive economic growth rate made India an attractive economic partner for the US due to its technological dimensions and the role of Indian- American diaspora. These two factors are interrelated in the following ways:
1. The US absorbs about 65 per cent of India’s total exports in the software sector.
2. 35 per cent of the technical staff of Boeing is estimated to be of Indian origin.
3. 300,000 Indians work in Silicon Valley.
4. 15 per cent of all high-tech start ups are by Indian-Americans.

8. Explain the strategies which, may be performed by India to maintain Indo-US relations.
Answer: In today’s scenario India is supposed to decide what type of relations to have with the US. Moreover, the three strategies have been debated by Indian analysts:
1. Indian analysts observed military nature of US hegemony and suggested that India should maintain its aloofness from Washington and focus upon increasing its own comprehensive national power.
2. The analysts secondly suggest that India should take advantage of the US hegemony and the mutual convergences to establish the best possible options for itself in future perspective.
3. The third strategy is suggested that India should lead in establishing a coalition from the developing countries to become powerful and work out in weaning the hegemon away from its dominating ways. Moreover, it cannot be concluded that India may opt for one strategy to maintain Indo-US relations, but it needs a mix of strategies to maintain its own identity.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
During the Cold War years, India found itself on the opposite side of the divide from the US. India’s closest friendship during those years was with the Soviet Union. After the collapse of Soviet Union, India suddenly found itself friendless in an increasingly hostile international environment. However, these were also the years when India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with the global economy. This policy and India’s impressive economic growth rate made the country an attractive economic partner for a number of countries including the US.

Questions
1. Name the country which was India’s closest friend during Cold War years.
2. What was India’s policy during post Cold War years?
3. What made India an attractive economic partner for the countries like the US?
Answer:
1. Soviet Union.
2. India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with global economy.
3. India’s policy of liberalisation and its impressive economic growth rate.
2. Read the following passage (NCERT Textbook, page 47) carefully and answer the questions:
Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technology transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemon. Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. This is called the bandwagon strategy.

Questions
1. What is prudent during a period of hegemony?
2. What benefits can be acquired within the hegemonic system?
3. What is the bandwagon strategy?
Answer:
1. To take advantage of opportunities that a hegemon creates.
2. Increased trade, technology transfers and investment.
3. To extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system in place of being engaged in the opposed activities.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Examine any three factors responsible for the US hegemony in the world politics.
Answer: Three factors responsible for the US hegemony in the world politics are
(i) The US power lies in the overwhelming superiority of its military power. American military dominance today is both absolute and relative. In absolute terms, the US today has military capabilities that can reach any point on the planet accurately, lethally and in real time, thereby crippling the adversary while its own forces are sheltered to the maximum extent possible from the dangers of war.
(ii) No other power today can remotely match them. The US today spends
more on its military capability than the next 12 powers combined. Further more, a large chunk of the Pentagon’s budget goes into military research and development, or, in other words, technology. Thus, the military dominance of the US is not just based on higher military spending, but on a qualitative gap, a technological chasm that no other power can at present conceivably span.
(iii) The US invasion of Iraq shows that the American capacity to conquer is formidable. Similarly the US capability to deter and to punish is self-evident. More than forty countries joined in the US-led ‘coalition of the willing’ after the UN refused to give its mandate to theinvasion. Thus, no country can deny the US superiority in the world politics.

2. Explain the three types of US hegemony and give examples for each.
Answer: GO Hegemony as Hard Power:
(a) This hegemony signifies military status of America to be both absolute and relative. In absolute terms, it has military capabilities to reach any point on the Planet accurately and no other power today can remotely match them.
(b) The US military dominance is based on both the higher military expenditure and on a qualitative gap i.e. technological know-how.
(ii) Hegemony as Structural Power:
(a) It signifies ‘Economic Prospects’ of hegemon power to possess both the ability and the desire to establish certain norms for order and sustain global structure even including goods to be consumed by one person without reducing the amount of goods available for someone else.
(b) A classical example is academic
degree MBA (Masters in Business Administration) to presume business as a profession to be dependent upon skills that can be taught in a University which is uniquely American.
(iii) Hegemony as Soft Power:
(a) US Hegemony has its cultural dimensions also which implies class ascendancy in social, political and particularly ideological spheres to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser powers.Here, the consent goes hand in and more effective than coercion.
(b) For example, most of the dreams of individuals and societies across the globe, are dreams churned out by practices prevailing in twentieth—century America. All these are about the capacity to manufacture consent.

3. What are different natures of hegemony? Explain.
Answer: Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower. The natures of hegemony can be found out as follows:
(i) Hegemony as Hard Power:
(a) It is based on the military capability between the states.
(b) The US military dominance is based on their higher expenditures on military as well as the technological know-how.
(c) The US bears military dominance in both the terms i.e. absolute and relative. In absolute terms the US military capabilities can reach any point on the planet and no other power can be a match to them.
(ii) Hegemony as Structural Power:
(a) It is based on economic factors of the world dominated by the hegemonic power.
(b) Hegemony must sustain global structure to establish certain norms for order and the US has set up Bretton Woods System.
(c) The US hegemony has provided the global public goods to be consumed by one person without reducing the amount available for someone else as SLoCs and the Internet, MBA degree.
(iii) Hegemony as Soft Power:
(a) To dominate world even in reference of cultural dimensions i.e. class ascendancy in social, political and ideological spheres.
(b) The US hegemony has the capacity to create ‘manufacturing consent’ by the class to be dominated by the hegemon.
(c) The ‘blue jeans’ from the US is capable to engineer even a generational divide.

4. How can the US hegemony be checked?
Or
How long will hegemony last? How do we get beyond hegemony?
Answer: (i) The US hegemony has been symbolised as the global village and other countries as its neighbours.
(ii) If the headman of global village becomes intolerable, neighbours do not have any choice of leaving it, but develop a resistant.
(iii) Though there are some rules and norms called laws of war that restrict but do not prohibit war.
(iv) No single power can challenge the US militarily.
Still, to overcome the US hegemony, the following strategies have been found out: (a) Bandwagon strategy emphasises not to oppose hegemonic power, instead take advantage of opportunities that hegemon creates i.e. increased trade and technology transfer and investments to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system. (.b) To hide strategy implies to stay as far removed from the dominant power as possible as China, Russia and the European Union. This strategy is applicable to small states but states may not be able to hide for substantial length of time.
(c) Non-state actors as writers, artists and intellectuals have no boundaries to work with. They can reach beyond the limits of the states to mould the minds of people through their expressions.

5. What is meant by Operation Iraqi Freedom? Mention its main and hidden objectives. Give any two consequences of this operation.
Answer: Operation Iraqi Freedom was the code name given by the US to launch invasion on 19 March 2003. More than 40 countries joined in the US led coalition of the willing after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.
Main Objective: To prevent Iraq from developing Weapons of Mass Destructions (WMD). Since no evidence of WMD has been unearthed in Iraq. Hidden Objective: It was motivated by controlling Iraqi Oilfields and installing a regime friendly to the US. Consequences of this Operation
1. Although the government of Saddam Hussein fell swiftly but US has not been able to pacify Iraq.
2. A fully fledged insurgency against US occupation was ignited in. Iraq.
3. Conservatively estimated that 50,000 Iraqi civilians have been killed since the US-led invasion.
4. It is widely recognised that the US invasion of Iraq was, in some crucial respects, both a military and political failure.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the cartoon given above and answer the following questions:

(i) Which country is represented by this mighty soldier?
(ii) Why have the names of so many countries been written on the uniform of the soldier?
(iii) What message does this cartoon convey to the international community?
Answer: (i) The United States of America is represented by this mighty soldier.
(ii) On 19 March 2003, the US launched its invasion of Iraq under the codename “Operation Iraqui Freedom”. More than forty other countries joined in the US-led invasion. The names of these countries have been written on this soldier’s uniform.
(iii) This cartoon shows that America is all powerful and can go to any extent to serve its interests. It attacked Iraq even after the UN refused to give its mandate to the invasion.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
THE NEW U.S. FOREIGN POLICY?

Questions
1. Who has been represented by cartoon wearing cap?
2. What does this cartoon try to speak?
3. Which event can be correlated with this cartoon?
4. ‘You posed a potential threat’. What does this refer?
Answer:
1. The USA.
2. The US hegemony.
3. The US response to 9/11 attack against Al-Qaeda and Taliban.
4. 9/11 attack was an attack on the US hegemony and in response they launched operation Enduring Freedom to teach a lesson to the countries if it is dared to repeat.

3. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. How long do you think the US will stay on the superpower stage?
2. Except China, who can be shown as waiting in the wings?
3. What is being represented in the cartoon?
4. Why China has been represented as waiting in the wings?
Answer:
1. The US will stay on the superpower stage till the rest of the world is resistant with the US and the mega states like China, Russia, India and EU follow the strategy ‘to hide’.
2. Either Russia or India or EU.
3. The well established US hegemony or unipolar world and other countries may be next in the wings.
4. China is a mega-state who can stand at par US hegemony if it accommodates its full potential for the same.

B. On a political outline map of the world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. The country Iraq invaded in Aug. 1990.
2. The country in the presidentship of Saddam Hussein.
3. The country referred to as a hegemonic power.
4. The Operation Infinite Reach was launched against these countries.
Answer:
1. Kuwait (A).
2. Iraq (B).
3. The USA (C).
4. Afghanistan and Sudan (D) and (E).

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science US Hegemony in World Politics appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

2. Regional aspirations of the people of North-East get expressed in different ways. These include movements against outsiders, movement for greater autonomy and movement for separate . national existence. On the map of the North-East, using different shades for these three, show the States where these expressions are prominently found.
Answer: Tripura, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (See the Map at the end of the Chapter).

3. What were the main provisions of the Punjab accord? In what way can they be the basis for further tensions between the Punjab and its neighbouring States?
Answer: Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal in 1985 to be known as ‘Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord’ also to create normalcy in Punjab:
1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
3. To set up a tribunal to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To provide agreement for compen-sation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in Punjab.
5. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act ip Punjab.
But, peace could not be established easily in Punjab and resulted as follows:
(a) It led to many excesses by police and violation of human rights.
(b) It fragmented the Akali Dal.
(c) President’s rule was imposed and normal political process was suspended.
(id) Hence, Political process could not be restored in this atmosphere. Even during elections in 1992, only 24% electors turned out to vote. Consequently above mentioned added to tension between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

4. Why did the Anandpur Sahib Resolution become controversial?
Answer: Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed at the conference of Akali Dal at Anandpur Sahib in 1973:
(а) To ascertain regional autonomy and to redefine centre-state relations.
(b) Sikhs aspirations aimed at ‘bolbala’ (dominance) of Sikhs.
(c) It could also be interpreted as a plea for separate sikh nation despite of federal spirit.
But, it became controversial due to following reasons:
1. Due to lack of popularity of Akali Dal resolution had a United appeal.
2. Akali government was dismissed in 1980s it lost its importance.
3. Akali Dal launched a movement on the distribution of water between Punjab and its neighbouring states.
4. Movement went into the hands of extremist elements from moderate Akalis and converted into armed insurgency for which Anandpur Sahib Resolution considered responsible.

5. Explain the internal divisions of the State of Jammu and Kashmir and describe how these lead to multiple regional aspirations in that State.
Answer: Jammu and Kashmir comprised of three regions:
1. Kashmir region is Kashmir valley consisting Kashmiri speaking and mostly Muslim with a Kashmiri speaking Hindu minority.
2. Jammu region consists of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and speakers of various languages, in the areas of foothills and plains.
3. Ladakh region is equally divided between Buddhists and Muslims and maintains an little population area.
These internal divisions led to multiple regional aspirations:
1. One strand of separatist to demand a separate Kashmiri nation independent of India and Pakistan.
2. Some other groups want Kashmir to be merged with Pakistan.
3. Third strand wants a greater autonomy for people of state within Indian Union.
4. The demand for intra-state autonomy
is as strong as the demand for the state autonomy.
In present scenario, most of the separatist in dialogue are trying to re-negotiate a relationship of state with India.

6. What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:
1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for “Plebiscite”.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or “Greater State Autonomy”.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.
We prefer the first position because ‘Plebiscite’ provides better opportunity to people of J & K to protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

7. The Assam movement was a combination of cultural pride and economic backwardness. Explain.
Answer: Because:
1. It was against outsiders to maintain cultural integration of Assam.
2. There was widespread poverty and unemployment in Assam, despite existence of natural resources like tea, coal and oil.
3. It was felt that these were drained out of state without any commensurate benefit to the people.

8. All regional movements need not lead to separatist demands. Explain by giving examples from this chapter.
Answer: Because:
1. Regional aspirations are part of democratic politics.
2. Expression of regional issues is not an abnormal phenomenon.
3. Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland have regional aspirations in United Kingdom.
4. Regional movements are responded
through democratic negotiations rather than suppression. –
5. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
6. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
7. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.

9. Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer: Yes, we agree with the statement because India adopted a democratic approach on these regional aspirations in place of considering them as anti-national:
1. India’s democratic politics allows people and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspiration, and specific regional problems.
2. India’s democratic politics focus on regional issues and problems to receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process, i.e. regional aspirations of Assam, Punjab and North-East, Kashmir etc.
3. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
4. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
5. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.
It can be concluded that regional aspirations do not encourage separation but these respect diversity to retain unity in the nation.

10. Read the passage and answer the questions below:
One of Hazarika’s songs dwells
on the unity theme; the seven states of north-eastern India become seven sisters born of the same
mother ‘Meghalaya went own
way …., Arunachal too separated and Mizoram appeared in Assam’s gateway as a groom to marry another
daughter.’ The song ends with
a determination to keep the unity of the Assamese with other smaller nationalities that are left in the present-day Assam- ‘the Karbis and the Mising brothers and sisters are our dear ones.’
—Sanjib Baruah
(a) Which unity is the poet talking about?
(b) Why were some States of North¬East created separately out of the erstwhile State of Assam?
(c) Do you think that the same theme of unity could apply to all the regions of India? Why?
Answer: (a) The poet is talking about the Unity of Assamese.
(b) Because these states face that Assamese government was imposing Assamese language on them. Hence, regional aspirations began.
(c) Yes, same theme of unity could apply to all regions of India because Indian government deals with all these regional aspirations with respect to accommodate regional diversities.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. Name the three social and political regions of the Northern most state of India.
Answer: Names of the three social and political regions of the Northern most state of India—
(i) Jammu (ii) Kashmir (iii) Ladakh

2. Why were the seven small states created in North-East India?
Answer: Seven small states were created in North-East India because of demands for (i) autonomy (ii) movements for secession and
(iii) opposition to outsiders.

3. Which students group led the anti foreigner movement in Assam?
Answer: All Assam Students’ Union in 1979 (AASU).

4. Who were the signatories of Punjab Accord of 1985?
Answer: The then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal.

5. Jammu and Kashmir state comprised of which three social and political regions?
Answer: Kashmir, Jammu and Laddakh regions.

6. How did India meet with the challenge of diversity?
Answer: By redrawing the internal boundaries of the country, i.e. created Chhattisgarh Jharkhand and Uttarakhand etc.

7. What is the significance of Article 370? Ans. Article 370 signifies special status of Kashmir:
Answer: 1. To give greater autonomy to J & K.
2. To specify that state has its own constitution.
3. All provisions of constitution are not applicable to state.

8. Which Prime Minister expressed regret over violence against Sikhs after Indira Gandhi’s death?
Answer: Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in 2005 after twenty years in Parliament to regret over the killings of Sikhs.

9. When was first normal election held in Punjab after violence?
Answer: In 1997 in the post militancy era and alliance of Akali Dal and BJP scored victory.

10. What do you mean by Seven Sisters?
Answer. The ‘North-East region’ consisting of seven states is referred to as seven sisters.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Mar ks]
1. What does the special status given to J & K under Article 370 mean?
Answer: Article 370 signifies special status of Kashmir:
1. To give greater autonomy to J & K.
2. To specify that state has its own constitution.
3. All provisions of constitution are not applicable to state.

2. Highlight any two characteristics of Dravidian movement.
Answer: Dravidian movement was one of the first regional movements in Indian Politics
with the ambition to create a Dravid nation:
1. This movement used democratic means like public debates and the electoral platform to achieve its ends.
2. Due to this strategy, movements acquired political power in the state and became influential at national level.
3. Dravidian movement led to formation of‘Dravid Kazhagam’ (DK) under the leadership of Tamil Social reformer ‘E.V. Ramaswami Periyar’.

3. Mention the outcomes of Assam Accord of 1985.
Answer: ‘Assam Accord’ was signed between Rajiv Gandhi-led government and AASU leaders over the issue of ‘outsiders’ in 1985:
1. The foreigners who migrated into Assam during and after Bangladesh war and since were to be identified and deported.
2. The Asom G. ;,a Parishad came to power in 1985 with the promise of resolving the foreign national problems as well as to build a ‘Golden Assam’.

4. Which accord proved to be a turning point in the history of Mizoram? 
Answer: The accord between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga of 1986 granted full fledged statehood with special powers to Mizoram. Even MNF (Mizo National Front) agreed to give up secessionists struggle.

5. What was the role of Congress in the politics of Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer: Congress dominated the politics of J & K between 1953 to 1974 in the following manner:
1. National Conference remained iconic power with the active support of Congress for sometime but later merged with the Congress.
2. The Congress gained direct control over the government in state.
3. The Congress party also made attempts to have an agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and Government of India.
4. In 1974, Indira Gandhi reached an agreement with Sheikh Abdullah and he became the Chief Minister of State.

6. Which communities wanted separate states in the North East region?
Answer: Despite reorganisation of North-East in 1972, autonomy demand arose:
1. Assam communities like Bodos, Karbis and Dimosas demanded separate states.
2. They mobilised public opinion and popular movement and same area was claimed by more than one community.
3. Federal set up satisfied their autonomy i.e. Karbis and Dimosas were granted autonomy under district councils while Bodos were granted autonomous council.

7. In what ways the issue of outsiders continues to be a live issue in Assam?
Answer: Assam Accord could not solve the problem of immigration:
1. The issue of‘outsiders’ continues to be alive issue.
2. In Tripura, the original inhabitants have been reduced to being a minority in North-East.
3. The same feelings formed the hostility of local population to Chakma refugees in Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. What was the main outcome of Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal accord in July 1985?
Answer: 1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. A separate commission to be appointed to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
3. A tribunal to be set up to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act in Punjab.

2. What was Goa problem? How was Goa liberated and how did it become part of Indian Union?
Answer. 1. Goa was under Portuguese alongwith Daman and Diu since 16th century.
2. We expected freedom in 1947 but Portugal refused to withdraw but the people of Goa wanted to merge with motherland.
3. People of Goa^suppressed from religious conversions and civil rights known as ‘Goa Problem’.
4. In 1961, with in two days Goa, Daman and Diu were liberated from Portugal rule under ‘Operation Vijay’ by Government of India.
5. Goa became part of India and in 1987, it attained the status of ‘State Position’.

3. Describe the outcome of Anandpur Sahib Resolution of 1973.
Answer: Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed at the conference of Akali Dal at Anandpur Sahib in 1973:
(a) To ascertain regional autonomy and to redefine centre-state relations.
(b) Sikhs aspirations aimed at ‘bolbala’ of Sikhs.
(c) It could also be interpreted as a plea for separate sikh nation despite federal spirit.
But, it became controversial due to following reasons:
1. Due to lack of popularity of Akali Dal resolution had a United appeal.
2. Akali government was dismissed in 1980 and it lost its importance.
3. Akali Dal launched a movement on the distribution of water between Punjab, and its neighbouring states.
4. Movement went into the hands of extremist elements from moderate
Akalis and converted into armed insurgency for which Anandpur Sahib Resolution considered responsible.

4. State one similarity and one difference between the crisis in Punjab and Assam during 1980s.
Answer: Similarity- It was regional aspirations given to prior importance and solving the crisis through democratic negotiations. Differences- In Punjab, Akali Dal started the movement for formation of ‘Punjabi Sabha’ wdiereas in Assam, the crisis was against the people who were seen as outsiders or migrants who were considered to be competitors to employment opportunities.

5. How was DMK entered in Indian Politics? 
Answer: DMK i.e. Dravid Munetra Kazhagam entered in Indian politics with three demands in 1953-54:
1. To restore original name of Kallkudi railway station.
2. The addition of Tamil Cultural History in &hool curriculum.
3. To eliminate craft education scheme.

6. When did Independent India first use referendum procedure?
Answer: In 1967 in the case of Goa’s liberation:
1. In January 1967, the central government held a special ‘Opinion Poll’ in Goa asking people to decide it they wanted to be a part of Maharashtra or remain separate.
2. The majority was in favour of remaining outside of Maharashtra, thus Goa became a Union-territory.
3. Goa was granted statehood in 1987.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer thequestions:
The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of such movements against ‘outsiders’. The Assamese suspected that there were huge number of illegal Bengali Muslim settlers from Bangladesh. They felt that unless these foreign nationals are detected and deported they would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority. There were other economic issues too. There was widespread poverty and unemployment in Assam despite the existence of natural resources like oil, tea and coal. It was felt that these were drained out of the State without any commensurate benefit to the people.
Questions
1. Name the group that led movement against outsiders in 1979.
2. Why did Assamese seek the detection and deportation of outsiders?
3. What were the economic issues taken up as a part of movement?
Answer:
1. All Assam Students’ Union (AASU).
2. Because they feared that they would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority.
3. (i) There was widespread poverty and
unemployment in Assam despite existence of natural resources like oil, tea and coal.
(ii) It was also felt these were drained out of state without any commensurate benefit to people.

2. Read the passage  given below carefully and answer thequestions:
The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression. Look at the situation in the eighties-militancy had erupted in Punjab: problems were persisting in the North-East: students in Assam were agitating; Kashmir valley was on the boil. Instead of treating these as simple law and order problems, the Government of India reached negotiated settlement with regional movements. This produced a reconciliation which reduced the tensions existing in many regions. The example of Mizoram shows how political settlement can resolve the problem of separatism effectively.
Questions
1. How are regional aspirations dangerous for the unity of country?
2. What is meant by democratic negotiations?
3. Who was leading agitation in Assam?
4. What steps were taken by government of India to respond regional aspirations?
Answer:
1. It creates the problem of separatism in the country.
2. Democratic negotiations respect the demand of regional aspirations in place of suppression.
3. The students.
4. (i) Reached negotiated settlement with
regional movements.
(ii) Produced a reconciliation to reduce the tensions existing in many regions.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Describe the secessionist movement of Mizos. How as per the provisions of constitution, was it resolved on accommodation of diversities?
Answer: 1. After independence, the Mizo hills was made an autonomous district within Assam.
2. Some Mizos believed that they were never a part of British India and not to belong to Indian Union.
3. The movement of secession gained popular support after Assam government failed to respond
adequately to great famine of 1959 in Mizo hills.
4. It led to formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under leadership of Laldenga.
5. In 1966, the MNF started an armed campaign for independence.
6. The MNF fought gurilla war, got support from Pakistan government and secured shelter in then East Pakistan.
7. At the end oftwo decades ofinsurgency, Mizoram under leadership of Laldenga started negotiations with Indian government.
8. 1986, a peace-agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga which granted statehood to Mizoram with special powers and MNF agreed to give up secessionist struggle.
9. Today, Mizoram is one of the most peaceful places in the region alongwith big strides in literacy and development.

2. “Regional aspirations, regional inbalances and regionalism are a hindrance in the way of national unity of India”. Do you agree with the statement?
Answer: Because:
1. Regional aspirations are part of democratic politics.
2. Expression of regional issues is not an abnormal phenomenon.
3. Scotland, Wales, Northern Ireland have regional aspirations in United Kingdom.
4. Regional movements are responded through democratic negotiations rather than suppression.
5. Its examples are in eighties, militancy erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir Valley was on the boil.
6. The government of India settled down some negotiations with these
regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
7. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.

3. What were the main provisions of Punjab Accord of 1985? How has peace been restored on seewar lines in Punjab?
Answer: Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal in 1985 to be known as ‘Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord’ also to create normalcy in Punjab:
1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
2. To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
3. A tribunal to be set up to settle down sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. To withdraw the Armed forces special power Act in Punjab.
5. To provide agreement for compensation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in Punjab.
But, peace could not be established easily in Punjab and resulted:
(a) It led to many excesses by police and violation of human rights.
(b) If fragmented the Akali Dal.
(c) President’s rule was imposed and normal Political process was suspended.
(d) Hence, Political process could not be restored in this atmosphere. Even during elections in 1992, only 24% electors turned out to vote.
Consequently above mentioned added to tension between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1.On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. The 22nd State of India due to its merger.
2. The state out of which the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh were created.
3. Article 370 has a special significance for this state of India.
4. The state whose leader signed an agreement with Rajiv Gandhi.
5. An important state whose leader was Lai Denga.
6. Two states which were not part of state of Assam at the time of India’s Independence.
7. The state associated with Golden Temple and ‘Operation Blue Star’.
Answer:
1. Sikkim 2. Assam
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Punjab
5. Mizoram
6. (a) Manipur (b) Tripura
7. Punjab

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Regional Aspirations appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1.Which among the following best explains
the reason for growing concerns about
the environment?
(a) The developed countries are concerned about projecting nature.
(b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats.
(c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become persuasive and has reached a dangerous level.

2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the Earth Summit:
(a) It was attended by 170 countries, thousands of NGOs and many MNCs.
(b) The Summit was held under aegis of the UN.
(c) For the first time, global environmen¬tal issues were firmly consolidated at the political level.
(d) It was a summit meeting.
Answer. (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

3. Which among the following are true about the Global Commons?
(a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the Global Commons.
(b) The Global Commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.
(c) The question of managing the Global Commons has reflected the North- South divide.
(d) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global Commons than the countries of the South.
Answer. (a) The Earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as a part of global commons.

4. What were the outcomes of Rio-Summit?
Answer. 1. Rio-Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21.
2. It gave the concept of sustainable development to be combined economic growth with ecological responsibility.
3. Rio-Summit developed various contentious issues like Commons, Global Commons in global politics of environment.

5. What is meant by Global Commons? How are they exploited and polluted?
Answer. The areas or regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and region, common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere, Antarctic Ocean floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to
1. Vague scientific evidences, their lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management area out space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

6. What is meant by ‘Common but differentiated responsibilities’? How could we implement the idea?
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibili¬ties mean that the state shall cooperate in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earth’s ecosystem. As the states have common but differ¬entiated responsibilities over various contributions of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the tech-nological and financial resources they command.
We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:
1. The Rio-Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nations Framework convention on climatic change (UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common but differentiated responsibilities;
3. An international agreement known Kyoto Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

7. Why have issues related to global environmental protection become the priority concern of states since the 1990s?
Answer. Issues related to global environmental protection became the priority concern of states since the 1990s because at global level, the environmental issues drew attentions of various states at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio-de-Janerio, Brazil in June 1992 through Agenda 21:
1. Rio-Summit 1992 dealt with climatic change, bio-diversity and forestry.
2. Agenda 21 combined economic growth with ecological responsibilities.
3. Kyoto Protocol set targets for greenhouse emissions. The above mentioned conferences and summits raised the environmental issues at the global level to take steps by various states to check environmental degradation in a co-operative manner.

8. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save Planet Earth. Substantiate the statement in the light of the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with ozone depletion and global warming whereas southern states (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stand equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing counties are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing coun¬tries must be taken into consider¬ations in the process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

9. The most serious challenge before the states is pursuing economic development without causing further damage to the global environment. How could we achieve this? Explain with a few examples.
Answer. The economic development can be achieved even without damaging global environment by following practices:
1. In June 1992, Earth Summit provided some conservative measures for sustainable growth without damaging environment anymore.
2. The Antarctic Treaty of 1959 covered Global Commons for mutual economic development.
3. Kyoto protocol cut greenhouse emissions from industrialised countries to protect environment and to develop industries also.
4. Resource Geopolitics allocates and ‘ distribute natural resources among
the nation states of global arena for sustainable development of nations. Hence, the above mentioned practices protect the global environment and even though the states are developing we could achieve this challenge only if we follow the provisions and practices mentioned in all these conferences and summits.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. What does the UNEP stand for?
Answer. UNEP stands for the United Nations Environment Programme to hold international conferences to promote coordination to effective response to environmental problems.

2. What is Agenda 21?
Answer. Agenda 21 is a list of developed practices ecological responsibility to promote sustainable development.

3. What do you mean by Global Commons?
Answer. Global Commons are the common governance by international community over the areas or regions which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state or authority.

4. What is UNFCCC?
Answer. The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change (UNFCCC) provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of equity and in accordance with the common but differentiated responsibilities.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save environment. 
Answer. (i) India’s National Auto-fuel Policj7 mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
(ii) The Electricity Act of2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.

2. Mention any two outcomes of Rio- Summit.
Answer. 1. It provided a consensus to combine economic growth with ecological responsibility for sustainable development.
2. It recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which induced climatic change, bio¬diversity, forestry and development practices.

3. Give any two environmental concerns of global politics.
Answer. 1. Ozone layer depletion is an alarming concern for ecosystem.
2. Loss of fertility of agricultural land • due to extreme use of fertilizers and overgrazed grasslands.

4. Explain the most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people.
Answer. The most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people is the loss of land
which was occupied by their ancestrals. The loss of land referred to a loss of their economic resource also.

5. How did Earth Summit draw attention of global politics towards environmental issues?
Answer. The Earth Summit drew attention of global politics towards environmental issues because it produced conventions to deal with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which combined economic growth with ecological responsibility known as ‘Sustainable Development’ as well as Earth Summit laid stress on the cooperation of states to conserve, protect, restore the health and integrity of the earth’s ecosystems.

6. Mention the major problems of ecological issues.
Answer. 1. Common environmental agenda could not get common consensus due to vague scientific methods.
2. Management of outer space is influenced by North-South inequalities.
3. Technology and industrial development are also the issues over earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.
4. Ozone hole over Antarctic also revealed the opportunity as well as dangers inherent in tackling global environment problems.

7. What is Kyoto Protocol?
Answer. 1. Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement signed in 1997 in Kyoto for setting targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions.
2. Certain gases like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydro-fluoro Carbons etc. are considered responsible for global warming.
3. This global warming may rise the global temperature to have catastrophic consequences for life on earth.

8. What do you mean by common property?
Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over a natural resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members’ rights and responsibilities through mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned forest land appropriately fit the description of common property.

9. What is ‘Resource Geopolitics’?
Answer. ‘Resource Geopolitics’ is concerned with allocation of distribution of natural resources among the nation states of global arena:
1. It is about who gets what, when, where and how.
2. Inter state rivalry and western geopolitical thinking about resources have been dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power.

10. Is there any difference between the prospectives adopted by the rich and the poor nations to protect the Earth? Explain. 
Answer. Yes, the rich and the poor nations adopted different prospectives to protect the earth at Rio-Summit:
1. The rich countries were known as Global North whereas the poor countries were called Global South.
2. Northern states showed concern with ozone depletion and global warming whereas southern states showed
? concern for economic development and environmental management.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. What is meant by common property resources? Explain with examples.
Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over natural resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members’ rights and responsibilities through mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned forest level appropriating fit the description of common property.

2. Explain the meaning of global commons. Give any four examples of global commons. 
Answer. The areas of regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and require common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere. Antarctic Ocean Floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to:
1. Vague scientific evidences, these lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management over outer space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

3. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment.
Answer. The Indian government is participating in global efforts through a number of programmes:
1. India’s National Auto-fuel policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles.
2. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
3. Electricity Act, 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
4. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India is making real efforts.
5. India is also keen to launch a national mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

4. Define indigenous population. Highlight any two problems of such people.
Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as comprising the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. The following problems are faced by such people:
1. They lost their lands which belonged to them only for a long time.
2. The loss of land refers to a loss of an economic resource base.
3. Issues related to the rights of the indigenous communities have also been neglected in domestic and international politics for long.

5. Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to environment.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to Save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with Ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern States (Developing) warn to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stands equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing countries are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto Protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing coun¬tries must be taken into considerations in the process of development, appli¬cation and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

6. Explain India’s stand on environmental issues. What steps have been suggested by India in this respect?
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this contravens the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose restrictions on India when the country’s rise per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to still represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes i.e. National Auto fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001 etc.

7. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.
Answer. Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking following steps:
1. More focus should be on afforestation
i. e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from populous/residential areas.

8. What do you mean by environmental movements? Explain.
Answer. Environmental movements are the movements of a group which are environmentally conscious to challenge environmental degradation to work at both the national and international levels or local levels:
1. These movements raise new ideas and long term vision of what we should not do in our individual and collective lines.
2. These environmental movements may be diverse in nature i.e. the forest movements of the south, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa and India are faced with enormous pressures.
Categories of Environmental Movements:
1. Forest Movements
2. Movement against mining corporation and mineral industry (water pollution)
3. Anti Dam Movements against the construction of mega dams riot to disturb channels of rivers.

9. Oil is an important resource in global strategy that affects the geopolitics and global economy. Comment.
Answer.  Oil is the resource which generates immense wealth, hence it creates political struggles involving industrialised countries to adopt various methods to ensure steady flows of oil:
1. These include deployment of military process near exploitation sites and along sea lanes of communications.
2. The stockpiling of strategic resources.
3. They support multinational companies by making favourable international agreements.
4. The global economy relied on oil as a portable and indispensable fuel, hence, the history of petroleum is the history of war and struggle.
5. It created conflict between Iraq and Saudi Arabia as Iraq’s known reserves are second only to Saudi Arabia and since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual reserves might be far larger.

10. Water is a crucial resource to global politics. Explain with examples.
Or
Explain the water wars with examples.
Answer. Water is a crucial resource relevant to global politics. Regional variations and increasing scarcity of fresh water in some parts of the world point to the possibility of disagreements over shared water resources as a leading source of conflicts in 21st century, which is known as water wars:
1. Water wars may create violent conflict due to disagreement of countries over sharing rivers i.e. a typical disagreement is a downstream state’s objection to pollution, excessive irrigation, or construction of dams which degrade the quality of water available to downstream states.
2. States have used force to seize fresh water resources i.e. 1950, struggle between Israel, Syria and Jordan and 1960s over attempts by each side to divert water from the Jordan and Yarmuk rivers.
3. The more recent threats between Turkey, Syria and Iraq over the construction of Dams on Euphrates river.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes. For example, India’s National Auto¬fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency. Similarly, the Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts. The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012. And India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.

Questions
1. How India has participated in global efforts to protect environment?
2. What are Energy Conservation Act and Electricity Act?
3. Mention the efforts made by Indian government for biodiesel.
Answer.
1. It has launched a number of programmes i.e. Auto Fuel Policy, Energy Conservation Act 2001, Electricity Act 2003 to protect environment.
2. The Energy Conservation Act was passed in 2001 to outline initiatives to improve energy efficiency and Electricity Act, passed in 2003 to encourage the use of renewable energy by the Indian government as a conservation programme.
3. The Indian government is keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it, and the history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle. Nowhere is this more obviously the case than in West Asia and Central Asia, West Asia, specifically the Gulf region, accounts for about 30 per cent of global oil production. But it has about 64 per cent of the planet’s known reserves, and is therefore the only region able to satisfy any substantial rise in oil demand. Saudi Arabia has a quarter of the world’s total reserves and is the single largest producer. Iraq’s known reserves are second only to Saudi Arabia’s. And, since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual resei*ves might be far that actual reseiVes might be far larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.

Questions
1. Which region has much potential for oil production?
2. Which area is supposed to have far larger reserves than actually it has?
3. Why the history of petroleum is called the history of war and struggle?
Answer.
1. West Asia especially the Gulf region enjoys much more potential for oil production.
larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.
2. Iraqi territory is supposed to be fully explored.
3. The global economy relied on oil for much of 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The common wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Explain the meaning of‘global commons’. How are environmental concerns becoming important in global politics?
Answer. ‘Commons’ are those resources which are not owned by anyone but rather shared by a community. This could be a ‘common room’, a ‘community centre’, a park or a river. Similarly, there are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state, and therefore require common governance by the international community. These are known as ‘global commons’. They include the earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor and outer space.
Although environmental concerns have a long history, awareness of the environmental consequences of economic growth acquired an increasingly political character from the 1960s onwards. The Club of Rome, a global think-tank, published a book in 1972 entitled Limits to Growth, dramatising the potential depletion of the earth’s resources against the backdrop of rapidly growing world population. International agencies began holding international conferences and promoting detailed studies to get a more coordinated and effective response to environmental problems. Since then, the environment has emerged as significant . issue of global politics.
The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly consolidated at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janerio, Brazil, in June, 1992.
This was also called the Earth Summit. The Summit was attended by 170 states, thousands of NGOs and many multinational corporations. The Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called ‘Agenda 21’. But it left unresolved considerable differences and difficulties. There was a consensus on combining economic growth with ecological responsibility. This approach to development is commonly known as ‘sustainable development’.

2. Explain the concept of “common but differentiated responsibilities”. How and where was it emphasised upon?
Or
States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment. Analyse the statement giving suitable examples.
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibilities mean that ‘the states shall cooperate in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earth’s eco system. As the states have common but differentiated responsibilities over various contribution of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and financial resources they command. We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:
1. The Rio Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nation’s Framework Convention on Climatic Change
(UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common but differentiated responsibilities.
3. An international agreement known by its Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

3. Analyse India’s stand on any three environmental issues. Or
Analyse India’s stand on environmental issues.
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this convention is the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose restrictions on India when the country’s rise in per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to still represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes i.e. National Auto Fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001, etc.

4. Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics.
Answer. Some environmental issues have been considered as the global issues:
1. Natural resources are being depleted i.e. cultivable area has not been sustained any more, agricultural land lost fertility and grass lands have been overgrazed.
2. Waterbodies have suffered a depletion and pollution both.
3. A steady decline in ozone layer also poses a threat to ecosystem and human health.
4. Natural forests stabilize the climate, moderate water supply and habitat various species also which are also being lost creating destruction to biodiversity through industrial pollution etc.
5. Due to land based activities, coastal pollution is also increasing which affects fisheries.

5. Mention the rights of indigenous peoples.
Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country’at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of world and overcome them. The rights of indigenous people can be summarised as follows:
1. Indigenous people speak of their struggles, agenda and fights like social movements.
2. Their voices in world politics call for the admission of indigenous people to the world community as equals.
3. Many of the present day island states in the Oceania region (including Australia, New Zealand) were inhabited by various indigenous people over the course of show for thousands of years.
4. Indigenous people appeal to government to create indigenous nations with an identity of their own.
5. The World Council of indigenous people was formed in 1975. The council became the first of 11 indigenous NGOs to receive consultative status in the UN.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the picture represent?
2. Why do you think the fingers are designed like chimneys and the world made into a lighter?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. It represents ‘Industrial Pollution’ commenting on ‘Global warming’.
2. Fingers denote pollution coming out of chimneys from industries and the lighter represents burning and depleting of natural resources.
3. This picture draws the attention of the world towards industrial pollution, if it continues on, flora and fauna will be depleted which will create an imbalance to ecosystem.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Which countries are being shown here?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. The cartoon represents the methods adopted by industrialised countries to fulfil their essentials from weaker sections.
2. The stronger country like the USA and the weaker nation like Iraq.
3. Resources are the real strength of a nation and neo-colonialism play politics to obtain it.

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Environment and Natural Resources appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 4 Alternative Centres of Power

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Arrange the following in chronological order:
(a) China’s accession to WTO
(b) Establishment of the EEC
(c) Establishment of tlr EU
(d) Birth of ARF
Answer: (b) Establishment of the EEC – 1957
(c) Establishment of the EU – 1992
(d) Birth of ARF – 1994
(a) China’s accession to WTO

2. The ASEAN WAY:
(a) Reflects the lifestyle of ASEAN members.
(b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and cooperative.
(c) The defence policy followed by the ASEAN members.
(d) The road that connects all the ASEAN members.
Answer: (b) A form of interaction among ASEAN members that is informal and cooperative.

3. Who among the following adopted an ‘open door’ policy?
(a) China (b) EU
(c) Japan (d) USA
Answer: (a) China

4. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The border conflict between China and India in 1962 was principally over……..and……..region.
(b) ARF was established in the year……..
(c) China entered into bilateral relations with ………(a major country) in 1972.
(d) ………..plan influenced the establishment of the organisation for European Economic Cooperation in 1948.
(e)……….. is the organisation of ASEAN that deals with security.
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh, Aksai Chin,
(b) 1994, (c) the US, (d) Marshall,
(e) Asian Regional Forum.

5. What are the objectives of establishing regional organisations?
Answer: The regional organisations are established with the following objectives:
1. To make regional development at par the fast growing global economy.
2. To accelerate economic growth through the social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of United Nations Charter.

6. How does the geographical proximity influence the formation of regional organisations?
Answer: The geographical proximity influences the formation of regional organisations because:
1. It is influenced by almost some historical enmities and weaknesses.
2. Sometimes the similar interests come together.
3. Even fruitful areas for regional economy are also the result of geographical proximity.

7. Wha.are the components of the ASEAN Visiong020?
Ans: The com10nents of ASEAN Vision 2020 can be summed up as follows:
1. An ou.ward looking role in internatioial community.
2. To encourage negotiations over conflicts in tie region.
3. To mediate tc end the conflicts i.e. Cambodian conflict, East Timor Crisis, annual discussion on East Asian Cooperatioi through meetings.

8. Name the pillars aid objectives of ASEAN community.
Answer: The ASEAN community established the following three pillars:
1. The ASEAN Security Community
2. The ASEAN Economic Community
3. The ASEAN Socio-cultural Community.
The objectives of ASEAN community are as follows:
1. Territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontations.
2. To accelerate economic growth through social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of the United Nations Charter.
4. To establish dispute settlement mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
5. To create Free Trade Areas for investments, labour and services.

9. In what ways does the present Chinese economy differ from its command economy?
Answer: The present Chinese economy has adopted the ‘open door policy’ to generate higher productivity by investments of capital and technology. It differed from its command economy in the following manner:
1. It broke stagnancy of command economy.
2.Command economy lagged behind the industrial production but Chinese economy recovered it by privatisation of agriculture and industry.
3. The present Chinese economy established new trading laws and created Special Economic Zones leading higher rise in foreign trade. During Command economy the international trade was minimal and per capita income was very low.

10. How did the European countries resolve their Post Second World War problem? Briefly outline the attempts that led to the formation of the European Union.
Answer: After the end of Second World War in 1945, the European States confronted the ruin of their economies and the destruction of assumptions and structures on which Europe had been founded. European countries resolved their Post Second World War problems in the following manner:
1. Under the ‘Marshall Plan’ the USA provided financial help to revive European economy.
2. The US also created a new collective security structure under NATO.
3. Under the ‘Marshall Plan’ the organisation for European Economic Cooperation was established in 1948 to extend cooperation on trade and economic issues among the Western European States.
4. European Union was founded in 1992 for a common foreign and security policy, cooperation on justice and home affairs and creation of a single currency. It evolved from an economic union to political one over time.
The following attempts led to the formation of European Union:
1. The Council of Europe was established in 1949 for political cooperation.
2. The process of economic integration of European Capitalist countries led to the formation of European Economic Community in 1957.
3. The above mentioned processes acquired a political dimension with the creation of European Parliament.
4. The collapse of Soviet bloc put Europe on a fast track and resulted in the establishment of European Union in 1992.

11. What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organisation?
Answer: As a supernational organisation, the European Union bears economic, political diplomacy and military influence as a regional organisation in the following manner:
1. Economic Influence:
(а) Three times larger share in world trade than the US.
(b) Its currency Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
(c) The EU functions as an important bloc in the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political and Diplomatic Influences:
(a) Two members of the EU, Britain and France hold permanent seats in the Security Council to influence the UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
(c) The European Union play an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military force i.e. the EU’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.
3. Military Influence:
(o) The EU’s combined armed fo^fees are second largest in the world.
(b) Its total expenditure on military is second to the US.
(c) Its two important members— Britain and France also experience nuclear ascends of 550 nuclear warheads.
(d) The EU is world’s second most important source of space and communications technology.

12. The emerging economies of China and India have great potential to challenge the unipolar world. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
Answer: The Indo-China relations experience strategically organised as rising economic powers in global politics and to play a major role in Asian economy after the end of Cold War. It can be proved on the following grounds:
1. The new economic policies of India and China have broken their economy from stagnancy.
2. The creation of special economic zones led to a phenomenal rise in foreign trade.
3. China has become the most important destination for foreign direct investment anywhere in the world. Hence, it has large reserves for foreign exchange to allow it to make big investment in other countries.
4. At the global level also, India and China have adopted similar policies in World Trade Organisation to deepen integration with the world economy to challenge unipolar world.

13. The peace and prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of regional economic organisations. Justify this statement.
Answer: This statement represents the ASEAN Regional Forum and the European Union, where ASEAN Regional Forum is based on the notion not to escalate territorial disputes into armed confrontation:
1. The ASEAN is rapidly growing as a regional organisation with the Vision 2020 including an outward looking role in international community and to encourage negotiations over conflicts in the region.
2. ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) maintains coordination of security and foreign policy.
3. The EU has also been funded on the ground of common foreign and security policy, cooperation on justice and home affairs.
4. The European Union has also extended cooperation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.

14. Identify the contentious issues between China and India. How could these be resolved for greater cooperation? Give your suggestions.
Answer: The relations with China experience friendly gestures from India as India signed popular ‘Panchsheel’ to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated China’s membership to the United Nations. Still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-China relations:
1. In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted on unwarranted claim by China which now lie in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh.
2. Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India against China.
3. After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India, created humiliation.
4. China’s assistance to Pakistan’s nuclear programme also created differences.
5. China’s military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian interests.
All the above mentioned differences/ disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation-
1. Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between themselves.
2. Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and economic disparities.
3. Both the countries should develop understanding and respect.
4. Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in science and technology.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. What is meant by ‘ASEAN WAT?
Answer: ‘ASEAN WAY’ is an interaction that is informal, confrontationist and cooperative to promote supernational structures in the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN).

2. Correct the following statement and rewrite ASEAN stands for Association of South East African Nations.
Or
What does ASEAN stand for?
Answer: ASEAN stands for Association of South East Asian Nations.

3. In which year the European Union was established?
Answer: 1992

4. What is the common currency of EU?
Answer: EURO

5. Name any two older members of EU.
Answer: Austria and Denmark

6. Name any two new members of EU.
Answer: Estonia and Poland.

7. What does the circle with golden stars on the European Union flag stand for?
Answer: The circle with golden stars on the European Union flag stands for solidarity and harmony between the people of Europe.

8. Mention the major challenges faced in Europe after Second World War.
Answer: 1. Shattered many assumptions and structures on which European states maintained their relations.
2. The European states confronted the ruin of economies and the destruction on which Europe had been founded.

9. What is European Union?
Answer: European Union is a group of European capitalist countries established in 1992 for common goal of foreign and security policy, cooperation and home affairs.

10. What was Marshall Plan?
Answer: Marshall Plan was introduced by America to provide financial help for revival of European economy.

11. Name two countries of European Union who opposed America’s Iraq invasion.
Answer: Germany and France.

12. What is ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF)?
Answer: ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 to carry out coordination and foreign policy among ASEAN members.

13. What is the significance of ASEAN flag?
Answer: In the ASEAN logo, the ten stellas of paddy (rice) represent the ten South East Asian countries bound together in friendship and solidarity. The circle symbolises the unity of ASEAN.

14. When did China get independence?
Answer: 1949

15. What is SEZs (Special Economic Zones)?
Answer: Special Economic Zones are created to set up their own enterprises by foreign investors.

16. Mention the three pillars formed in ASEAN.
Answer: 1. The ASEAN Security Community
2. The ASEAN Economic Community
3. The ASEAN Socio-Cultural Com-munity.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Which four common symbols make the European Union look like a nation state?
Answer: The European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.

2. Mention any two steps taken by China to improve its economy.
Answer: 1. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were created to invite foreign investors to set up their own enterprises.
2. The privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.

3. Mention the agreements signed between India and ASEAN.
Ans: 1. India signed Free Trade Areas (FTAs) with two ASEAN members, Singapore and Thailand.
2. India is trying to sign on FTA with ASEAN itself.

4. What are the odds which limit the ability of EU?
Answer: European Union is a supernational organisation but in many areas its member states have their own foreign relations and defence policies that are often at odds as-
1. British Prime Minister Tony Blair supported the US’s Iraq invasion and many new members made US led ‘coalition of willing’ while Germany and France opposed it.
2. Denmark and Sweden have resisted the Maastricht treaty and the adoption of the Euro.

5. “The European Union is a nation state more than a Economic Union”. Justify the statement. 
Ans: The European Union has now started to act more as a nation state because:
1. European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and common currency.
2. European Union bears common foreign and security policy.
3. The EU has made efforts to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.

6. How can we say that ASEAN is an economic association?
Answer: To more extent it can be said that ASEAN is an economic association:
1. ASEAN Economic Community aims at to create open market and production based activities within ASEAN states.
2. ASEAN has created Free Trade Areas (FTAs) for investment, labour and services.
3. The current economic strength of ASEAN as a trading and investment partner to the growing Asian economies as India and China make this attractive proposition.

7. What are the objectives of ASEAN Economic Community? 
Answer: The objectives of ASEAN Economic Community are as follows:
1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN states.
2. To aid social and economic development.
3. To resolve economic disputes, the existing dispute settlement mechanism has been improved.
4. Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services have also been created.

8. How do ASEAN members commit to uphold peace and neutrality?
Answer: ASEAN members commit to uphold peace and neutrality-
1. ASEAN security community is based on the conviction that territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontation.
2. By 2003, ASEAN had several agreements among members states to uphold peace, neutrality, cooperation, non-interference, respect for national differences and sovereign rights.
3. ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1994 to coordinate security and foreign policy.

9. What are economic challenges of China despite its economic development?
Answer: Though the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, still everyone in China has not been benefitted by the reforms which can be judged by the following facts-
1. Unemployment has risen. About 100 million people are looking for jobs.
2. Female employment and conditions are bad as in Europe of 18th and 19th centuries.
3. Increasing environmental degradation and corruption.
4. Rising economic inequality between rural and urban residents.

10. How did relations improve after the conflict of 1962 between India and China?
Answer: Indo-China war of 1962 had complicated Indo-China relations. After 1976 the relations began to improve slowly because:
1. China’s policy became more pragmatic and less ideological due to change in China’s political leadership in the late 1970s when China got ready to settle the contentious issues.
2. A series of talks to resol ve the border issues were also initiated to develop harmonious relations.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. How has the European Union evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly political one? 
Answer: The European Union has evolved over time from an economic union to an increasingly political one. The EU has started to act more as a nation state. While the attempts to have a constitution for the EU have failed, it has its own flag, anthem, founding date, and currency. It also has some form of a common foreign and security policy in its dealings with other nations. The European Union has tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc. The process has not proved easy, for people in many countries are not very enthusiastic in giving the EU powers that were exercised by the government of their country. There are also reservations about including some new countries within the European Union.

2. Explain the political, diplomatic influence of European Union as a supernational organisation.
Answer: Political and Diplomatic Influences:
(a) Two members of the EU — Britain and France hold permanent seats in the Security Council to influence the UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
(c) The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military force
i. e. the EU’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.

3. What led to the evolution of the EU from an economic union to an increasingly political one?
Answer: The European Union has now started to act more as a nation state because-
(i) European Union has its own flag, anthem, founding date and common currency.
(ii) European Union bears common foreign and security policy.
(iii) The EU has made efforts to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.

4. What are the objectives behind the formation of ASEAN?
Answer: The objectives behind the formation of ASEAN are as follows:
1. Territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontations.
2. To accelerate economic growth through social progress and cultural development.
3. To promote regional peace and stability based on the rule of law and the principles of United Nations
; charter.
4. To establish Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
5. To create Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services.

5. Describe any four significant characteristics of ASEAN.
Answer: 1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN States.
2. To aid social and economic development.
3. To resolve economic disputes, the existing dispute settlement mechanism has been improved.
4. Free Trade Areas for investment, labour and services have also been created.

6. What role has been played by European Union in solving the problems of the European countries?
Answer: 1. The EU functions as an important bloc in international organisation as World Trade Organisation to intervene in economic areas.
2. The EU has expanded areas of cooperation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.
3. The EU has an influential role in the UN policies because its two members—Britain and France hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council.
4. The EU is influential in the areas of diplomacy, economic investments and negotiation.

7. Why India and China both view themselves as rising powers in global politics in spite of tensions between them? Substantiate your answer by giving any four events that have brought cordiality in their relationship.
Answer: Due to Indian initiatives, Indo-China relations improved. In 1954, India signed famous Panchsheel starting a new era of Indo-China friendship. But after 1957 some contentious issues had been arisen between them:
(i) Tibet Problem
(ii) Border Issues
(iii) Chinese Attack in 1962
(iv) Chinese Assistance to Pakistan.
Gradually, both the countries came together to develop harmonious relations between themselves:
1. Attempt to normalise relations were restored by exchange of ambassadors.
2. Joint Working Group was set up by both the countries to resolve border dispute.
3. Both of them committed to reduce the forces on Indo-China border.
4. Indian and Chinese leadership and official visits with great frequency.
5. Increasing transportation and communication links, common economic interests and global concerns.

8. Why was European Union founded? What were its objectives and significance?
Answer: The European Union was founded in 1992 for a common foreign and security policy, cooperation on justice and home affairs and to create a single currency. Objectives:
1. The circle of gold stars on the flag stands for solidarity and harmony between European Union States.
2. To expand areas of co-operation while acquiring new members especially from Soviet bloc.

9. Why ASEAN was established?
Answer: ASEAN is the regional association to provide a political forum to discuss political and security concerns-
1. Before and during the Second World War, the southeastern region of Asia suffered the economic and political consequences of repeated colonialism, both European and Japanese.
2. At the end of war it confronted problems of nation building, the progress of poverty and economic backwardness and the pressure to align with one great power or another during cold war.

10. “China has emerged as third alternative to world power”. Examine.
Answer: China emerged as the third alternative to world power since its economic reforms of 1978 as China has been the fastest growing economy since the reforms first began there-
1. China is projected to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by 2040.
2. Its economic integration into the region makes it drive of East Asian growth.
3. Its strength of economy are population, landmass, resources, regional location, political influence, added to its power.

11. How did China end its political and economic isolation?
Answer: China had adopted Soviet model of economy. Despite development, China faced economic crisis as industrial production was not growing fast, international trade was minimal. Under these situations some major pplicy decisions were taken-
1. China established relations with the US in 1972.
2. China proposed four areas of modernisation as agriculture, industry, science and technology in 1973.
3. Open door policy was introduced to generate higher productivity by investment of capital and technology from abroad.
4. Privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.
5. China set Special Economic Zones to remove trade barriers.

12. “Chinese economy has been recognised at the global level”. Justify.
Answer: China has introduced open market economy which is moving China towards global economy due to following facts-
1. The integration of Chinese-economy and interdependencies has enabled China to have considerable influence with its trade partners.
2. The open door policy has stabilised the ASEAN economy.
3. China’s outward looking for investment and aid policies in Latin America and Africa are protecting China as a global player.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
ASEAN was and still remains principally an economic association. While the ASEAN region as a whole is a much smaller economy compared to the US the EU, and Japan, its economy is growing much faster than all these. This accounts for the growth in its influence both in the region and beyond. The objectives of the ASEAN Economic Community are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN States and to aid social and economic development in the region. The Economic Community would also like to improve the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve economic disputes. ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour, and services. The US and China have already moved fast to negotiate FTAs with ASEAN.

Questions
1. What is the objective of ASEAN Economic Community?
2. Why did ASEAN establish Free Trade Areas (FTAs)?
3. How ASEAN Economic Community would resolve economic disputes?
4. Which countries have already moved fast to negotiate FTAs with ASEAN and why?
Answer:
1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN states itself and to aid social and economic development.
2. Free Trade Areas have been established for investment, labour and services.
3. By improving the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism.
4. ASEAN is rapidly growing into areas of regional organisation with its Vision 2020.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The conflict of 1962, in which India suffered military reverses, had long-term implications for India-China relations. Diplomatic relations between the two countries were downgraded until 1976. Thereafter, relltions between the two countries began to improve slowly. After the change in China’s political leadership from the mid to late 1970s, China’s policy became more pragmatic and less ideological. So it was prepared to, put off the settlement of contentious issues while improving relations with India. A series of talks to resolve the border issue were also initiated in 1981.

Questions
1. Why did India suffer military reverses as a result of conflict of 1962?
2. When did the relations between India and China begin to improve?
3. What was the change in the policy of China in the seventies?
4. Which efforts were made to resolve the border issues between India and China?
Answer:
1. Due to territorial claims principally in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh.
2. From the mid to late 1970s.
3. China’s policy became more pragmatic and less ideological in the seventies.
4. 1. It prepared to put off settlements
of contentious issues.
2. A series of talks to resolve the border issues were initiated in 1981.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. How did China rise to be an economic superpower? Assess.
Answer: China had adopted Soviet model of economy. Despite development, China faced economic crisis as industrial production was not growing fast, international trade was minimal. Under these situations some major policy decisions were taken-
1. China established relations with the US in 1972.
2. China proposed four areas of modernisation as agriculture, industry, science and technology in 1973.
3. Open door policy was introduced to generate higher productivity by investment of capital and technology from abroad.
4. Privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.
5. China set Special Economic Zones to remove trade barriers.
6. The integration of Chinese economy and inter-dependencies has enabled China to have considerable influence with its trade partners.
7. The open door policy has stabilised the ASEAN economy.
8. China’s outward looking for investment and aid policies in Latin America and Africa are projecting China as a global player.

2. Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military fields?
Answer: Because-
1. Economic Influence:
(a) Three times larger share in World trade than the US.
(b) Its currency Euro can pose a threat to the dominance of US Dollar.
(c) The EU functions as an important bloc in World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political Influence:
(а) Two members of the EU, Britain and France hold permanent seats in Security Council to influence UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of UNSC.
(c) The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except military force i.e. EU’s dialogue with China on Human Rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.
3. Military Influence:
(a) The EU’s combined armed forces are second largest in world.
(b) Its total military expenditure is second to the US.
(c) Its two important members— Britain and France also experience nuclear arsenals of 550 nuclear warheads.
(d) The EU is world’s second most important source of space and communication technology.

3. Discuss Indo-China relations.
Answer: The relations with China experienced friendly gestures from India as India signed popular ‘Panchsheel’ to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated China’s membership to the United Nations still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-China relations-
1. In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted an unwarranted claim by China which lies now in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin regions of Ladakh.
2. Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India against China.
3. After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India, created a humiliation.
4. China’s assistance to Pakistan’s nuclear programme also created differences.
5. China’s military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian interests.
All the above mentioned differences/ disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation.
1. Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between themselves.
2. Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and economic disparities.
3. Both the countries should develop mutual understanding and respect.
4. Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in science and technology.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
A1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question.
1. The given cartoon is related to which country?
2. Which two symbols in this cartoon helped in identifying the country?
3. What message does this cartoon convey to the world?
Answer:
1. This cartoon is related to China.
2. The Dragon and the Great Wall helped in identifying the country.
3. This cartoon conveys a message to the world that China is emerging as a great economic power.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

question.
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Name the policy that is being represented in the cartoon.
3. What does the ‘Competition’ refer to in the cartoon?
4. “We’ll have to get used to it”. What does it denote?
Answer:
1. India’s policy towards ASEAN.
2. ‘Look East’ Policy since 1991 to interact with ASEAN, China, Japan and South Korea.
3. Competition among various countries to develop potential relations with ASEAN.
4. It denotes India’s strategy towards using free trade areas with ASEAN

B. On a political outline map of world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. An older member of EU between Portugal and France. Symbolise (A)
2. An older member near Belgium and Netherlands. Symbolise (B)
3. The four new members of EU. Symbolise 1, 2, 3, 4.
4. Four old members of EU. Symbolise 5, 6, 7, 8.
Answer:
1. Spain
2. Germany
3. 1. Estonia 2. Poland
3. Hungary 4. Lithuania
4. 5. Finland 6. Denmark
7. Austria 8. Ireland

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Alternative Centres of Power appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 9 Recent Developments in Indian Politics

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Unscramble a bunch of disarranged press clipping file of Unni-Munni… and arrange the file chronologically.
(a) Mandal Recommendations and Anti Reservation Stir.
(b) Formation of Janata Dal.
(c) The demolition of Babri Masjid.
(d) Assassination of India Gandhi.
(e) The formation of NDA government.
(f) Godhra incident and its fallout.
(g) Formation of UPA government.
Answer: (a) Assassination of India Gandhi(1984).
(b) Formation of Janata Dal (1989)
(c) Mandal Recommendations and Anti Reservation Stir (1990)
(d) The demolition of Babri Masjid (1992)
(e) The formation of NDA government (1997)
(g) Formation of UPA government (2004)

2. Match the following:

Answer: (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

3. State the main issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989. What different configurations of political parties these differences lead to?
Answer: In the decade of eighties, the country witnessed five main developments which had a long lasting impact on politics:
1. End of Congress system.
2. Mandal issues
3. New Economic Reforms
4. Babri Masjid Issues
5. Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi 1989 elections led to defeat of Congress and emerged the era of ‘Multi Party- System’ when no single party secured majority in Lok Sabha elections since 1989. It led the era of coalition government also when regional parties played an crucial role in forming a ruling alliance.
Since 1989, there have been nine governments at the centre either coalition government or minority government supported by other parties. In this phase, government could be formed only with the participation of many regional parties.
The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties to represent Dalits and backward classes and regional assertions as well.

4. “In the new era of coalition politics, political parties are not aligning or realigning on the basis of ideology.” What arguments would you put forward to support or oppose this statement?
Answer: The statement is justified because in the new era of coalition politics the emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliance without ideological agreement:
1. Coalition politics has shifted the focus from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements.
2. Most parties of NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutva’ ideology of B JP still they came together to form government and remained in power also for full term.

5. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics.
Answer: The major trends in the electoral performance of BJP since 1989 can be traced as follows:
1. In the elections of 1989, the National front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by left front and BJP from outside because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. Due to Mandal Commission Report and implementation of its recommendations forced BJP to reconsider its support and finally withdrew it. Thus, in November 1990, the rule of National Front came to an end.
2. In 1996 BJP minority government was formed for a short period. In June 1996 BJP failed to get majority support in the vote of confidence and thus collapsed.
3. From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and others formed alliances NDA (National Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The regional Parties demanded more share in the government to extend their support.
4. The political competition during nineties and divided between the coalition led by BJP and coalition led by Congress.

6. In spite of the decline of Congress dominance the Congress party continues to influence politics in the country. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:  The defeat of Congress Party in 1989 marked an end of Congress dominance over Indian Party System. But Congress continued to influence politics in country:
1. Congress improved performance and came back to power after mid term elections in 1991.
2. It also supported United Front government.
3. In 1996, the left continued to support the non-Congress government but this time Congress supported it as both Congress and Left wanted to keep BJP out of power.
4. Thus, Congress remained an important party and ruled country more than any other party even during the period since 1989. But it lost the kind of centrality it earlier enjoyed in the party system.

7. Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.
Answer: In the first decade of electoral politics India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.
All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:
1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.
On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:
1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. -New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

8. Read the passage and answer the
questions below:
Party politics in India has confronted numerous challenges. Not only has the Congress system destroyed itself, but the fragmentation of the Congress coalition has triggered a new emphasis on self-representation which raises questions about the party system and its capacity to accommodate diverse interest,…. An important test facing the polity is to evolve a party system or political parties that can effectively articulate and aggregate a variety of interests.
—Zoya Hasan
(a) Write a short note on what the author calls challenges of the party system in the light of what you have read in this chapter.
(b) Given an example from this chapter of the lack of accommodation and aggregation mentioned in this passage.
(c) Why is it necessary for parties to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests?
Answer: (a) The author calls challenges to coalition government as well as coalition in Congress party itself to trigger a new emphasis on self-representation.
(b) To unsolve a party system to accommodate diverse interests but the political parties formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram for Dalits only.
(c) It is necessary for parties to accommodate and aggregate variety of interests to maintain the culture of India ‘Unity in Diversity’ so that there should be no space for separatist movements in India.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. Name two alliances/fronts that formed the government at the centre in 1989 and 1996 respectively.
Answer: National front-1989,United front-1996.

2. Mention any two incidents of violence against minority community which are a threat to democracy.
Answer: 1. Violent anti-Mandal protest
2. Godhra incident

3. What is the difference between a coalition party and coalition in Congress system?
Answer:  Coalition party government refers government of more than two regional and political parties whereas coalition in Congress system refers to encouragement of various factions inside the party with different ideologies.

4. Which organisation took up the cause of Bahujans?
Answer: The Backward and Minority Classes Employees Federation (BAMCEF) took various steps and strong position in favour of political power to Bahujans including SCs, STs, OBCs and minorities.

5. What was the status of BSP?
Answer: The Bahujan Samaj Party emerged under the leadership of Kanshi Ram supported by Dalit voters in Punjab, Haryana and U.P. But in 1989 and 1991 elections, it achieved a breakthrough success in U.P.

6. When did the phase of coalition politics begin?
Answer: With elections of 1989, coalition politics began in India i.e. National front in 1989, United Front in 1996 and 1997 and UPA in 2004.

7. When were new economic reforms announced?
Answer: In 1991.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. AWho was the chairperson of Mandal Commission? State any one recommen¬dation made by him/her.
Answer: Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal was the chairperson of Mandal Commission set up in 1978 to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of society and recommend ways to identify these classes.
The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations in 1980:
1. The commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy
2. Reservation 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
3. It recommended land reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.
4. Hence, Mandal commission made recommendations in economic and occupational structures.

2. State any two major political happenings of 1984 in India.
Answer: 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
2. Lok Sabha elections were held.

3. What was change in electoral performance of Congress party and BJP from 1984¬2004?
Answer: 1. In the elections of 1989, Congress secured 197 seats but did not get majority. Therefore, it decided to sit in opposition.
2. The National Front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by left front and BJP from outside.
3. The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to emergence of Congress as the single largest party and formed the government supported by AIADMK.
4. In 1996, BJP minority government was formed for short period. Later in June 1996 United Front with the support of Congress formed the
Government and H.D. Deve Gowda became Prime Minister and after 11 months I.K. Gujral came to power to rule till March 1998.
5. From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and other parties formed alliances NDA (National Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of Atal Behari Vajpayee and regional parties demanded more share in government to extend its support.
6. In the elections of May 2004, Congress and its allies formed UPA (United Progressive Alliance) and came to power and Manmohan Singh became Prime Minister.

4. When was India’s New Economic Policy launched? Who was its chief architect?
Answer: It was launched in 1991 as the structure adjustment programme and it was started by the then Prime Minister Narasimha Rao:
1. India’s New Economic Policy was launched by the then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
2. The economic changes first became visible in 1991 and radically changed the direction that Indian Economy had pursued since independence towards liberalised and open economy.

5. What happened to the state government after demolition of Babri Masjid?
Answer: 1. The BJP state government was dismissed.
2. Alongwith that, other states where the BJP was in power, were also put under President’s rule.
3. A case against Chief Minister of U.P. was registered in Supreme Court.

6. What led to the serious debate over secularism?
Answer: The demolition of disputed mosque at Ayodhya on December 6,1992, by Karseva, led to a serious debate over secularism:
1. Most political parties condemned the demolition and declared it to be against secularism.
2. A debate took place about using religious sentiments for electoral purposes.

7. List the four groups to be emerged in 1990s.
Answer: 1. Parties in coalition with Congress— UPA (United Progressive Alliance).
2. Parties in alliance with BJP—NDA (National Democratic Alliance).
3. Left front parties (Left Parties).
4. Other parties not to be part of the rest (Others).

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Describe any four major developments in the Indian politics since 1989.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties. This consensus consists of four elements:
(i) Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most political parties are in support of the new economic policies. Most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
(ii) Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes:
Political parties have recognised the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result, all political parties now support reservation of seats for the ‘backward classes’ in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
(iii) Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country: The distinction between state level and national level parties is fast becoming less important. State level parties are showing power at the national level and have played a central role in the country’s politics of last twenty years or so.
(iv) Emphasis on pragmatic consid-erations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement:
Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideo-logical differences to power sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutva’ ideology of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a govern¬ment and remained in power for a full term.

2. When and why did a long phase of coalition politics begin in India?
Answer: The era of coalitions could be seen after 1989 elections onwards. The Congress was the largest party but did not achieve a single majority, hence it decided to act as opposition party. This led to National Front (Alliance of Janata Dal and other regional parties). It received major support from BJP and left front. BJP and left front did not join the government but gave support from outside. The coalition era had many PMs and some of them held office for short duration.

3. “Coal ition government helps in consensus building”. Do you agree with the statement? Give arguments in support of your answer.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties consisting of following four elements:
1. Most political parties were in support of new economic policies to lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. All political parties supported , reservation of seats for backward
classes in education and employment and even to ensure the OBCs to get adequate share of power.
3. Role of state level parties was accepted in the governance of country.
4. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Hence most of the NDA did not agree the Hindutva ideology of BJP, still they came together to form a government and remained in power for full term.

4. Write a note on Hindu-Muslim Riots in Gujarat.
Answer: 1. The Anti-Muslim Riots took place at a station called Godhara in 2002.
2. A fire took place on a bogey full of leorsevakos returning from Ayodhya.
3. The hand of Muslims was suspected behind this fire.
4. Widespread violence took place against muslims in which nearly 1100, mostly muslims were killed.
5. Human Right commission criticised Gujarat government’s role in failing to control violence and provided relief to victims.
6. Gujarat riots show that the government machinery also becomes susceptible to passion and alert us the danger involved in using religious sentiments for political purposes.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer thequestions:
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997, BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.
Questions
1. What is meant by coalition politics?
2. Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government.
3. Write the full form of NDA.
4. What does a minority government mean?
Answer:
1. Coalition politics does not have maj ority even to a single party but parties may enter into an alliance or get support of other parties to form government.
2. NDA and United front.
3. National Democratic Alliance.
4. Minority governments are supported by other parties which did not join the government.

2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Infact the BSP, under Kanshi Ram’s leadership was envisaged as an organisation based on pragmatic politics. It derived confidence from the fact that the Bahujans (SC, ST, OBC and religious minorities) constituted the majority of the population, and were a formidable political force on the strength of their numbers.
Questions
1. Which organisation was formed by Kanshi Ram?
2. Name any two religious minorities.
3. Why are Bahujans considered a formidable political forces?
Answer:
1. BSP (Bahujan Samaj Party)
2. Muslims and Christians
3. Because Bahujans constituted the majority of population, hence they
were formidable political force on strength of their numbers.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. In 2014 elections, people have voted for a stable government at the Centre. Do you think that the era of coalition has ended? Support your answer with suitable arguments.
Answer: After Independence, Congress party came in power. It ruled over the country as a democratic government till 1977. One after the other the government was represented by the Congress Prime Ministers like Nehru, Shastri and then Mrs. Indira Gandhi. It was due to some political upheaval; a state Emergency was declared in 1975. During Emergency all the opposition leaders were jailed and their constitutional powers were seized. It made all the opposition leaders unite and form first united party in the name of Janata Party which came in power in 1977. The general election held soon after the Emergency. Though it couldn’t last long, but it started a new concept of rule in India. One after the other, India saw many governments ruled by alliance group, except a few single-party-led government. But with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then there have been nine governments at the centre all of which have either been coalition government or minority government supported by other parties which did not join the government. The National Front government in 1989, the United Front government in 1996 and 1997, the NDA government in 1997, 1998 and 1999 and then UPA government in 2004 and 2009 and again BJP-led NDA government in 2014 have been the coalition governments in India. In none
of these governments any one single party had the number enough to form the government at its own. But in 2014, there was a change in the pattern. BJP could gain 284 seats in the Lok Sabha election which was sufficient to form the government at its own -which required to only 272. But as the election was fought with a pre-poll alliance by NDA led by BJP. So the present government was formed with Narendra Modi, the leader of BJP.
This election shows that people are again turning to the single party government at the centre which may be stable. People have experienced the lack of stability, lack of policy decision and lack of proper development in the government ruled by the coalition group.

2. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts in 1989, a consensus appeared to have emerged among most parties. Explain any three points.(or)
Examine growing consensus over the crucial issues.
Answer: In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties consisting of following four elements:
1. Most political parties were in support of new economic policies to lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. All political parties supported reservation of seats for backward classes in education and employment and even to ensure the OBCS to get adequate share of power.
3. Role of state level parties was accepted in the governance of country.
4. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Hence most of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of BJP, still they come together to form a government and remained in power for full term.

3. What was Mandal Commission? Did it try to solve the problems of other Backward classes? State any two arguments in support of your answer?
Answer: Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal was the chairperson of Mandal commission set up in 1978 to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of society and recommended way to identify these classes.
The Mandal commission gave its recommendations in 1980:
1. The commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy.
2. Reservation 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
3. It recommended land reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.
4. Hence, Mandal commission made recommendations in economic and occupational structures.
The government of India accepted recommendations in 1990:
1. 27% jobs reservation has been made in central and state government.
2. Many Welfare Schemes have also been launched as Swarnima National Backward classes Finance and Development Corporation.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Describe the role of such government in Indian Democratic set up.
3. What does this statement “Support the government from outside” mean?
Answer:
1. A puppet government showing example of coalition government.
2. It plays negative and positive role both. In a negative way, it provides unstable form of government.
In a positive way, it provides opportuni¬ties to regional parties also in forming ruling alliances.
3. No direct participation and position in government but support in the formation of government.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the picture indicate?
2. Which party is being referred to as one party dominance?
3. Identify female character in the cartoon.
Answer:
1. It depicts change from one party dominance to a multi-party alliance system.
2. Congress.
3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi.

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Recent Developments in Indian Politics appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 9 Globalisation

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1.Which of the st atements are ‘True’ about
globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation began in 1991.
(c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation.
(d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.
Answer: (d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.

2.Which of the statements are ‘True’ about
the impact of globalisation?
(a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(ib) Globalisation has had a uniform impact on all states and societies.
(c) The impact of globalisation has been confined to the political sphere.
(d) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.
Answer: (a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(b) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.

3. Which of the statem ents are ‘True’ about
causes of globalisation?
(a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people.
(c) Globalisation originated in the US.
(d) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation.
Answer: (a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) It originated in the US.

4. Which statements are ‘true’ about
globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is only about movement of commodities.
(b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(c) Services are an insignificant part of globalisation.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.
Answer: (b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.

5. Which of the statements are False about globalisation?
(a) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth.
(b) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity.
(c) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisa¬tion.
(d) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation.
Answer: The statements (b) and (d) are false about globalisation.

6. What is worldwide interconnectedness? What are its components?
Answer: The worldwide interconnectedness implies to interlink the world through free flow of goods and services, technology, ideas and people across the globe to extend globalisation. This contains three components:
1. Capital Flow: It is the flow of resources through loans or business investments among the countries.
2. Trade Flows of Goods: It refers to exchange of goods among countries.
3. Labour Flow: It refers to ‘Brain drain’ by creating favourable conditions for employment.

7. How has technology contributed to globalisation?
Answer: Technical equipments as cell phone, internet, telephone and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.

8. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation?
Answer: The impact of changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces the state capacity i.e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime concern to set down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on the decisions taken by government because their own interest fulfillment also depends on government policies.
4. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.
5. State also withdraws from many of its welfare functions taken place at the level of economic and social well¬being.
6. To some extent developing countries have received a boost as a result of globalisation and became more strong and powerful clue to emergence of new technology.

9. What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?
Answer: (A) Economic Implications of Globalisation (Positive)
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
(B) Negative Economic Implications
1. Economic globalisation has created diverse opinion all over the world as to benefit only a small section of society.
2. It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. developed countries
have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their own citizens.
3. It has created disparities among states also by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
Impact of Globalisation on India
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investment have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities.

10. Do you agree with the argument that globalisation leads to cultural heterogeneity?
Answer: Cultural consequences do not assume to lead to cultural heterogeneity only. All cultures accept outside influences all the time. Some external influences may be negative even to reduce our choices. Sometime external influences enlarge the choices or modify our culture without overwhelming the traditions
i. e. the burger is not a substitute for a masala dosa, blue jeans can go well with a homespun Khadi-Kurta (a nique new combination by external influences). Hence, it can be said that globalisation does not lead cultural heterogeneity every time but it is supportive to promote cultural outlook and cultural homogenisation.

11. How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on globalisation?
Answer: Impact of Globalisation on India:
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investments have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities. India in turn impacting:
1. Through responding to 1991 financial crisis, Indian economy was liberalised to attract foreign direct investment.
2. India introduced new trade policy reforms to remove tariffs and restrictions imposed on imports.
3. Under industries, it abolished licensing system exempting few specified industries only.
4. Banking operations by private sectors were permitted to expand in the country.
5. To promote globalisation, India has adopted an open economy.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. To what extent does globalisation provide opportunities as well as challenges?
Answer: Globalisation creates new jobs in industries and MNCs and increases the volume of trade in goods and services. As a challenge it reduces the capacity of state to take decisions on their own.

2. Define Globalisation.
Answer: Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on interdependence.

3. What is WSF?
Answer: WSF is the World Social Forum, a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists .

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1 .“Welfare State is getting replaced by market.” Analyse the reason for this change. 
Answer: Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity. All over the world, the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well¬being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own.

2. How far is it correct to say that powers of states have actually increased due to globalisation?
Answer: To some extent globalisation increases the activities of state to help in development of economy as well as state capacity has received a boost also with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of state to collect information about its citizens.

3. What are two thrust areas of Globalisation?
Answer: Globalisation has two thrust areas:
1. Liberalisation provides freedom of trade and investment, eliminate restrictions imposed on external trade and payments and expand technological progress to globalise faster.
2. Privatisation permits MNCs to produce goods and services inside the country to attract FDI.

4. Which factors have contributed to the process of globalisation?
Answer: Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors.
2. Role of international organisations like JMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and privatisation.
4. Technological innovations.

5. Mention positive impact of globalisation.
Answer: 1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital ‘investment’.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts Foreign Direct Investment also.

6. Mention negative impact of globalisation.
Answer: 1. Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
2. The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
3. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
4. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
5. Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modern methods of cultivation.

7. Can we say that Globalisation is only an economic dimension?
Answer: No, globalisation is not only an economic dimension because it is a multi¬dimensional concept having political, economic and cultural manifestations. Globalisation is the process of exchange of ideas, capital, commodities and people.

8. “ Globalisation is a multidimensional concept”. Justify the statement.
Answer: Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other countries based on interdependence. It is a multidimensional concept having political, economic, cultural manifestations. It is the process of exchange of ideas, capital commodities and people.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Mention any four political consequences of globalisation.
Answer: Political consequences are positive and negative both as:
Negative Aspects
1. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is the ability of government to do what they do.
2. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
3. Sometimes state withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well being.
4. Market becomes prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities in place of welfare.
Positive Aspects
1. The primary status remains unchallenged basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and strong.

2. Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.
Answer: 1. Positive Economic Consequences
(a) It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
(b) It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries,
(c) The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
2. Negative Economic Consequences
(а) It has created diverse opinion all over the world so as to benefit only a small section of society.
(b) It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. Developed countries have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their own citizens.

3. What is globalisation? Highlight any three causes of globalisation.
Answer: Globalisation is integration of an economy with other economies alongwith the free flow of trade and capital. Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors
2. Role of International Organisations like IMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and Privatisation
4. Technological innovations.

4. Explain any two positive and two negative effects of globalisation.
Answer: I. Positive Effects (Any two).
1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital investment.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts foreign Direct Investment also.
2. Negative Effects:
1. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
2. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.

5. Explain any four consequences of globalisation.
Answer: 1. Economic Consequences
(a) It has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
(b) The restrictions imposed by other countries on allowing imports have beenreduced.
2. Cultural Consequences
(a) The rise of uniform culture called as cultural homogenisation.
(b) Global culture is the imposition of western culture on rest of the world.
3. Political Consequences
(а) In place of welfare state it is the market to become the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
(b) The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.
4. Others
(а) The left wing protests against economic liberalisation.
(b) Indian social forum also raised voices against globalisation.

6. “Globalisation has shifted power from nation states to global consumers.” Justify the statement. 
Or
What is the impact of globalisation on state’s sovereignty?
Answer: The impact of changing role of state in developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces state capacity i. e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime determinant to down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on decision taken by governments because their own interest fulfillment depends on government policies.
4. The old Welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.

7. What is meant by globalisation? Explain any three cultural consequences of globalisation.
Answer: Globalisation is integration of an economy with the other economies alongwith the free flow of trade and capital. Its cultural consequences can be summed up as follows:
1. The rise of uniform culture as cultural homogenisation.
2. Global culture is imposition of western culture of rest of the world.
3. Sometimes, external influences enlarge the choices or modify over culture without overwhelming the traditions.

8. Does globalisation lead to ‘cultural ho-mogenisation’ or ‘cultural heterogeniza- tion’ or both? Justify.
Answer: Globalisation leads to both:
1. Though cultural homogenisation is an arena of globalisation the same process generates the opposite effect also which prompts each culture to dominate over other culture resulting into heterogenisation.
2. Globalisation leads to the rise of uniform culture known as cultural homogenisation i.e. the influence of western culture.
3. The differences among powers remain the same despite the exchange of cultures. Hence it may be said that cultural exchange is only one of many processes.

9. A militant group issued a statement threatening college girls who wear western clothes’. Analyse.
Answer: This statement refers to the cultural implications of globalisation in the form of fear of a defence group about the imposition of western culture to lead a shrinkage of rich cultural heritage.

Passage Based Questions[5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of government to do what they do. All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well-being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. At the same time, globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. States continue to be important. Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens. With this information, the state is better able to rule, not less able. Thus, states become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.

Questions
1. How does globalisation effect on state capacity?
2. How have multinational companies effected the states?
3. How does the old welfare state react to globalisation?
Answer:
1. It reduces state’s capacity and ability of government to do what they do.
2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of government to take decision on their own.
3. The old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions i.e. maintenance of law and order and security of its own citizens.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Advocates of economic globalisation argue that it generates greater economic growth and well-being for larger sections of the population when there is de-regulation. Greater trade among countries allows each economy to do what it does best. This would benefit the whole world. They also argue that economic globalisation is inevitable and it is not wise to resist the march of history. More moderate supporters of globalisation say that globalisation provides a challenge that can be responded to intelligently without accepting it uncritically. What, however, cannot be denied is the increased momentum towards inter-dependence and integration between governments, businesses, and ordinary people in different parts of the world as a result of globalisation.

Questions
1. What is economic globalisation?
2. How does economic globalisation benefit the whole world?
3. How does the moderate supporters of globalisation view it?
Answer:
1. Economic globalisation generates great or economic growth and well being for larger section of population when there is deregulation.
2. Economic globalisation gives opportunities to countries to do best in their economy.
3. Moderate supporters of globalisation view it as a challenge to be responded intelligently without accepting it uncritically.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Explain globalisation. How has technology contributed in promoting globalisation? 
Answer: Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds — ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.
While globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element. There is no doubt that the invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip in more recent years has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism. So also today we should expect that technology will affect the way we think of our personal but also our collective lives.
The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely by technological advances. The pace of these flow may vary.

2. Explain any three benefits of globalisation with examples.
Answer: 1. Economic Benefits
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
2. Technological Benefits
Technical equipments as telephone, internet, telephone and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.
3. Political Benefits
1. The primary status remains unchallenged on the basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and strong.

3. Assess any three basics on which globalisation is being resisted in India.
Answer: Resistance to globalisation in India has come from different quarters:
1. Left using protests to economic liberalisation was voiced through political parties as well as through forum like the Indian Social Forum.
2. Trade Unions and farmer’s interests have also organised protests against MNCs.
3. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated protests.
4. Resistance has come from political parties also in the form of objecting to various cultural influences like availability of foreign T.V. channels provided by cable networks, celebration of Valentine’s Day and Westernisation of dress code.

4. How do the critics view the process of globalistion?
Answer: Globalisation has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its critical arguments can be categorized as:
1. Economic 2. Political
3. Cultural
1. Economic:
(a) Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
(b) It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
(c) Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing nations.
2. Political:
(a) Welfare functions of the state has been reduced.
Picture Based Questions
(b) Sovereignty of states has been affected.
(c) States have become weak to take their own decisions.
3. Cultural:
(a) People lose their age old values and traditions.
(b) The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
(c) It leads to shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Picture Based Questions[5 Marks]
1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon comment?
2. What is referred under the title ‘Yesterday’?
3. What message does the title ‘Today’ convey?
Answer:
1. Cartoon comments on the changing scenario due to globalisation.
2. It refers to earlier conditions of developing countries who were starving due to less growth in their economy.
3. Globalisation opened doors for new entrants from developing nations and resulted into brain drain.

NCERT SolutionsHistoryPolitical ScienceSociologyPsychologyHumanities

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Globalisation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions Class 10 Social Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing 

Q.1. What are the different forms of power sharing in modern democracies ? Give an example of each of these.
Ans. Ans. (i) Power sharing among the different organs of government (Horizontal power sharing). In a democracy, power is shared among the different organs of the government such as the legislature, executive and the judiciary. This is called the horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of the government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Under this kind of power sharing arrangement, one can exercise unlimited powers. Each organ has its own powers, and it can also check the powers of other. So this results in a balance of power among the various institutions.
=======================================================================
(ii) Power sharing among governments at different levels : Under this, people choose separate governments at separate levels, for example, a general local government for the entire country and local governments at the provincial, sub-national or regional levels. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called a Federal government.
====================================================================
(iii) Power sharing among different social groups : In a democracy, especially, in a multi-ethnic society, power is also shared
among social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries, there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and the administration.
(iv) Power sharing among political parties, pressure groups and movements : In a democracy, power is also shared among different political parties, pressure groups and movements. Democracy provides the citizens a choice to choose their rulers. This choice is provided by the various political parties, who contest elections to win them. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.

Q.2. State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power sharing with an example from the Indian context. [CBSE Sept. 2010]
Ans. (i) (a) India is a multicultural society.
(b) India is a democratic country.

Q.3. After reading this chapter, three students drew different conclusions. Which of these do you agree with and why ? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
Thomman – Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
Mattai – Power sharing is suited only for big countries that have regional divisions.
Ousep – Every society needs some form of power sharing even if they are small or do not have social divisions.
Ans. Every society needs some form of power sharing even if they are small or do not have social divisions because :
(i) Some power sharing is always needed to give voice to all, and representation to all the members of the country.
(ii) Power sharing solutions are adopted to maintain stability in the system, and peace among various groups to ensure the smooth functioning of the system, irrespective of the size of the country.

Q.4. The Mayor of Merchtem, a town near Brussels in Belgium, has defended a ban on speaking French in the town’s schools. He said that the ban would help all non¬Dutch speakers integrate in this Flemish town. Do you think that this measure is in keeping with the spirit of Belgium’s power sharing arrangements ? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
Ans. No, the measure taken by the Mayor of Merchtem is not in keeping with the spirit of Belgium’s power sharing arrangements. As 59 per cent of the population in the Flemish region speaks Dutch, the ban on speaking French in the town’s schools would prevent French and Dutch speakers to mingle with each other, and also create feelings of distrust and suspicion. The ban ignores the regional differences and cultural diversities. It is against the spirit of accommodating every linguistic group, and creating a right environment for everyone to live. The ban, rather, makes the ground for a civic strife, and a possible division of the community on linguistic lines.

Q.5. Read the following passage, and pick out any one of the prudential reasons for power sharing offered in this.
“We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the dream of Mahatma Gandhi, and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution. The Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy. It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy – in the hands of the people. Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption, and increase administrative efficiency. When people participate in the planning and implementation of developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise greater control over these schemes. This would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus the Panchayati Raj will strengthen the foundations of our democracy.”
Ans. The following prudential reasons are cited into the passage for power sharing.
(a) Reducing corruption by giving power into the hands of the people and thus, making them responsible for their own decisions.
(b) Increasing administrative efficiency by delegating the decision-making function to the people affected by it.
(c) Improving the efficiency of the system by reducing the number of middlemen, and transferring the planning and implementation to the people concerned through the Panchayats.

Multiple Choice Questions

Previous Year’s Questions
1. Choose the correct option : [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
Power sharing is desirable because it helps :
(a) To increase pressure on government.
(b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
(c) To generate awareness among people.
(d) To increase percentage of voters.

2. Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri Lanka ? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims

3. Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power ? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Power sharing between different states.
(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.
(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government.
(d) Power sharing between different political parties.

4. Which of the following statements is NOT true ? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country is possible only by sharing power.
(b) In Sri Lanka, the majority community wants to force domination over others.
(c) In Sri Lanka, the demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by Tamils has been granted.
(d) Division of Belgium along linguistic lines was averted due to power sharing.

5. Who elects the community government in Belgium ? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.

NCERT Questions
6. Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka :
A. In Belgium the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French speaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka the policies of government ensured the dominance of the Sinhala speaking majority.
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharingto protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
Which of the statements given are correct ?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B, and D
(c) C and D
(d) B, C and D

7. Match List I (forms of powe- sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists :

(a) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C
(b) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A
(c) (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – C
(d) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

Additional Questions
8. The Community Government signifies:
(a) The powers of government regarding community development.
(b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community.
(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.
(d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a particular community.

9. System of ‘checks and balances’ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers.

10. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants is
(a) Community Government
(b) Federal Government
(c) Majoritarian
(d) Prudential

11. Power sharing is :
(a) the very spirit of democracy.
(b) separation of powers at different levels.
(c) system of checks and balances.
(d) a type of balancing powers.

12. Vertical division of power is :
(a) a system in which each organ of government checks the others.
(b) a type of distribution in which power is shared among different organs of government.
(c) a type of distribution of power which involves the higher and lower levels of government.
(d) a type of government elected by people.

13. Coalition government is the government:
(a) based on prudential and moral reasons.
(b) government of majority community.
(c) government elected by the people.
(d) an alliance government formed by two or more parties, if no single party gets majority in the election.

14. The word ‘ethnic’ signifies :
(a) different religions.
(b) social division on shared culture.
(c) a violent conflict between opposite groups.
(d) a careful calculation of gains and losses.

15. Which are the important features of prudential reason ?
(i) Emphasises intrinsic worth of power sharing.
(ii) Based on careful calculation of gains or losses.
(iii) Based on moral consideration.
(iv) Stresses on beneficial consequences.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

16. Which statement justifies ethnic complexity of Sri Lanka ?
(a) Sinhalese – 80%, Tamils – 20%
(b) Sinhalese – 60%, Tamils – 40%
(c) Sinhalese – 74%, Tamils – 18%
(d) Sinhalese – 76%, Tamils – 18%

17. Consider the statements on Ethnic composition :
(a) The Ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex because of diverse language speaking people like Dutch speaking, French speaking and German speaking.
(b) French speaking community was in minority and more powerful.
(c) Dutch speaking community was in majority and less powerful.
(d) There was conflict between the French and the Dutch communities.

18. Prudential reasons of power sharing stresses on:
(a) The stability of political order.
(b) To reduce the possibility of conflict between social group.
(c) A fair chance/share to minority.
(d) All the above.

19. The majority of population in Brussels, the capital city of Belgium speaks :
(a) French
(b) Dutch
(c) German
(d) Roman

20. The proportion of Tamils in Sri Lanka’s total population is about:
(a) 8 per cent
(b) 18 per cent
(c) 28 per cent
(d) 38 per cent

21. In India, power sharing mechanism does not directly involve:
(a) Judiciary
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive
(d) Industry

22. Power sharing does not:
(a) accommodate diversities.
(b) speed up the decision making process.
(c) increases conflict among different commuriities.
(d) All the above.

23. Coalition Government implies :
(a) power sharing among different organs of the government.
(b) power sharing by different communities.
(c) power sharing by two or more political parties.
(d) power sharing within the government at different levels.

24. The religion of state in Sri Lanka is :
(a) Buddhism
(b) Christianity
(c) Hinduism
(d) Islam.

25. A strategy under which all the major segments of the society are provided with a permanent share of power in the governance of the country is known as:
(a) secularism
(b) power sharing
(c) majoritarianism
(d) minoritism.

26. The majority of population in Belgium lives in:
(a) Wallonia region and speaks French
(b) Wallonia region and speaks Dutch
(c) Flemish region and speaks Dutch
(d) Flemish region and speaks French

27. Belgium successfully solved its problem by :
(a) rejecting policy of majoritarianism.
(b) developing power sharing mechanism.
(c) respecting the interest of different communities.
(d) All the above.

28. The power of different levels of government shows:
(a) separation of powers.
(b) community Government.
(c) coalition Government.
(d) federal division of power.

29. Match the following :
A. Ethnic Composition (i) A violent conflict between opposite groups within a country.
B. Majoritarianism (ii) Based on prudence, i.e., a careful calculation of gains or losses.
C. Civil War (iii) A social divisions based on shared culture.
D. Prudential reason (iv) A belief that majority community should be able to rule a country.
E. Vertical division (v) Power is shared among of power different organs of the government.
F. Horizontal (vi) Power is involved at division of the higher and lower power levels of government.
(a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (v), F – (vi)
(b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii), E – (vi), F – (v)
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv), E – (v), F – (vi)
(d) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (iv), D – (v), E – (vi), F – (i)

30. Consider the following two statements on power sharing and select the answer using codes given below:
A. Power sharing is good for democracy.
B. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of the statements are true and false ?
(a) A is true but B is false
(b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false
(d) A is false but B is true.

31. Indicate true and false for given statements and give valid reasons:
(a) In Belgium, the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French speaking community.
(b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the domination of the Sinhala speaking majority.
(c) The Transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one presented possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
(d) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power to protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.

ANSWERS

31. (a) False – because French people tried to impose their domination.
(b) True – As Sri Lanka followed majoritarian concept.
(c) False – But it helped in power sharing on linguistic lines.
(d) True – As Tamils were alienated from the main stream of power sharing.

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

The post NCERT Solutions Class 10 Social Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT solutions class 10 History The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China -CBSE

Q.1. Write a note on
(a) What was meant by the ‘civilizing mission’ of the colonisers ?
(b) Huynh Phu So.
Ans. Like the British in India, the French claimed that they were bringing modem civilisation to the Vietnamese. They were of the opinion that Europe had developed the most advanced civilization. So it became the duty of the Europeans to introduce modem ideas in their colonies.
(i) They introduced modern education.
(ii) Tonkin Free Schools were opened to provide modern education.
Motive : The real motive behind this motion was to exploit the natural and human resources of Vietnam.
(b)Huynh Fhu So was a Buddhist religious scholar who was a native of the Mekong river delta.
His role in arousing the anti-imperialist sentiments :
(i) Founder of Hoa Hao Movement: Huynh Phu was the founder of the Hoa Hao Movement which drew on religious ideas popular in the anti-French uprisings of the nineteenth century.
(ii) Social reformer : He was a great social reformer as he opposed the sale of child brides, gambling, and the use of alcohol and opium.
(iii) Struggle against foreign rule: Huynh Phu So faced a great deal of trouble when he began to spread his ideas of religion, because most of his followers were Vietnamese nationalists.
The colonial government declared him mad, called him the Mad Bonze, and put him in a mental asylum. The French authorities exiled him to Laos, and sent many of his followers to concentration camps.

Q.2. Explain the following –
(a) Only one-third of the students in Vietnam would pass the school-leaving examinations.
(b) The French began building canals and draining lands in the Mekong delta.
(c) The government made the Saigon Native Girls School take back the students it had expelled. [CBSE 2014(D)]
Or
Why did a major protest erupt in 1926 in the Saigon Native Girls School in Vietnam ? Explain. [CBSE 2014]
Or
Describe the incident that took place in 1926 in Saigon Native Girls School.
[CBSE 2014]
(d) Rats were most common in the modern, newly built areas of Hanoi.
Ans. (a) This was largely because of a deliberate policy of failing students, particularly in the final year, so that they could not qualify for the better-paid jobs. Usually, as many as two-thirds of the students were failed, (b) The French began by building canals and draining lands in the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production, and allowed the export of rice to the international market. The area under rice cultivation went up from about 274,000 hectares in 1873 to around 1.1 million hectares in around 1900 and about 2.2 million in 1930. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931, had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
(b) In 1926, a major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School. A Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to the back of the class, and allow a local French student to occupy the front bench. She refused. The principal, also a colon (French people in the colonies), expelled her. When angry students protested, they too were expelled, leading to a further spread of open protests. Seeing the situation getting out of control, the government forced the school to take the students back.
(c) The French part of Hanoi was built as a beautiful and clean city with wide avenues and a well-laid-out sewer system, while the ‘native quarter’ was not provided with any modem facilities. The refuge from the old city drained straight but into the river or, during heavy rains or floods, overflowed into the streets. Thus, what was installed to create a hygienic environment in the French city became the cause of the plague. The large sewers in the modern part of the city, a symbol of modernity, were an ideal and protected breeding ground for the rats. The sewers also served as a great transport system, allowing the rats to move around the city without any problem. And rats began to enter the well-cared homes of the French through the sewage pipes.

Q.3. Describe the ideas behind the Tonkin Free School. To what extent was it a typical example of colonial ideas in Vietnam ? [CBSE 2009 (F), 2013 (O)]
Ans. Ideas behind Tonkin Schools :
(i) Spread of Western style Education : These schools were started in 1907 to provide a Western style education. This education included classes in science, hygiene and French (these classes were held in the evening and had to be paid for separately).
(ii) To consolidate their power : The French were faced with yet another problem in the sphere of education: the elites in Vietnam were powerfully influenced by Chinese culture. To consolidate their power, the French had to counter this Chinese influence. So they systematically dismantled the traditional educational system and established French schools for the Vietnamese.
(iii) Educated labour for administration : The French needed an educated local labour force.
(iv) To demonstrate superiority of French culture : Many scholars believed that by learning the language, the Vietnamese would be introduced to the culture and civilisation of France. This would help create an ‘Asiatic France solidly tied to European France’. The educated people in Vietnam would respect French sentiments and ideals, see the superiority of French culture, and work for the French
 It was a typical example of colonial ideas as
(i) Civilising Mission : Like the British in India, the French claimed that they were bringing modern civilisation to the Vietnamese. They took for granted that Europe had developed the most advanced civilisation. So it became the duty of the Europeans to introduce these modern ideas to the colony even if this meant destroying local cultures, religions and traditions, because these were seen as outdated and prevented modem development.
(ii) Racial Discrimination policy : The French considered themselves as superior race. They started policy of discrimination even in schools also. The front rows in the schools were reserved for the French students only.
(iii) Justification of French rule : School textbooks glorified the French and justified colonial rule. The Vietnamese were represented as primitive and backward, capable of manual labour but not of intellectual reflection; they could work in the
fields but not rule themselves; they were ‘skilled copyists’ but not creative. School children were told that only French rule could ensure peace in Vietnam.
(iv) Use of education to change the values and culture : By introducing French schools the French tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of the people, to make them believe in the superiority of French civilisation and the inferiority of the Vietnamese.
(v) Failing the Vietnamese in the final year : Only the Vietnamese elite – comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools, and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school­leaving examination. This was largely because of a deliberate policy of failing students, particularly in the final year, so that they could not qualify for the better-paid jobs.

Q. 4. What was Phan Chu Trinh’s objective for Vietnam ? How were his ideas different from those of Phan Boi Chau ? [CBSE March 2011]
Ans.Both Phan Boi Chau and Phan Chau Trinh were Vietnamese nationalists to the core. Both were absolutely anti-colonialists and worked to free Vietnam from the French domination.
Chau and Trinh, both wanted to modernise Vietnam.
In short, both Chau and Trinh were looking at the same end – a free sovereign modern Vietnam.
However, they differed on the means to pursue the same end. Their views on different issues can be briefly tabulated as follows :

Q. 5. How did the textbooks represent Vietnamese during the period of French colonization ? Explain. [CBSE 2014]
Ans. (i) School textbooks glorified the French and justified colonial rule while Vietnamese were represented as primitive and backward.
(ii) They were capable of manual labour but not of intellectual reflection.
(iii) They could work in the fields but not rule themselves.
(iii) They were ‘skilled copyists’ but not creative.
(iv) School children were told that only French rule could ensure peace in Vietnam. Since the establishment of French rule, the Vietnamese peasant no longer lives in constant terror of pirates.

Q.6. To counter the Chinese influence what steps did the French take in the sphere of education ? What were the two broad opinions on this question ? [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (1) To counter Chinese influence, French took the following steps:
(i) They dismantled the traditional education system of Vietnam.
(ii) They established French school of Vietnamese.
(iii) They propagated Western culture among Vietnamese youths.
(iv) The few who learnt French and acquired French culture were to be rewarded with French citizenship.
(2) Two broad opinions:
(i) Some emphasized the need to use the French language as medium of instruction.
(ii) Others were opposed to French being the only medium of instruction. They suggested French to be taught in higher classes and Vietnamese in lower classes.

Q.7. How was the idea of “looking modem” implemented in Tonkin Free School ? Explain.           [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (i) Students were suggested to adopt Western style of education.
(ii) This education included classes in science, hygiene and French.
(iii) Traditionally, Vietnamese youths kept long hair. They were asked to cut their hair short.
(iv) These schools encouraged students to wear western clothes to play western games.
(v) French promoted the youths to study Western customs.

Q.8. How did the long war between the US and Vietnam come to an end ? Describe. [CBSE 2012]
Ans. (i) The US failed to achieve its objective. Vietnam’s resistance could not be crushed.
(ii) It proved costly to the US. There were high casualties on the US side.
(iii) It was the first war shown on the television. Battles were shown on daily news world over.
(iv) People were disillusioned with the US and its policy of war was criticized.
(v) Widespread questioning of government policy strengthened moves to end war. Finally, a peac treaty was signed in Paris in January, 1974.

Q.9. Explain the reasons for the French Colonisers to scrap the bounty programme for rat hunting in 1902-03. [CBSE 2014]
Or
What was the purpose to start ‘Rat Hunt’ programme by the French in Vietnam in 1902 ? How the purpose got defeated ?[CBSE 2012]
Or
Describe the ‘Rat Hunt’ activity introduced by the French in Vietnam. [CBSE 2015 (O)]
Ans. (1) (i) The modern part of Hanoi was struck by bubonic plague. To fight the plague, French started Rat Hunt programme in 1902.
(ii) The people were paid for each rat they hunted.
(2) (i) The purpose of rat hunt was finally defeated.
(iii) The French hired Vietnamese workers to catch the rats and paid them for the same. This proved a failed attempt.
(iv) Vietnamese befooled the government by just showing the tail and allowing the rate to go free.
(v) They took it as a way to earn profit.Defeated by the resistance of the weak, the French were forced to scrap the bounty programme.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why was the Tonkin Free School started in 1907 in Vietnam? [AI 2012]
(a) To provide modern education.
(b) To provide western-style education.
(c) To provide education to Vietnamese only.

2. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Hoa Hoa Movement in Vietnam’. [AI 2012]
(a) Phan Chu Trinh
(b) Liang Qichao
(c) Phan Boi Chau
(d) Huynh Phu So

3. Which one of the following was NOT an impact of the Great Depression of 1930’s on Vietnam? [Delhi 2011]
(a) Vietnam was occupied by Japan.
(b) The price of rice and rubber fell.
(c) There was an increase in unemployment.
(d) There were rural uprisings.

4. Which one of the following was an impact of the Great Depression of 1930s on Vietnam? [AI 2011]
(a) Japan defeated and occupied Vietnam.
(b) Price of rice and rubber increased.
(c) There was decrease in unemployment.
(d) There were uprisings in rural areas.

5. Which one of the following statements is not true about the Trung sisters of Vietnam? [AI 2011]
(a) The Trung sisters fought against French domination.
(b) They fought against Chinese domination.
(c) Phan Boi Chau wrote a play on the lives of the Trung sisters.
(d) They chose death over surrender to enemies.

6. Which one of the following is true about Phan Chu Trinh? [Foreign 2011]
(a) He was educated in the Confucian tradition.
(b) He was influenced by Liang Qichao.
(c) He wrote the book, ‘The History of the Loss of Vietnam’.
(d) He wanted Vietnam to be a democratic republic.

7. In which famous battle were the French defeated ?
(a) Dien Bien Phu
(b) HaTinh
(c) Nghe An
(d) Phan Boi

8. Which European country colonised Vietnam ?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Switzerland
(d) England

9. Which society did Phan Boi Chau form ?
(a) Hoa Hao
(b) Revolutionary Society
(c) Carbonari
(d) Party of Young Annan

10. In which of the following areas of Vietnam did the French build a canal to increase the cultivation for export ?
(a) in Hanoi
(b) in Laos
(c) in the region of Mekong delta
(d) in the region of South Vietnam

11. By whom was the Democratic Republic of Vietnam formed ?
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Phan Boi Chau
(d) Ngo Dinh Diem

12. At which of the following places were the French finally defeated by the Vietnamese in 1954 ?
(a) Tonkin
(b) Dien Bien Phu
(c) Hanoi
(d) Saigon

13. By which of the following persons was the Vietnamese Communist Party established in 1930?
(a) Ngo Dinh Diem
(b) Bao Dai
(c) Sun Yat Sen
(d) Ho Chi Minh

14. What does NLF stand for ?
(a) National Liberation Force
(b) National Liberation Front
(c) National Land Force
(d) National Legal Foundation

15. What is referred to as the Ho Chi Minh Trail ?
(a) A long road made by Ho Chi Minh.
(b) A road which connected Eastern Vietnam with Western Vietnam.
(c) An immense network of roads made to transport men and material from North to South.
(d) A trail made in Vietnam for rock climbing.

16. In Indo-China who was referred to as ‘Colon’ ?
(a) The Vietnamese who could speak French.
(b) The French citizens living in Vietnam.
(c) Residents of a colony.
(d) Colonised part of Indo-China.

17. Which of the following was the most important cause of colonisation of Vietnamese by the French ?
(a) Need for surplus labour.
(b) Need for French industrial goods.
(c) Need for land for housing.
(d) Need for constant supply of raw materials.

18. Which of the following best explain civilizing mission ?
(a) A belief that the Europeans are the most superior and has a duty to civilize the natives of colonies.
(b) A mission sent from Europe to spread Christianity among the natives.
(c) A mission to destroy culture of the natives.

19. Why did the French followed a deliberate policy of failing the Vietnamese students in the final year ?
(a) So that the Vietnamese could not qualify for better paid jobs.
(b) Because the students were not intelligent enough to pass.
(c) Because the Vietnamese could not grasp the French language well.

20. In 1926 why was there a major protest movement in Saigon Native School ?
(a) The girls were ordered to cut their hair short.
(b) Many girls were made to fail in the examination.
(c) A Vietnamese girl sitting in the front was asked to move to the back seat.
(d) The Vietnamese girls were inspired to protest against the school authorities.

21. What kind of party was the party of Young Annan, set up in 1920 ?
(a) A political party
(b) A social activist party
(c) A religious party
(d) A reformist party

22. Which of the following statements best explains syncretic tradition ?
(a) An ancient tradition
(b) A modern tradition
(c) A tradition that combines Buddhism with local beliefs
(d) A tradition that reflects only the local beliefs.

23. The Trung sisters were well-known in Vietnamese history because
(a) They were saintly and beautiful.
(b) They ruled Vietnam between BC 39 – BC 43.
(c) They were patriots who fought to save Vietnam from the Chinese attack.
(d) They were well-known poets of ancient Vietnam.

24. Indentured labour referred to
(a) slave labour.
(b) labour of the colonies.
(c) contracted labour of plantations.
(d) bonded labour

25. Which of the following movements started in Vietnam in 1868 against the spread of Christianity by the French ?
(a) The Scholars Revolt
(b) The Hoa Hao Movement
(c) Go East Movement
(d) The Liberation Movement

26. By which country was the ‘Domino Effect’ theory advocated ?
(a) Japan
(b) America
(c) China
(d) France

27. When and where was the Peace Settlement signed to end the conflict between Vietnam and USA ?
(a) 1970 — in New York
(b) 1972 — in Saigon
(c) 1973 — in Hanoi
(d) 1974 — in Paris

28. Which of the following was the most visible form of French control of Vietnam ?
(a) Cultural domination
(b) Military and economic control
(c) Industrial development
(d) Religious domination

29. According to the French the best way to civilize the natives was
(a) to introduce agriculture
(b) to develop industries
(c) to introduce western education among the natives
(d) to introduce religious reforms

30. With what main aim did the French introduce French language as medium of instruction ?
(a) The educated Vietnamese would be able to handle office work better.
(b) The French believed that educated in French, the Vietnamese would respect French sentiments.
(c) They believed that the educated Vietnamese would become French teachers.
(d) None of the above.

31. Why did America decide to intervene in Vietnamese Civil War ?
(a) America wanted to occupy Vietnamese territories.
(b) America wanted to check the spread of communism by destroying communist Vietnamese Government.
(c) America wanted to help Ngo Dinh Diem, the autocratic ruler of South Vietnam.
(d) America wanted to control the natural resources of Vietnam.

32. In 1603 why did the rat hunt begin in Vietnam ?
(a) the rats spoil food grains.
(b) people were unable to control breeding of rats.
(c) rats began to enter the homes of well-cared.
(d) the rat carried the germs of bubonic plague.

ANSWERS

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

The post NCERT solutions class 10 History The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China -CBSE appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT solutions class 10 History Nationalism in India -CBSE

Q.1. Explain:
(a) Why is the growth of nationalism in the colonies linked to an anti-colonial movement ?
(b) How did the First World War help in the growth of the National Movement in India?    [CBSE2014]
Or
Explain any four facts to show how did the First World War help in the growth of the National Movement in India. [CBSE March 2011]
(a) Why were Indians outraged by the Rowlatt Act ?
(b) Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Ans. (a) (i) In India, as in Vietnam and many other colonies, the growth of modem nationalism is intimately connected to the Anti-colonial Movement. People began discovering their unity in the process of their struggle with colonialism. The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied many different groups together.
(ii) The European powers considered their culture more civilised, modern and superior. They forcefully started imposing their culture on the colonies. This also aroused the feeling of nationalism.
(iii) Gandhiji used ‘Satyagraha’ against the Britishers. This also promoted the spirit of nationalism among the people.
(iv) The anti-colonial movement was a united struggle by the people against the foreigners. The united struggle was responsible for arousing the spirit of nationalism.
(b)The War created a new economic and political situation :
(i) It led to a huge increase in defence expenditure which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes, customs duties were raised, and income tax introduced.
(ii) Through the war years, prices increased – doubling between 1913 and 1918 – leading to extreme hardships for the common people.
(iii) Villagers were called upon to supply soldiers, and the forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger.
(c) (i) Rowlatt Act was passed through the Imperial Legislative Council on a report of the Sedition Committee, headed by Justice Rowlatt.
(ii) It was the black act which gave the government and the police to repress political activities, and allowed detention of political prisoners without tried for two years.
(iii) The Act was passed despite the united opposition of the Indian members of the Council.
This Act became one of the factors due to which Gandhiji launched Non-Cooperation Movement.
(d) In February 1922, Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the following reasons:
(i) The movement was turning violent. At Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazar turned into a violent clash in which more than 20 policemen were killed.
(ii) Gandhiji felt that the Safyagrahis needed to be properly trained before they would be ready for mass struggle.
(iii) Within the Congress, some leaders were tired of mass struggles and wanted to participate in elections to the provincial councils, which were set up under the Government of India Act, 1919.
(iv) Industrialists, workers, peasants etc. interpreted the term ‘Swaraj’ in their own way. At many places like that of Andhra Pradesh, leaders like Alluri Sitaram Raju asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force. But there values were not approved by the Congress.

Q.2. What is meant by the idea of Satyagraha ?
Or
Explain the idea of Satyagraha according to Gandhiji.        [CBSE 2014 (D)]
Ans.

• It was a non-violent method of mass agitation against the Oppressor.
• It emphasised the power of truth and the need to search the truth.
• It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, there is no need for physical force to fight the oppressor.
• People-including the oppressors had to be persuaded to see the truth instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
• By this struggle, truth was bound to be victorious.

Q.3. Write a newspaper report on :
(a) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) The Simon Commission
Ans. (a) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre : A public meeting was announced for the 13th April, 1919, at Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar to protest against the Rowlatt Act. The people were allowed to assemble there. After they had gathered there in thousands, General Dyer marched there with armoured cars and troops. Without giving any warning to the people to disperse, he ordered firing on the unarmed, and the peaceful people. The casualties among the Indians were very heavy. Dyer’s purpose in doing so was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of Satyagrahis, a feeling of terror and awe. This massacre of innocent people in thousands converted Mahatma Gandhi into a non-cooperator.
(b) (i) The Indian members of the Central Legislative Assembly exposed the drawbacks in the Government of India Act of 1919 A.D. As a result of it, the Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 A.D. to suggest any further constitutional reforms. This commission consisted of seven members and its Chairman was Sir John Simon.
(ii) Why was it boycotted by the Indians?
But Indians boycotted the Simon Commission, because there was no Indian member in this commission. The terms of the commission’s appointment did not give any indication of ‘Swaraj’, while the demand of the Indians was only ‘Swaraj’. Therefore, the Indian National Congress, the Muslim League and other parties decided to oppose the Simon Commission.
(iii) Methods : Indian people organised hartals all over the country. They also held black flag demonstration with the slogan, “Simon go back”, when the Commission reached Bombay (Mumbai). Such demonstrations were held everywhere it went.

Q.4. List all the different social groups which joined the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921. Choose any three, and write about their hopes and struggles to show why they joined the movement.
Ans. Social Groups who took part in the Non­Cooperation Movement. In the Non- Cooperaton Movement (1920-1922), the following social groups took part.
(I) Middle-class people in the towns.
(i) The movement in the cities : The Movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
(ii) Boycott of council elections : The Council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras (Chennai), where the Justice Party, the party of the non­Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power, something that usually only Brahmans had an access to.
(iii) Swadeshi : The Non-Cooperation Movement had a great impact on the Indian textile industry. Swadeshi goods, especially cloth got a great impetus. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
(iv) Impact on industry : In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. Due to this, the demand of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. The increase in demand provided a big relief to the vanishing textile industry of India.
(v) Movement in the countryside: Though people in the countryside interpreted the idea of ‘Swaraj’ in their own way but they participated in the movement on large scale. In Awadh, peasants launched the movement against the talukdars and landlords. Whereas the plantation workers launched the movement against the tea estate owners.
(II) Peasants in the rural areas.
(i) Participants : In the countryside, the movement was led by the peasants, tribals and the local leaders. For example, in Awadh, it was Baba Ramchandra sanyasi, who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer.
(ii)  Why the rural people participated ?
The movement here was not against the Britishers but against talukdars and landlords. The problems of the rural people were different from those of the urban people:

• The talukdars and landlords were demanding very high rents and a variety of other taxes.
• Peasants had to do begarand work at the landlord’s farms without any payment.
• The peasants had no security of tenure. They were regularly evicted so that they could acquire no security of tenure.

As the problems of the people were different, their demands were also different. The peasant
movement demanded:

• Reduction of revenue
• Abolition of begar
• Redistribution of land
• Social boycott of oppressive landlords.

(iii) Ways of protests : The Movement in the countryside had a different angle. In many places, Nai-dhobi bandhs were organised by the Panchayats to deprive the landlords of the services of barbers, cobblers, washermen, etc. Even national leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru went to villages in Awadh to know the grievances of the people. By October, the Awadh Kissan Sabhas were set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra, and a few others.
When the movement spread in 1921, the houses of talukdars and merchants were attacked. The movement turned violent which was not liked by some of the Congress leaders.
(III) Tribal people.
Most of the tribal people were dependent on forests for their livelihood but under the new Forest Policy, the government had put several restrictions on the people :

• Closing large forest area for the tribal people.
• Forcing the local people to contribute begar.
• Preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits.

All these steps enraged the hill people. Not only were their livelihoods affected, but they felt that their traditional rights were also being denied. So the people revolted.
(IV)  Plantation workers.
(i) For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

• The government had passed the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 under which plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea estates without permission, and in fact, they were rarely given such permission.
• When the plantation workers heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of them defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed towards their homes.
• The plantation workers believed that the Gandhi Raj was coming, and everyone would be given land in their own villages.

Q.5. Discuss the Salt March to make clear why it was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism.  [CBSE 2015 (O)]
Ans. The Salt March was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism because-
(i) It was the first time that Indian leaders decided to violate law. People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British, but also to break colonial laws.
(ii) Thousands of Indians in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of the government salt factories.
(iii) As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and ‘chaukidari taxes’, village officials resigned, and in many places forest people violated forest laws – going into Reserved Forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
(iv) Worried by the development, the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders, one by one. This led to violent clashes in many places. Angry crowd demonstrated in the streets, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed.
(v) When Mahatma Gandhi himself was arrested, industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, law courts and railway stations – all structures that symbolised the British rule.
(vi) The outcome of the movement was the Gandhi-Irwin Pact which was signed by Gandhiji with Irwin on 5th March, 1931. By this Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners.