Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions CBSE Class 10 History Work, Life and Leisure

Q.1. Give three reasons why the population of London expanded from the middle of the eighteenth century.
[CBSE 2008 ID). Sept. 2010. 2011]
Ans. (i) Industrialisation was the most important factor which attracted people to London.
(ii) The textile industry of London attracted a large number of migrants, fit The city of London attracted people from all walks of life like clerks, shopkeepers, soldiers, servants, labourers, beggars, etc.

Q.2. What were the changes in the kind of work available to women in London between the nineteenth and the twentieth centuries ? Explain the factors which led to this change.
Ans. (i) Employment in Factories : In the 18th and the 19th centuries, a large number of women were employed in the factories because during that period, most of the production activities were carried with the help of the family.
(ii)Technological Developments and loss of jobs : But with the technological advancement, women gradually lost their industrial jobs and were forced to do household work. They also tried to increase the family income by activities like tailoring, washing or matchbox making.
(iii) Employment during War : However, in the 20th century, women again started getting employed in wartime industries and offices because most of the male citizens were fighting at the front.

Q.3. How does the existence of a large urban population affect each of the following ? Illustrate with historical examples.
(a) A private landlord.
(b) A Police Superintendent incharge of law and order.
(c) A leader of a political party.
Ans. (a) Effects of large urban population over a private landlord : As a result of industrialisation, a large number of people from the rural areas moved to London, thereby increasing the population of London manifold. Such a situation created many problems for most of the residents of London.
However, some sections of the society, such as the private landlords stood to gain. They sold their land to the needy people a: very high rates. They built cheap tenements on their land, rented them to the poor workers, and amassed quite large sums of money as rents,
(b) Effects of large urban population on a police superintendent : A large urban population of London created many problems for the police Superintendent, who was incharge of law and order
(i) The overcrowding of London led to the growth of crime in that city According to one estimate. there were about 20.000 criminals living in London in the 1870s. The presence of such a large number of criminals in London created a serious law and order problem for the Police Superintend.
(ii) When a fire in the slums burnt down many small tenements and killed many people, the police had a hard Time to control the situation.
(iii) Many movements of the workers for better wages, better housing facilities and Just voting rights meant a great headache for the police.
(c) Effects of a Large Urban Population on a Leader of a Political Party : A large City population was a great threat to the law and order of the city. The political parties could easily instigate such crowds to any agitation against the government. Most political movements of the 19th century, like the Chartist Movement for the right to vote for every adult and 10 hours movement, etc., were the direct results of the overcrowding of London.

Q.4. Give explanations for the following :
(a) Why did the well off Londoners supported the need to build housing for the poor in the nineteenth century ?
(b) Why were a number of Bombay films about the lives of migrants ?
(c) What led to the major expansion of Bombay’s population in the mid-nineteenth century ?
Ans.(a) :(i) Living in slums was very dangerous for the labourers. They lived upto an average age of 29 years as compared to the average life expectancy of 55 among the higher and the middle classes.
(ii) Such slums were not only harmful for the slum dwellers, but they were also a threat to the public health, and could easily lead to any epidemic,
(iii) Poor housing could prove a great fire hazard and could engulf other areas in the fire disaster.
(iv) Especially, after the Russian Revolution of 1917. it was felt that poor housing could lead to any social disaster, and could lead to rebellions by the poor slum dwellers.
(v) Lack of proper houses was also increasing the pollution level.
(b) Most of the people in the film industry were themselves migrants who came from cities like Lahore, Calcutta, Madras and contributed to the national character of the industry. Those who came from Lahore, then in Punjab, were especially important for the development of the Hindi film industry. Many famous writers, like Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Hasan Manto, were associated with the Hindi cinema.
(c) (i) In 1819, Bombay became the capital of Bombay Presidency. So it attracted more and more people towards the city.
(ii) With the growth of trade in cotton and opium, a large number of traders and bankers along with artisans and shopkeepers came to settle in Bombay or Mumbai.
(iii) As a result of the establishment of many industries along with the expansion of the cotton industry, more and more people migrated to Bombay from the neighbouring areas, especially from the nearby district of Ratnagiri.
(iv) Bombay dominated the maritime trade of India with the European countries.
(v) The introduction of railways, also encouraged a higher scale of migrants to this city.
(vi) Famine in the dry regions of Kutch drove a large number of people into Bombay or Mumbai.
(vii) When Bombay became the hub of Indian films, many new people—artists, dramatists, play writers, poets, singers, story writers flocked to this city despite its massive overcrowding.

Q.5. What forms of entertainment came up in the nineteenth century England to provide leisure activities for the people ?
Ans. (i) London Season : For wealthy Britishers there had long been an annual ‘London Season. Several cultural events, such as the opera, the theatre and the classical music performances were organised for an elite group of 300-400 families in the late eighteenth century.
(ii) Pleasure gardens : Pleasure gardens came in the 19th century to provide facilities for sports,entertainment and refreshments for the well-to-do.
(iii) Pubs for working class : Working classes met in pubs to have a drink: exchange news and sometimes, also to organise for political action.
(iii) Libraries and museums : Libraries, art galleries and museums were established in the nineteenth century to provide people with a sense of history and pride in the achievements of the British.
(iv) Music halls and cinemas : Music hails were popular among the lower classes and, by the early twentieth century, cinema became the great mass entertainment for the mixed audiences
(vi) Beaches : British industrial workers were increasingly encouraged to spend their holidays by the sea. so as to derive the benefits of the sun and the bracing winds.

Q.6. (a) Explain the social changes in London which led to the need for the Underground Railway.
[CBSE 2009 (O), Sept. 2010,2011] (b) Why was the development of the Underground Railway criticised ?
[CBSE Sept. 2010, 2011]
Ans.(a) (i)Industrialisation was the most important factor responsible for the urbanisation in the modem period.
(ii)London soon started emerging as a great industrial centre with a population of about 6,75,000. Over the 19th century, London continued to expand, and its population multiplied fourfold.
(iii)The city of London attracted people from all walks of life like clerks, shopkeepers, soldiers, servants, labourers, beggars, etc.
(iv)The living conditions in London changed dramatically when people started migrating from the countryside to the city in search of jobs. This was largely because accommodation was not provided to the labourers by the factory owners.
(v)The labourers had to live in cheap and unsafe tenements provided by the individual landowners.
(vi)Poverty was clearly visible in the city. In 1887, Charles Booth conducted a survey, and concluded that about one million landowners were very poor, and were expected to live only upto an average age of 29. These people were more likely to die in a workhouse, hospital or a lunatic asylum. Meanwhile, the city had extended beyond the range where people could walk to work. So the planners realised the need for a means of transport.
(b) (i) Many fell that the “iron monsters added to the mess and unhealthiness of the city.
(ii) To make approximately two miles of railway, about 900 houses had to be destroyed.
(iii) The London Tube Railway led to a massive displacement of the London poor.

Q.7. Explain what is meant by the Haussmannization of Paris. To what extent would you support or oppose this form of development ? Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper, to either support or oppose this, giving reasons for your view.
Ans. Haussmannization of Paris : It simply means that the new city o: Pahs was designed by the chief architect of new Paris. At the instance of Napoleon 111 (a nephew of Napoleon Bonaparte). Haussmann built the new city of Paris for continuous 17 years (between 1852 ro 1869). He designed straight, broad avenues (or boulevards), and open spaces and transplanted full grown trees. By 1370. about one-fifth of the streets of Paris were the creation of Haussmann. In addition, night patrols were introduced, bus shelters were built, and tap water was introduced. Opposition of Haussmannization: Many opposed this form o: development About 3.50.000 people were evicted from the centre of Paris. Some said that the city of Paris had been monstrously transformed. Some lamented the passing of an earlier way of life, and the development of an upper class culture. Others believed that Haussmann had killed the street and its life to produce an empty boring city. Arguments in Support of Haussmannization : The new Pans city soon got converted into a civic pride as the new capital became the toast of all of Europe. Paris became the hub of many new architectures. social and intellectual developments that were very influenced through the 20th century in many parts of the world.
Letter to the Editor to Self Explanatory.

Q.8. To what extent docs government regulations and new laws solve problems of pollution ? Discuss one example each of the success and failure of legislation to change the quality of :
(a) public life
(b) private life
Ans. The government regulations and new laws had a mixed history of the successes and failures – :
(i)New legislations in London were not taken seriously by the factory owners. They were not ready to spend on technologies that would improve their machines.
(ii )The Smoke Abatement Acts of 1847 and 1853 failed to clean the air.
(iii)Calcutta (Kolkata) became the first Indian dry to get the smoke nuisance legislation.
(iv) In 1920. the nee mills of Tollygunge began to burn rice husk instead of coal, leading residents to complain that ’the air is filled up with black soot which falls like drilling rain from morning rill night, and it has become impossible to live’. The inspectors of the Bengal Smoke Nuisance Commission finally managed to control the industrial smoke.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Who developed the principles of a Garden City? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Thomas Hardy
(b) Charles Dickens
(c) Charles Booth
(d) Ebenezer Howard

2. In which of the following year Bombay became the capital of Bombay presidency? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) 1819
(b) 1850
(c) 1872
(d) 1880

3. Name one factor that changed the form of urbanisation in the modern world. [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Industrialisation
(d) Unemployment

4. Who wrote the book “The Bitter Cry of Out Cast London” in the 1880s? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Andrew Mearns
(b) Rowlandson
(c) T.E Turner
(d) None of the above

5. What was not a reason for providing mass housing schemes for the workers ?
(a) Concern for the poor
(b) Fear of social disorder
(c) Threat to public health
(d) Overcrowding of elite localities

6. Which movie did Dadasaheb Phalke make ?
(a) CID
(b) Guest House
(c) Raja Harishchandra
(d) Tezab

7. Bombay at first was under control of
(a) Portuguese
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Dutch

8. Which of the following cities has developed in a planned manner ?
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Singapore
(d) Lucknow

9. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for urbanisation ?
(a) Increase of population
(b) Rise of prices
(c) Growth in factories
(d) Rise of industrial capitalism

10. What was the observation of Social Survey on London, conducted by Charles Booth in 1887 ?
(a) In London most of the people are living on criminal activities.
(b) The factory owners were exploiting the workers.
(c) London needed rebuilding of at least 4,00,000 rooms to house its poor citizens.
(d) London has become a polluted city.

11. What was introduced in 1863 in London to enable the suburban people to commute to their place of work ?
(a) Underground railway
(b) A network of macadamised roads
(c) Incentives in the form of higher wages for commuting
(d) Fast bus service

12. Why was there heavier smog in Calcutta than in other cities in the northern India ?
(a) The city had a large population who depends on dung or wood as fuel.
(b) The city was built on a marshy land.
(c) The city had more industrial units.
(d) All the above

13. Which of the following most significantly changed the pattern of urbanisation ?
(a) Housing projects
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Rural population
(d) Brisk trade

14. Why was Baron Haussmann well-known ?
(a) For beautifying the city of London
(b) For making the garden city of New Earswick
(c) For rebuilding the city of Paris
(d) For making a planned city in Singapore

15. Which of the following statements best explain death due to asphyxiation ?
(a) Death due to poisoning
(b) Death due to fear
(c) Death due to lack of oxygen
(d) Death due to lack of food

16. What was the main demand of the chartist movement started in 19th century ?
(a) Right to vote to all adult women
(b) Voting right for all adult citizen
(c) Voting right for all adult male
(d) Voting right to rural people

17. Who among the following designed the city of New Earswick ?
(a) Charles Booth
(b) Barry Parker
(c) Ebenezer Howard
(d) Gareth Stedman

18. Suffrage means
(a) the freedom of speech
(b) freedom from suffering
(c) the right to vote
(d) the right to education

19. What was referred by ’10 hour movement’ ? A movement for
(a) Fixing wage for 10 hours of work
(b) Limiting work hours in factories
(c) Fixing 10 hours of work in a week
(d) Fixing 10 hours work for women in factories

20. Multi-functional city having major ports, museum, Harbour, library etc. was known as
(a) metropolis
(b) presidency city
(c) capital city
(d) premier city

21. The pollutant caused by the combination of smoke and fog is called
(a) cloudy fog
(b) smog
(c) dense fog
(d) smoking fog

22. Which of the following was not an effect of the development of railways?
(a) Introduction of a well functioning transit system
(b) Connectivity to various schools
(c) Enabling the people to live in garden city outside London and travel to work everyday
(d) Weakend social distinction

23. In 1886 riot, what was the main demand of the workers ?
(a) Raise in the wages
(b) Permanent job
(c) Relief from terrible condition of poverty
(d) Housing scheme for poor people

24. After which event did Bombay become the capital of Bombay Presidency ?
(a) Defeat of the Marathas in the first Anglo Maratha war in 1782.
(b) Defeat of the Marathas in the 2nd Anglo Maratha war in 1803
(c) Defeat of the Marathas in the third Anglo Maratha war in 1819
(d) Defeat of the Marathas in Anglo-Mysore war

25. What was the function of Bengal smoke Nuisance commission ?
(a) Inspection of factories
(b) Controlling domestic and industrial smoke
(c) Penalising the factory owner if the chimneys were not cleaned on time
(d) Inspection of houses in urban areas

26. The first Indian city to get Smoke Nuisance Legislation was
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi

27. In 1864 what project was taken up by Back Bay Reclamation Co. ?
(a) A project to build a dockyard
(b) A project to build the Ballard estate
(c) A project to level the hills to make Malabar Hills
(d) A project to develop Marine Drive

28. Between 1914-1918 by which agency was the dry dock built in Bombay ?
(a) Improvement Trust
(b) Back Bay Reclamation Company
(c) Bombay Port Trust
(d) By a private company

29. Which of the following is the God of creation ?
(a) Brahma
(b) Vishnu
(c) Shiva
(d) Varuna

30. Author of “Debganer Martye Aagaman” is
(a) Premchand
(b) Saratchandra
(c) Durgacharan Ray
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

31. Which of the following city originally was a group of seven islands under Portuguese control ?
(a) Daman
(b) Goa
(c) Bombay
(d) Cochin

32. The Ruler who acquired Bombay as gift at the time of his marriage with a Portuguese princess was
(a) Charles I
(b) Charles II
(c) James Stuart
(d) George II

33. In which of his books did Charles Dickens wrote about the massive destruction in the construction of railways?
(a) Hard times
(b) Oliver Twist
(c) Dombey and Son
(d) Geminal

ANSWERS

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

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Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions CBSE Class 10 History Novels, Society and History

Q.1. Explain the following :
(a) Social changes in Britain which led to an increase in women readers.
(b) What actions of Robinson Crusoe make us see him as a typical coloniser ? [CBSE Sept. 2011]
Or
“Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe made the readers feel that they were part of a superior community”. Support the statement. [CBSE 2013]
Or
What actions of Robinson Crusoe made him as a typical coloniser ? Explain. [CBSE 2013]
(c) After 1740, the readership of novels began to include poorer people.
(d) Novelists in colonial India wrote for a political cause.
Or
How does the novel Pariksha Guru reflect the inner and outer world of the newly emerging middle classes ? [CBSE Sept. 2010]
Ans. (a) (i) The most exciting element of the novels of the 18th century was the involvement of women. The eighteenth century saw the middle classes become more prosperous. Women got more leisure to read as well as write novels. And novels began exploring the world of women- their emotions and identities, their experiences and problems.
(ii) Many novels were about domestic life— a theme about which women were allowed to speak with authority. They . drew upon from their experiences, wrote about family life, and earned public recognition.
(iii) The novels of Jane Austen give Us a glimpse of the world of women in genteel rural society in early-nineteenth century Britain. They make us think about a society which encouraged women to look for ‘good’ marriages, and find wealthy or propertied husbands. The first sentence of Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice states : ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife.’

(b) The hero of Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe (1719) is an adventurer and slave trader. Shipwrecked on an island, Crusoe treats coloured people not as human beings equal to him, but as inferior creatures. He rescues a ‘native’, and makes him his slave. He does not ask for his name but arrogantly gives him the name, Friday. But at times, Crusoe’s behaviour wcis not seen as unacceptable or odd, for most writers saw colonialism as natural. Colonised people were seen as primitive and barbaric, less than human; and colonial rule was considered necessary to civilize them, and make them fully human.

(c) Readership of novels began to include proper people after 1740 because :
(i) The circulation of novels increased with the introduction of circulating libraries.
(ii) Technological improvements in printing brought down the price of books and innovations in marketing led to expanded sales.
(iii) In France, publishers found that they could make super profits by hiring out novels by the hour. The novel was one of the first mass produced items to be sold.
(iv) The worlds created by the novels were absorbing and believable and they were seemingly real. Novels allowed
individuals the pleasure of reading in private, as well as the joy of public reading or discussing stories with friends or relatives.
(v) In rural areas, people would collect to hear one of them reading a novel aloud, often becoming deeply involved in the lives of the characters.

(d) (i) Pariksha Guru reflects the inner and outer world of the newly emerging middle classes. The characters in the novel are caught in the difficulty of adapting to colonised society, and at the same time, preserving their culture and traditions.
(ii) Premchand’s Sewasadan deals mainly with the poor condition of women in society. Issues like child marriage and dowry are woven into the story of the novel. It also tells us about the ways in which the Indian upper classes used whatever little opportunities they got from colonial authorities to govern themselves. •
(iii) Potheri Kunjambu, a ‘lower-caste’ writer from north Kerala, wrote a novel called Saraswativijayam in 1892, mounting a strong attack on caste oppression.
(iv) From the 1920s, in Bengal too, a new kind of novel emerged that depicted the lives of peasants and ‘low’ castes. Advaita Malla Burman’s (1914-51) Titash Ekti Nadir Naam (1956) is an epic about the Mallas, a community of fisherfolk who live off Fishing in the river, Titash.
(v) In Bengal, many historical novels were about Marathas and Rajputs. These novels produced a sense of a pan- Indian belonging.
(vi) Bankim’s Anandamath (1882) is a novel about a secret Hindu militia that fights Muslims to establish a Hindu kingdom. It was a novel that inspired many kinds of freedom fighters.
(vii) Premchand’s novels, for instance, are filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all levels of the society. In his novels we meet aristocrats and landlords, middle-level peasants and landless labourers, middle class professionals, and people from all the margins of the society.

Q.2. Outline the changes in technology and society which led to an increase in the readers of the novel in the eighteenth century Europe. [CBSE Sept. 2013]
Ans. (i) The invention of the print in the 18th century led to the popularity of the novels because now it became quite easy to print novels in large numbers. In ancient times, manuscripts were handwritten, and hence, their availability was very limited.
(ii) The novels dealt with many social issues such as love and marriage, proper conduct for men and women, and so on. So common people were attracted towards them.
(iii) Novels appealed to all the sections of the society, both middle class people like the shopkeepers and the clerks, as well as the aristocratic and gentlemanly classes.
(iv) Novels not only attacked the ills of the society, but also suggested remedies. So they were much liked by one and all.
(v) The novels became a popular medium of entertainment among the middle class and women readers.
(vi) Most of the novelists used the vernacular, the language that is spoken by the common people.

Q.3. Write a note on :
(a) Hie Oriya Novel
(b) Jane Austen’s portrayal of women
(c) The picture of the new middle class which the novel Pariksha Guru portrays.
Ans. (a) The Oriya Novel : In 1877-78, ,Ramashankar Ray, a dramatist, began serialising the first Oriya novel Saudamani.
But he could not complete it. Within thirty years, however, Odisha produced a major novelist in Fakir Mohon Senapati (1843- 1918).
The title of his novel Chaa Maria Atha Guntha (1902) portrays six acres and thirty- two decimals of land. It announces a new kind of novel that will deal with the question Q ^ of land and its possession. It is the story of Ramchandra Mangaraj, a landlord’s manager, who cheats his idle and drunken master, and then eyes the plot of fertile land ^ owned by Bhagia and Shariya, a childless ” weaver couple. Mangaraj fools this couple, and puts them into his debt so that he can take over their land. This pathbreaking work showed that the novel could make rural issues an important part of urban Ans. preoccupations. In writing this, Fakir Mohon anticipated a host of writers .in Bengal and elsewhere.
(b)Jane Austen was an English novelist who gives us a glimpse of the world of women in the general rural society in the early 19th century. Her novels make us think about a society which encouraged women to look for ‘good’ marriages, and find wealthy or propertied husbands. The first sentence of Jane Austen’s (1775-1817) Pride and Prejudice states : ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife.’ This observation allows us to see the behaviour of the protagonists, who are preoccupied with marriage and money, as typifying Austen’s society.
(c) Pariksha Guru reflects the inner and outer world of the newly emerging middle classes.
The characters in the novel are caught in the difficulty of adapting to colonised society and at the same time, preserving their own cultural identity. The world of colonial modernity seems to be both frightening and irresistible to the characters. The novel clearly intends to teach the reader the ‘right way’ to live, and expects all ‘sensible men’ to be worldly-wise and practical, to remain rooted in the values of their own traditions and culture, and to live with, dignity and honour.
In the novel, we see the characters attempting to bridge two different worlds through their actions: they take to new agricultural technology, modernise trading practices, change the use of Indian language, making them capable to transmitting both Western sciences and Indian wisdom.
The young are urged to cultivate the ‘healthy habit’ of reading the newspapers. But the novel emphasises that all this must be achieved without sacrificing the traditional values of the middle-class household. With all its good intentions, Pariksha Guru could not win many readers, as it was perhaps too moralising in its style.

Q.4.Discuss some of the social changes in the nineteenth century Britain which Thomas Hardy and Charles Dickens wrote about.
Ans. Charles Dickens was the foremost English novelist of the Victorian era. He wrote about the terrible effects of industrialisation on people’s lives and characters. His novels Hard Times and Oliver Twist became world famous,
(i) Hard Times : His novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coketown, a fictitious industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery, smoking chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all looked the same. Here workers are known as ‘hands’, as if they had no identity other than as operators of machines. Dickens criticised not just the greed for profits but also the ideas that reduced human beings into simple instruments of production.
(ii) Oliver Twist : In other novels too, Dickens focused on the terrible conditions of urban . life under industrial capitalism. His Oliver Twist (1838) is the tale of a poor orphan who lived in a world of petty criminals and beggars. Brought up in a cruel workhouse, Oliver was finally adopted by a wealthy man and lived happily ever after.

Q.5.Summarise the concern in both nineteenth- century Europe and India about women reading novels. What does this suggest about how women were viewed ?
Ans. (i) When women began writing and reading novels, many people feared that they would now neglect the traditional role as wives and mothers, and homes would be in disorder.
(ii) It is not surprising that many men were suspicious of women writing novels or reading them. This suspicion cut across communities. Hannah Mullens, a Christian missionary and the author of Karuna o Phulmonir Bibaran (1852), reputedly the first novel in Bengali, tells her readers that she wrote in secret.
In the twentieth century, Sailabala Ghosh Jaya, a popular novelist, could only write because her husband protected her. As we have seen in the case of the south, women and girls were often discouraged from reading novels.

Q.6. In what ways was the novel In colonial India useful for both the colonisers as well as the nationalists?
Ans. (i) Source of Information : Colonial administrators found the ‘vernacular’ novels a valuable source of information on native life and customs. Such information was useful for them in governing Indian society, with its large and a variety of communities and castes.
As outsiders, the British knew little about life inside Indian households. The novels in Indian languages often had descriptions of domestic life.
(ii) Novels and colonialism : The novel originated in Europe at a time when it was colonizing the rest of the world. The early novel contributed to colonialism by marking the readers feel they were part of a superior community of fellow colonialists.
(iii) The novel and nation making : The history written by colonial historians tended to depict Indians as weak, divided, and dependent on the British. These histories could not satisfy the tastes of the new Indian administrators and intellectuals. Nor did the traditional Puranic stories of the past- peopled by gods and demons, filled with the fantastic and the supernatural- seem convincing to those educated and working under the English system. Such minds wanted a new view of the past that would show that Indians could be independent minded and had been so in history. The novel provided a solution. In it, the nation could be imagined in a past that also featured historical characters, places, events and dates.
(iv) Novels and struggle for freedom : The imagined nation of the novel was so powerful that it could inspire actual political movements. Banking’s Anandamath (1882) is-a novel about a secret Hindu militia that fights Muslims to establish a Hindu Kingdom. It was a novel that inspired many kinds of freedom fighters.
(v) Novels and common sharing novelists included : Various classes in the novel in such a way that they could be seen to belong to a shared world. Premchand’s novels, for instance, are filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all levels of society. In his novels you meet aristocrats and landlords, middle level peasants and landless labourers, middle class professionals and people from the margins of society. The women characters are strong individuals, especially those who come from the lower classes and are not modernised.

Q.7. Describe how the issue of caste was included in novels in India. By referring to any two novels, discuss the ways in which they tried to make readers think about the existing social issues.
Ans. (i) Novels like Indirabai and Indulekha were written by members of the upper castes, and were primarily about the uppercaste characters. But all novels were not of this kind.
(ii) Potheri Kunjambu, a ‘lower-caste’ writer from north Kerala, wrote a novel called Saraswativijayam in 1892, mounting a strong blow on caste oppression. This novel shows a young man from an ‘untouchable’ caste, leaving his village to escape the cruelty of his Brahmin landlord.
He converted himself to Christianity, obtained modem education and returned as the judge in the local court. Saraswativijayam stressed the importance of education for the upliftment of’the lower castes.
(iii) From the 1920s, in Bengal too a new kind of novel emerged that depicted the lives of peasants and ‘low’ castes. Advaita Malla Burmaris (1914-51) Titash Ekti Nadir Naam (1956) is an epic about the Mallas, a community of fisherfolk who live off fishing in the river, Titash.
(iv) While novelists before Advaita Malla had featured ‘low castes’ as their main character, Titash is special because the author is himself a ‘low caste’.
(v) The central character of Munshi Premchand’s novel Rangboomi, Surdas is. a visually impaired beggar from a so-called ‘untouchable caste.’

Q.8. Describe the ways in which the novels in India attempted to create a sense of pan- Indian belonging.
Ans. (i) To create a sense of equality: Colonial rulers regarded the contemporary culture of India as inferior, On the other hand, Indian novelist wrote to develop a modern literature of the country that could produce a sense of national belonging and cultural equality with their colonial masters.
(ii) To protect values of India’s tradition and culture: Many novelist like that of Srinivas Das had expressed their fear and anger about the intermining of Indian and Western culture. The world of colonial modernity seems to be both frightening and irresistible to the characters. The novel tries to teach the reader the ‘right way’ to live and expects all ‘sensible men’ to be worldly- wise and practical, to remain rooted in the values of their own tradition and culture, and to live with dignity and honour.
(iii) Women novelists: But women did not remain mere readers of stories written by men; soon they also began to write novels. In some languages, the early creations of women were poems, essays or autobiographical pieces. In the early decades of the twentieth century, women in south India also began writing novels and short stories. A reason for the popularity of novels among women was that it allowed for a new conception of womanhood. Stories of love – which was a staple theme of many novels – showed women who could choose or refuse their partners and relationships. It showed women who could to some extent control their lives. Some women authors also wrote about women who changed the world of both men and women.
(iv) Novels for low castes and peasants:
From the 1920s, in Bengal too a new kind of novel emerged that depicted the lives of peasants and ‘low’ castes. Advaita Malla Burman’s (1914-51) Titash Ekti Nadir Naam (1956) is an epic about the Mallas, a community of fisherfolk who live off fishing in the river Titash. The novel is about three generations of the Mallas, about their recurring tragedies and the story of Ananta, a child born of parents who were tragically separated after their wedding night. Ananta leaves the community to get educated in the city. The novel describes the community life of the Mallas in great detail, their Holi and Kali Puja festivals, boat races, bhatiali songs, their relationships of friendship and animosity with the peasants and the oppression of the upper castes.
(v) The novel and nation making: Many novelists wrote about Marathas and Rajputs. These novels produced sense of a pan Indian belonging. The imagined nation of the novel was so powerful that it could inspire actual political movements. Bankim’s Anandamath (1882) is a novel about a secret Hindu militia that fights Muslims to establish a Hindu kingdom. It was a novel that inspired many kinds of freedom fighters.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which Hindi novel by Premchand tells the story of Indian peasantry through the characters of ‘Hori’ and his wife ‘Dhania’? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Godan
(b) Gabon
(c) Sewasadan
(d) Rangbhoomi

2. Who wrote ‘Sultanas Dream’? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Rokeya Hossein
(b) Premchand
(c) Srinivas Das
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

3. Which of the following books was written with adolescent girls in mind? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) The Jungle Book
(b) Ramona
(c) Treasure Island
(d) Robinson Crusoe

4. Which of the following novels was not written by Charles Dickens ?
(a) Hard Times
(b) Germinal
(c) Oliver Twist
(d) Pickwick Papers

5. Who is the pioneer of modern Hindi Literature ?
(a) Bharatendu Harishchandra
(b) Srinivas Das
(c) Devaki Nandan Khatri
(d) Munshi Premchand

6. Which of the following novels deals with caste oppression ?
(a) Sultana’s Dream
(b) Indulekha
(c) Saraswativijayam
(d) Padmarag

7. Which was the first historical novel written in Bengali ?
(a) Anandamath
(b) Sultana’s Dream
(c) Durgeshnandini
(d) Anguriya Binimoy

8. A novel written in the form of a series of letter is called
(a) serialised novel
(b) epistolary novel
(c) autobiography
(d) anthology

9. A format of novel in which the story is published in instalment is known as
(a) epistolary novel
(b) continuous novel
(c) serialised novel
(d) historical novel

10. Which of the following novels depicts the changes in rural society in England ?
(a) Hard Times
(b) Mayor of Casterbridge
(c) Treasure Island
(d) Oliver Twist

11. Novels of which of the following authors give us a glimpse of women of 19th century rural society in Britain ?
(a) Charlotte Bronte
(b) Jane Austen
(c) Emily Bronte
(d) Susan Coolidge

12. Which of the following novels displays a colonial attitude ?
(a) Robinson Crusoe
(b) Treasure Island
(c) Jane Eyre
(d) Hard Times

13. Which of the following is an example of early prose written in India in 7th century ?
(a) Muktamala
(b) Kadambari
(c) Ramcharitmanas
(d) Padmarag

14. Which of the following best explains the term “dastan” ?
(a) Tradition of prose tales of adventure and heroism in Persian and Urdu
(b) Long stories of love written in Hindi
(c) Poem depicting nature written in Urdu
(d) Tragic stories

15. The novel that generally reflected the inner and outer world of the newly emerging middle class
(a) Chandrakanta
(b) Pariksha Guru
(c) Sewasadan
(d) Godan

16. The novel that dealt mainly with the poor condition of women in society
(a) Pariksha Guru
(b) Chandrakanta
(c) Sewasadan
(d) Anandamath

17. The first proper modem novel was written by
(a) Srinivas Das
(b) Premchand
(c) Devaki Nandan Khatri
(d) Saratchandra

18. In Bengal what was meant by ‘Kabirlarai’ ?
(a) Contest of archers
(b) Contest of poets
(c) Wrestling contests
(d) Musical contest

19. The term “Kissa-goi” refers to
(a) traditional art of storytelling
(b) traditional art of writing poetry
(c) traditional art of writing folktales
(d) traditional art of recitation

20 The form of writing used to criticise the society in a clever and witty manner is called
(a) tragedy
(b) comedy
(c) satire
(d) anthology

21. Which of the following emphasized the need for reform of women related problems ?
(a) Padmarag
(b) Sultana’s dream
(c) Chandrakanta
(d) Indulekha

22. Which ofthefollowingnovelsdescribe the community life of the fisher folks in detail ?
(a) Titash Ekti Nadir Naarm
(b) Rangbhoomi
(c) Anguriya Binimoy
(d) Durgeshnandini

23. Why is the writing of Vaikkom Muhammad Basheer significant ?
(a) His novels give details of everyday life of Muslim households.
(b) He writes about communal conflict between Hindus and Muslims.
(c) He writes about the need for reform of society.
(d) He preached the need for satyagraha.

24. Why was the writings of Rokeya Hossein important ?
(a) She wrote about the need for education.
(b) She resisted against the caste system.
(c) She focussed on the need for reform of the women’s condition in society.
(d) She inspired the people with nationalism.

25. Who among the following wrote ‘Jungle book’ ?
(a) R.L. Stevenson
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(c) G.A. Henty
(d) Daniel Defoe

26. Which of the following is an epistolary novel ?
(a) Pride and Prejudice
(b) Pamela
(c) Tom Jones
(d) Germinal

27. ‘Pamela’ was written by
(a) Samuel Richardson
(b) Henry Fielding
(c) Thomas Hardy
(d) Charles Dickens

28 Which of the following novels reflected the effects of industrialisation ?
(a) Pickwick Papers
(b) Pride and Prejudice
(c) Hard Times
(d) Treasure Island

29. Who is the author of Germinal ?
(a) R.L. Stevenson
(b) Jules Verne
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) Emile Zola

30 Mary Ann Evans is the real name of which of the following authors ?
(a) Jane Austin
(b) Thomas Hardy
(c) George Eliot
(d) R.L. Stevenson

31. The first Malayalam novel was
(a) Padmarag
(b) Muktamala
(c) Indulekha
(d) Chandrakanta

32. Which one of the following was the first novel written by BankimChandra
(a) Anandamath
(b) Durgeshnandini
(c) Baikunther Will
(d) Chandrakanta

33. The earliest novel written in Marathi is
(a) Muktamala
(b) Yamuna Paryatan
(c) Indulekha
(d) Manjughosha

ANSWERS

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Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions CBSE Class 10 History Print Culture and Modern World

Q.1. Give reasons for the following :
(a) Woodblock print only came to Europe after 1295. [CBSE 2013]
(b) Martin Luther was in favour of print, and spoke out in praise of it.
(c) The Roman Catholic Church began keeping an Index of Prohibited books from the mid-sixteenth century.
(d) Gandhi said the fight for ‘Swaraj is a fight for the liberty of speech, liberty of the press and freedom of association.
Ans. (a) Refer Q.No. 5 HOTS.
(b) Because it was the printing press which gave him a chance to criticise many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.
(c) Print and popular literature encouraged many distinctive interpretations of religious faiths and ideas. In the 16th century, Manocchio, a miller in Italy began to read books available readily in his locality. He gave a new interpretation of the Bible, and formulated a view of God, and creation that enraged the Roman Catholic Church.
As a result, Manocchio was hauled up twice, and ultimately executed when the Roman Church began its inquisition, and to repress the therapeutical ideas. After this several control measures were imposed on publishers and booksellers. In 1558, the Roman Church decided to maintain an Index of prohibited books.
(d) Mahatma Gandhi uttered these words in 1922 during the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922). Because according to him without the liberty of speech, the liberty of the press and freedom of association, no nation can even survive. If the country was to get free from foreign domination, then these liberties were quite important. If there is no liberty of speech, liberty of press and freedom of association, then there is no nationalism. Nationalism requires these three prerequisites for its survival. Mahatma Gandhi fully knew the fact. That is why, he said so, particularly about these three freedoms. How could one ever think of nationalism in the absence of these three essential conditions ?

Q.2. Write short notes to show that you know about:
(a) The Gutenberg Press.
(b) The Erasmus’s idea of the printed book.
(c) The Vernacular Press Act. [CBSE Sept. 2011, 2012]
Ans. (a) Refer Q.No. 4, Long Answer Type Questions.
(b) Erasmus’s idea of the printed book : Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer, who criticised the excesses of Catholicism, but kept his distance from, Luther, expressed a deep anxiety about printing. He wrote in Adages (1508) :
‘To what corner of the world do they not fly, these swarms of new books ? It may be that one here and there contributes something worth knowing, but the very multitude of them is hurtful to scholarship, because it creates a glut and even in good things, satiety is most harmful… [printers] fill the world with books, not just trifling things (such as I write, perhaps), but stupid, ignorant, slanderous, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious books, and the number of them is such that even the valuable publications lose their value.’
(c) The Vernacular Press Act : The revolt of 1857 forced the government to curb the freedom of the press. After the revolt, enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‘native’ press. As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began debating measures of strict control.
In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, on the model of Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. The government started keeping regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspapers were given a warning and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized, and the printing machinery could be confiscated.

Q.3. What did the spread of print culture in the nineteenth century India mean to :
(a) Women
(b) The poor
(c) Reformers
Ans. (a) Refer Q. No. 17, Long Answer Type Questions.
(b) Refer Q. No. 3, Value Based Questions.
(c) (i) Reformers used newspapers, journals and books to highlight the social evils prevailing in the society. Raja Ram Mohan Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi to highlight the plight of widows.
(ii) From the 1860s, many Bengali women writers like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women about how women were imprisoned at home, kept in ignorance, forced to do hard domestic labour and treated unjustly by the menfolk, they served.
In the 1880s, in the present day Maharashtra, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai wrote with passionate anger about the miserable lives of the upper-caste Hindu women, especially the widows. The poor status of women was also expressed by the Tamil writers.
(iii) Jyotiba Phule was a social reformer. He wrote about the poor condition of the ‘low caste’. In his book Gulamgiri (1871), he wrote about the injustices of the caste system.
In the 20th century, B.R. Ambedkar also wrote powerfully against the caste system. He also wrote against untouchability.
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, too wrote about the caste system prevailing in Madras (Chennai).

Q.4. Write about the different innovations in the printing technology during the 19th century ? [CBSE Sept. 2010]
Ans. (i) By the mid-nineteenth century, Richard M. Hoe of New York had perfected the power-driven cylindrical press. This was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour. This press was particularly useful for printing newspapers.
(ii) In the late nineteenth century, the offset press was developed which could print up to six colours at a time.
(iii) From the turn of the twentieth century, electrically operated presses accelerated printing operations.

Q.5. Why did some people in the eighteenth century Europe think that print culture would bring enlightenment and end despotism ? [CBSE Sept. 2010, 2011]
Or
Assess the impact of print revolution on the European society. [CBSE 2013]
Ans. (i) Spreading of new ideas : After the coming of the print culture, the ideas of scientists and philosophers now became more accessible to the common people. Ancient and medieval scientific texts were compiled and published.
(ii) Scientific discoveries : Maps and more accurate scientific diagrams were widely printed. When scientists like Issac Newton began to publish their discoveries, they could influence a much wider circle of scientifically-minded readers.
(iii) Writings of scholars : The writings of thinkers such as Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean Jacques Rousseau were also widely printed, and could gain popularity. Thus, their ideas about science, reasoning and rationality found their way into popular literature.
(iv) Books as medium of progress: By the mid-18th century, books became a medium of spreading progress and enlightenment which could change the society and the world. It was also believed that the books could literate society from despotism and tyranny.
(v) Ideas of enlightened thinkers : The print popularised the ideas of the enlightened thinkers like that of Martin Luther who attacked the authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, e.g., Voltaire and Rousseau.
(vi) A new culture of dialogue and debate : The print created a new culture of dialogue and debate and the public, became aware of reasoning and recognised the need to question the existing ideas and beliefs.

Q.6. Why did some people fear the effect of the easily available printed books ? Choose one example from Europe and one from India. [CBSE Sept. 2011]
Or
Explain the role played by print in bringing about a division in the Roman Catholic Church. [CBSE Sept. 2011]
Or
Explain the role played by print in the spreading of Protestant Reformation. [CBSE 2012, 2013]
Ans. Not everyone welcomed the printed books and those, who did, also had fear about them. Many were of the opinion that printed words and the wider circulation of books, would have a negative impact on people’s minds. They feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might gain importance. There was also fear in the minds of scholars that the authority of ‘valuable’ literature would be destroyed. The new print was criticised by religious authorities, monarchs, as well as by writers and artists.
Let us consider the implication of this in one sphere of life in the early modern Europe, i.e., religion.
Martin Luther was a German monk, priest, professor and a Church reformer. In 1517, he wrote Ninety Five Theses and openly criticised many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church. A printed copy of this was pasted on a Church door in Wittenberg. It challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately copied in vast numbers and read widely. This led to a division within the Church, and led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
Manx; conservative FUndus believed that a literate girl would be widowed and Muslims believed that educated women could get corrupted by reading Urdu romances. There were many instances of women defying this prohibition.

Q.7. What were the effects of the spread of print culture for the poor people in the nineteenth century India ?
Ans. Refer Q. No. 3, Value Based Questions.

Q.8. Explain how the print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India. [CBSE Sept. 2010, 2011]
Ans. (i) New ideas and debates : There were many who criticised the existing practices and campaigned for reforms, while others countered the arguments of the reformers. These debates were carried out openly in public and in print. Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread the new ideas, but they also shaped the nature of the debate. All this assisted the growth of nationalism.
(ii) Connecting various communities : Print did not only stimulate the publication of conflicting opinions amongst communities, but it also connected communities and people living in different parts of India. Newspapers conveyed news from one place to another, creating pan-Indian identities.
(iii) Print and newspaper : Despite repressive measures, nationalist newspapers grew in numbers in all parts of India. They reported on colonial misrule and encouraged nationalist activities. When Punjab revolutionaries were deported in 1907, Balgangadhar Tilak wrote with great sympathy about them in Kesari.
(iv) Various novels on national history: Many novels written by Indian novelists like Bankim’s Anandamath created a sense of pan-Indian belonging. Munshi Premchand’s novel, Godan highlighted how Indian peasants were exploited by the colonial bureaucrats.
(v) Various images of Bharatmata : Printers like Raja Ravi Verma and Rabindranath Tagore produced images of Bharatmata which produced a sense of nationalism among Indians. The devotion to mother figure came to be seen as an evidence of one’s nationalism.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following is the oldest Japanese book? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Sutta Pitaka
(b) Diamond Sutra
(c) Maha Vamsa
(d) Dipa Vamsa

2. The first printing press was developed by [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Kitagawa Utamaro
(c) Johann Gutenberg
(d) Erasmus

3. Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Balgangadhar Tilak
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

4. Who among the following is an enlightened thinker whose writings are said to have created conditions for a revolution in France? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Rousseau
(b) Louise Setastin Mercier
(c) Menocchio
(d) Johann Gutenberg

5. Which religious reformer was responsible for the Reformation Movement?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Martin Luther King
(c) The Grimm Brothers
(d) George Elliot

6. Who among the following was not a women novelist?
(a) Jane Austen
(b) Bronte Sisters
(c) George Eliot
(d) Maxim Gorky

7. Which of the following countries was the earliest producer of printing material?
(a) Persia
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Japan

8. From where did Marcopolo bring back the knowledge of wood block printing to Italy?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India

9. By whom was the New Testament first translated?
(a) Erasmus
(b) Leonardo da vince
(c) Martin Luther
(d) Manocchio

10. In ancient India which of the following material was used for writing manuscripts?
(a) Parchments
(b) Vellum
(c) Palm leaves
(d) Paper

11. Name the first weekly magazine published in India by Gangadhar Bhattacharya.
(a) Anandabazar Patrika
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Yugantar
(d) Sambad Kaumudi

12. By whom was ‘Sambad Kaumudi’ published’ in 1821?
(a) Iswer Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Swami Vivekanand

13. ‘Amar Jiban’ is the autobiography of which of the following woman author?
(a) Rashsundari Debi
(b) Rokeya Hossein
(c) Kailashbashini Devi
(d) Pandita Ramabai

14. Who among the following was popularly known as Periyar ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(d) S. Naidu

15. Which one of the following best explains calligraphy ?
(a) The art of painting
(b) The art of map drawing
(c) The art of beautiful and stylised writing
(d) The art of sketching

16. ‘Edo’ was the earlier name of which of the following places ?
(a) Shanghai
(b) Tokyo
(c) Seoul
(d) Hongkong

17. Vellum refers to
(a) parchment made from the skin of animals.
(b) written material made from the bark of trees.
(c) paper made out of pulp.
(d) written material made from cloth.

18. Who was Marcopolo ?
(a) German scientist
(b) English philosopher
(c) Spanish explorer
(d) Italian traveller/explorer

19. Which of the following inspired Gutenberg to design and model a printing press ?
(a) Wood block printing of China
(b) Olive press in agricultural estates
(c) Hand written manuscripts
(d) Print technology of Japan

20 Martin Luther’s writings and ideas led to which of the following movements ?
(a) Counter Reformation Movement
(b) Renaissance Movement
(c) Reformation Movement
(d) Intellectual Movement

21. The reformation movement was launched against the corrupt practices of which of the following group ?
(a) Feudal Lords
(b) Protestant Church
(c) Catholic Church
(d) Absolute rulers

22. Which of the following refers to ‘inquisition’ ?
(a) Protestant tribunal to punish heretics
(b) Catholic court to try and punish the heretics
(c) The state judicial body for punishing the criminals
(d) All the above

23. Aim of Protestant Reformation was to
(a) reform religion
(b) reform the Catholic church
(c) reform Jewish religion
(d) to protest against all reform

24. Erasmus was a
(a) Latin scholar and Catholic reformer
(b) French scholar who advocated Protestantism
(c) Swedish scholar who translated the Bible
(d) British scholar who opposed Catholic Church

25. What was chapbooks ?
(a) Books which were cheap
(b) The pocket size books sold by travelling peddler
(c) Book sold on footpath
(d) Handwritten books

26. An alamnac refers to
(a) a ritual calendar
(b) a dictionary
(c) a religious book
(d) a long poem

27. In France what was known as ‘Biliotheque Bleue’ ?
(a) A blue coloured book
(b) A blue coloured, cheap book made out of poor quality paper
(c) A book made of excellent blue silk for rich people
(d) A blue coloured writing pad

28. Which 18th century French novelist declared, ‘The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress’ ?
(a) Rousseau
(b) Voltaire
(c) Mercier
(d) Montesquieh

29. The print culture created condition for which of the following revolutions ?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) American Revolution

30. Penny magazine was meant only for
(a) old people
(b) poor people
(c) women
(d) children

31. The scribes refer to
(a) Authors
(b) Poets
(c) Skilled hand writers
(d) Skilled painters

32. Which of the following refers to print revolution ?
(a) Invention of printing press
(b) Shift from hand printing to mechanical printing
(c) Revolt of people against printed matters
(d) Handwritten manuscripts for printed books

33. Mark the correct response. Due to invention of printing press
(a) reading culture developed
(b) cost of books was reduced
(c) the time and labour required to produce books came down
(d) all the above

34. Richard M. Hoe of New York was well known for
(a) inventing the printing press
(b) perfecting the power-driven cylindrical press
(c) for inventing woodblock printing
(d) for inventing electrical typing machine.

35. Why was James Augustus Hickey persecuted by Governor General Warren Hastings ?
(a) For poor editing of Bengal Gazette
(b) For publishing a lot of gossip about company’s Senior Official
(c) For writing propaganda material against the Indian
(d) For publishing sub standard material

36. With what purpose was the Vernacular Press Act passed by Lord Lyton in 1878 ?
(a) To popularise Vernacular Press
(b) To supervise Vernacular Press
(c) To clamp down and censor the native press
(d) To encourage authors writing in Indian languages.

37. Why was the Vernacular Act of 1878 opposed by the Indians ?
(a) It did not allow the Indian authors to write in their newspapers.
(b) It challenged the freedom of press of the Indians.
(c) It encouraged the Indians to publish religious materials in the newspapers.
(d) To defy colonialism.

38. How did nationalist newspapers inspire nationalism in India ? Mark the most appropriate answer.
(a) By writing various articles in the newspapers.
(b) By publishing the speeches of nationalist leaders.
(c) By reporting the colonialm is rule and encouraging nationalist activities through press.
(d) By encouraging Indian authors.

ANSWERS

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Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Social Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Economic Development

Page 16
Q1. Development of a country can generally be determined by
(i) its per capita income
(ii) its average literacy level
(iii) health status of its people
(iv) all the above
Answer:
(iv) all the above

Q2. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India?
(i) Bangladesh
(ii) Sri Lanka
(iii) Nepal
(iv) Pakistan
Answer:
(ii) Sri Lanka

Q3. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000 and Rs 3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?
(i) Rs 7500
(ii) Rs 3000
(iii) Rs 2000
(iv) Rs 6000
Answer:
(iii) Rs 6000

Q4. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? What are the limitations of this criterion, if any?

The average income, i.e. per capita income is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries.
According to World Development Report 2006, published by the World Bank, countries with per capita income of $10066 per annum and above in 2004 are called rich or developed countries. On the other hand, countries with per capita income of $825 or less are called low-income countries.
Limitations: It does not tell us about how the average income is distributed among the people in the individual countries. The countries with the same per capita income might be very different with regard to income distribution. One might have equitable distribution of income, while the other might have great disparities between the rich and the poor.

Q5. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different from the one used by the World Bank?
The criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development is different from the one used by the World Bank in the following respects:
The World Bank – The World Bank uses per capita income as the sole criterion for measuring development.
The UNDP – It uses the Human Development Index (HDI) based on a combination of factors such as health, education, and income as the criterion for measuring development.
Thus, the UNDP does not rely solely on per capita income, as the criterion for measuring development, as in the case with the World Bank.

Q6. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own examples related to development
We use averages because they are useful for comparing differing quantities of the same category. For example, to compute the per capita income of a country, averages have to be used because there are differences in the incomes of diverse people. However, there are limitations to the use of averages. Even though they are useful for comparison, they may also hide disparities. For example, the infant mortality rate of a country does not differentiate between the male and female infants born in that country. Such an average tells us nothing about whether the number of children dying before the age of one are mostly boys or girls.

Q7. Kerala, with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than Punjab. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to compare states. Do you agree? Discuss.
No, I do not agree with the statement that per capita income is not a useful criterion at all. Kerala, with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than Punjab because, human development ranking is determined using a combination of factors such as health, education, and income. So, this does not imply that per capita income is not useful. Rather, per capita income is one of the development factors and can not be neglected. The World Bank uses per capita income as the criterion for measuring development and comparing states. But this criterion has certain limitations because of which determination of Human Development Index (HDI) is done using this criterion along with some other development factors like health, education etc.

Q8. Find out the present sources of energy that are used by the people in India. What could be the other possibilities fifty years from now?
The present sources of energy that are used by the people of India are electricity, coal, crude oil, cowdung and solar energy. Other possibilities fifty years from now, could include ethanol, bio-diesel, nuclear energy and a better utilisation of wind energy, especially with the imminent danger of oil resources running out.

Q9. Why is the issue of sustainability is important for development?
Sustainability for development or sustainable development refers to the development which is done without damaging the environment and other resources. In other words, balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for future is known as sustainable development.
The issue of sustainability is important for the development because development must happen in tandem with future. If natural resources are not sustained, it will cause a stagnation of development after a point of time. Exploiting resources unethically will ultimately undo the development that a country may have achieved. This is because in future, those resources will not be available for further progress.

Page 17:
Q10. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the need of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even one person.” How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development? Discuss.
This statement is relevant to the discussion of development since both resources and development go hand in hand. As the statement claims, our earth has enough resources – renewable and non-renewable to satisfy everyone’s need if we use them in an economic manner. For the sustainability of development, the consumption and maintenance of resources is also crucial. We have to use the resources keeping our environment protected and clear so that there is a balance between the development and use of our resources. As otherwise after a certain point of time in future the development will be stagnated.

Q11. List a few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around you.
Environmental degradation manifests itself in different ways. Deforestation, falling levels of ground water, soil erosion, water pollution, burning of fossil fuels, the hole in the ozone layer and combustion from automobiles causing extreme air pollution especially in urban areas are some of the examples of environmental degradation.

Multiple Choice Questions

Previous Years’ Questions
1. Which one of the following countries has the largest size of illiterate population in the age group of 15 + in the world ? [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) Bangladesh

2. Development of a country can generally be determined by its: [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) per capita income
(b) average.literacy Ieve4
(c) health status of its people
(d) none of these

3. We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating: [CBSE (CCE) 2010]
(a) the total income of a person
(b) by dividing the national income by the total population of a country
(c) the total value of all goods and services
(d) the total exports of the country

4. Kerala has low infant Mortality Rate because: [CBSE (CCE) 2010]
(a) it has good climatic condition
(b) it has adequate infrastructure
(c) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(d) it has poor net attendance ratio

NCERT Questions
5. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India ?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

6. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is ₹ 5000. If the income of three families is ₹ 4000, ₹ 7000 and ₹ 3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth family ?
(a) ₹ 7,500
(b) ₹ 3,000
(c) ₹ 2,000
(d) ₹ 6,000

Additional Questions
7. According to World Development Report 2004, low-income countries are those which have per capita income of
(a) $ 900 or less.
(b) $ 1000 or less
(c) $ 825 or less
(d) $ 500 or less

8. Identify which of the following cannot be a development goal for a landless rural labourer?
(a) More days of work
(b) Better wages
(c) Quality education for children
(d) Foreign tours

9. Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like
(a) equal treatment
(b) freedom
(c) security
(d) all of them

10. Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development. A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being discussed here.
(a) Social development
(b) Cultural development
(c) National development
(d) Economic development

11. List how many tonnes of liquid toxic wastes a vessel dumped in a city called Abidjan in Ivory Coast, a country in Africa ?
(a) 500 tonnes
(b) 600 tonnes
(c) 900 tonnes
(d) 1000 tonnes

12. Countries with higher income are ………….. than others with less income.
(a) Less developed
(b) More developed
(c) Less stronger
(d) More organised

13. Income of the country divided by its total population is known as
(a) Capital Income
(b) National Income
(c) Per capita income
(d) GDP

14. In World Development Report 2006, Rich Countries were those which in 2004 had the per capita income of
(a) ₹ 2,53,000 per annum & above
(b) ₹ 14,50,000 per annum & above
(c) ₹ 4,53,000 per annum & above
(d) ₹ 13,53,000 per annum & above

15. In World Development Report 2006, low-income countries were those which in 2004 had the per capita income of
(a) ₹ 37,000 or less
(b) ₹ 47,000 or less
(c) ₹ 50,000 or less
(d) ₹ 39,000 or less

16. In 2004, India came in the category of
(a) Rich countries
(b) Low-income countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Medium income countries

17. Comparing all states, identify the state which had the highest per capita income in 2002 – 2003.
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Delhi
(d) Bihar

18. Which state had the least per capita income in 2002-03 ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Delhi

19. Number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year is known as
(a) Death rate
(b) Survival rate
(c) Infant mortality rate
(d) Life death rate

20. Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as
(a) Knowledge rate
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Attendance rate
(d) Excellence Rate

21. Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 6 – 10
(b) 7 – 11
(c) 5 – 9
(d) 10 – 15

22. In 2003, Infant Mortality Rate in Kerala was
(a) 49
(b) 11
(c) 60
(d) 22

23. For the year 1995 – 96, Net Attendance Ratio for class I to V in Bihar was
(a) 81
(b) 51
(c) 41
(d) 31

24. Literacy rate for rural male population of Uttar Pradesh is
(a) 62 %
(b) 59 %
(c) 52 %
(d) 42 %

25. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by the
(a) Square of the weight
(b) Square of the height
(c) Square root of the height
(d) Square of the sum of height and weight

26. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered
(a) over weight
(b) long height
(c) under nourished
(d) short height

27. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income is
(a) Human Education Report
(b) Human Development Report
(c) Human Population Report
(d) Human Quality Report

28. HDI Rank of India in the world out of 177 countries in 2004 was
(a) 93
(b) 126
(c) 130
(d) 125

29. India’s per capita income in US $ is …………… Sri Lanka (in 2004)
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) less than or equal to

30. Nepal has nearly ……………. the per capita income of India (in 2004)
(a) one – fourth
(b) three – fourth
(c) equal
(d) half

31. What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves ?
(a) One – Fourth
(b) One – Tenth
(c) One – Third
(d) half

32. Resources which will get exhausted after years of use is called ……………
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non – durable resources
(c) Non – renewable resources
(d) Competing resources

ANSWERS

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More Resources for CBSE Class 10:

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Social Economics Chapter 1 Understanding Economic Development appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

Page 35
Q1: Fill in the blanks using the correct option given in the bracket:
(i) Employment in the service sector _________ increased to the same extent as production. (has / has not)
(ii) Workers in the _________ sector do not produce goods. (tertiary / agricultural)
(iii) Most of the workers in the _________ sector enjoy job security. (organised / unorganised)
(iv) A _________ proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector. (large / small)
(v) Cotton is a _________ product and cloth is a _________ product. (natural / manufactured)
(vi) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are _________. (independent / interdependent)
Answer:
(i) Employment in the service sector has not increased to the same extent as production.
(ii) Workers in the tertiary sector do not produce goods.
(iii) Most of the workers in the organised sector enjoy job security.
(iv) A large proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector.
(v) Cotton is a natural product and cloth is a manufactured product.
(vi) The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are interdependent.

Q2: Choose the most appropriate answer.
(a) The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of:
(i) employment conditions
(ii) the nature of economic activity
(iii) ownership of enterprises
(iv) number of workers employed in the enterprise

(b) Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in ______________ sector.
(i) primary
(ii) secondary
(iii) tertiary
(iv) information technology

(c) GDP is the total value of _____________ produced during a particular year.
(i) all goods and services
(ii) all final goods and services
(iii) all intermediate goods and services
(iv) all intermediate and final goods and services

(d) In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 is _________
(i) between 20 per cent to 30 per cent
(ii) between 30 per cent to 40 per cent
(iii) between 50 per cent to 60 per cent
(iv) 70 per cent

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iii)

Q4:Find the odd one out and say why.
Answer: (i) Tourist guide, dhobi, tailor, potter.
(ii) Teacher, doctor, vegetable vendor, lawyer.
(iii) Postman, cobbler, soldier, police constable.
(iv) MTNL, Indian Railways, Air India, Sahara Airlines, All India Radio.
(i) Potter, because only the potter relates to secondary sector.
(ii) Vegetable vendor, since only this directly help in the production of goods.
(iii) Cobbler because, only cobbler falls in private sector.
(iv) Sahara Airlines, as this is only a private sector company in the group.

Q6: Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, tertiary and secondary is useful? Explain how.
Answer: The classification of economic activities into primary, tertiary and secondary is useful on account of the information it provides on how and where the people of a country are employed. also this helps in ascertaining as to which sector of economic activity contributes more or less to the country’s GDP and per capita income.
If the tertiary sector is developing much faster than the primary sector, then it implies that agriculture is depleting, and the government must take measures to rectify this. The knowledge that the agricultural profession is becoming unpopular or regressive can only come if we know which sector it belongs to. Hence it is necessary to classify economic activities into these there sectors for smooth economic administration and development.

Q7: For each of the following sectors that we came across in this chapter why should one focus on employment and GDP? Could there be other issues which should be examined? Discuss.
Answer: For each of the sectors mentioned in this chapter our focus should definitely be on employment and GDP. This is because growth in GDP and full employment are common goals of Five Year Plans and they also determine the size of a country’s economy. A focus on employment and GDP helps us to calculate and monitor the most important factors like: per capita income, productivity, changes in employment rate and contribution to GDP by the three sectors of economy and thus, takes necessary steps required for the upliftment of the country’s economy as a whole.
Yes, the other issues which should be examined are –
1. balanced regional development
2. equality in income and wealth among the people of the country.
3. how to eradicate poverty
4. modernization of technology
5. self-reliance of the country
6. how to achieve surplus food production in the country.

Q9: How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? Illustrate with few examples.
Answer: The tertiary sector different from other two sectors. This is because other two sectors produce goods but, this sector does not produce goods by itself. But the activities under this sector help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities are an aid or support for the production process. For example, transport, communication, storage, banking, insurance, trade activities etc. For this reason this sector is also known as service sector.

Q10: What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain with an example each from the urban and rural areas.
Answer: Disguised Unemployment is a kind of unemployment in which there are people who are visibly employed but are actually unemployed. This situation is also known as Hidden Unemployment. In such a situation more people are engaged in a work than required.
For example in rural areas, this type of unemployment is generally found in agricultural sector like – in a family of 9 people all are engaged in the same agricultural plot. But if 4 people are with drawn from it there will be no reduction in output. So, these 4 people are actually disguisedly employed.
In urban areas, this type of unemployment can be seen mostly in service sectors such as in a family all members are engaged in one petty shop or a small business which can be managed by less number of persons.

Q11: Distinguish between open unemployment and disguised unemployment.
Open Unemployment – When a country’s labour force do not get opportunities fro adequate employment, this situation is called open unemployment. This type of unemployment is generally found in the industrial sector of our country. This is also found among the landless agricultural labourers in rural areas.
Disguised Unemployment – This is a kind of unemployment in which there are people who are visibly employed but actually they don’t have full employment. In such a situation more people are engaged in a work than required. This type of unemployment is generally found in unorganized sector where either work is not constantly available or too many people are employed for the same work that does not require so many hands.

Q12: Tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy. Do you agree/ Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer: No, I do not agree with the statement that tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy. The reasons are as follows:
1. In terms of GDP this sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India surpassing the primary and secondary sectors. In 1973, the share of the tertiary sector in GDP was about 35% which increased to more than 50% in 2003. Over the thirty years between 1973 and 2003, while production in all three sectors increased, it has been the most in tertiary sector.
2. In terms of employment also the rate of growth of employment in tertiary sector between the same period was nearly 250%. This was negligible in primary sector.

Q13: Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are these?
Answer: The service sector in India employs the following two different kinds of people. They are:
(a) The people involved in the services that may directly help in the production of goods. For example, people involved in the transportation, storage, communication, finance etc.
(b) The people involved in such services that may not directly help in the production of goods e.g. teachers, doctors, barbers, cobblers lawyers etc. They may be termed as ancillary workers means those who give services to the primary service providers.

Q14: Workers are exploited in the unorganized sector. Do you agree with this view.? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer: Yes, workers are exploited in the unorganized sector. This would be clear from the following points:
1. There is no fixed number of working hours. The workers normally work 10 – 12 hours without paid overtime.
2. They do not get other allowances apart fro the daily wages.
3. Government rules and regulations to protect the labourers are not followed there.
4. There is no job security.
5. Jobs are low paid the workers in this sector are generally illiterate, ignorant and unorganized. So they are not in a position to bargain or secure good wages.
6. Being very poor they are always heavily in debt. So, they can be easily made to accept lower wages.

Q15: How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer: On the basis of employment conditions, the activities in the economy are classified into organized and unorganized sectors.
Organized Sector This sector covers those enterprises which are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations. For example, Reliance Industries Ltd., GAIL etc.
Unorganized Sector It includes those small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Though there are rules and regulations but these are never followed here. For example, casual workers in construction, shops etc. In this sector there is no job security and the conditions of employment are also very tough.

Q16: Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors.
Answer: The employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sectors are vastly different. The organised sector has companies registered with the government and hence, it offers job security, paid holidays, pensions, health and other benefits, fixed working hours and extra pay for overtime work. On the other hand, the unorganised sector is a host of opposites. There is no job security, no paid holidays or pensions on retirement, no benefits of provident fund or health insurance, unfixed working hours and no guarantee of safe work environment.

Q17: Explain the objective of implementing the NREGA 2005.
Answer: The objective of implementing the NREGA 2005 was to provide 100 days of guaranteed employment to those people in rural India who can work, and are in need of work. This Right to Work has been implemented in 200 districts. If the government is unable to provide this employment, then it has to give unemployment allowances to the people.

Q18: Using examples from your area compare and contrast the activities and functions of private and public sectors.

Q20: Give three examples of Public Sector activities and explain why the government has taken up them.
Answer: The examples are:
Railways: The government has taken up it for the following reasons –
1. Only the government can invest large sums of money on the public project with long gestation period.
2. To ensure and provide transportation at cheap rate.
NTPC: The government has taken up it to provide electricity at a lower rate than the actual cost of production. The aim is to protect and encourage the private sector especially small scale industries.
AIIMS: To provide quality health services at reasonably cheap rate was the main purpose of the government to start this.

Q21: Explain how Public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation.
Answer: In the following ways Public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation:
1. It promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
2. It creates employment opportunities.
3. It generates financial resources for development.
4. It is ensuring equality of income, wealth and thus, a balanced regional development.
5. It encourages development of small, medium and cottage industries.
6. It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
7. Contributes to community development i.e. to the Human Development Index (HDI) via health and educational services.

Q22: The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues: wages, safety and health. Explain with examples?
Answer: The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues: wages, safety and health. In the construction sector, labourers are employed on a daily basis. Hence, they have no job security. Here, wages too differ from time to time. Consequently, the government has set up a minimum wages act to protect such workers from economic exploitation.
The same problem exists for miners working in private mining companies. Their safety is secondary to the company’s profits, and as a result, many miners suffer grievous injuries (and many a times, even die) due to inadequate safety gear and norms. Governments of most nations have now laid down strict rules for private enterprises to ensure workers’ safety.
Most companies in the unorganised sector do not provide health insurance to their employees. Some of these might be involved in dangerous factory production that may harm a worker’s health in the long term. These workers need to be protected against the tyranny of the employer, and it is here that the government steps in.

Q23: A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was Rs 60,000 million. Out of this Rs 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector. Present this data as a table. What kind of ways should be thought of for generating more employment in the city?
Answer:Ways to generate more employment in the city of Ahmedabad have to be provided by the government, especially in the unorganised sector. As the table shows, the organised sector’s earnings are much higher than that of the unorganised sector even though the latter employs almost 80% of the city workers. More companies need to be brought under the roof of the organised sector so that workers from the unorganised sector are attracted to jobs there, with higher and more secure wages. For this, the government must provide loans and aid to companies transferring from unorganised to organised sectors.

Multiple Choice Questions

Previous Years’ Questions
1. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of: [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activities
(c) Number of workers employed
(d) Ownership of enterprises

2. The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called as: [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product
(c) National Product
(d) Production of Tertiary Sector

3. The service sector includes activities such as [CBSE(CCE)2011]
(a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
(b) making sugar, gur and bricks
(c) transport, communication and banking
(d) None of these

4. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector [CBSE (CCE) 2011]
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.

NCERT Questions
5. Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process, is an activity in sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) information technology

6. GDP is the total value of ………….. produced during a particular year.
(a) all goods and services
(b) all final goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services
(d) all intermediate and final goods and services

7. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003 is:
(a) between 20 per cent to 30 per cent
(b) between 30 per cent to 40 per cent
(c) between 50 per cent to 60 per cent
(d) 70 per cent

Additional Questions
8. Underemployment occurs when people
(a) do not want to work
(b) are working in a lazy manner
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing
(d) are not paid for their work

9. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the
(a) Secondary sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Organised sector

10. Natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Unorganised sector

11. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector?
(a) ATM booths
(b) Call centres
(c) Internet cafe
(d) All of them

12. Only ………… are included to know the total production in each sector.
(a) Final goods and services
(b) Intermediate goods
(c) Only goods
(d) Only services

13. At the initial stages of development, ………………. was the most important sector of economic activity
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Organised sector

14. In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary to ……………. in developed countries.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Unorganised sector

15. Mention the largest producing sector in 2003 in India ?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Unorganised sector

16. Name the sector which continues to be the largest employer even in the year 2000.
(a) Secondary
(b) Primary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Banking section

17. A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required.
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment

18. A study conducted by the planning commission estimates that the following number of jobs can be created in the education sector alone.
(a) 20 lakhs
(b) 15 lakhs
(c) 18 lakhs
(d) 25 lakhs

19. Out of 200 million children in the school going age group, how many are attending schools?
(a) One – fourth
(b) Half
(c) Two – thirds
(d) One – fifth

20. According to planning commission, if tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to people more than
(a) 25 lakhs
(b) 30 lakhs
(c) 32 lakhs
(d) 35 lakhs

21. Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts of India ?
(a) 150 districts
(b) 200 districts
(c) 250 districts
(d) 300 districts

22. Under NREGA 2005, how many days of work, in a year are guaranteed by the government?
(a) 100 days
(b) 120 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 99 days

23. Enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and people have assured work comes under
(a) Primary sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Tertiary sector

24. Percentage of people in the unorganised sector in tertiary sector is …………………..
(a) 67 %
(b) 76 %
(c) 51 %
(d) 75 %

25. In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of
(i) Landless agricultural labourers
(ii) Garment makers
(iii) Street vendors
(iv) Sharecroppers and artisans
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

26. Which of them does not generally find itself in the unorganised sector ?
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Scheduled tribes
(c) Rich families
(d) Backward communities

27. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the.services
(a) Private Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Organised Sector
(d) Tertiary Sector

28. There are large number of activities like providing health and education which are the primary responsibility of
(a) Primary sector
(b) Private companies
(c) Government
(d) Secondary sector

ANSWERS

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

More Resources for CBSE Class 10:

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Social Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Page 52:
Question 1: In situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. Explain?
Answer: Whether a credit would be useful or not, will depend on a number of factors like – risks involved, whether there is some support against a loss, terms of credit etc. It is a fact that in situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. For example, credit taken by farmers for cultivation might create problems for the farmer at some times. Crop production involves high costs on inputs such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation etc. Farmers generally take loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest. But the failure of the crop makes loan repayment impossible. Then in order to repay the loan sometimes, they become bound to sell part of their land. So, their situations become worse than before. The incidences of farmers’ suicides especially in Maharashtra are the burning examples of this situation.
Thus, whether a credit would be useful or not, depends on the various risks involved in the situation.

Question 2: How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with example of your own.
Answer: In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature. By serving as a medium of exchanges, money removes the need for double coincidence of wants and the difficulties associated with the barter system. For example, it is no longer necessary for the farmer to look for a book publisher who will buy his cereals at the same time sell him books. All he has to do is find a buyer for his cereals. If he has exchanged his cereals for money, he can purchase any goods or service which he needs. This is because money acts as a medium of exchange.

Question 3: How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
Answer: We know that banks accept the deposits from the people who have surplus money and also pay an interest on the deposits.
But banks keep only a small portion (15 per cent in India) of their deposits as cash with themselves. This is kept as provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from their accounts in the bank on any day. They use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans to those who need money. In this way banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money.

Question 4: Look at a 10 rupee note. What is written on top? Can you explain this statement?
“Reserve Bank of India” and “Guaranteed by the Government” are written on top.
Answer: In India, Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the central government. The statement means that the currency is authorized or guaranteed by the Central Government. That is, Indian law legalizes the use of rupee as a medium of payment that can not be refused in setting transaction in India.

Question 5: Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India?
Answer: We need to expand formal sources of credit in India for many reasons:
1. Compared to formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge much higher interest rates on loans like 3% to 5% per month i.e. 36% a year.
2. Besides the high interest rate, informal lenders impose various other tough conditions. For example, they make the farmers promise to sell the crop to him at a low price. There is no such condition in formal sector.
3. Informal lenders do not treat well with the borrowers. On the other hand, there is no such situation no such situation in the formal sector.
4. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. In contrast, there no organization which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.
5. Loans taken by poor people from informal lenders sometimes, lead them to debt-trap because of high interest rate.
6. The formal sources of credit in India still meets only about half of the total credit needs of the rural people.
So, it is necessary that the formal sources of credit expand their lending especially in rural areas, so that the dependence on informal sources of credit reduces as this will also help in the development of the country.

Question 6: What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.
Answer: The basic behind the SHGs is to provide a financial resource for the poor through organizing the rural poor especially women, into small Self Help Groups. They also provide timely loans at a responsible interest rate without collateral.
Thus, the main objectives of the SHGs are:
1. To organize rural poor especially women into small Self Help Groups.
2. To collect savings of their members.
3. To provide loans without collateral.
4. To provide timely loans for a variety of purposes.
5. To provide loans at responsible rate of interest and easy terms.
6. Provide platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such education, health, nutrition, domestic violence etc.

Question 7: What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers?
Answer: The banks might not be willing to lend certain borrowers due to the following reasons:
(a) Banks require proper documents and collateral as security against loans. Some persons fail to meet these requirements.
(b) The borrowers who have not repaid previous loans, the banks might not be willing to lend them further.
(c) The banks might not be willing to lend those entrepreneurs who are going to invest in the business with high risks.
(d) One of the principle objectives of a bank is to earn more profits after meeting a number of expenses. For this purpose it has to adopt judicious loan and investment policies which ensure fair and stable return on the funds.

Question 8: In what ways does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks? Why is this necessary?
Answer: The Reserve Bank of India monitors the amount of money that banks loan out, and also the amount of cash balance maintained by them. It also ensures that banks give out loans not just to profiteering businesses but also to small cultivators, small scale industries and small borrowers. Periodically, banks are supposed to submit information to the RBI on the amounts lent, to whom and at what rates of interest.
This monitoring is necessary to ensure that equality is preserved in the financial sector, and that small industries are also given an outlet to grow. This is also done to make sure that banks do not loan out more money than they are supposed to, as this can lead to situations like the Great Depression of the 1930s in the USA, which greatly affected the world economy as well.

Question 9: Analyse the role of credit for development.
Answer: Credit plays a crucial role in a country’s development. By sanctioning loans to developing industries and trade, banks provide them with the necessary aid for improvement. This leads to increased production, employment and profits. However, caution must be exercised in the case of high risks so that losses do not occur. This advantage of loans also needs to be manipulated and kept under an administrative hold because loans from the informal sector include high interest rates that may be more harmful than good. For this reason, it is important that the formal sector gives out more loans so that borrowers are not duped by moneylenders, and can ultimately contribute to national development.

Question 10: Manav needs a loan to set up a small business. On what basis will Manav decide whether to borrow from the bank or the moneylender? Discuss.
Answer: Manav will decide whether to borrow from the bank or the money lender on the basis of the following terms of credit:
(a) rate of interest
(b) requirements availability of collateral and documentation required by banker.
(c) mode of repayment.
Depending on these factors and of course, easier terms of repayment, Manav has to decide whether he has to borrow from the bank or the moneylender.

Question 11: In India about 80 per cent of farmers are small farmers, who need for cultivation.
(a) Why might banks be unwilling to lend to small farmers?
(b) What are the other sources from which the small farmers can borrow?
(c) Explain with an example how the terms of credit can be unfavorable for the small farmer.
(d) Suggest some ways by which small farmers can get cheap credit.
Answer:
(a) Banks might not be willing to lend to small farmers because they don’t have collateral security to deposit in the bank. Some of these farmers are not in the
position of paying loan, due to already existing loan.
(b The other sources of borrowing are from moneylenders, employer, self-help group, landlord, etc.
(c) For example, if a person takes loan from his/her landlord on the basis of security of his/her land. At the end, be/she is not able to pay the loan then
landlord can sell ,land and get his money back.
(d) Small farmers can get cheap credit by the help of self-help group (SHGs) from bank and they can repay the loan easily after 3 or 4 years. The rate of interest
is also low as compared to other sources of credit.

Question 12: Fill in the blanks:
(i) Majority of the credit needs of the __________households are met from informal sources.
(ii) __________costs of borrowing increase the debt-burden.
(iii) __________issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
(iv) Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on __________.
(v) __________is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.
Answer: (i) Majority of the credit needs of the poor households are met from informal sources.
(ii) High costs of borrowing increase the debt-burden.
(iii) Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
(iv) Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.
(v) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.

Question 13: Choose the most appropriate answer.
(i) In a SHG most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
(a) Bank.
(b) Members.
(c) Non-government organisation.
(ii) Formal sources of credit does not include
(a) Banks.
(b) Cooperatives.
(c) Employers.
Answer:
(i) (b)
(ii) (c)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding transaction made in money? [Delhi 2012]
(a) It is the easiest way
(b) It is the safest way
(c) It is the cheapest way
(d) It promotes trade

2. Which one of the following is the new way of providing loans to the rural poor? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Co-operative societies
(b) Traders
(c) Relatives and friends
(d) SHG’s

3. Which among the following authorities issues currency notes? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Government of India
(b) The State Bank of India
(c) Central Bank
(d) Reserve Bank of India

4. Banks provide a higher rate of interest on which one of the following accounts ? [AI 2012]
(a) Saving account
(b) Current account
(c) Fixed deposits for long period
(d) Fixed deposits for very short period

5. Which one of the following is the main source of credit for rich urban households in India ? [AI 2012]
(a) Formal sector
(b) Informal sector
(c) Money lenders
(d) Traders

6. Which one of the following is an essential feature of barter system?
(a) It promotes local market.
(b) It spreads social field of an individual.
(c) It requires double coincidence of wants.
(d) It is an easy way.

7. Which one of the following terms is not included against loans? [CBSE CCE 2012]
(a) Interest rate
(b) Collateral
(c) Documentation
(d) Lender’s land

8. What is main source of income for banks? [CBSE CCE 2012]
(a) Interest on loans
(b) Interest on deposits
(c) Difference between the interest charged on borrowers and depositors
(d) None of these

9. In which one of the following systems exchange of goods is done without use of money? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Credit system
(b) Barter system
(c) Banking system
(d) Collateral system

10. Which of the following has an essential feature of double coincidence? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Money system
(b) Barter system
(c) Financial system
(d) Banking system

11. What per cent of their deposits do bank hold as cash? [CBSE(CCE)2012]
(a) 50 percent
(b) 80 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 60 percent

12. Which of the following is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender? [CBSE(CCE)2012]
(a) Property
(b) Money
(c) Collateral
(d) Deposits

13. How many members a typical Self-Help Group Should have? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) 14 – 19
(b) 15 – 20
(c) 20 – 25
(d) 25 – 30

14. In a barter system: [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Goods are exchanged for money.
(b) Goods are exchanged for foreign currency.
(c) Goods are exchanged without the use of money.
(d) Goods are exchanged on credit.

15. About what percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) 25 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 15 %
(d) 10 %

16. Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits as cash with themselves? [Delhi 2011]
(a) To extend loan to the poor.
(b) To extend loan facility.
(c) To pay salary to their staff.
(d) To pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money.

17. The currency notes on behalf of the Central Government are issued by whom? [Delhi 2011]
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Central Bank of India

18. Which one of the following is not a feature of money? [AI 2011]
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Lack of divisibility
(c) A store of value
(d) A unit of account

19. Professor Muhammad Yunus is the founder of which one of the following banks ? [AI 2011]
(a) Cooperative Bank
(b) Commercial Bank
(c) Grameen Bank
(d) Land Development Bank

20. Which one of the following is a modern form of currency ? [Foreign 2011]
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Paper notes

21. The Informal source of credit does not include which one of the following? [Foreign 2011]
(a) Traders
(b) Friends
(c) Cooperative Societies
(d) Money – lenders

Additional Questions
22. Anything which is generally accepted by the people in exchange of goods and services
(a) Money
(b) Barter
(c) Credit
(d) Loans

23. Both parties agree to sell and buy each others commodities
(a) Measure of value
(b) Store of value
(c) Double coincidence of wants
(d) Credit

24. Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process. Which function of money is highlighted here?
(a) Measure of value
(b) Medium of Exchange
(c) Store of value
(d) All of them

25. Modern forms of money include
(i) Gold
(ii) Paper Notes
(iii) Coins
(iv) Silver
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

26. Mpney is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by
(a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) Government
(d) People

27. Deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, therefore these deposits are called
(a) Returnable deposits
(b) Acceptable Deposits
(c) Demand deposits
(d) None of the above

28. It is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name it has been made is
(a) Paper note
(b) Cheque
(c) Chit fund
(d) Credit card

29. Banks use the major portion of the deposits to
(a) Keep as reserve so that people may withdraw
(b) Meet their routine expenses
(c) Extend loans
(d) Meet renovation of bank

30. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment.
(a) Credit (loan)
(b) Chit fund
(c) Bank
(d) Cheque

31. Salim, the shoe manufacturer, to meet expenses obtains loans from two sources.
(i) Asks leather supplier to supply leather on credit
(ii) Bank
(iii) Obtains loan in cash as advance payment
(iv) Relatives
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

32. Swapna is unable to repay the money lender and she is caught in debt. She has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt. This situation is an example of
(a) Debt-loss
(b) Debt-Insecurity
(c) Debt-trap
(d) All of them

33. Whether credit would be useful or not, depends on
(i) Whether there is some support in case of loss
(ii) Action of competitors
(iii) Market response
(iv) Risks in the situation
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)

34. Terms of credit does not include
(a) Interest rate
(b) Collateral
(c) Cheque
(d) Mode of repayment

35. Krishak cooperative functioning in a village near Sonpur has ……………. farmers as members.
(a) 2500
(b) 2400
(c) 2350
(d) 2300

36. Formal sector loans include loans from
(i) Banks
(ii) Money lenders
(iii) Cooperatives
(iv) Traders
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)

37. Contribution of commercial banks as a source of credit for rural households in India in 2003 was
(a) 30 %
(b) 28 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 26 %

38. Organisation which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.
(a) No organisation
(b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(c) State Government
(d) Central Government

39. Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a much …………….. interest on loans
(a) Lower
(b) Constant
(c) Higher
(d) No interest

40. Formal sector meets only about …………… of the total credit needs of the rural people (in 2003)
(a) one third
(b) one fourth
(c) half
(d) whole

41. It is important that the formal credit is distributed more equally so that
(a) Poor can benefit from cheaper loans.
(b) Rich can get costly loans.
(c) Rich can get cheaper loans.
(d) None of the above.

42. After a year or two, if the SHG is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from
(a) Cooperative societies
(b) Money lenders
(c) Bank
(d) Traders

43. ……………. help borrowers overcome the problem
of lack of collateral and also they are the building blocks of organisation of the rural poor.
(a) Government
(b) Banks
(c) Private sector
(d) SHGs

44. Almost all of the borrowers of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh are
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Senior citizens
(d) All of them

ANSWERS

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Social Science: Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Listen to Audio Solutions for Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Page 72:
Question 1: What do you understand by globalisation? Explain in your own words.
Answer: Globalisation in today’s world has come to imply many things. It is the process by which the people of the world are unified into a single society and function together. This term is also often used to refer to economic globalisation: the integration of national economies into the international economy through trade, foreign direct investments, capital flows, migration and the spread of technology.

Question 2: What was the reason for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian government? Why did it wish to remove these barriers?
Answer: Barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment were put by the Indian government to protect domestic producers from foreign competition, especially when industries had just begun to come up in the 1950s and 1960s. At this time, competition from imports would have been a death blow to growing industries. Hence, India allowed imports of only essential goods.
Later, in the 1990s, the government wished to remove these barriers because it felt that domestic producers were ready to compete with foreign industries. It felt that foreign competition would in fact improve the quality of goods produced by Indian industries. This decision was also supported by powerful international organisations.

Question 3: How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?
Answer: Flexibility in labour laws will help companies in being competitive and progressive. By easing up on labour laws, company heads can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions. This will lead to an increase in the company’s competitiveness.

Question 4: What are the various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries?
Answer: The various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries are by buying out domestic companies or making the latter work for them. Sometimes, MNCs buy mass produce of domestic industries, and then sell it under their own brand name, at much higher rates, in foreign countries. MNCs look towards developing nations to set up trade because in such places, the labour and manufacturing costs are much lower.

Question 5: Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment? What do you think should the developing countries demand in return?
Answer: Developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment because then the MNCs belonging to the developed countries can set up factories in less-expensive developing nations, and thereby increase profits, with lower manufacturing costs and the same sale price. In my opinion, the developing countries should demand, in return, for some manner of protection of domestic producers against competition from imports. Also, charges should be levied on MNCs looking to set base in developing nations.

Question 6: “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.
Answer: “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform”. The truth of this statement can be verified if we observe the impact of MNCs on domestic producers and the industrial working class. Small producers of goods such as batteries, capacitors, plastics, toys, tyres, dairy products and vegetable oil have been hit hard by competition from cheaper imports. Also, workers are now employed “flexibly” in the face of growing competition. This has reduced their job security. Efforts are now on to make globalisation “fair” for all since it has become a worldwide phenomenon.

Question 7: How has liberalisation of trade and investment policies helped the globalisation process?
Answer: Liberalisation of trade and investment policies has helped the globalisation process by making foreign trade and investment easier. Earlier, several developing countries had placed barriers and restrictions on imports and investments from abroad to protect domestic production. However, to improve the quality of domestic goods, these countries have removed the barriers. Thus, liberalisation has led to a further spread of globalisation because now businesses are allowed to make their own decisions on imports and exports. This has led to a deeper integration of national economies into one conglomerate whole.

Question 8: How does foreign trade lead to integration of markets across countries? Explain with an example other than those given here.
Answer: Foreign trade leads to integration of markets across countries by the processes of imports and exports. Producers can make available their goods in markets beyond domestic ones via exports. Likewise, buyers have more choice on account of imports from other countries. This is how markets are integrated through foreign trade. For example, Japanese electronic items are imported to India, and have proved to be a tough competition for less-technologically-advanced companies here.

Question 9: Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty years from now? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer: Globalisation will continue in the future. Twenty years from now, the world will be more globally connected and integrated into one international economy, if this process continues on a fair and equitable basis. Trade and capital flows will increase alongside the mobility of labour. This will occur because liberalisation will get augmented and MNCs will converge with other companies producing the same goods.

Question 10: Supposing you find two people arguing: One is saying globalisation has hurt our country’s development. The other is telling, globalisation is helping India develop. How would you respond to these organisations?
Answer: Globalisation has hurt our country’s development because: firstly, it has led to the annihilation of small producers who face stiff competition from cheaper imports. Secondly, workers no longer have job security and are employed “flexibly”.
Globalisation is helping India develop on account of the following reasons: firstly, the competition it entails has led to rise in the quality of products in the market. Secondly, it has made available a wider variety of goods in the market, for the buyer to choose from. Now, imported goods are easily available alongside domestic products.

Question 11: Fill in the blanks.
Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of ______________. Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is increasing ______________ with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because _____________. While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising _______________ and ______________has meant greater ________________among the producers.
Answer:
Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of globalisation. Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is increasing trade with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because of cheaper production costs. While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising demand and purchasing power has meant greater competition among the producers.

Question 13: Choose the most appropriate option.
(i) The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in
(a) goods, services and people between countries.
(b) goods, services and investments between countries.
(c) goods, investments and people between countries.
(ii) The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
(a) set up new factories.
(b) buy existing local companies.
(c) form partnerships with local companies.
(iii) Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions
(a) of all the people
(b) of people in the developed countries
(c) of workers in the developing countries
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(i) (b)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (d)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Cargill Food’s is the largest producer of which of the following in India? [Delhi, 2012]
(a) Medicines
(b) Asian Paints
(c) Edible oil
(d) Garments

2. W.T.O. was started at the initiative of which one of the following group of countries? [Delhi, 2012]
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Developing countries

3. Which one of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment? [Delhi, 2012]
(a) International Labour Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) World Trade Organisation

4. Which one of the following is not characteristic of ‘Special Economic Zone’? [AI, 2012]
(a) They do not have to pay taxes for long period.
(b) Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.
(c) They have world class facilities.
(d) They do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

5. Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalisation? [AI, 2012]
(a) IT
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement

6. Which one of the following type of countries has been more benefited from globalisation? [AI, 2012]
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Developed countries

7. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called: [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Investment
(c) Fovourable trade
(d) Free trade

8. Investment made by MNCs are termed as: [CBSE (CCE)2012]
(a) Indigenous investment
(b) Foreign investment
(c) Entrepreneur’s investment
(d) None of the above

9. What is the process of rapid integration or inter connection between countries called? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Industrialization
(b) Globalization
(c) Liberalization
(d) Privatization

10. Which one of the following is an example of trade barrier? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Tax on Exports
(b) Tax on Imports
(c) Free Trade
(d) Restriction on Export

11. Removal of barriers set by the government is known as: [CBSE(CCE)2012]
(a) Globalisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Industralisation
(d) Privatisation

12. Globalisation does NOT involve which one of the following? [Delhi 2011]
(a) Rapid integration between countries.
(b) More goods and services moving between countries.
(c) Increased taxes on imports.
(d) Movement of people between countries for jobs, education etc.

13. Which of the following is not a feature of a Multi-National Company? [AI 2011]
(a) It owns/controls production in more than one nation.
(b) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets.
(c) It organises production in complex ways.
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.

14. Liberalisation involves which one of the following? [Foreign 2011]
(a) Removal of trade barriers
(b) Increasing subsidy on fertilisers
(c) Increasing import duties on goods
(d) Increasing export duties on goods

15. The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in
(a) goods, services and people between countries.
(b) goods, services and investments between countries.
(c) goods, investments and people between countries.

16. The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
(a) set up new factories.
(b) buy existing local companies.
(c) form partnerships with local companies.

17. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions
(a) of all the people
(b) of people in the developed countries
(c) of workers in the developing countries
(d) none of the above.

18. Globalisation, by connecting countries, shall result in
(a) lesser competition among producers.
(b) greater competition among producers.
(c) no change in competition among producers.

Additional Questions
19. Company that owns or controls production in more than one nation
(a) Foreign companies
(b) Government companies
(c) Multinational companies
(d) Private companies

20 Investment made by MNCs is called
(a) Mutual investment
(b) Inter-government investment
(c) Portfolio Investment
(d) Foreign investment

21. Benefit to the local company of joint production with MNCs is
(i) Money from MNCs for additional investments
(ii) Moral and Social support
(iii) Latest technology for production
(iv) All of them
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

22. Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as
(a) Parakh Foods
(b) Amul
(c) Britannia
(d) None of the above

23. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make ………… pouches daily.
(a) 6 million
(b) 5 million
(c) 4 million
(d) 55 million

24. Examples of industries where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world
(a) Garments
(b) Footwear
(c) Sport items
(d) All of them

25. Ford motors came to India in
(a) 1996
(b) 1995
(c) 1994
(d) 1990

26. Effect of Chinese toys on Indian toy makers is
(a) No effect
(b) Making profits
(c) Suffering losses
(d) None of them

27. Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Socialisation

28. Post 50 years have seen several improvements in
(a) Transportation technology
(b) Information technology
(c) Communication technology
(d) All of them

29. Tax on imports is an example of
(a) Terms of Trade
(b) Collateral
(c) Trade Barriers
(d) Foreign Trade

3B Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Socialisation

31. Around which year, need for removing barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment in India was felt ?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 2000
32. ……………. is one such organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade
(a) UNICEF
(b) World Bank
(c) WTO
(d) IDBI

33. Till 2006, how many members were there in WTO?
(a) 139
(b) 150
(c) 101
(d) 149

34. Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years

35. Industries where small manufacturers have been hit hard due to competition.
(a) Batteries
(b) Tyres
(c) Dairy Products
(d) All of them

36. Number of workers that small industries in India employ
(a) 18 million
(b) 19 million
(c) 20 million
(d) 21 million

37. To get large orders, Indian exporters try hard to cut their own costs by
(a) Reducing cost of raw materials
(b) Reducing advertising and marketing cost
(c) Reducing electricity cost
(d) Cutting labour cost

38. To achieve the goal of fair globalisation, major role can be played by
(i) People
(ii) Government
(iii) MNCs
(iv) None of the above
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

39. It refers to globalisation which creates opportunities for all and ensures that its benefits are better shared.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
(c) WTO
(d) Fair globalisation

40. Allowing private sector to set up more and more of such industries as were previously reserved for public sector.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Socialisation

ANSWERS

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Social Science Consumer Rights

Page 87
Question 1: Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer: Rules and regulations are required in the marketplace to protect consumers. Sellers often abdicate responsibility for a low-quality product, cheat in weighing out goods, add extra charges over the retail price, and sell adulterated/ defective goods. Hence, rules and regulations are needed to protect the scattered buyers from powerful and fewer producers who monopolise markets. For example, a grocery shop owner might sell expired products, and then blame the customer for not checking the date of expiry before buying the items.

Question 2: What factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India? Trace its evolution?
Answer: The factors that gave birth to the consumer movement in India are manifold. It started as a “social force” with the need to protect and promote consumer interests against unfair and unethical trade practices. Extreme food shortages, hoarding, black marketing and adulteration of food led to the consumer movement becoming an organised arena in the 1960s. Till the 1970s, consumer organisations were mostly busy writing articles and holding exhibitions. More recently, there has been an upsurge in the number of consumer groups who have shown concern towards ration shop malpractices and overcrowding of public transport vehicles. In 1986, the Indian government enacted the Consumer Protection Act, also known as COPRA. This was a major step in the consumer movement in India.

Question 3: Explain the need for consumer consciousness by giving two examples.
Answer: There is a need for consumer consciousness so that the buyers themselves can take action against cheating traders. The ISI and Agmark logos are certifications of good quality. Consumers must look for such certifications while buying goods and services. Secondly, to be able to discriminate and make informed choices, a consumer needs to have an adequate knowledge of the goods or services purchased by him/her.

Question 4: Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers.
Answer: Exploitation of consumers is caused by a variety of factors. Producers are always looking for easy ways to increase profits. Adulterated or low-quality goods have less production costs, and if the consumer is unaware or illiterate, it is easy to cheat him/her. Also, shopkeepers brush off their responsibility by claiming that the manufacturer is to blame. Consumers feel helpless in this situation. Often, when the consumers are known not to check the retail price of a commodity on its packing, sellers add extra charges to the same. In places where there is no awareness of consumer rights and the COPRA, consumer exploitation is rampant.

Question 5:What is the rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act 1986?
Answer: The rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act of 1986 is to protect the consumer against unethical and unfair trade practices. Also, it recognises the consumer’s right to be informed, right to choose, right to seek redressal and right to represent himself/herself in consumer courts.

Question 6: Describe some of your duties as consumers if you visit a shopping complex in your locality.
Answer: Some of my duties as a consumer if I visit a shopping complex include checking expiry dates of the products I wish to purchase, paying only the maximum retail price printed on the goods, preventing shopkeepers from duping me with defective products, and registering a complaint with a consumer forum or court in case a seller refuses to take responsibility for an adulterated or flawed product.

Question 7: Suppose you buy a bottle of honey and a biscuit packet. Which logo or mark you will have to look for and why?
Answer: While buying a bottle of honey or a biscuit packet, the logo or mark one will have to look for is ISI or Agmark. These are logos certifying the quality of goods in the market. Only those producers are allowed to use these marks who follow certain quality standards set by the organisations issuing these certifications. Thus, if a bottle of honey or a biscuit packet has one of these logos on it, then it implies that the product is of good quality.

Question 8: What legal measures were taken by the government to empower the consumers in India?
Answer: Legal measures taken by the government to empower consumers in India are plenty. First and foremost being the COPRA in 1986. Then, in October 2005, the Right to Information Act was passed, ensuring citizens all information about the functioning of government departments. Also, under COPRA, a consumer can appeal in state and national courts, even if his case has been dismissed at the district level. Thus, consumers even have the right to represent themselves in consumer courts now.

Question 9: Mention some of the rights of consumers and write a few sentences on each?
Answer: Some of the rights of consumers include the right to be informed, the right to choose, the right to seek redressal and the right to representation in consumer courts. Under the RTI Act of 2005, consumers can now even get information regarding the working of government departments. The right to choose allows a consumer to choose if he wishes to continue or discontinue the use of a service he purchased. The right to seek redressal permits a consumer to complain against unfair trade practices and exploitation.

Question 10: By what means can the consumers express their solidarity?
Answer: Consumers can express their solidarity by forming consumer groups that write articles or hold exhibitions against traders’ exploitation. These groups guide individuals on how to approach a consumer court, and they even fight cases for consumers. Such groups receive financial aid from the government to create public awareness. Participation of one and all will further strengthen consumer solidarity.

Question 11: Critically examine the progress of consumer movement in India?
Answer: The consumer movement in India has evolved vastly since it began. There has been a significant change in consumer awareness in the country. Till the enactment of COPRA in 1986, the consumer movement did not bear much force, but ever since its inception, the movement has been empowered substantially. The setting up of consumer courts and consumer groups has been a progressive move. However, in contemporary India, the consumer redressal process is quite complicated, expensive and time-consuming. Filing cases, attending court proceedings, hiring lawyers, and other procedures make it cumbersome. In India, there are over 700 consumer groups of which, unfortunately, only about 20-25 are well-organised and functioning smoothly.

Question 13: Say True or False.
(i) COPRA applies only to goods.
(ii) India is one of the many countries in the world which has exclusive courts for consumer redressal.
(iii) When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court.
(iv) It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value.
(v) Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewellry.
(vi) The consumer redressal process is very simple and quick.
(vii) A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage.
Answer:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) True
(v) True
(vi) False
(vii) True

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following logos is used for standardisation of agricultural products? [Delhi, 2012]
(a) I.S.I
(b) Hallmark
(c) Agmark
(d) ISO

2. In which one of the following courts a consumer should file a case if he/she is exploited in the market? [Delhi, 2012]
(a) Local court
(b) State court
(c) Supreme court
(d) Consumer court

3. Hallmark is used as a logo for which one of the following? [AI, 2012]
(a) Agricultural products
(b) Jewellery
(c) Electrical goods
(d) Electronic goods

4. On which one of the following items is I.S.I. used as a logo? [Foreign, 2012]
(a) LPG Cylinder
(b) Jewellery
(c) Gold
(d) Agricultural products

5. For which of these products does it become mandatory for the producer to get certified? [CBSE CCE 2012]
(a) Fruits
(b) Telephones
(c) LPG Cylinders
(d) Cigarettes

6. The district court deals with the cases involving claim up to ………….. [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) ₹ 1 crore
(b) ₹ 40 lakhs
(c) ₹ 30 lakhs
(d) ₹ 20 lakhs

7. The district level consumer court deals with the cares involving claims [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) upto 20 lakhs
(b) upto 15 lakhs
(c) upto 1 crore
(d) upto 25 lakhs

8. Which of the following rights related to availing details of ingredients of a product? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to be informed
(d) Right to represent

9. In which one of the following years was the Right to Information Act Implemented? [CBSE (CCE) 2012]
(a) 2004
(b) 2005
(c) 2006
(d) 2007

10. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims: [Delhi 2011]
(a) upto ₹10 lakhs
(b) upto ₹20 lakhs
(c) between ₹20 lakhs to ₹1 crore
(d) exceeding ₹1 crore

11. When did the United Nations adopt the guidelines for consumer protection? [AI 2011]
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986

12. Which one of the following statements is false? [Foreign 2011]
(a) The consumer has a right to represent in the Consumer Court.
(b) The consumer redressal process is very simple and very quick.
(c) Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation of jewellery.
(d) The consumer has the right to be informed.

13. In the market place rules and regulations are required for the protection of the
(a) Sellers
(b) Suppliers
(c) Consumers
(d) Owners

14. In India, the consumer movement as a ……………….. originated with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade Practices.
(a) Cultural force
(b) Social force
(c) Economic force
(d) Political force

15. Rampant food shortages, hoarding, black marketing gave birth to the consumer movement in an organised form in the year
(a) 1947s
(b) 1970s
(c) 1960s
(d) 1965s

16. At International level, this has become the foundation for consumer movement
(a) Consumers International
(b) COPRA
(c) Consumers Forum
(d) None of the above

17. A major step taken in 1986 by the Indian government was the enactment of
(a) RTI Act
(b) Consumer Protection Act.
(c) Consumer Movement
(d) Consumer Courts

18. In case of Reji Mathew, he suffered due to improper anaesthesia which resulted in brain abnormalities. Who was held responsible by the National Commission after locking into complaint ?
(a) Father
(b) Mother
(c) Hospital
(d) Patient himself

19. Because of this right, rules have been made so that the manufacturer displays all the information relating to the commodity
(a) Right to choose
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to be informed

20. In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law known as
(a) Right to Choose Act
(b) Right to Information Act.
(c) COPRA
(d) Public Distribution System

21. A student who has paid lumpsum fee for course of three years to a coaching institute, now decides in between to discontinue that institute due to lack of quality of teaching. Can this student get proportionate amount of fee refunded as per the law ?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) May or May Not
(d) None of them

22. Consumers have the right to be protected against any danger caused by goods like electrical goods and pressure cookers. The right referred here is
(a) Right to seek redressal
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to safety
(d) Right to consumer education

23. Manufacturer should not use aggressive selling techniques to sell a particular product without giving the consumer a chance to select from alternative products available. Which right is mentioned here ?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to heard
(d) Right to be informed

24. Which right of consumer is violated if the consumers are not allowed to get their claims settled against manufacturer in case they are cheated or exploited ?
(a) Right to seek redressal
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to be heard
(d) None of them

25. Consumer movement in India has led to the formation of various organisations locally known as
(a) Consumer Protection Council
(b) COPRA
(c) Resident Welfare Association (RWA)
(d) None of them

26. Consumer Forums guide consumers on how to file cases and represent individual consumers in the consumer court. Is this statement true ?
(a) No
(b) May or May Not
(c) Yes
(d) Never

27. Under COPRA, a ……………. quasi-judicial machinery was setup for redressal of consumer disputes.
(a) Two-tier
(b) Three-tier
(c) Four-tier
(d) Five-tier

28. State level court deals with the cases involving claims between
(a) ₹ 1 to 20 lakhs
(b) ₹ 1 Crore and above
(c) ₹ 20 lakhs to ₹ 1 Crore
(d) Any amount

29. Logos and certification which help consumers get assured of quality while purchasing the goods and devices are
(a) ISI
(b) Agmark
(c) Hallmark
(d) All of them

30. National Consumers’ Day in India is observed on
(a) 24 December
(b) 14 December
(c) 14 January
(d) 31 December

31. World Consumers Rights Day is celebrated on
(a) Jan 15
(b) Feb 15
(c) March 15
(d) Jan 1

32. The organisation which sets standards of products at the International level
(a) ISO
(b) COPRA
(c) Agmark
(d) BIS

33. Organisation which sets International food standards
(a) Consumer International
(b) Codex Alimentarius Commission
(c) ISO
(d) COPRA

ANSWERS

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NCERT 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

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NCERT 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 12 Atoms

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NCERT 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 14 Semiconductors

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NCERT 12th Physics Solutions Chapter 15 Communication Systems

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 9 Bholi

Read and Find Out    (Page 54)
Question 1.
Why is Bholi’s father worried about her?
Answer:
Bholi was not like other children. She fell off a cot as a child due to which her brain was slightly damaged. She learnt to speak very late and used to stammer. Her face and whole body was covered with pockmarks. Thus, her father was worried about her marriage prospects.

Question 2.
For what unusual reason is Bholi sent to school?
Answer:
As Ramlal was a government official and the Tehsildar had asked Ramlal to send his daughters to the new school in his village, Bholi was sent to school just to satisfy the Tehsildar. As Randal’s wife felt that sending girls to school affected their marriage prospects adversely, she did not want to send any of her daughters to school. However, Bholi, with her pock-marked face and dull brain would not be possible to get married anyway, so Bholi’s parents decided to send her to school to satisfy the Tehsildar.

Page 55
Question 1.
Does Bholi enjoy her first day at school?
Answer:
Bholi was afraid at first. She even wept when the teacher asked her name. She just sat in a corner. But, the beautiful pictures on the clttssroom wall attracted her. The gentle, kind and loving manner of her teacher made her comfortable. She was looking forward to her new life by the time the first day ended. Thus, although initially she did not enjoy it, but by the time she went home she had liked school.

Question 2.
Does she find her teacher to be different from the people at home?
Answer:
Bholi had been a neglected child at home. She was never bathed nor her clothes washed. She was criticised and everyone made fun of her. But, she found her teacher to be entirely different. Her teacher did not make fun of her ugliness or her stammering. She encouraged her tenderly. Her affection deeply touched Bholi’s heart.

Page 58
Question 1.
Why do Bholi’s parents accept Bishamber’s marriage proposal?
Answer:
Bholi’s parents accepted Bishamber’s marriage proposal as he was a well-to-do grocer and had not asked for any dowry.

Question 2.
Why does the marriage not take place ?
Answer:
At the time of marriage, Bishamber asked for a dowry of five thousand rupees because he saw Bholi’s pock-marked face. Ramlal had no choice but to pay. But, Bholi refused to marry the greedy man. She asserted her rights and dignity. Thus the marriage party was turned away.

Think About It         (Page 62)
Question 1.
Bholi had many apprehensions about going to school. What made her feel that she was going to a better place than her home?
Answer:
The day she was going to school forced her parents to dress her nicely. She was bathed and her hair was properly done. Until then she was not being taken care of. The special treatment she received made her feel that she was going to a better place.

Question 2.
How did Bholi’s teacher play an important role in changing the course of her life?
Answer:
Bholi stammered and was just a bundle of nerves when she attended school in the beginning. Her teacher treated her kindly and encouraged her to have confidence and be bold. She taught her to read and write and made her an independent girl who was aware of her rights. Thus, she changed her life.

Question 3.
Why did Bholi at first agree to an unequal match? Why did she later reject the marriage. What does this tell about her?
Answer:
Bholi agreed to the match at first to fulfil her parents’ wishes. Later on, she rejected the marriage when the bridegroom asked for dowry. This tells us that Bholi was not a timid – and dumb girl. She was aware of her rights. She also knew how to fight for her own dignity and feared no one.

Question 4.
Bholi’s real name is Sulekha. We are told this right at the beginning. But only in the last but one paragraph of the story is Bholi called Sulekha again. Why do you think she is called Sulekha at that point in the story?
Answer:
The word Bholi means a simpleton. Throughout the story she had been a simpleton who hardly expressed her opinion on any matter. The word Sulekha means ‘a person with a beautiful sense of letters’. In this story this word has a larger meaning of being a literate,_ intelligent and mature individual. After her education, Bholi has really changed to Sulekha and her assertion at the time of her marriage is her announcement to the world that she is no more a Bholi, but is a Sulekha.

Talk About It      (Page 62)
Question 1.
Bholi’s teacher helped her overcome social barriers by encouraging and motivating her. How do you think you can contribute towards changing the social attitudes illustrated in this story ?
Answer:
We can contribute by saying no to taking or giving dowry. We must not discriminate between a boy and a girl. Both should be given equal rights and opportunities to grow. We must also learn to respect those who are differently abled and treat them at par.

Question 2.
Should girls be aware of their rights and assert them? Should girls and boys have the same rights, duties and privileges? What are some of the ways in which society treats them differently? When we speak of ‘Human rights’, do we differentiate between girl’s rights and boy’s rights?
Answer:
Yes, there is a differentiation between girl’s and boy’s rights. Although equal in the eyes of law, society treats them differently. Parents spend more on a boy’s education than that of a girl. A girl is just trained to be a wife and mother. Boys have special privileges in matters of food, career or freedom. Girl’s must be aware of their rights to exercise them. They must utilise their education to preserve their self – reliance and dignity. They must be ready to demand their due and even fight for it.

Question 3.
Do you think the characters in the story were speaking to each other in English? If not, in which language were they speaking? (you can get clues from the names of the persons and the non-English words used in the story.)
Answer:
No, we do not think so. They spoke in Hindi. Several words like ‘numbsrdar, tehsildar sahib, izzat and pitaji’ are ample proof of that. Even the names of characters like ‘Randal’ and ‘Bholi’ support that.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements

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NCERT IN TEXT QUESTIONS 

8.1. Silver atom has completely filled d orbitals (4d¹⁰) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a transition element?
Ans: The outer electronic configuration of Ag (Z=47) is 4d¹⁰5s¹. It shows+1 and + 2 O.S. (in AgO and AgF₂). And in + 2 O.S., the electronic configuration is d⁹ i.e, d-subshell is incompletely filled. Hence, it is a transition element.

8.2.In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest, i.e., 126 kJ mol^-1 . Why?
Ans: In 3d series from Sc to Zn, all elements have one or more unpaired e^-1 s except Zn which has no unpaired electron as its outer EC is 3d¹⁰4s². Hence, the intermetallic bonding is weakest in zinc. Therefore, enthalpy of atomisation is lowest.

8.3. Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation states and why?
Ans: Manganese (Z = 25) shows maximum number of O.S. This is because its outer EC is 3d⁵4s². As 3d and 4s are close in energy, it has maximum number of e^-1 s to loose or share. Hence, it shows O.S. from +2 to +7 which is the maximum number.

8.4.

Ans.

8.5. How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and second) in the first series of the transition elements?
Ans:  There is a irregularity in the IE’s of 3d-series due to alternation of energies of 4s and 3d orbitals when an e^-1 is removed. Thus, there is a reorganisation energy accompanying ionization. This results into release of exchange energy which increases as the number of e^-1 s increases in the dn configuration. Cr has low 1st IE because loss of 1 e- gives stable EC (3d⁶). Zn has very high IE because e~ has to be removed from 4s orbital of the stable configuration (3d¹⁰ 4s²) After the loss of one e^–, removal of 2nd e^–, becomes difficult. Hence, 2nd IE’s are higher and in general, increase from left to right. However, Cr and Cu show much higher values because 2nd e^– has to be removed from stable configuration of Cr⁺ (3d⁵) and Cu⁺ (3d¹⁰)

8.6. Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
Ans:  Oxygen and fluorine have small size and high electronegativity. Hence, they can oxidise the metal to the highest O.S.

8.7.Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr²⁺ or Fe²⁺ and why?
Ans:  Cr²⁺ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe²⁺. This is because E°(Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺) is negative (- 0.41V) whereas E°(Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺) is positive (+ 0.77 V). Thus, Cr²⁺ is easily oxidised to Fe³⁺ but Fe²⁺ cannot be easily oxidised to Fe³⁺.

8.8.Calculate the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M²⁺(aq) ion (Z = 27).
Ans:

8.9.Explain why Cu⁺ ion is not stable in aqueous solutions?
Ans:Cu⁺ (aq) is not stable, while Cu²⁺ (aq) is stable. This is becuase Δ_hydH of Cu²⁺(aq) is much higher than that of Cu+(aq) and hence it compensates for the 2nd IE of Cu. Thus, many Cu(I) compounds are unstable in aqueous solution and undergo disproportionation as follows :
2 Cu⁺ —–> Cu²⁺ + Cu

8.10. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. Why?
Ans: This is due to poor shielding by 5f-electrons in the actinoids than that by 4f e^-1s in lanthanoids.

NCERT EXRECISES

8.1 Write down the electronic configuration of (i) Cr³⁺ (ii) Pm³⁺ (iii) Cu⁺ (iv) Ce⁴⁺(v) Co²⁺ (vi) Lu²⁺(vii) Mn²⁺ (viii) Th4+.
Sol. (i) Cr³⁺ = [Ar]¹⁸3d³
(ii)Pm³⁺ = [Xe]⁵⁴ 4f⁴
(iii)Cu⁺ = [Ar]¹⁸ 3d¹⁰
(iv)Ce⁴⁺ = [Xe]⁵⁴
(v)Co²⁺ = [Ar]¹⁸ 3d⁷
(vi)Lu²⁺ = [Xe]⁵⁴ 4f¹⁴ 5d¹
(vii) Mn²⁺ = [Ar]¹⁸ 3d⁵ (viii)Th⁴⁺= [Rn]⁸⁶

8.2 Why are Mn²⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ towards oxidation to their+3 state?
Sol. Electronic configuration of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵. This is a half-filled configuration and hence stable. Therefore, third ionization enthalpy is’very high, i. e., third electron cannot be lost easily. Electronic configuration of Fe²⁺ is 3d⁶. It can lose one electron easily to achieve a stable configuration 3d⁵.

8.3 Explain briefly how+2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Sol. Here after losing 2 electrons from j-orbitals, the 3d-orbital gets gradually occupied with increase in atomic number. Since the number of unpaired electrons in 3d orbital increases, the stability of the cations (M²⁺) increases from Sc²⁺ to Mn²⁺.

8.4 To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.
Sol. In the first series of transition elements, the oxidation states which lead to exactly half-filled or completely filled d-orbitals are more stable. For example, Mn (Z = 25) has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁵ 4 s². It shows oxidation states + 2 to + 7 but Mn (II) is most stable because of half-filled configuration [Ar] 3d⁵. Similarly Sc³⁺ is more stable then Sc+ and Fe³⁺ is more stable than Fe²⁺ due to half filled it f-orbitals.

8.5 What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition element with the following delectron configurations in the ground state of their atoms: 3d³,3d⁵, 3d⁸ and 3d⁴?
Sol. (a) 3d³ 4s¹ = + 5.
(b) 3d⁵ 4s² = + 2, + 7,3d⁵ 4s¹ =+6.
(c)3d⁸4s² = + 2.
(d)3d⁴4s² = 3d⁵ 4s¹ = + 6(and + 3).

8.6 Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.
Sol. Cr₂0₇^2- and Cr0₄^2- (Group number = Oxidation state of Cr = 6).
Mn0₄^–  (Group number = Oxidation state of Mn = 7).

8.7 What is lanthanoid contraction? What are the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?
Sol. Lanthanoid Contraction : In the lanthanoids , the electrons are getting filled in the 4f-subshell. On moving from left to right, the nuclear charge increases and this increase is expected to be compensated by the increase in the magnitude of shielding effect by the 4 f- electrons However,
the f-electrons have very poor shielding effect. Consequently, the atomic and ionic radii decrease from left to right and this is knwon as lanthanoid contraction.
Consequences of lanthanoid Contraction
(a)Separation Lanthanoids: All the lanthanoids have quite similar properties and due to this reason they are difficult to separate.
(b)Variation in basic strength of hydroxides: Due to lanthanoid contraction, size of M³⁺ ions decreases and thus there is a corresponding increase in the covalent character in M—OH bond. Thus basic character of oxides and hydroxides decreases from La(OH)₃ to Lu(OH)₃.
(c)Similarity in the atomic sizes of the elements of second and third transition series present in the same group. The difference in the value of atomic radii of Y and La is quite, large as compared to the difference in the value of Zr and Hf. This is because of the lanthanoid contraction.
(d)Variation in standard reduciton potential: Due to lanthanoid contraction there is a small but steady increase in the standard reduction potential (E°) for the reduction process.
M³⁺ (aq) + 3e^– —–> 4 M(aq)
(e)Variation in physical properties like melting point, boiling point, hardness etc.

8.8 What are the characteristics of the transition . elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?
Sol. General characteristics of transition elements.
(i)Electronic configuration – (n -1) d^1-10 ns^1-2
(ii)Metallic character – With the exceptions of Zn, Cd and Hg, they have typical metallic structures.
(iii)Atomic and ionic size-ions of same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
(iv)Oxidation state-Variable; ranging from+2 to +7.
(v)Paramagnetism – The ions with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic.
(vi)Ionisation enthalpy – Increases with increase in charge.
Formation of coloured ions – Due to presence of unpaired electrons.
(viii) Formation of complex compounds – Due to small size and high charge density of metal ions.
(ix)They possess catalj^c properties – Due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states. .
(x)Formation of interstitial compounds.
(xi)Alloy formation.
They are called transition elements due to their incompletely filled d-orbitals in ground state or in any stable oxidation state and they are placed between s and p- block elements. Zn, Cd and Hg have fully filled d- orbitals in their ground state hence may not be regarded as the transition elements.

8.9 In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non transition elements?
Sol. Transition elements contain partially filled d-orbitals whereas non-transition elements have no d-orbitals or have completely filled d -orbitals.

8.10 What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Sol. Lanthanides exhibits + 2, + 3 and + 4 oxidation states. The most corrtmon oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3.

8.11 Explain giving reasons:
(i)Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii)The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(iii)The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(iv)Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst
Sol. (i) Magnetic properties: Transition elements and many of their compounds are paramagnetic, i.e., they are weakly attracted by a magnetic field. This is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in atoms, ions or molecules. The paramagnetic character increases as the number of . unpaired electrons increases. The paramagnetic character is measured in terms of magnetic moment and is given by
where n – number of unpaired electrons.
(ii) Because of large number of unpaired electrons in d-orbitals of their atoms they have stronger interatomic intefactions and hence stronger metallic bonding between atoms resulting in higher enthalpies of atomisation.
(iii) Formation of coloured compounds (both in solid state as well as in aqueous solution) is another very common characteristics of transition metals. This is due to absorption of some radiation from visible light to cause d-d transition of electrons in transition metal atom. The d-orbitals do not have same energy and under the influence of ligands, the d-orbitals split into two sets of orbitals having different energies; transition of electrons can take place from one set of d-orbitals to another set within the same sub-shell. Such transitions are called d-d transitions. The energy difference for these d-d transitions fall in the visible region. When white light is incident on compounds of transition metals, they absorb a particular frequency and remaining colours are emitted imparting a characteristic colour to the complex. Zn²⁺ and Ti⁴⁺ salts are white because they do not absorb any radiation in visible region.
(iv)Catalytic properties: Many of transition metals and their compounds act as catalyst in variety of reactions, e.g., finely divided iron in manufacture of NH₃ by Haber’s process, V₂O₅ or Pt in manufacture of H₂S0₄ by Contact process, etc.). The catalytic activity is due to following two reasons.
(a)The ability of transition metal ion to pass ” easily from one oxidation state to another
and thus providing a new path to reaction with lower activation energy.
(b)The surface of transition metal acts as very good adsorbent and thus provides increased concentration of reactants on their surface causing the reaction to occur.

8.12 What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transition metals?
Sol. Transition metals form large number of interstitial compounds. They are able to entrap small atoms of elements like H, G, N, B, etc., in their crystal lattice and even can make weak bonds with them.
Due to formation of interstitial compounds, their malleability and ductility decreases and tensile . strength increases. Steel and cast iron are hard in comparison to wrought iron due to the presence of trapped carbon atoms in interstitial spaces.

8.13 How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the non transition metals? Illustrate with examples.
Sol. The variability of oxidation states, a characteristic of transition elements, arises due to incomplete filling of d-orbitals in such a way that their oxidation states differ from each other by unity, e.g., Fe²⁺, Fe³⁺, Cr²⁺, Cr³⁺. This is in contrast with the variability of oxidation states of non-transition elements where oxidation states normally differ by a unit of two. i.e., Sn²⁺, Sn⁴⁺, P³⁺ and P⁵⁺, etc.
in the p-block the lower oxidation states are favoured by the heavier members (due to inert pair effect), the opposite is true in the groups of J-block.For example, in group 6, Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be more stable than Cr (VI). Thus Cr (VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent, whereas MOO₃ and WO₃ are not.

8.14 Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
Sol. Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromate, which in turn is obtained by the fusion of chromite ore (FeCr₂O₃) with sodium or potassium carbonate in free excess of air. The reaction with sodium carbonate occurs as follows:

The yellow solution of sodium chromate is filtered and acidified with sulphuric acid to give a solution from which orange sodium dichromate, Na₂Cr,0₇.2H₂0 can be crystallised.

Sodium dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate. The latter is therefore, prepared by treating the solution of sodium dichromate with potassium chloride.

Orange crystals of potassium dichromate crystallise out. The chromates and dichromates depending upon p^H of the solution. If p^H of potassium dichromate is increased it is converted to yellow potassium chromate.

8.15 Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with:
(i)iodide
(ii)iron (II) solution and
(iii)H₂S
Sol. K₂Gr₂0₇is a powerful oxidising agent. In dilute sulphuric acid medium the oxidation state of Cr changes from+6 to + 3. The oxidising action can be represented as follows:

8.16 Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution react with (i) iron (II) ions (ii) S0₂ and (iii) oxalic acid? Write the ionic, equations for the reactions.
Sol. Potassium permanganate (KMn04) is prepared by the fusion of a mixture of pyrolusite (Mn0₂),potassiufn hydroxide and oxygen, first green coloured potassium manganate is formed. 2MnO₂ + 4KOH + 0₂ —> 2K₂Mn0₄+2H₂0 The potassium manganate is extracted by water, which then undergoes disproportionation in neutral or acidic solution to give potassium permanganate.

8.17 For M²⁺/M and M³⁺/M²⁺ systems the E° values
for some metals are as follows:
Cr²⁺/Cr   –> -0.9 V
Mn²⁺/Mn  –> -1.2V
Fe²⁺/Fe     –> -0.4 V
Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺  –> -0.4 V
Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺   –>+ 1.5V
Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺   –>+ 0.8V
(ii)the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.
Sol. (i) Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ has negative reduction potential. Hence, Cr³⁺ cannot be reduced to Cr²⁺. Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺ has a large positive reduction potential. Hence, Mn³⁺ can be easily reduced to Mn²⁺. Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ has small positive reduction potential. Hence, Fe³⁺ is more stable than Mn³⁺ but less stable than Cr³⁺.
(ii)From the E° values, the order of oxidation of the metal to the divalent cation is : Mn > Cr > Fe.

8.18 Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution? Ti³⁺, V³⁺,Cu⁺, Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and Co²⁺ Give reasons for each.
Sol. Among the above mentioned ions, Ti³⁺, V³⁺, Mn²⁺ , Fe³⁺ and Co²⁺ are coloured. These ions are coloured due to presence of unpaired electrons, they can undergo d-d transitions

8.19 Compare the stability of +2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.
Sol. In general, the stability of +2 oxidation state in first transition series decreases from left to right due to increase in the sum of first and second ionisation energies. However Mn²⁺ is more stable due to half filled d-orbitals (3d⁵) and Zn²⁺ is more stable due to completely filled d-orbitals (3d¹⁰).

8.20 Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids with special reference to
(i)electronic configuration,
(ii)atomic and ionic sizes and
(iii)oxidation state
(iv)chemical reactivity.
Sol. (i) Electronic configuration: The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is [Xe]⁵⁴ 4f^1-14 5d^0-1  6s² and that of actinoids is [Rn]⁸⁶ 5f^0-14 6d^0-1  7s², lanthanoids . belong to 4 f series whereas actinoids belong to 5f-series.
(ii) Atomic and ionic sizes: Both lanthanoids and actinoids show decrease in size of their atoms or ions in + 3 oxidation state as we go from left to right. In lanthanoids, the decrease is called lanthanoid contraction whereas in actinoids, it is called actinoid contraction. The contratibn is greater from element to element in actinodes due to poorer shielding by 5f electrons.
(iii)Oxidation state: Lanthanoids show limited oxidation states (+ 2, + 3, + 4) out of which + 3 is most common whereas actinoids show +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 oxidation states.This is because of large energy gap between 4f 5d and 6s orbitals. However, actinoids show a large number of oxidation states because of small energy ap- between 5f 6d and Is orbitals.
(iv) Chemical reactivity: The earlier members
of the lanthanoids series are quite reactive similar to calcium but, with increase in atomic number, they behave more like aluminium. The metals combine with hydrogen when . gently heated in the gas. Carbides, Ln₃C, Ln₂C₃ and LnC₂ are formed when the metals are heated with carbon. They liberate hydrogen from dilute acid and burn in halogens to form halides. They form oxides M₂0₃ and hydroxides M(OH)₃.
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided. The action of boiling water on them gives a mixture of oxide and hydride and combination with most non-metals take place at moderate temperatures. HCl attacks all metals but most are slightly affected by nitric acid owing to the formation of protective oxide layers, alkalis have no action. Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy.

8.21 How would you account for the following:
(i) Of the d⁴ species, Cr²⁺ is strongly reducing while manganese (III) is strongly oxidizing.
(ii) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The d¹ configuration is very unstable in ions.
Sol. (i) E° value for Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺ is negative (-0-41 V) whereas E° values for Mn³⁺/Mn²⁺is positive (+1.57 V). Hence, Cr²⁺ ion can easily undergo oxidation to give Cr³⁺ ion and, therefore, act as strong reducing agent whereas Mn³⁺ can easily undergo’ reduction to give Mn²⁺ and hence act as an oxidizing agent.
(ii) Co (III) has .greater tendency to form coordination complexes than Co (II). Hence, in the presence of ligands, Co (II) changes to Co (III), i.e., is easily oxidized.
(iii) The ions with dx configuration have the tendency to lose the only electron present in d-subshell to acquire stable d° configuration. Hence, they are unstable and undergo oxidation or disproportionation.

8.22 What is meant by disproportionation? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution
Sol. Disproportionation reactions are those in which the same substance undergoes oxidation as well as reduction, i.e., oxidation number of an element increases as well as decreases to form two different products.

8.23 Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits + 1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Sol. Cu has electronic configuration 3 d¹⁰ 4s¹. It can easily lose 4s¹ electron to acquire the stable 3d¹⁰ configuration. Hence, it shows + 1 oxidation state.

8.24 Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions : Mn³⁺, Cr³⁺, V³⁺ and Ti³⁺. Which one of these is the most stable in aqueous solution.
Sol. Mn³⁺ = 3d¹ = 4 unpaired electrons, Cr³⁺ = 3d³ = 3 electrons,V³⁺ = 3d² = 2 electrons, Ti³⁺=3d¹ = l electron.Out of these, Cr³⁺ is most stable in aqueous solution because of half-filled t_2g level.

8.25 Give examples and suggest reasons for the following features of the transition metal chemistry:
(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic the highest is amphoteric/ acidic.
(ii) A transition metal exhibits highest oxidation state ih oxides and fluorides.
(iii) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of a metal.
Sol. (i) The lower oxide of transition metal is basic because the metal atom has low oxidation state whereas higher once are acidic due to high oxidation state. For example, MnO is basic whereas Mn₂O₇is acidic. Oxides in lower oxidation state are ionic hence basic. Oxides in higher oxidation state are covalent hence acidic
(ii) A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation states in oxides and fluorides because oxygen and fluorine are highly electronegative elements, small in size and strongest oxidising agents. For example, osmium shows an oxidation states of + 6 in O₅F₆and vanadium shows an oxidation states of + 5 in V₂O₅.
(iii) Oxo metal anions have highest oxidation state, e.g., Cr in Cr₂0₇^2- has an. oxidation state of + 6 whereas Mn in Mn0₄^– has an oxidation state of + 7. This is again due to the combination of the metal with oxygen, which is highly electronegative and oxidizing agent.

8.26 Indicate the steps in the preparation of:
(i)K₂Cr₂0₇from chromite ore
(ii)KMn0₄ from pyrolusite ore.
Sol.

8.27 What are alloys? Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.
Sol. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals and non-metals. An important alloy containing lanthanoid metals is misch metal which contains 95% lanthanoid metals (Ce, La and Nd) and 5% iron along with traces of S, C, Ca and Al. It is used in making parts of jet engines.

8.28 What are inner transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers of the inner transition elements: 29,59,74,95,102,104.
Sol. The f-block elements in which the. last electron enters into f-sub shell-are called inner-transition elements. These include lanthanoids (Z=58 to 71) and actinoids (Z=90 to 103). Thus, the elements with atomic numbers 59,95 and 102 are the? inner transition elements.

8.29 The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples from the oxidation state of these elements.
Sol. Lanthanoids show limited number of oxidation state, viz, + 2, + 3 and + 4 (out of which + 3 is most common). This is because of large energy gap between 4f 5d and 6s subshells. The dominant oxidation state of actinoids is also + 3 but they show a number of other oxidation states also. For example, uranium (Z=92) and plutonium (Z – 94), show + 3, + 4, + 5 and + 6, neptunium (Z = 94) shows + 3, +4, + 5 and + 7, etc. This is because of the small energy difference between. 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals of the actinoids.

8.30 Which is the last element in the series of the actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element
Sol. Last actinoid=Lawrencium (Z = 103)
Electronic configuration = [Rn]⁸⁶ 5f¹⁴ 6d¹ 7s² Possible oxidation state = + 3.

8.31 Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce³⁺ ion, and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Sol.

8.32 Name the members of the lanthanoid series which exhibit+4oxidatk>nstatesandthosewhichexhibit +2 oxidation states. Try to correlate this type of behaviour with the electronic configurations of these elements.
Sol. + 4 oxidation state in Ce (Z = 58), Pr (Z = 59), Tb (Z = 65).
+ 2 oxidation state in Nd (Z = 60), Sm(Z=62), Eu (Z = 63), Tm (Z=69), Yb (Z = 70).
+ 2 oxidation state is exhibited when the lanthanoid has the configuration 5cf 6s2 so that two electrons are-easily lost.
+ 4 oxidation state is exhibited by the elements which after losing four electrons acquire configuration 4f° or 4f¹

8.33 Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to:
(i)Electronic configuration
(ii)Oxidation states
(iii)Chemical reactivity
Sol. (i)Electronic configuration : In lanthanoids 4f- orbitals are progressively filled whereas in actinoids 5f-orbitals are progressively filled.
(ii)Oxidation states : Lanthanoids shows +3 oxidation state. Some elements shows +2 and +4 oxidation state also. Actinoids shows +3, +4, +5 +6, +7 oxidation states. Although +3 and +4 are most common.
(iii)Chemical reactivity : Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy.

8.34 Write the electronic configurations of the elements with the atomic numbers 61,91,101 and 109.
Sol. Z=61 (Promethium, Pm) [Xe]⁵⁴4f⁵5d⁰ 6s²
Z = 91 (Protactinium, Pa) => [Rn]⁸⁶ 5f² 6d¹ 7s²
Z = 101 (Mendelevium, Md)=> [Rn]⁸⁶ 5f¹³ 6d⁰ 7s²
Z = 109 (Meitnerium, Mt) [Rn]⁸⁶ 5f¹⁴ 6d⁷ 7s²

8.35 Com pare the general characteristics of the first series of the transition metals with those of the second and third series metals in the respective vertical columns. Give special emphasis on the following points:
(i)electronic configurations
(ii)oxidation states
(iii)ionisation enthalpies and
(iv)atomic sizes
Sol. (i) Electronic configuration: The elements in the same vertical column generally have similar electronic configuration. First transition series shows only two exceptions, i.e., Cr = 3d⁵  4s¹  and Cu = 3d¹⁰ 4s¹. But second transition series shows more exceptions, i.e., Y = 4d¹ 5s², Nb = 4d¹ , 5s¹ , Mo=4d⁵  5s¹ , Ru=4d¹  5s¹ , Rh=4d⁸  5s¹ , Pd , =4d¹⁰ 5s°, Ag=4d¹⁰ 5s¹ . In third transition, there are two exceptions, i.e„ Pt = 5d⁹  6s¹  and Au = 5d¹⁰ 6s¹ .
Thus in the same vertical column, in a number of cases, the electronic configuration of the elements of three series are not similar.
(ii) Oxidation states: The elements in the same vertical column generally show similar oxidation states. The number of oxidation states shown by the elements in the middle of each series is maximum and minimum at the extreme ends.
(iii)Ionization enthalpies: The first ionization enthalpies in each series generally increases gradually as we more from left to right though some exceptions are observed in each series. The first ionization enthalpies of some elements in the second (4d) series are higher while some of them have lower value than the elements of 3d series in the same vertical column. However, the first ionization enthalpies of third (5d) series are higher than those of 3d and Ad series. This is because of weak shielding of nucleus by 4f-electrons in the 5d series.
(iv)Atomic sizes: In general, ions of the same charge or atoms in a given series show progressively decrease in radius with increasing atomic number though the decrease is quite small. But the size of the atoms of the Ad series is larger then the corresponding elements of the 3d series whereas size of elements of the 5d-series nearly the same as those of Ad series because of lanthanoid contraction.

8.36 Write down the number of 3d electrons in each of the following ions:Ti²⁺, V²⁺, Cr³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, Fe²⁺, Co²⁺, Ni²⁺ and Cu²⁺. Indicate how would you expect the five 3d orbitals to be occupied for these hydrated ions (octahedral).
Sol.

8.37 Comment on the statement that elements of the first transition series possess many properties different from those of heavier transition elements.
Sol. The above mentioned statement is true, because
(a) Atomic radii of the heavier transition elements (4d and 5d series) are larger than .those of the corresponding elements of the first transition series though those of Ad and 5d series are very close to each other.
(b)Melting and boiling points of heavier transition elements are greater than those of the first transition series due to stronger intermefallic bonding.
(c)Enthalpies of atomisation of 4d and 5d series are higher than the corresponding elements of the first series.
(d)Ionization enthalpies of 5 clseries are higher than the corresponding elements of 3d and 4 d series.

8.38 What can be inferred from the magnetic moment values of the following complex species?

Sol.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

9.1.Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds:
(i)Tetraamminediaquacobalt(IlI) chloride
(ii)Potassium tetracyanidonickelate(II)
(iii)Tris(ethanp-1,2-diamine) chromium(III) chloride
(iv)Amminebromidochloridonitrito-N- platinatc(II)
(v)Dichloridobis(ethane-l ,2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate
(vi)Iron(III)hexacyanidoferrate(II)
Ans.(i) [CO(NH₃)₄(H₂O)₂]Cl₃.
(ii)K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
(iii)[Cr(en)₃]Cl₃
(iv)[Pt (NH₃) Br Cl (N0₂)]^–
(v)[PtCl₂(en)₂](N0₃)₂
(vi)Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃

9.2. Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:
(i)[Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(ii)[Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂
(iii)K₃[Fe(CN)₆l
(iv)K₃lFe(C₂O₄)₃]
(v)K₂[PdCl₄]
(vi)[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(NH₂CH₃)]Cl
Ans. (i) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
(ii)Pentaamminechloridecobalt (III) chloride
(iii)Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(iv)P9tassiumtrioxalatoferrate(III)
(v)Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (II)
(vi)Diamminechloride (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride

9.3.Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the . . following complexes and draw the structures for these isomers:
(i)K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂]
(ii)[CO(en)₃]Cl₃
(iii)[CO(NH₃)₅(NO₂)(NO₃)₂], .
(iv)[Pt(NH₃)(H₂O)Cl₂]
Ans, (i)(a) geometrical isomerism (cis and tram)

9.4.Give evidence that [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]S0₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅S0₄]Cl  are ionisation isomers.
Ans. When dissolved in water, they give different ions in solution which can be tested by adding AgN0₃ solution and BaCl₂ solution, i.e.,

9.5.Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the[Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.
Ans.

9.6.[NiCl₄]^2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedraL Why?
Ans.

9.7. [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)₆]^3-is weakly paramagnetic. Explain.
Ans.

9.8. Explain[CO(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is an inner orbital complex.whereas [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is an outer orbital complex.
Ans.

9.9.Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)₄]^2- ion.
Ans.

9.10.The hexaquomanganese(II) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
Ans.

9.11.Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the Cu(NH₃)₄²⁺ ion, given that β₄ for this complex is 2.1 x 10¹³.
Ans. Overall stability constant (β₄) = 2.1 x 10¹³.
Thus, the overall dissociation constant is

NCERT EXRECISES

9.1 Explain the bonding in coordination compounds in terms of Werner’s postulates.
Ans.The main postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compounds are as follows:
(a)Metals possess two types of valencies called
(i) primary valency which are ionisable; (ii) secondary valency which are non- ionisable
(b)Primary valency is satisfied by the negative ions and it is that which a metal exhibits in the formation of its simple salts.
(c)Secondary valencies are satisfied by neutral ligand or negative ligand and are those which metal exercises in the formation of its complex ions. Every cation has a fixed number of secondary valencies which are directed in space about central metal ion in certain fixed directions, e.g„ In CoCl₃-6NH₃, valencies between Co and Cl are primary valencies and valencies between Co and NH₃ are secondary. In COCl₃-6NH₃ , six ammonia molecules linked to Co by secondary valencies are directed to six corners of a regular octahedron and thus account for structure of COCl₃-6NH₃ as follows:

In modern theory, it is now referred as coordination number of central metal atom or ion.

9.2 FeS04 solution mixed with (NH₄)₂SO₄solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of,Fe²⁺ion but CuSO₄solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu²⁺ ion. Explain why. 
Ans. FeSO₄ solution mixed with (NH₄),S04 solution in 1 : 1 molar ratio forms a double salt, FeS04 (NH₄)₂SO₄-6H₂O (Mohr’s salt) which ionizes in the solution to give Fe²⁺ions. Hence it gives the tests of Fe²⁺ ions. CuSO₄ solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio forms a complex salt, with the formula [CU(NH₃)₄]SO₄. The complex ion [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ does not ionize to give Cu²⁺ ions. Hence, it does not give the tests of Cu²⁺ ion.

9.3 Explain with two examples each of the following: coordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.
Ans. Coordination entity: It constitutes of a central atom/ion bonded to fixed number of ions or molecules by coordinate bonds e.g. [COCl₃(NH₃)₃], [Ni (CO)₄] etc.
Ligand : The ions/molecules bound to central atom/ion in coordination entity are called ligands. Ligands in above examples are CL, NH₃, CO Coordination number : This is the number of bond formed by central atom/ion with ligands. Coordination polyhedron : Spatial arrangement of ligands defining the shape of complex. In above cases Co and Ni polyhedron are octahedral and tetrahedral in [CoCl₃ (NH₃)₃] and [Ni(CO)₄] respectively.
Homoleptic : Metal is bound to only one kind of ligands eg Ni in[Ni(CO)₄]
Heteroletric Metal is bound to more than one kind of ligandseg Coin [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃]

9.4 What is meant by unidentate didentate and ambidentate ligands? Give two examples for each.
Ans. A molecule or an ion which has only one donor atom to form one coordinate bond with the central metal atom is called unidentate ligand, e.g,, Cl- and NH₃.
A molecule or ion which contains two donor atoms and hence forms two coordinate bonds with the central metal atom is called adidentate

A molecule or an ion which contains two donor atoms but only one of them forms a coordinate bond at a time with the central metal atom is called

9.5 Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following coordination entities:
(i) [Co(H₂O)(CN)(en)₂]²⁺ (ii) [CoBr2(en)₂]⁺ (iii) [PtCl₄]^2- (iv) K₃[Fe(CN)₆] (v) [Cr(NH₃)₃CI₃]
Ans.

9.6 Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following:
(i)Tetrahydroxozincate(Il)
(ii)Potassium tetrachloridopalladate (II)
(iii)Diamminedichlorido platinum (II)
(iv)Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(v)Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
(vi)Ilexaamminccobalt (III) sulphate
(vii)Potassium tri(oxalato) chromate (III)
(yiii)Hexaammineplatinum (IV)
(ix)Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
(x) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III)
Ans. (i)[Zn(OH)₄]^2- (ii)K₂[PdCl₄]
(iii)[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(iv)K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
(v)[Co(NH₃)₅(ONO)]²⁺
(vi)[Co(NH₃)₆]²(SO₄)₃
(vii)K₃[Cr(C₂O₄)₃]
(viii)[Pt(NH₃)₆]4+
(ix)[CuBr₄]^2-
(x)[Co(NH₃)₅(N0₂)]²⁺

9.7 Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following:
(i) [Co(NH₃)₆]CI₃,
(ii)[Pt(NH₃)₂CI (NH₂CH₃)] Cl
(iii) [Ti(H₂0)₆]3+
(iv) [Co(NH3)₄Cl(N02)]CI
(v)|Mn(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(vi)[NiCl₄]^2-
(vii)[Ni(NH₃)₆]CI₂
(viii)[Co(en)₃]³⁺
(ix) [Ni(CO)₄]
Ans. (i) Hexaammine cobalt (III) chloride.
(ii) Diammine chlorido (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride.
(iii) Hexaaquatitanium (III) ion.
(iv) Tetraammine chlorido nitrito-N-cobalt (IV) chloride.
(v)Hexaaquamanganese (II) ion.
(vi)Tetrachloridonickelate (II) ion.
(vii)Hexaammine nickel (II) chloride.
(viii)Tris (ethane -1,2-diamine) cobalt (III) ion.
(ix) Tetra carbonyl nickel (0).

9.8 List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Ans. Coordination compounds exhibit stereo isomerism and structural isomerism.
Two types of stereoisomerism and their examples are as follows.

9.9 How many geometrical isomers are possible in . the following coordination entities?
(i) [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3- (ii) [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃]
Ans. (i) [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3- => No geometrical isomers
are possible in this coordination entity.
(ii) [Co(NH₃)₃ Cl₃] => Two geometrical isomers are possible (fac and mer) in this coordination entity.

9.10 Draw the structures of optical isomers of
(i) [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(ii)[PtCI₂(en)₂]²⁺
(iii)[Cr(NH₃)₂CI₂(en)]⁺
Ans.

9.11 Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of
(i)[CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺
(ii)[Co(NH₃) Cl (en)₂]²⁺
(iii) [Co(NH₃)₂Cl₂(en)]⁺
Ans:

9.12 Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH₃)(Br)(Cl) (Py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomerism?
Ans: Three isomers of[Pt(NH₃)(Br)(Cl)(Py)] are possible.

These are obtained by keeping the position of one of the ligand, say NH3 fixed and rotating the positions of others. This type of isomers do not show any optical isomerism. Optical isomerism only rarely occurs in square planar or tetrahedral complexes and that too when they contain unsymmetrical chelating ligand.

9.13.  Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives: (i) a green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride and (ii)a bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these experimental results.
Ans: Aqueous CuS0₄ solution exists as [Cu(H₂0)₄]S0₄ which has blue colour due to [Cu(H₂0)₄]²⁺ ions.
(i) When KF is added, the weak H₂0 ligands are replaced by F^– ligands forming [CUF₄]^2- ions which is a green precipitate.

(ii)When KCl is added, Cl^– ligands replace the weak H₂0 ligands forming [CuCl₄]^2- ion which has bright green colour.

9.14 What is the coordination entity formed when excess of aqueons KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H₂S (g) is passed through this solution?
Ans: First cupric cyanide is formed which decomposes to give cuprous cyanide and cyanogen gas. Cuprous cyanide dissolves in excess of potassium cyanide to form the complex, K₃[Cu(CN)₄],

Thus, coordination entity formed in the above reaction is [Cu(CN)₄]^3-. As CN^– is a strong ligand, the complex ion is highly stable and does not dissociate/ionize to give Cu²⁺ ions. Hence, no precipitate,with H₂S is formed.

9.15.  Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory:
(i) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
(ii) [FeF₆]^3-
(iii) [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(iv) [CoF₆]^3-
Ans:

9.16 Draw figure to show the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
Ans:

9.17 What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Ans: The arrangement of ligands in order of their increasing field strengths, i.e., increasing crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) values is called spertrochemical series.
The ligands with small value of CFSE (Δ₀) are called weak field ligands whereas those with large value of CFSE (Δ₀) are called strong field ligands.

9.18 What is crystal field splitting energy? How does the magnitude of Δ₀ decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a coordination entity?
Ans: When the ligands approach a transition metal ion, the d-orbitals split into two sets, one with lower energy and the other with higher energy. The difference of energy between the two sets of orbitals is called crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀ for octahedral field). If Δ₀ < P (pairing energy), the fourth electron enters
one of the e°g, orbitals giving the configuration t³_2ge¹_g, thus forming high spin complexes. Such ligands for which Δ₀ < P are called weak field ligands. If Δ₀ > P, the fourth electron pairs up in one of the t_2g orbitals giving the configuration t⁴_2ge¹_g thereby forming low spin complexes. Such ligands for which Δ₀> P are called strong field ligands.

9.19 [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic. Explain why?
Ans:

9.20 A solution of [Ni(H₂0)₆]²⁺ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)₄]^2-is colourless. Explain.
Ans: In [Ni(H₂0)₆]²⁺, Ni is in + 2 oxidation state and having 3d⁸ electronic configuration, in which there are two unpaired electrons which do not pair in the presence of the weak H₂0 ligand. Hence, it is coloured. The d-d transition absorbs red light and the complementary light emitted is green.
In [Ni(CN)₄]^2- Ni is also in + 2 oxidation state and having 3d⁸ electronic configuration. But in presence of strong ligand CN^– the two unpaired electrons in the 3d orbitals pair up. Thus, there is no unpaired electron present. Hence, it is colourless.

9.21 [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different cdlours in dilute solutions. Why?
Ans: In both the complexes, Fe is in +2 oxidation state with cf configuration. This means that it has four unpaired electrons: Both CN^– ion and H₂0 molecules act as ligands occupy different relative positions in the spectrochemical series. They differ in crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀). Quite obviously, they absorb radiations corresponding to different wavelengths and frequencies from the -visible region of light,
(VIBGYOR) and the transmitted colours are also different. This means that the complexes have different colours in solutions.

9.22 Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Ans: In metal carbonyl, the metal carbon bond (M – C) possess both the σ and π -bond character. The bond are formed by overlap of atomic orbital of metal with that of C-atom of carbon monoxide in following sequence:
(a)σ -bond is first formed between metal and carbon when a vacant d-orbital of metal atom overlaps with an orbital containing lone pair of electrons on C-atom of carbon monoxide (: C = O:)
(b)In addition to σ -bond in metal carbonyl, the electrons from filled d-orbitals of a transition metal atom/ ion are back donated into anti bonding π-orbitals of carbon monoxide. This stabilises the metal ligand bonding. The above two concepts are shown in following figure:

9.23 Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes:
(i)K₃[CO(C₂O₄)₃I (ii) cis-[Cr(en)₂Cl₂]Cl (iii) (NH₄)2[CoF₄] (iv) [Mn(H₂0)₆]SO₄
Ans. (i) K₃[Co(C₂O₄)₃] =>[CO(C₂0₄)₃]^3-. x + 3 (-2) = -3 . Oxidation state, x=+3 Coordination number is also 6 as C₂0₄^2- is didentate. Co+3 is a case in which all electrons are paired
(ii) cis – [Cr(en)2Cl₂]+ Cl^–
x + 0—2 =+1
Oxidation state, x =+3
Coordination number is 6 as ‘en’ is didentate. Cr³⁺ is a cfi case, paramagnetic.
(iii) (NH₄)₂[COF₄] = (NH₄)₂²⁺[COF₄]^2-
x —4 =—2.
Oxidation state, x = + 2
Coordination number=4.
Co²⁺ is a d⁵ case, paramagnetic
(iv)[Mn(H₂0)₆]²⁺S0₄^2-
x+0f+2
.•. Oxidation state, x- + 2
Coordination number is 6.
Mn⁺² is a d⁵ case, paramagnetic

9.24 Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration and coordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex:
(i) K[Cr(H₂0)₂(C₂0₄)₂|^-3H₂0 (ii) [Co(NH₃)₅CIlCl₂ (iii) CrCI₃(Py)₃
(iv)Cs[FeCl₄] (v)K₄|Mn(CN)₆|
Ans. (i) K[Cr(H₂0)₂(C₂0₄)₂|^-3H₂0 IUPAC name is potassiumdiaquadioxalatochromate (III) hydrate.
Coordination number = 6
Oxidation state of Cr: x + 0 + 2 (-2) = – 1
.‘. x = + 3
Shape is octahedral Electronic configuration of Cr³⁺ = 3d³=t³_2ge°_g .
Magnetic moment,

= 3-87 BM
(ii) [Co(NH₃)₅CIlCl₂IUPAC name is pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride Coordination number of Co = 6 Shape is octahedral.
Oxidation state of Co, x + 0 -1 = + 2 .’. x = + 3
Electronic configuration of Co³⁺ = 3d⁶ = t⁶_2ge°_g   n=0, μ =0 .
(iii) CrCI₃(Py)₃. IUPAC name is
trichloridotripyridine chromium (III).

9.25 What is meant by stability of a coordination compound in solution? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.
Ans. Formation of a complex in solution is an equilibrium reaction. It may be represented as

The equilibrium constant of this reaction is the measure of stability of the complex. Hence the equilibrium constant is also called as stability constant or Instability constant may be defined as equilibrium constant for reverse reaction. The formation of above complex may also be written in successive steps:

Stability constant is written as
β₄=K₁K₂K₃K₄.
Greater the stability constant, stronger is the metal-ligand bond.
The stability of complex will depend on
(a)nature of metal
(b)Oxidation state of metal
(c)Nature of ligand e g. chelating ligand form stabler complexes
(d)Greater the basic strength of the ligand, more will be the stability.

9.26 What is meant by the chelate effect? Give an example.
Ans. When a didentate or a polydentate ligand contains donor atoms positioned in such a way that when they coordinate with the central metal ion, a five or a six membered ring is formed, the effect is called chelate effect. For example,

9.27 Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in:(i)biological systems (iii) analytical chemistry
(ii)medicinal chemistry and (iv) extraction/ metallurgy of metals.
Ans. Application of coordination compounds.
(a)Used in qualitative and quantitative analysis.
(b)Determination of hardness of water
(c)Extraction of Au and Ag through complex formation
(d)Refining of Ni through complex formation
(e)Use of Rhodium complex in hydrogenation ofalkene.
(f) Use ofEDTA in lead poisoning etc.

9.28 How many ions are produced from the complex Co(NH₃)₆Cl₂ in solution?
(i) 6
(ii) 4
(iii)3
(iv)2
Ans. Coordination number of cobalt = 6
Hence, the complex is [Co (NH₃)₆] Cl₂. It ionizes in the solution as follows :

Thus, three ions are produced. Hence, the correct option is (iii)

9.29 Amongst the following ions? Which one has the highest magnetic moment value:
(i) [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(ii) [Fe(H₂0)₆]²⁺ (iii) [Zn(H₂0)₆]²⁺
Ans. The oxidation states are: Cr (III), Fe (II) and Zn (II).
Electronic configuration of Cr³⁺ = 3d³, unpaired electron = 3
Electronic configuration of Fe²⁺ = 3d⁶, unpaired electron = 4
Electronic configuration ofZn²⁺ = 3d¹⁰, unpaired electrons = 0

where V is number of unpaiared electrons Hence, (ii) has highest value of magnetic moment.

9.30 The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)₄] is
(i)+1
(ii)+3
(iii)-1
(iv)-3
Ans.

9.31 Amongst the following, the most stable complex is:
(i) [Fe(H₂O)₆] (ii) [Fe(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(iii) [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]^3- (iv) [FeCl₆]^3-
Ans.In each of the given complex, Fe is in + 3 oxidation state. As C₂0₄^2-is didentate chelating ligand, it forms chelate rings and hence (iii) out of complexes given above is the most stable complex.

9.32 What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following:[Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-, [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Ni(H₂0)₆]²⁺?
Ans. As metal ion is fixed, the increasing field strengths, i.e., the CFSE values of the ligands from the spectro-chemical series are in the order: H₂0<NH₃< NO₂^–;
Thus, the energies absorbed for excitation will be in the order:

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

11.1 Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.



Ans. Primary alcohols: (i), (ii), (iii)
Secondary alcohols: (iv), (v)
Tertiary alcohols: (vi)

11.2 Identify aliylic alcohols in the above examples.
Ans. (ii) and (iv) i.e. H₂C=CH – CH₂OH and

11.3 Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system.

Ans.

11.4 Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable  Grignard reagent on methanal ?

Ans.

11.5 Write structures of the products of the following reactions:

Ans.

11.6 Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol reacts with (a)HCl-ZnCl₂ (b)HBrand (c) SOCl₂
(i)Butan-1-ol
(ii)2-Methylbutan-2-ol
Ans.

11.7 Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of
(i) 1-nicthylcyclohcxanoland
(ii) butan-1-ol
Ans.

11.8. Ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
Ans.
The resonance structures of o-and p- nitrophenoxide ions and phenoxide ion are given below:

11.9 Write the equations involved in the following reactions:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction
Ans. (i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

11.10 Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-ol.
Ans. In Williamsons’s synthesis, the alkyl halide should be primary. Thus, the alkyl halide should be derived from ethanol and the alkoxide ion from 3-methylpentan-2-ol. The synthesis is as follows

11.11 Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of l-methoxy-4- nitrobenzene and why?

Ans.

11.12.Predict the products of the following reactions:

Ans.

NCERT EXRECISES

11.1 Write IUPAC names of the following compounds:



Ans. (i) 2,2,4-Trimethylpentan-3-ol
(ii) 5-Ethylheptane-2,4-dioI
(iii) Butane-2,3-diol
(iv)Propane-1,2,3-triol
(v)2-Methylphenol
(vi)4-Methylphenol
(vii) 2,5-DimethylphenoI
(viii) 2,6-Dimethylphenol
(ix)1-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(x)Ethoxybenzene
(xi)1-Phenoxyheptane
(xii) 2-Ethoxybutane

11.2 Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows:
(i)2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii)l-Phcnylpropan-2-ol
(iii)3,5-DimethyIhexane-l,3,5-triol
(iv)2,3-Dicthylphenol
(v)1-Ethoxypropane
(vi)2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-Cyclohexylpcntan-3-ol
(ix)Cyclopcnt-3-en-l-ol
(x)4-ChIoro-3-ethylbutan-l-ol
Ans.

11.3(i) Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C₅HI₂0 and give their IUPAC names.
(ii) Classify the isomers of alcohols in question 11.3 (i)as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.
Ans.Eight isomers are possible. These are:

11.4 Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane?
Ans. The molecules of butane are held together by weak van der Waal’s forces of attraction while those of propanol are held together by stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

11.5 Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Ans. Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds with water and by breaking the hydrogen bonds already existing between water molecules. Therefore, they are soluble in water.

On die other hand, hydrocarbons cannot from hydrogen bonds with water and hence are insoluble in water.

11.6 What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction? Illustrate it with an example.
Ans. The addition of diborane to alkenes to form trialkyl boranes followed by their oxidation with alkaline hydrogen peroxide to form alcohols is called hydroboration-oxidation. For example,

11.7 Give the structures and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C₇H₈O.
Ans.The three isomers are:

11.8 While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Ans. 0-N itrophenol is steam volatile due to chelation (intramolecular H – bonding) and hence can be separated by steam distillation from/Miitrophenol which is hot steam volatile because of intermolecular H-bonding.

11.9 Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Ans.

11.10 Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Ans.

11.11 Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Ans.Direct addition of H₂0 to ethene in presence of an acid does not occur. Indirectly, ethene is first passed through concentrated H₂S0₄, when ethyl hydrogen sulphate is formed.

11.12 You are given benzene, cone. H₂S0₄and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Ans.

11.13 Show how will you synthesise
(i)1 -phenylethanol from a suitable alkene.
(ii)cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an SN₂ reaction.
(iii) Pentan-l-ol using a suitable alkyl halide?
Ans.

11.14 Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare its acidity with that of ethanol.
Ans. The reactions showing acidic nature of phenol are:
(a) Reaction with sodium: Phenol reacts with active metals like sodium to liberate H, gas.

(b) Reaction with NaOH: Phenol dissolves in NaOH to form sodium phenoxide and water.

Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. This is due to the reason that phenoxide ion left after the loss of a proton from phenol is stabilized by resonance, while ethoxide ion left after less of a proton from ethanol, is not.

11.15 Explain why is ortho-nitrophenol more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol?
Ans. Due to strong -R and – I-effect of the -N0₂ group, electron density of the O – H bond decreases and hence the loss of a proton becomes easy.

11.16 Explain how does the – OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards electrophilic substitution?
Ans. Phenol may be regarded as a resonance hybrid of structures I-V, shown below.

As a result of +R effect of the -OH group, the electron density in the benzene ring increases thereby facilitating the attack of an electrophile. In other words, presence of -OH group, activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution reactions. Further, since the electron density is relatively higher at the two o-and one p-position, therefore electrophilic substitution occurs mainly at o-and p-positions.

11.17 Give equations of the following reactions:
(i)Oxidation of propan-l-ol with alkaline KMnO₄ solution.
(ii)Bromine in CS₂ with phenol.
(iii)Dilute HNO₃ acid with phehoL
(iv)Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
Ans.

11.18 Explain the following with an example
(i) Kolbe’s reaction (ii) Reimer – Tiemann reaction –
(iii) Williamson ether synthesis (iv) Unsymmetrical ether
Ans. (i) Kolbe’s reaction: Sodium phenoxide when heated with C0₂ at 400K under a pressure of 4-7 atmospheres followed by acidification gives 2-hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid) as the major product along with a small amount of 4-hydroxybenzoic acid.This reaction is called Kolbe’s reaction.

(ii)Reimer-Tiemann reaction: Treatment of phenol with CHC13 in presence of aqueous sodium or potassium hydroxide at 340 K followed by hydrolysis of the resulting product gives 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde (salicyialdehyde) as the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

(iii) Williamson’s ether synthesis: It involves the treatment of an alkyl halide with a suitable sodium alkoxide to obtain ethers. The sodium alkoxide needed for the purpose is prepared by the action of sodium on a suitable alcohol. In this reaction alkyl halide should primary. Secondary and tertiary halides will predominantly give an alkene.

(iv)Unsymmetrical ether: If the alkyl or aryl groups attached to the oxygen atom are different, ethers are called unsymmetrical ethers. For example, ethylmethylether, methylphenylether, 4-chlorophenyl- 4-nitrophenyl ether, etc.

11.19 Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.
Ans.The mechanism of dehydration of alcohols to form alkenes occur by the following three steps:

11.20 How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene —> Propan -2-ol
(ii) Benzyl chloride —> Benzyl alcohol
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride —> Propan-l-ol
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide —> 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
Ans.

11.21 Name the reagents used in the following reactions:
(i)Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
(ii)Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
(iii)Brominationofphenolto2,4,6-tribromophenol
(iv)Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
(v)Dehydration of propan-2-oI to propene.
(vi)Butan-2-one to butan-2-oL .
Ans. (i) Acidified potassium dichromate or neutral/ acidic/ alkaline potassium permanganate.
(ii)Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC), (C₅H₅NH)+ ClCrO₃^– in CH₂Cl₂
or Pyridinium dichromate (PDC),[(C₅H₅NH)₂]²⁺Cr₂O₇^2-in CH₂Cl₂
(iii)Aqueous bromine, i.e., Br₂/H₂O.
(iv)Acidified or alkaline potassium permanganate.
(v)85% H₂S0₄ at 440 K.
(vi)Ni/H₂ or NaBH₄ or LiAlH₄.

11.22 Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Ans. Ethanol undergoes intermolecular H-bonding due to the presence of a hydrogen atom attached to the electronegative oxygen atom. As a result, ethanol exists as associated molecules.

Consequently, a large amount of energy is required to break these hydrogen bonds. Therefore, the boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane which does not form H-bonds.

11.23 Give IUPAC names of the following ethers.

Ans. (i)1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane (ii)2-Chlorlo-l-methoxyethane
(iii)4-Nitroanisole (iv)1-Methoxypropane
(v)1 -Ethoxy-4 -4 – dimethylcyclohexane (vi)Ethoxybenzene

11.24 Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson’s synthesis:
(i)1-Propoxypropane
(ii)Ethoxybenzene
(iii)2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(iv)1-Methoxyethane
Ans.

11.25 Illustrate with examples the limitations of Willamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers. 
Ans. Williamson’s synthesis is a versatile method for the synthesis of both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers. However, for the synthesis of unsymmetrical ethers, a proper choice of reactants is necessary. Since Williamson’s synthesis occurs by SN₂ mechanism and primary alkyl halides are most reactive in Sn₂ reaction, therefore, best yields of unsymmetrical ethers are obtained when the alkyl halides are primary and the alkoxide may be primary, secondary or tertiary. For example, tert-butylethyl ether is prepared by treating ethyl bromide with sodium tert-butoxide.

11.26 How is 1-propoxypropane synthesised from propan-l-ol? Write the mechanism of this reaction.
Ans.(a) Williamson’s synthesis

11.27 Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a suitable method.Give reason.
Ans. Acid catalysed dehydration of primary alcohols to ethers occurs by SN₂ reaction involving nucleophilic attack by the alcohol molecule on the protonated alcohol molecule.

Under these conditions, 2° and 3° alcohols, however, give alkenes rather than ethers. The reason being that due to steric hindrance, nucleophilic attack by the alcohol molecule on the protonated alcohol molecule does not occur. Instead protonated 2° and 3° alcohols lose a molecule of water to form stable 2° and 3° carbocation. These carbocations prefer to lose a proton to form alkenes rather than undergoing nucleophilic attack by alcohol molecules to form ethers.

11.28 Write the equation of the reaction of hydrogen iodide with (i)1-propoxypropane (ii)methoxybenzene, and (iii)benzyl ethyl ether
Ans.

11.29 Explain the fact that in aryl alkyl ethers (i) the alkoxy group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution and (ii) it directs the incoming substituents to ortho and para positions in benzene ring.
Ans. In aryl alkyl ethers, the +R-effect of the alkoxy (OR) group increases the electron density in the benzene ring, thereby activating the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Since the electron density increases more at the two ortho and one para position as compared to meta position therefore, electrophilic substitution reactions mainly occur at o-and -positions.

11.30 Write the mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxymethane.
Ans. When equimolar amounts of HI and methoxy methane are reacted, a mixture of methyl alcohol and methyl iodide is formed by the following mechanism:

11.31 Write equations of the following reactions:
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction -alkylation of anisole
(ii)Nitration of anisole.
(iii)Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium
(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Ans.

11.32 Show how would you synthesise the following alcohols from appropriate alkanes?

Ans.

11.33 When 3-methylbutant 2-ol is treated with HBr, the following reaction takes place:

Give a mechanism for this reaction.
(Hint: The secondary carbocation formed in step II rearranges to a more stable tertiary carbocation by a hydride ion shift from 3rd carbon atom.)
Ans.

Protonation of the given alcohol followed by loss of water gives a 2° carbocation(I), which being unstable rearranges by 1,2-hydride shift to form the more stable 3° carbocation (II). Nucleophilic attack by Br ion on this carbocation (II) gives the final product.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

NCERT INTEXT QUESTION

12.1 Write the structures of the following compounds:
(i)α-Methoxypropionaldehyde
(ii)3-Hydroxybutanal
(iii)2-Hydroxycyclopentane carbaldehyde
(iv)4-OxopentanaI
(v)Di-sec.butylketone
(vi)4-fluoroaeetophenone
Ans.

12.2 Write the structures of products of following reactions:

Ans.

12.3 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
CH₃CHO, CH₃CH₂OH ,CH₃OCH₃, CH₃CH₂CH₃
Ans.The order is : CH₃CH₂CH₃ < CH₃OCH₃ < CH₃CHO <CH₃CH₂OH
All these compounds have comparable molecular masses CH₃CH₂OH undergoes extensive intermolecular Il-bonding and thus its b.pt. is the highest. CH₃CHO is more pdlar than CH₃OCH₃ so that dipole-dipoie interactions in CH₃CHO are greater than in CH₃OCH₃. Thus, b.pt. of CH₃CHO > CH₃OCH₃. CH₃CH₂CH₃ has only weak van der waals forces between its molecules and hence has the lowest b.pt.

12.4 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions
(i)Ehtanal, propanaL, propanone, butanone
(ii)Benzaldehyde,p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, acetophenone.
Ans. (i) Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal .This is because as the no. of alkyl groups attached to carbonyl carbon increases, +I-effect increases. As a result, e^– density

12.5.Predict the products of the following reactions:


Ans.

12.6 Give the 1UPAC names of the following compounds:
(i)PhCH₂CH₂COOH
(ii)(CH₃)₂ C=CHCOOH

Ans.(i) 3 – Phenylpropanoic acid
(ii) 3 – Methylbut-2-enoic acid
(iii)2-Methylcyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(iv)2,4,6 – Trinitrobenzoic acid

12.7 Show how each of the following compounds can be converted into benzoic acid.
(i)Ethylbenzene
(ii)Acetophenone
(iii)Bromobenzene
(iv)Phenylethene (styrene)
Ans.

12.8 Which acid of each pair would you expect to be stronger?
(i)CH₃CO₂H or FCH₂CO₂H
(ii)FCH₂CO₂H or ClCH₂CO₂H
(iii)FCH₂CH2CH₂CO₂H
or CH₃CH(F)CH₂CO₂H

Ans.

NCERT EXERCISES

12.1 What is meant by the following terms? Give an example of the reaction in each case.
(i) Cyanohydrin (ii) Acetal (iii) Semicarbazone
(iv) Aldol (v) Hemiacetal (vi) Oxime
(vii) Ketal (viii) Imine (ix) 2,4-DNP derivative
(x) Schiff’s base.
Ans. (i) Cyanohydrin: gem-Hydroxynitriles, i.e., compounds possessing hydroxyl and cyano groups on the same carbon atom are called cyanohydrins. These are produced by addition of HCN to aldehydes or ketones in a weakly basic medium.

(ii) gem – Dialkoxy compounds in which the two alkoxy groups are present on the terminal carbon atom are called acetals. These are produced by the action of an aldehyde with two equivalents of a monohydric alcohol in presence of dry HCl gas.

These are easily hydrolysed by dilute mineral acids to regenerate the original aldehydes. Therefore, these are used for the protection of aldehyde group in organic synthesis.
(iii) Semicarbazones are derivatives of aldehydes and ketones and are produced by action of semicarbazide on them in acidic medium.

(iv) Aldols are P-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones and are produced by the condensation of two molecules of the same or one molecule each of two different aldehydes or ketones in presence of a dilute aqueous base. For example,

(v)gem – Alkoxyalcohols are called hemiacetals. These are produced by addition of one molecule of a monohydric alcohol to an aldehyde in presence of dry HCl gas.
(vi)Oximes are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with hydroxyl amine in weakly acidic medium.

(vii) Ketals are produced when a ketone is heated with dihydric alcohols like ethylene glycol in presence of dry HCl gas or /3-toluene sulphonic acid (PTS).

These are easily hydrolysed by dilute mineral acids to regenerate the original ketones. Therefore, ketals are used for protecting keto groups in organic synthesis.
(viii) Compounds containing -C = N – group are called imines. These are produced when aldehydes and ketones react with ammonia derivatives.

(ix)2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone (i.e., 2,4-DNP derivatives) are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine in weakly acidic medium.

(x) Aldehydes and ketones react with primary aliphatic or aromatic amines to form azomethines or SchifFs bases.

12.2 Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature:
(i) CH₃CH (CH₃)—CH₂ CH₂—CHO (ii) CH₃CH₂COCH(C₂H₅)CH₂CH₂Cl (iii) CH₃CH=CHCHO (iv) CH₃COCH₂COCH₃
(v)CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂C(CH3)2COCH₃
(vi)(CH₃)₃CCH₂COOH.
(vii)OHCC₆H₄CHO-p
Ans. (i)4-Methyl pentanal
(ii)6-Chloro-4-ethylhexan-3-one
(iii)But-2-en-l-al
(iv)Pentane-2,4-dione
(v)3,3,5-Trimethyl-hexan-2-one
(vi)3,3-Dimethyl butanoic acid
(vii)Benzene-1,4-dicarbaldehyde

12.3 Draw the structures of the following compounds:
(i) 3-Methylbutanal
(ii) p-Nitropropiophenone
(iii)p-Methylbenzaldehyde
(iv)4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(v)4-Chloropentan-2-one
(vi)3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
(vii) pp’-Dihydroxybenzophenone
(viii)Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid
Ans.

12.4 Write the IUPAC names of the following ketones and aldehydes. Wherever possible, give also common names.(i)CH₃CO(CH₂)₄CH₃ (ii) CH₃CH₂CH BrCH₂CH(CH₃)CHO (iii) CH₃(CH₂)₅CHO (iv) Ph—CH=CH—CHO

Ans.

12.5 Draw structures of the following derivatives:
(i)The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde
(ii)Cydopropanone oxime
(iii)Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
(iv)The semicarbazone ofcyclobutanone
(v)The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
(vi)The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde
Ans.

12.6 Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents. .
(i) PhMgBr and then H₃O⁺
(ii) Tollen reagent
(iii) Semicarbazide and weak acid
(iv)Excess ethanol and acid
(v)Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrochloric acid
Ans.

12.7Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation, which the Cannizzaro reaction and which neither? Write the structures of the expected products of aldol condensation and Cannizzaro reaction.
(i)Methanal (ii) 2-Methylpentanal (iii) Benzaldehyde .
(iv) Benzophenone (v) Cyclohexanone (vi) 1-Phenylpropanone
(vii) Phenylacetaldehyde (viii) Butan-l-ol 1 (ix) 2,2-Dimethylbutanal
Ans. 2-Methylpertfanal, cyclohexanone, 1-phenylpropanone and phenylacetaldehyde contain one or more a-hydrogen and hence undergo aldol condensation. The reactions and the structures of the expected products are given below:

12.8 How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds?
(i)Butane-1,3-diol (ii)But-2-enal (iii)But-2-enoic acid
Ans.

12.9 Write structural formulas and names of four possible aldol condensation products from propanal and butanal. In each case, indicate which aldehyde acts as nucleophile and which as electrophile.
Ans.

12.10 An organic compound with the molecular formula C₉H₁₀O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollen’s reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound. 
Ans. Since the given compound with molecular formula C₉H₁₀O forms a 2,4-DNP derivative and reduces Tollen’s reagent, it must be an aldehyde. Since it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction, therefore, CHO group is directly attached to die benzene ring.
Since on vigorous oxidation, it gives 1, 2-benzene dicarboxylic acid, therefore, it must be an ortho- substituted benzaldehyde. The only o-substituted aromatic aldehyde having molecular formula C₉H₁₀O is o-ethyl benzaldehyde. Ail the reactions can now be explained on the basis of this structure.

12.11 An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C₈H₁₆O₂) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B} and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (Q on dehydration gives but-l-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
Ans.Since an ester A with molecular formula C₈H₁₆O₂ upon hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid B and the alcohol C and oxidation of C with chromic acid produces the acid B, therefore, both the carboxylic acid B and alcohol C must contain the same number of carbon atoms.
Further, since ester A contains eight carbon atoms, therefore, both the carboxylic acid B and the alcohol C must contain four carbon atoms each.
Since the alcohol C on dehydration gives but-l-ene, therefore, C must be a straight chain alcohol, i.e., butan-l-ol.
If C is butan-l-ol, then the acid B must be butanoic acid and the ester A must be butyl butanoate.The chemical equations are as follows:

12.12Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:
(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert butyl ketone, Methyl tert-butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN) (ii) CH₃CH₂CH(Br)COOH, CH₃CH(Br)CH₂COOH, (CH₃)₂CH COOH,CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH (acid strength).
(iii) Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic add, 4-Methoxybenzok acid (acid strength).
Ans. (i) The reactivity of aldehydes and ketones towards HCN addition decreases as the +1 – effect of the alkyl groups increases. Secondly it decreases with increase in steric hindrance to the nucleophilic attack byCN^– at the carbonyl carbon. Thus the decreasing order of reactivity towards HCN is,

(ii)We know that + I-effect decreases while -I-effect increases the acidic strength of carboxylic acids. Since + I-effect of isopropyl group is more than that of propyl group, therefore, (CH₃)₂CHCOOH is a weaker acid than CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH. Further since -I-effect decreases with distance, therefore CH₃CH₂CHBrCOOH is a stronger acid than CH₃CHBrCH₂COOH. Thus, the overall acid strength increases in the order:

(iii) Since electron-donating groups decreases the acidic strength, therefore, 4-methoxy benzoic acid is a weaker acid than benzoic acid. Further since electron withdrawing groups increase the acidic strength, therefore, both 4-nitrobenzoic acid and 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid are stronger acids than benzoic acid. Further due to the presence of an additional -NO₂ group at /w-position with respect to -COOH group, 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid is a stronger acid than 4-nitrobenzoic acid. Thus, the overall acidic strength increases in the order:4-methoxy benzoic acid < benzoic acid < 4-nitrobenzoic acid < 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid.

12.13 Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
(i)PropanalandPropanone (ii)Acetophenone and Benzophenone
(iii)Phenol and Benzoic acid (iv)Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate
(v)Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one (vi)Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone.
(vii)EthanalandPropanal
Ans.

12.14 Row will you prepare the following compounds from benzene? You may use any inorganic reagent and any organic reagent having not more than one carbon atom.
(i) Methyl benzoate (ii) m-nitrobenzoic acid (iii) p-nitrobenzoic acid
(iv) Phenylaceticacid (v) p-nitrobenzaldehyde
Ans.

12.15 How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps?
(i) PropanonetoPropene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v)Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone –
(vi)Bromobenzeneto 1-PhenylethanoL
(vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-1-ol .
(viil) Benzaldehyde to α Hydroxyphenylacetk acid
(ix) Benzoic acid to m-Nitrobenzy 1 alcohol
Ans.

12.16 Describe the following:
(i) Acetylation (ii) Cannizzaro reaction
(iii) Cross aldol condensation (iv) Decarboxylation
Ans. (i) Acetylation refers to the process of introducing an acetyl group into a compound namely, the substitution of an acetyl group for an active hydrogen atom. Acetylation is usually carried out in presence of a base such as pyridine, dimethylanitine, etc.

(ii)Cannizzaro reaction : Aldehydes which do not contain an a-hydrogen atom, when treated with concentrated alkali solution undergo disproportionation, i.e., self oxidation reduction. As a result, one molecule of the aldehyde is reduced to the corresponding alcohol at the cost of the other which is oxidised to the corresponding carboxylic acid. This reaction is called Cannizzaro reaction.

(iii) Cross aldol condensation: Aldol condensation between two different aldehydes is called cross aldol condensation.If both aldehydes contain a-hydrogens, It gives a mixture of four products.

(iv)Decarboxylation: The process of removal of a molecule of CO₂ from a carboxylic acid is called decarboxylation. Sodium salts of carboxylic acids when heated with soda-lime undergoes decarboxylation to yield alkanes.

12.17 Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products.

Ans.

12.18 Give plausible explanation for each of the following:
(i) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2, fctrimethylcyclohexanone does not (ii) There are two – NH₂ groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.
(iii)During the preparation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as soon as it is formed.
Ans.

The yield of second reaction is very low because of the presence of three methyl groups at ex-positions with respect to the C = O, the nucleophilic attack by the CN^– ion does not occur due to steric hinderance. Since there is no such steric hindrance in cyclohexanone, therefore, nucleophilic attack by the CN^– ion occurs readily and hence cyclohexanone cyanohydrin is obtained in good yield.

Although semicarbazide has two – NH₂ groups but one of them (i.e., which is directly attached to C = O) is involved in resonance as shown above. As a result, electron density on N of this -NH₂ group decreases and hence it does not act as a nucleophile. In contrast, the other -NH₂ group (i.e.. attached to NH) is not involved in resonance and hence lone pair of electrons present on N atom of this -NH₂ group is available for nucleophilic attack on the C = O group of aldehydes and ketones.’
(iii) The formation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in presence of an acid catalyst is a reversible reaction.

Thus to shift the equilibrium in the forward direction, the water or the ester formed should be removed as fast as it is formed.

12.19 An organic compound contains 69-77% carbon, 11-63 % hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tottens’ reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation, it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of the compound.
Ans.

Since the compound form sodium hydrogen sulphite addition product, therefore, it must be either an – aldehyde or methyl/ cyclic ketone. Since the compound does not reduce Tollens’ reagent therefore, it cannot be an aldehyde. Since the compound gives positive iodoform test, therefore, the given compound is a methyl ketone. Since the given compound on vigorous oxidation gives a mixture ofethanoic acid and propanoic acid, therefore, the methyl ketone is pentan-2-one, i.e.,

12.20 Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than on phenol. Why?
Ans. Consider the resonating structures of carboxylate ion and phenoxide ion.

In case of phenoxide ion, structures (V – VII) carry a negative charge on the less electronegative carbon atom.Therefore, their contribution towards the resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion is very small.
In structures I and II, (carboxylate ion), the negative charge is delocalized over two oxygen atoms while in structures III and IV, the negative charge on the oxygen atom remains localized only the electrons of the benzene ring are delocalized. Since delocalization of benzene electrons contributes little towards the stability of phenoxide ion therefore, carboxylate ion is much more resonance stabilized than phenoxide ion. Thus, the release of a proton from carboxylic acids is much easier than from phenols. In other words, carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

13.1.Classify the following amines as primary, secondary and tertiary:

Ans. (i) 1° (ii)-3° (iii) 1° (iv) 2°

13.2.(i)Write the structures of different isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular formula, C₄H₁₁N.
(ii)Write 1UPAC names of all the isomers.
(iii)What type of isomerism is exhibited by different pairs of amines?
Ans.

Chain isomers: (a) and (c); (a) and (d); (b)and(c); (b)and(d)
Metamers: (e) and (g); (f) and (g) Functional isomers: All 10 amines are functional isomers of 2° and 3° amines and vice-versa.

13.3 How will you convert:
(i)Benzene into aniline
(ii)Benzene into N,N-dimethylaniline
(iii)Cl-(CH₂)₄-Cl into Hexane -1,6- diamine
Ans.

13.4 Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength: ‘
(i) C₂H₅NH₂,C₆H₅NH₂,NH₃,C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ and(C₂H₅)₂ NH
(ii) C₂H₅NH₂,(C₂H₅)₂NH,(C₂H₅)₃N,C₆H₅NH₂
(iii) CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N, C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂
Ans.C₆H₅NH₂ < NH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ <  C₂H₅NH₂<(C₂H₅)₂NH
(ii)C₆H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₃N <(C₂H₅)₂NH
(iii) C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ < (CH₃)₃ N < CH₃NH₂<(CH₃)₂NH

13.5 Complete the following acid-base reactions and name the products:
(i)CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂+HCl ——–>
(ii)(C₂H₅)₃ N+HCl ——–>
Ans.

13.6 Write reactions of the final alkylation product of aniline with excess of methyl iodide in the presence of sodium carbonate solution.
Ans.

13.7 Write chemical reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride and write the name of the product obtained.
Ans.

13.8 Write structures of different isomers corresponding to the molecular formula, C₃H₉N. Write IUPAC names of the isomers which will liberated N₂ gas on treatment with nitrons acid.
Ans. In ‘all, four structural isomers are possible. These are:

13.9 Convert:
(i)3-Methylanilineinto3-nitrotoluene
(ii)Aniline into 1,3,5- Tribromo benzene
Ans.

NCERT EXRECISES

13.1 Write IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify them into primary, secondary and tertiary amines. 
(i) (CH₃)₂ CHNH₂ (ii) CH₃(CH₂)₂NH₂ (iii) CH₃NHCH(CH₃)₂
(iv) (CH₃)₃ CNH₂ (v) C₆H₅NHCH₃(vi) (CH₃CH₂)₂NCH₃
(vii)m-BrC₆H₄NH₂
Ans. (i) Propan-2-amine(1°)
(ii)Propan-1-amine (1°) ,
(iii)N-Methylpropan-2-amine (2°) .
(iv)2-Methylpropan-2-amine(l°)
(v)N-MethylbenzenamineorN-methylaniline(2°)
(vi)N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine (3°)
(vii)3-Bromobenzenamine or 3-bromoaniline (1°)

13.2 Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i)Methylamine and dimethylamine (ii) Secondary and tertiary amines (iii) Ethylamine and aniline (iv) Aniline and benzylamine (v) Aniline and N-Methylaniline.
Ans.

13.3 Account for the following
(i)pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(iii) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
(iv)Although amino group is o and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.
(v)Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(vi)Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines.
(vii)Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.
Ans. (i) In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring.
As a result, electron density on the nitrogen . atom decreases. Whereas in CH₃NH₂,+ I-effect of -CH₃ group increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pKb value is higher than that of methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine dissolves in water due to intermolecular H-bonding. However, in case of aniline, due to the large hydrophobic part, i.e., hydrocarbon part, the extent of H-bonding is very less therefore aniline is insoluble in water.

(iii)Methylamine being more basic than water, accepts a proton from water liberating OH^– ions,

(iv)Nitration is usually carried out with a mixture of cone HNO₃ + cone H₂SO₄. In presence of these acids, most of aniline gets protonated to form ahilinium ion. Therefore, in presence of acids, the reaction mixture consist of aniline and anilinium ion. Now, -NH2 group in aniline is activating and o, p-directing while the -+NH₃ group in anilinium ion is deactivating and rw-directing: Nitration of aniline (due to steric hindrance at o-position) mainly gives p-nitroaniline, the nitration of anilinium ion gives m-nitroaniline. In actual practice, approx a 1:1 mixture of p-nitroaniline and m-nitroaniline is obtained. Thus, nitration of aniline gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline due to protonation of the amino group.

13.4 Arrange the following:
(i) In decreasing order of pKb values: .
C₂H₅NH₂,C₆H₅NHCH₃,(C₂H₅)₂NH and C₆H₅NH₂
(ii) In increasing order of basic strength:
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₂H₅)₂ NH and CH₃NH₂.
(iii) In increasing order of basic strength:
(а)Aniline,p-nitroaniline andp-toluidine
(b)C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂
(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase:
C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₃N and NH₃
(v) In increasing order of boiling point:
C₂H₅OH, (CH₃)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂
(vi) In increasing order of solubility in water:
C₆H₅NH₂,(C₂H₅)₂NH,C₂H₅NH₂
Ans. (i) Due to delocalisation of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring,C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are far less basic than C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H,)₂NH. Due to +I-effect of the -CH₃ group, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is little more basic that C₆H₅NH₂. Among C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₂NH is more basic than C₂H₅NH₂ due to greater+I-effect of two -C₂H₅ groups. Therefore correct order of decreasing pKb values is:

(ii) Among CH₃NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂NH, primarily due to the greater +I-effect of the two -C₂H₅ groups over one -CH₃ group, (C₂H₅)₂NH is more basic than CH₃NH₂.In both C₆H₅NH2 and C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ lone pair of electrons present on N-atom is delocalized over the benzene ring but C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ is more basic due to +1 effect of two-CH₃ groups.

(iii) (a) The presence of electron donating -CH₃ group increases while the presence of electron withdrawing -NO₂ group decreases the basic strength of amines.

(b) In C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃, N is directly attached to the benzene ring. As a result, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring. Therefore, both C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are weaker base in comparison to C₆H₅CH₂NH₂. Among C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃, due to +1 effect of-CH₃ group C₆H₅NHCH₃ is more basic.

(iv) In gas phase or in non-aqueous solvents such as chlorobenzene etc, the solvation effects i. e., the stabilization of the conjugate acid due to H-bonding are absent. Therefore, basic strength depends only upon the +I-effect of the alkyl groups. The +I-effect increases with increase in number of alkyl groups.Thus correct order of decreasing basic strength in gas phase is,

(v)Since the electronegativity of O is higher than thalof N, therefore, alcohols form stronger H-bonds than amines. Also, the extent of H-bonding depends upon flie number of H-atoms on the N-atom, thus the extent of H-bonding is greater in primary amine than secondary amine.

(vi)Solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of the hydrophobic hydrocarbon part and with decrease iirthe number of H-atoms on the N-atom which undergo H-bonding.

13.5 How wjll you convert:
(i) Ethanoic acid into methanamine (ii) Hexanenitrile into 1-aminopentane
(iii) Methanol to ethanoic acid. (iv) Ethanamine into methanamine
(v) Ethanoic acid into propanoic acid (vi) Methanamine into ethanamine
(vii) Nitromethane into dimethylamine (viii) Propanoic acid into ethanoic acid?
Ans.