NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Macro Economics Chapter-1 Introduction to Macroeconomics and its Concepts

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Question 1. Describe the five major sectors in an economy according to the macroeconomic point of view.[3-4 Marks]
Answer. An economy may be’ divided into different sectors depending on the nature of study.

1. Producer sector engaged in the production of goods and services.
2. Household sector engaged in the consumption of goods and services.
   Note: Households are taken as the owners of factors of production.
3. The government sector engaged in activities like taxation and subsidies.
4. Rest of the world sector engaged in exports and imports.
5. Financial sector (or financial system) engaged in the activity of borrowing and lending.

Question 2. What are the four factors of production and remunerations to each of these called? [ 1 Mark]
Answer.

Question 3. What are the important features of a capitalist economy? [3-4 Marks]
Answer. Features of capitalist economy are:

1. Private ownership of land and capital.
2. Profit is the only motive.
3. Free play of the market forces of demand and supply.
4.  Government looks after growth, stability and social justice in the economy.

Question 4. Describe the Great Depression of 1929. [3-4 Marks]
Answer.The Great Depression took place in 1929 which adversely affected the developed economies of Europe and North America. It continued for 10 years. There was extreme fall in aggregate demand due to fall in income, which led to a vicious circle of poverty.

Question 5. Distinguish between stock and flow. Between net investment and capital which is a stock and which is a flow? Compare net investment and capital with flow of water into a tank. [3-4 Marks]
Answer.

Net investment is a flow whereas capital is a stock. Amount of water in a tank at a particular point of time is a stock concept, whereas amount of water flowing into it is a flow concept.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

I. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
Question 1. What is meant by circular flow of income?
Answer. It refers to flow of money income or the flow of goods and services across different sectors of the economy in a circular form.

Question 2. What are the three phases of circular flow of income?
Answer. Production Phase, Distribution Phase and Disposition Phase.

Question 3. Give the meaning of factor income.
Answer. Income earned by factor of production by rendering their productive services in the production process is known as Factor Income.

Question 4. What is meant by transfer income?
Answer. Income received without rendering any productive services is known as Transfer Income.

Question 5. Out of factor income and transfer income which one is a unilateral concept?
Answer. Transfer income.

Question 6. Define current transfers.[CBSE 2003]
Answer. Transfers made from the current income of the payer and added to the current income of the recipient (who receive) for consumption expenditure are called current transfers.

Question 7. Define capital transfers.
Answer. Capital transfers are defined as transfers in cash and in kind for the purpose of investment to recipient made out of the wealth or saving of a donor.

Question 8. What is the meaning of final goods?
Answer. These are those which are used for:

1. Personal consumption (like bread purchased by consumer household), or
2. Investment or capital formation (like building, machinery purchased by a firm)

Question 9. What is meant by intermediate goods?
Answer. These are those, which are used for:

1.  Further processing (like sugar used for making sweets), or
2. Resale in the same year (If car purchased by a car dealer for resale).

Question 10. What is meant by consumption goods?
Answer. Consumption goods are those goods which satisfy the wants of consumers directly.

Question 11. Define capital goods.
Answer. Capital goods are defined as all goods produced for use in future productive processes.

Question 12. Give an example of a person who is staying abroad for a period more than one year and still he is treated as normal resident of India.
Answer. An Indian working in Indian Embassy in the USA will be treated as normal resident of India.

II. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
Question 1. Transfer payments refer to payments which are made:
(a) Without any exchange of goods and services.
(b) To workers on transfer from one job to another.
(c) As compensation to employees.
(d) None of these
Answer.(a)

Question 2. Which one of the following items comes under consumption goods?
(a) Durable goods
(b) Semi-durable goods
(c) Non-durable goods
(d) All of these.
Answer.(d)

Question 3. Service of a teacher:
(a) Capital goods
(b) Consumption goods
(c) Intermediate goods
(d) Can be Consumption goods and intermediate goods
Answer.(d)

Question 4. In a circular flow of income, we have:
(a) Production (b) Distribution
(c) Disposition (d) All of them
Answer.(d)

Question 5. Who is considered as agents of factor
of production,
(a) Households
(b) Government
(c) Rest of the world
(d) All of these
Answer.(a)

Question 6. Which among the following are the
features of capitalist economy,
(a) Private ownership of Land and Capital.
(b) Profit is the only motive.
(c) Free Play of market forces of demand and supply.
(d) All of these
Answer.(d)

Question 7. Flow of Goods & services and factors of production across different sectors in a barter economy is known as: [CBSE Sample Paper 2016]
(a) Circular flow (b) Real flow
(c) Monetary Flow (d) Capital Flow
Answer.(b)

III. SHORT ANSWER-TYPE QUESTIONS
Question 1. Explain the basis of classifying goods into intermediate and final goods. Give suitable examples. Or [CBSE 2010]
Distinguish between intermediate products and final products. Give examples. ‘ [CBSE 2009]
Answer.

Question 2. Define consumption goods and what are its categories.
Answer. Consumption goods are those which satisfy the wants of the consumers directly.
For example, cars, television sets, bread, furniture, air-conditioners, etc. Consumption goods can further be subdivided into the following categories:

1. Durable goods: These goods have an expected life time of several years and of relatively high value. They are motor cars, refrigerators, television sets, washing machines, air-conditioners, kitchen equipments, computers, communication equipments etc.
2.  Semi-durable goods: These goods have an expected life time of use of one year or slightly more. They are not of relatively great value. Examples are clothing, furniture, electrical appliances like fans, electric irons, hot plates and crockery.
3. Non-durable goods: Goods which cannot be used again and again, i.e., they lose their identity in a single act of consumption are known as non durable goods. These are food grains, milk and milk products, edible oils, beverages, vegetables, tobacco and other food articles.
   goods which satisfy the human wants directly. They cannot be seen or touched, i.e., they are intangible in nature. These are medical care, transport and communications, education, domestic services rendered by hired servants, etc.

Question 3. Define capital goods and its categories.
Or
Define ‘capital goods’.[CBSE Foreign 2011]
Answer.

1. Capital goods are defined as all goods produced for use in future productive processes.
2. For example, All the durable goods like cars, trucks, refrigerators, buildings, air crafts, air-fields and submarines used to produce goods and services for sale in the market are a part of capital goods.
3. Stocks of raw materials, semi finished and finished goods lying with the producers at the end of an accounting year are also a part of capital goods.
4. Some more examples of capital goods are machinery, equipment, roads and bridges.
5. These goods require repair or replacement over time as their value depreciate over a period of time.

Question 4. Distinguish between consumption goods and capital goods. Which of these are final goods? [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Answer.

Question 5. Differentiate between Current transfers and Capital Transfers.
Answer.

IV. GIVE REASONS
A. Giving reasons, classify the following into intermediate or final goods.
Question 1. Machines purchased by a dealer of machines. [CBSE (AZ) 2010]
Answer. Intermediate good
Reason: Machines purchased by a dealer of machines is an intermediate good because machines are resold by the firms to make profits or value is yet to be added to these goods by way of further processing.

Question 2. A car purchased by a household.[CBSE (AI) 2010]
Answer. Final good
Reason: A car purchased by a household is a final good because the household is the final user of the car and no value is to be added to the car.

Question 3. Furniture purchased by a school. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Final good
Reason: Furniture purchased by a school is a final product because school is the final user of the furniture and no value is to be added to the furniture. This will be deemed as investment expenditure because furniture is used by the school for several years and is of high value.

Question 4. Chalks, dusters, etc. purchased by a school. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Intermediate good
Reason: Chalks, dusters, etc. purchased by a school are intermediate goods as these are used up in the process of value – addition during the year.

Question 5. Computers installed in an office.[CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Final good
Reason: Computers installed in an office is a final product because computers are finally and repeatedly used by the office for several years and these are of high value.

Question 6. Mobile sets purchased by a mobile dealer. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: Mobile sets purchased by a mobile dealer is an intermediate product because these are purchased for resale.

Question 7. Expenditure on maintenance of an office building. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: Expenditure on maintenance of an office building is an intermediate expenditure as the things purchased for repair and maintenance are used up during the period of one year.

Question 8. Expenditure on improvement of a machine in a factory.[CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. Final Product
Reason: Expenditure on improvement of a machine in a factory is a final expenditure as the machine is repeatedly used for several years as a fixed asset. Improvement of a machine implies improvement of asset value (through investment expenditure).

Question 9. Purchase of furniture by a firm.[CBSE (Al) 2010]
Answer. Final Product
Reason: Purchase of furniture by a firm is a final expenditure because furniture is repeatedly used by the firm for several years and this is of high value.

Question 10. Expenditure on maintenance by a firm. [CBSE (AI) 2010]
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: Expenditure on maintenance by a firm is an intermediate expenditure as the things purchased for repair and maintenance are used up during the period of one year.

Question 11. Paper purchased by a publisher.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: It is an intermediate product as paper is used for further production during the same year.

Question 12. Milk purchased by households.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product as it is used by households for final consumption.

Question 13. Purchase of rice by a grocery shop.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: These are intermediate products because these are purchased for resale.

Question 14. Coal used by manufacturing firms.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: It is an intermediate product as coal is used for further production during the same year.

Question 15. Coal used by consumer households.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product as it is used by households for final consumption.

Question 16. Purchase of pulses by a consumer.
Answer. Final Product
Reason: It is a final product as it is used by a consumer for final consumption.

Question 17. Fertilizers used by the farmers.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: These are intermediate products because fertilizer is used for further production during the same year.

Question 18. Printer purchased by a lawyer.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product because it is purchased for investment.

Question 19. Wheat used by the flour mill.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: It is an intermediate product as wheat is used for further production during the same year or is meant for resale.

Question 20. Unsold coal with trader at a year end.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product as the unsold coal is an investment for the trader.

Question 21. Cotton used by a cloth mill.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: It is an intermediate product as cotton is used for further production during the same year.

Question 22. Wheat used by households.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product as it is used by households for final consumption.

Question 23. Refrigerator installed by a firm.
Answer. Final product
Reason: It is a final product because it is purchased for investment.

Question 24. Sugar used by a sweet shop.
Answer. Intermediate product
Reason: It is an intermediate product as sugar is used for further production during the same year.

B. Giving reasons, classify the following into factor income or transfer income.
Question 1. Unemployment allowances.
Answer. Transfer income
Reason: It is received without rendering any productive services.

Question 2. Salary received by Pankaj from a company.
Answer. Factor income
Reason: It is earned by rendering productive services.

Question 3. Financial help to earthquake victims.
Answer. Transfer income
Reason: It is received without rendering any productive services.

Question 4. Compensation received from the employer.
Answer. Factor income
Reason: It is earned by rendering productive services.

Question 5. Claim received from Insurance company by an injured worker.
Answer. Transfer income
Reason: It is received without rendering any productive services.

Question 6. Birthday gift received from a friend.
Answer. Transfer income
Reason: It is received without rendering any productive services.

Question 7. Bonus received on Diwali.
Answer. Factor income
Reason: It is earned by rendering productive services.

C. Giving reasons, classify the following into stock or flow.
Question 1. Capital [GBSE 2013]
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: Capital is stock because it is measured at a point of time.

Question 2. Saving [CBSE 2013]
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: Saving is flow because it is .measured during a period of time.

Question 3. Gross Domestic Product [CBSE 2013]
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: Gross domestic product is a flow because it is measured during a period of time.

Question 4. Wealth [CBSE 2013]
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: Wealth is stock because it is measured at a point of time.

Question 5. Exports
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It relates to a period of time.

Question 6. Imports
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It relates to a period of time.

Question 7. Business capital of business
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: It is related to a point of time.

Question 8. Investment
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It relates to a period of time.

Question 9. Foreign Investment
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It relates to a period of time.

Question 10. Foreign Assets
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: It relates to a point of time.

Question 11. Foreign Remittances (In flow of money)
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It is related to a period of time.

Question 12. Production of Wheat
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It is related to a period of time.

Question 13. Income of a servant
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It is related to a period of one month or one year.

Question 14. Budget Expenditure
Answer. Flow concept
Reason: It is related to a period of time. (1 year)

Question 15. Money supply
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: It relates to a particular point of time.

Question 16. Machinery of a firm
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: It relates to a point of time.

Question 17. A five hundred rupee note
Answer. Stock concept
Reason: It is related to a point of time.

D. Giving reasons state whether the following are included or excluded in/from domestic territory.
Question 1. An Indian Company in America
Answer. Excluded
Reason: As it is outside the domestic territory of our country.

Question 2. Microsoft Office in India
Answer. Included
Reason: As it is within the domestic territory of our country.

Question 3. Company in India owned by an American
Answer. Included
Reason: As it is within the domestic territory of our country.

Question 4. Office of Tata in New York
Answer. Excluded
Reason: As it is outside the domestic territory of our country.

Question 5. Branch of Foreign Bank in India
Answer. Included
Reason: As it is within the domestic territory of our country.

Question 6. Indian Embassy in China
Answer. Included
Reason: As it is within the domestic territory of our country.

Question 7. Branch of Punjab National Bank in America
Answer. Excluded
Reason: As it is outside the domestic territory of our country.

Question 8. Russian Embassy in India
Answer. Excluded
Reason: As it is outside the domestic territory of our country.

Question 9. Reliance Industries rented its building to Microsoft in America.
Answer. Excluded
Reason: As it is outside the domestic territory of our country.

E. Classify the following into durable, non-durable, semi-durable or services
Question 1. Refrigerator
Answer. Durable
Reason: As it has expected life time of several years and of relatively high value.

Question 2. Clothes
Answer. Semi-durable
Reason: As it have an expected life time of use of one year or slightly more.

Question 3. Edible oil
Answer. Non-durable
Reason: As it loose their identity in a single act of consumption.

Question 4. Tuition given by a teacher
Answer. Service
Reason: As it is non-material goods which satisfy the human wants directly.

Question 5. Visit of a physician
Answer. Service
Reason: As it is non-material goods which satisfy the human wants directly.

Question 6. Washing soaps
Answer. Non-durable
Reason: As it loose their identity in a single act of consumption.

F. Classify the following into consumer, intermediate or capital goods.
Question 1. Milk used by a manufacturer of sweets.
Answer. Intermediate goods
Reason: As it is used up while making sweets.

Question 2. Cycle purchased by a consumer household
Answer. Consumer goods
Reason: End user is consumer.

Question 3. Textile machinery
Answer. Capital goods
Reason: End user is producer.

Question 4. Construction of a house
Answer. Consumer goods
Reason: End user is consumer.

Question 5. Bread and butter used by a consumer household.
Answer. Consumer goods
Reason: End user is consumer.

Question 6. Services of a private doctor purchased by a consumer household.
Answer. Consumer goods
Reason: End user is consumer.

Question 7. Fertilizer used by a farmer.
Answer. Intermediate goods
Reason: As fertilizer is used for further production during the same year.

Question 8. Passenger bus service used by a consumer household.
Answer. Consumer services
Reason: End user is consumer.

G. Giving reasons, classify the following into normal resident of India or not.
Question 1. Indian officials working in the Indian Embassy in USA.
Answer. Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the home country.

Question 2. A Japanese tourist who stays in India for 2 months.
Answer. Not a Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the foreign country.

Question 3. Indians going to Pakistan for watching the cricket match.
Answer. Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the home country.

Question 4. Indians working in the UNO office, located in America for less than 1 year.
Answer. Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the home country.

Question 5. Indian employees working in WHO, located in India.
Answer. Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the home country.

Question 6. Foreign tourists visiting India for a month to see the Taj Mahal.
Answer. Not a Normal Resident
Reason: As their centre of economic interest lies in the foreign country.

V. TRUE OR FALSE
Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
Question 1. Macroeconomics deals with the problems of a consumer.
Answer. False: It deals with problems of the economy.

Question 2. Money flow is also known as physical flow.
Answer. False: Real flow is known as physical flow. Money flow is known by the name of nominal flow.

Question 3. In a two-sector economy, total production is always equal to total consumption.
Answer. True: It happens because firms sell their entire output to the households.

Question 4. Circular flow of income takes place in case of open economy and close economy.
Answer. True: Even in case of closed economy, circular flow of income takes place between households and firms.

Question 5. Capital formation is a flow.[CBSE Sample Paper 2010]
Answer. True: Capital formation is measured over a period of time

Question 6. Foreign remittances are a stock concept.
Answer. False: It is flow concept as these are assessed over a period of time and not at a point of time.

Question 7. National Income of a country- is a stock concept.
Answer. False: It is a flow concept as it is measured over a period of time.

Question 8. Bread is always a consumer good.[CBSE Sample Paper 2010]
Answer. False: It depends on the use of bread. When it is purchased by a household, it is a consumer good. If it is purchased by a restaurant, it is a producer intermediate goods.

Question 9. Television is a capital good.
Answer. False: Television is a durable consumption good.

Question 10. Services of a teacher is a consumption good.
Answer. True: It directly satisfies human wants.

Question 11. Books in a library are intermediate goods.
Answer. False: Books used in a library are final goods as these are used by the end user.

Question 12. Use of raw material is a consumption good.
Answer. False: Use of raw material helps in production process therefore it is a single use producer good. But it has no longer life.

Question 13. Can purchase of a new car be categorized as an intermediate good.
Answer. True: Purchase of a new car can be categorized as an intermediate good, if purchased by a Government for military use or if it is purchased by a car dealer for resale.

Question 14. A good can be an intermediate goods in one case and a final goods in another case.
Answer. True: A good can be an intermediate goods or final goods, depending upon its nature of use. For example, a car purchased by a household is a final good, whereas, it will be an intermediate good if it is purchased by a car dealer.

Question 15. The concept of normal resident applies to individuals only.
Answer. False: The concept applies to institutions also, in addition to individuals.

Question 16. In final goods, no value is to be added.
Answer. True: Because final goods have crossed the production boundary.

Question 17. Transfer income is a part of factor income.
Answer. False: It is not a factor income, It is paid for without receiving any goods and services.

VI. HIGHER ORDER THINKING SKILLS
Question 1. Explain that Domestic territory is bigger than the political frontiers of a country.
Answer. In layman terms, the domestic territory of a nation is understood to be the territory lying within the political frontiers (or boundaries) of a country. But in national income accounting, the term domestic territory is used in a wider sense. Based on ‘freedom’ criterion, the scope of economic territory is defined to cover:

1. Ships and air crafts owned and operated by normal residents between two or more countries. For example, Indian Ships moving between China and India regularly are part of domestic territory of India. Similarly, planes operated by Air India between Russia and Japan are part of the domestic territory of India. Similarly, planes operated by Malaysian Airlines between India and Japan are a part of the domestic territory of Malaysia.
2. Fishing vessels, oil and natural gas rigs and floating platforms operated by the residents of a country in the international waters where they have exclusive rights of operation. For example, Fishing boats operated by Indian fishermen in international waters of Indian Ocean will be considered a part of domestic territory of India.
3. Embassies, consulates and military establishments of a country located abroad. For example, Indian Embassy in Russia is a part of the domestic territory of India.
   ‘Consulate’ is an office or building used by consul (an officer commissioned by the government to reside in a foreign country to promote the interest of the country to which he belongs).

Question 2. “All Producer Goods are not Capital Goods”. Explain.
Answer. Producer goods are all those goods which are used in the process of production i.e., which are used in the production of other goods. Producer goods include two types of goods:

1.  Single-use Producer Goods: Goods used as raw material by the producers. It includes raw material like coal, wood, etc. They are not capital goods as they cannot be repeatedly used in the production process.
2. Capital Goods: Goods which are used as fixed assets by the producers, like plant and machinery, which can be repeatedly used in the production process.
   So, it can be said that all capital goods are producer goods, but all producer goods are not capital goods.

Q3. “Machine purchased is always a final good.” Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer. No, it is not necessary that machine purchased is a final good. It will depend upon its use.

1. If a machine is purchased by a household, then it is a final good. For example, washing machine purchased by a consumer household is a final goods.
2.  If it is purchased by a firm for its own use, then it is also a final good. For example, refrigerator purchased by a firm.
3.  If it is bought by a firm for resale, then it is an intermediate good. For example, machine purchased by a machine dealer.

Q4. “ Machine purchased is always a capital good.” Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer. No, it is not necessary that machine purchased is a capital good. It will depend upon its use.

1.  If a sewing machine is purchased by a tailor, then it is a fixed asset of the tailor and considered to be a capital good. But the same machine purchased by a consumer household is considered to be a durable use consumer goods.
2. If a car purchased by a taxi driver as a taxi or if purchased by a firm for use in its business is a capital good. But the same car purchased by a consumer household is a durable use consumer goods.
   Note: So, finally, the end user of a good determine, whether it is capital good or durable use consumer goods. If an end user of a durable goods is a producer, it is a capital good. If an end user of a durable goods is a consumer household, it is a durable use consumer goods. So, capital goods are only those durable goods which are used as producer goods, not as consumer goods.

VII. VALUE BASED QUESTION
Question 1. Compensation to flood victims is a good social security measure by the government. But why is it not included in the estimation of national income?
Answer. Because this is a transfer payment. Value: Implement of Knowledge

VIII. APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS
Question 1. The concept of domestic territory helps to estimate ‘Domestic Product’. Defend or refute.
Answer. The concept of domestic territory helps to estimate ‘Domestic Product’. As we know Domestic Product includes goods and services produced by production units located in the domestic territory (irrespective of fact whether carried out by residents or non-residents). The money value of domestic product is termed as Domestic Income.

Question 2. The concept of Normal Resident helps to estimate ‘National Product’. Defend or refute.
Answer. The concept of Normal Resident helps to estimate “National Product’. National Product includes production activities of normal residents irrespective of fact whether performed within the economic territoiy or outside it. The money value of national product is termed as National Income.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter-3 Metals And Non-Metals

 INTEXT QUESTIONS

Page 40
1.Give an example of a metal which
(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat.
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer.
(i) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature is mercury.
(ii) Metal that can be easily cut with a knife is sodium.
(in) Metal that is the best conductor of heat is silver.
(iv) Metal that is a poor conductor of heat is lead.

2.Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Answer.Malleable: Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets are called malleable. Most of the metals are malleable. The most malleable metals are gold and silver.
Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are called ductile. Most of the metals are ductile. Platinum, gold and silver are the most ductile metals.

Page 46
1.Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Answer. Sodium is a very reactive metal and combines explosively with air(oxygen) at room temperature. It also reacts violently with cold water. Hence, it catches fire if kept in open. Therefore, to prevent accidental fires and accidents, sodium is stored immersed in kerosene oil.

2.Write equations for the reactions of
(i) iron with steam.
(ii) calcium and potassium with water.
Answer.
(i) 3Fe(s) + 4H₂O(l)—–> Fe₃O₄(s) + 4H₂(g)
(ii) Ca(s) + 2H₂O(Z)—–> Ca(OH)₂(ag) + H₂(g) + Heat
2K(s) + 2H₂O (Z)—–> 2KOH(aq) + H₂(g) + Heat

3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solutions one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.

Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
Answer.
A + Fe SO₄ –> No reaction, i.e. A is less reactive than iron.
A + CuSO₄–> Displacement, i.e. A is more reactive than copper.
B + FeSO₄ –> Displacement, i.e. B is more reactive than iron.
B + ZnSO₄ –> No reaction, i.e. B is less reactive than zinc.
C + FeSO₄ –> No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than iron.
C + CuSO₄ –> No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than copper.
C + ZnSO₄ –> No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than zinc.
C + AgNO_{3  –>} Displacement, i.e. C is more reactive than silver.
D 4- FeSO₄/CuSO₄/ZnSO₄/AgNO₃ –> No reaction, i.e.
D is less reactive than iron, copper, zinc, and silver.
From the above equations, conclude:
(i) B is the most reactive metal.
(ii)If B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate, then it would displace copper.
B + CuSO₄ —-> Displacement
(iii) The arrangement of the metals in the order of decreasing reactivity is: B > A > C > D

4.Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H₂SO₄.
Answer. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal, hydrogen gas is evolved.
The reaction between iron and H2S04 is:
Fe(s) + H₂SO₄(dil.)—-> FeSO₄(aq) + H₂(g)

5.What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron(II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Answer. Zinc is more reactive than iron. Therefore, if zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate, then it would displace iron from the solution.
Zn(s) + FeSO₄(aq)—-> ZnSO₄(aq) + Fe(s)

Page 49
1.(i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(ii) Show the formation of Na₂O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?
Answer.(i) Electronic configuration of sodium is 2,8,1.
Electron dot structure of sodium is: Na^.
Electronic configuration of oxygen is 2,6.
Electron dot structure of oxygen is:
Electronic configuration of magnesium is 2,8,2.
Electron dot structure of magnesium is: Mg:
(ii)
(a) Formation of Na₂O

(b) Formation of MgO

(iii) The ions present are Na⁺, O^2- and Mg^2+.

2.Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Answer. Ionic compounds have high melting points because of the strong force of attraction between the oppositely charged ions. High energy is required to break the metallic bonds between these ions.

Page 53
1.Define the following terms.
(i) Mineral (ii) Ore (iii) Gangue
Answer.
(i) A naturally occurring inorganic material formed through geological processes is known as a mineral.
(ii)The minerals from which metals can be extracted conveniently and profitably is known as an ore.
(iii) The unwanted material present in the ores is called gangue.

2.Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Answer.The metals present at the bottom of the reactivity series are mostly found in free state. For example: gold, silver, and platinum.

3.What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Answer. The chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide is reduction. There are mainly three different methods of reduction:
(i) By heating
(ii)By using carbon
(iii)By using aluminium, calcium, sodium etc. as reducing agents.

Page 55
1.Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following metals.

Answer. In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?

2, Which metals do not corrode easily?
Answer. Gold, platinum, rhodium.

3. What are alloys?
Answer. A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal is known as an alloy. For example, brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

1.Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeS04 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNOg solution and copper metal.
Answer.
(d) Cu(s) + 2AgNO₃(aq)—> Cu( NO₃)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
because copper is more reactive than Ag.

2.Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?
(a) Applying greese (b) Applying paint
(c) Applying a coating of zinc (d) All of the above.
Answer. (c) Greese and paints are organic matter which can burn on heating. So, we do not apply greese or paint on a frying pan to prevent it from rusting. We can prevent it from rusting by applying coating of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron and hence it does not allow iron to rust.

3.An element reacts with oxygen to give a comppund with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) calcium. (b) carbon.
(c) silicon. (d) iron.
Answer. (a) Calcium oxide has high melting point as it is ionic in nature and is soluble in water.

4.Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin.
(b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
(id) Zinc is less reactive than tin.
Answer. (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin, that is why, tin is used.

5.You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
(a) How would you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals.
Answer.(a)

1.  Take the sample of metal.
   Hammer it for long time. Observe the metal after sometime.
2.  Take the sample of non-metal and hammer it a little.
   You will observe that metal changes into sheets on hammering, i.e. it is malleable whereas non-metal is brittle and it breaks on hammering.
   
3. Set the apparatus as shown in the figure above. Take the sample of metal and put it between the clips. Switch on the current and observe the bulb. Now take the sample of non-metal and insert it between clips. Switch on the current and observe the bulb.
   You will observe that the bulb glows when current is switched on in case of metal sample.xThe bulb does not glow in case of non-metal sample. This shows metals are good conductors of electricity whereas non-metals are bad conductors of electricity.
   (b) These two tests can be used to distinguish between metals and non-metals. Hammering can be used in most of metals except in case of sodium, potassium and lithium.
   Conduction of electricity can be used in classification of most of the metals and non-metals except in graphite which is a non-metallic conductor.

6.What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.
Answer. Those oxides which act as both acidic as well as basic are called amphoteric oxides, e.g. Al_{2 O3} s and ZnO are amphoteric oxides.

7.Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will not.
Answer. Zn and A1 will displace hydrogen from dilute acids because they are more reactive than hydrogen whereas Cu and Ag cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids because they are less reactive than hydrogen.
Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil)—> ZnCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g)
2Al(s) + 6HCl (dil)—> 2AlCl₃(aq) + 3H₂(g)

8.In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, cathode and electrolyte?
Answer.Impure metal acts as anode, pure metal acts as cathode. Soluble salt of metal acts as electrolyte.

9.Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it as shown in the given figure.

(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Answer.
(a) (i) There will be no effect of gas on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Moist blue litmus paper will turn red.
(b) S(s)    +    O₂(g)      —>    SO₂(g)
Sulphur         Oxygen           Sulphur dioxide
SO₂(g) + H₂0 (l)    —>         H₂SO₃(aq)
Sulphur                                   Sulphurous
dioxide                                          acid
(acidic oxide)
Sulphurous acid turns blue litmus red.

10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Answer. (i) Painting: Iron articles are painted so that surface does not come in contact with air and water and it does not get rusted.
(ii) Galvanisation: It is a process in which iron articles are coated with zinc metal so as to prevent them from rusting. Zinc is more reactive than iron, therefore, it loses electrons more readily and prevents iron from rusting.

11.What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Answer. Mostly acidic oxides are formed when non-metal combines with oxygen.

12. Give reasons.
(i) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(ii) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(iii) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(iv) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
Answer.
(i) It is because they are highly lustrous and least reactive.
(ii)They are highly reactive. They catch fire and start burning when kept open in the air. To prevent their reaction with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air, they are stored under oil.
(iii) It is because aluminium is a good conductor of heat.
(iv) It is because it is easier to reduce oxide ores as compared to carbonates and sulphides.

13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
Answer. It is because basic copper carbonate formed on copper vessel reacts with acid present in lemon or tamarind juice and gets dissolved and green layer is removed. ‘

14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical properties.
Answer.

15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Answer. The solution he had used was aqua regia, which is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio 3:1. Aqua regia is one of the few reagents that is able to dissolve gold. When the person claimed to be goldsmith dipped bangles in aqua regia, some of the gold got dissolved and hence weight of the bangles got reduced.

16. Give the reason why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
Answer. Copper is better conductor of heat than steel therefore, it is used for making hot water tanks.

The post NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter-3 Metals And Non-Metals appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Macro Economics Chapter-2 National Income and Related Aggregates

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

Question 1. Why should the aggregate final expenditure of an economy be equal to the aggregate factor payments? Explain. [3 Marks]
Answer. The sum of final expenditures in an economy must be equal to the income received by all the factors of production taken together (final spending on final goods, it does not include spending on intermediate goods). This follows from the simple idea that the revenues earned by all the firms put together must be distributed among the factors of production as salaries, wages, profits, interests earning and rents.

Question 2. What is the difference between planned and unplanned inventory accumulation? Write down the relation between change in inventories and value added of a firm. [3 Marks]
Answer. Planned Inventory. It refers to changes in the stock inventories that have occurred in a planned way. In a situation of planned inventory accumulation, firm will plan to raise its inventories. Unplanned Inventory. It refers to changes in the stock of inventories that have occurred in an unexpected way. In a situation of unplanned inventory accumulation, due to unexpected fall in sales, the firm will have unsold stock of goods.
Value added of a firm (GVA) = Gross value of output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm.
OR
GVA = Value of sales by the firm + Value of change in inventories – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm

Question 3. Write down the three identities of calculating the GDP of a country by the three methods. Also, briefly explain why each of these should give us the same value of GDP. [3 Marks]
Answer. National Income = National Product = National Expenditure. Each one will give the same result. The only difference is that with product methods, NI is calculated at production or creation level with income Method NI is measured at distribution level, and with expenditure method NI is measured at disposal level.

Question 4. Define budget deficit and trade deficit. The excess of private investment over saving of a country in a particular year was Rs 2,000 crores. The amount of budget deficit was (-) Rs 1,500 crores. What was the volume of trade deficit of that country? [3-4 Marks]
Answer. Budget deficit. It measures the amount by which the government expenditure exceeds the tax revenue earned by it. Budget Deficit = G – T.
Trade deficit: It measures the amount of excess expenditure over the export revenue earned by the country.
Trade Deficit = M – X
Given G – T = (-) Rs 1500 crore
Investment – Saving = Rs 2000 crore Trade deficit = [I – S] + [G – T]
= [2000]+ [-1500] = Rs 500 crore.

Question 5. Suppose the GDP at market price of a country in a particular year was Rs 1,100 crores. Net Factor Income from Abroad was Rs 100 crores. The value of Indirect taxes – Subsidies was Rs 150 crores and National Income was Rs 850 crores. Calculate the aggregate value of depreciation. [3 Marks]
Answer.National Income (or NNPFC) = GDPmp- Depreciation + Net factor income from abroad – [Indirect Taxes-Subsides] 850 = 1100 – Depreciation +100- 150
Depreciation = 1100+ 100- 150-850 Depreciation = Rs 200 Crore

Question 6. Net National Product at Factor Cost of a particular country in a year is Rs 1,900 crores. There are no interest payments made by the households to the firms / government, or by the firms / government to the households. The Personal Disposable Income of the households is Rs 1,200 crores. The personal income taxes paid by them is Rs 600 crores and the value of retained earnings of the firms and government is valued at Rs 200 crores. What is the value of transfer payments made by the government and firms to the households? [3-4 Marks]
Answer.Personal disposable income = Personal income – Personal tax – miscellaneous receipts of government 1200 = Personal Income – 600 – 0 Personal Income = 1800 Crore Private Income = Personal income + retained earnings + corporate tax = 1800 + 200 + 0 = 2000 Crore Private income = NNPFC (National income) – NDPFC of government sector + Value of transfer payment 2000 = 1900 – 0 + Value of transfer payment
Value of transfer payment =100 Crore

Question 7. From the following data, calculate Personal Income and Personal Disposable Income. [6 Marks]

Answer. Private Income = NDPFC – NDPFC of government sector + NFIA + Transfer Income + net interest receive from household (Interest Received by Households – Interest Paid by Households) = (i) – 0 + (ii) + (vii) + [(v) – (vi)]
= 8000 + 200 + 300 + (1500 – 1200)
= 8800 Crore
Personal Income = Private income – Undistributed profit – Corporation tax = 8800 – (iii) – (ii)
= 8800 – 1000 – 500 = 7300 Crore
Personal Disposable Income =
Personal income – Personal tax = 7300 – (viii)
= 7300 – 500 = 6800 Crore

Question 8. In a single day Raju, the barber, collects Rs 500 from haircuts; over this day, his equipment depreciates in value by Rs 50. Of the remaining Rs 450, Raju pays sales tax worth Rs 30, takes home Rs 200 and retains Rs 220 for improvement and buying of new equipment. He further pays Rs 20 as income tax from his income. Based on this information, complete Raju’s contribution to the following measures of income

1. Gross Domestic Product
2. NNP at market price
3.  NNP at factor cost
4.  Personal income
5. Personal disposable income. [3-4 Marks]

Answer.

1.  GDP contribution by Raju = Rs 500
2.  NNPMP (Raju’s contribution) = GDP – Depreciation = 500 – 50 = Rs 450.
3.  NNPrr (Raju’s contribution) = NNPMP -Indirect tax =450-30 = Rs 420
4.  Personal Income = NNPFC-Retained Earnings = 420 – 220 = Rs 200
5.  Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income – Income Tax = 200 – 20 = Rs 180 Crore

Question 9. The value of the nominal GNP of an economy was Rs 2,500 crores in aparticular year. The value of GNP of that countiy during the same year evaluated at the prices of the same base year was Rs 3,000 crores. Calculate the value of the GNP deflator of the year in percentage terms. Did the price level rise between the base year and the year under consideration? [3-4 Marks]
Answer. GNP deflator = Nominal GNP/Real GNP x 100 = 83.3%
No, the price level did not rise between the base year and the year under consideration. In fact, it fell.

Question 10. Write down some of the limitations of using GDP as an index of welfare of a : countiy. [6 Marks]
OR
Explain how distribution of gross domestic product is its limitation as a measure of economic welfare.
[CBSE Delhi 2010]
OR
Explain how ‘distribution of gross domestic product’ is a limitation in taking domestic product as an index of welfare. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
OR
Can gross domestic product be used as an index of welfare of the people? Give two reasons. [CBSE Foreign 2010]
OR
Explain Per Capita Real GDP as Indicator of Economic Welfare.
OR
Explain any four limitations of using GDP as a measure/index of welfare of a country. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016]
Answer. Per Capita Real GDP can be taken as indicator for economy. But by itself is not an adequate indicator. There are many reasons behind this. These are:

1. Many goods and services contributing economic welfare are not included in GDP Or Non-Monetary exchanges.
   (a)There are many goods and services which are left out of estimation of national income on account of practical estimation difficulties e.g., services of housewives and other members, own account production, etc.
   (b)These are left on account of non availability of data and problem in valuation.
   (c)It is generally agreed that these items contribute to economic welfare.
   (d)So, if we depend only on GDP, we would be underestimating economic welfare.
2. Though externalities are not taken into account in GDP, they affect welfare.
   (a)When the activities of somebody result in benefits or harms to others with no payment received for the benefit and no payment made for the harm done, such benefits and harms are called externalities.
   (b)Activities resulting in benefits to others are positive externalities and increase welfare; and those resulting in harm to others are called negative externalities, and thus decrease welfare.
   (c)GDP does not take into account these externalities.
   (d)For example, construction of a flyover or a highway reduces transport cost and journey time of its users who have not contributed anything towards its cost. Expenditure on construction is included in GDP but not the positive externalities flowing from it. GDP and positive externalities both increase welfare. Therefore, taking only GDP as an index of welfare understates welfare. It means that welfare is much more than it is indicated by GDP.
   (e)Similarly, GDP also does not take into account negative externalities. For examples, factories produce goods but at the same time create pollution of water and air. River Yamuna, now a drain, is a living example. The pollution harms people. The factories are not required to pay anything for harming people. Producing goods increases welfare but creating pollution reduces welfare. Therefore, taking only GDP as an index of welfare overstates welfare In this case, welfare is much less than indicated by GDP.
3. Change in the distribution of income (GDP) may affect welfare.
   (a)All people do not earn the same amount of income. Some earn more and some earn less. In other words, there is unequal distribution of income.
   (b)At the same time, it is also true that in the event of rise in ‘per capita real income’ all are not better off equally. ‘Per capita’ is only an average. Income of some may rise by less and of some by more than the national average. In case of some it may even fall.
   (c)It means that the inequality in the distribution of income may increase or decrease.
   (d)If it increase it implies that rich become more rich and the poor become more poor.
   (e)Utility of a rupee of income to the poor is more than to the rich. Suppose, the income of the poor declines by one rupee and that of the rich increases by one rupee. In such a case, the decline in welfare of the poor will be more than the increase in welfare of the rich.
   (f) Therefore, if the rise in per capita real income inequality increases, it may lead to a decline in welfare (in the macro sense).
4. All products may not contribute equally to economic welfare.
   (a)GDP includes different types of products, like food articles, houses, clothes, police services, military services, etc.
   (b)Some of these products contribute more to the welfare of the people, like food, clothes, houses, etc. Other products like police services, military services etc. may comparatively contribute less and may not directly affect the standard of living of the people.
   (c)Therefore, how much is the economic welfare would depend more on. the types of goods and services produced, and not simply how much is produced.
   (d) It means that if GDP rises, the increase in welfare may not be in the same proportion.
5. Contribution of some products may be negative
   (a)GDP includes all final products whether it is milk or liquor.
   (b)Milk may provide both immediate and ultimate satisfaction to consumers On the other hand, liquor may provide some immediate satisfaction, but because of its harmful effects on health it may lead to decline in welfare.
   (c)GDP include only the monetary values of the products and not their contribution to welfare.
   (d)Therefore, economic welfare depends not only on the volume of consumption but also on the type or goods and services consumed.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

I. VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
Question 1. Define ‘depreciation’. [CBSE (Al) 2011]
Answer. Depreciation is an expected decrease in the value of fixed capital assets due to its general use.

Question 2. When is the net domestic product at market price less than the net domestic product at factor cost?
Answer.When net indirect taxes are negative i.e., subsidies are more than indirect taxes.

Question 3. Why is gross domestic product at factor cost more than the net domestic product at factor cost?
Answer. Gross domestic product at factor cost includes depreciation while net domestic product at factor cost does not include depreciation.

Question 4. When will GDP of an economy be equal to GNP?
Answer.GDP and GNP will be equal when the ‘net factor income from abroad’ is zero.

Question 5. When will the domestic income exceed the national income?
Answer. When the net factor income from abroad is negative.

Question 6. If NDPFC is Rs 1,0000 crores and NFIA is (-) Rs 500 crores, how much will be the national income?
Answer.National Income = 10000 + (-500)
= Rs 9500 Crore

Question 7. If the domestic factor income is Rs 50,000 crores and the national income is Rs 45,000 crores, how much will be the net factor income from abroad?
Answer. Net factor income from abroad = 45,000 – 50,000 = (-) Rs 5000 Crore

Question 8. Mention the three methods of measuring national income.
Answer.

1. Value added method
2. Income method
3. Expenditure method.

Question 9. Calculate the disposable income, if personal income is Rs 30,000 and the rate of income tax is 10%.
Answer. Disposable Income = 30,000 – (10% of 30,000) = ?27,000

Question 10. In which type of economy, domestic income will be equal to national income?
Answer. Closed economy.

Question 11. What is the value added method of measuring national income?
Answer. Value added method is the method that measures the national income by estimating the value added by each producing enterprises within the domestic territory of the country in an accounting year.

Question 12. When is value of output equal to value added?
Answer. Value of output is equal to value added if there are no intermediate costs.

Question 13. What aggregate do we get when we add up the gross value added of all the producing sectors of an economy?
Answer. Gross domestic product at market price.

Question 14. What is the rationale for not taking into account the value of intermediate goods in the measure of GDP?
Answer. To avoid the problem of double counting.

Question 15. If compensation of employees in a firm constitutes 65% of net value added at factor cost of a firm, find the proportion of operating surplus.
Answer. 100% – 65% = 35% (assuming mixed income is zero).

Question 16. What is nominal gross domestic product? [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Answer. When gross domestic product (GDP) of a given year is estimated on the basis of price of the same year, it is called nominal GDP.

Question 17. Define primary sector.[CBSE AI2013,]
Answer. It is the sector that produces goods by exploiting natural resources like land, water, forests, mines, etc. This sector includes agricultural and allied activities, fishing, mining and quarrying.

Question 18. Define secondary sector.
Answer. It is called manufacturing sector also. Enterprises in this sector transform one type of commodity into another type of commodity. For example: leather goods from leather, flour from wheat, sugar from sugarcane, etc.

Question 19. Define tertiary sector.
Answer. It is known as service sector also. Enterprises in this sector produce services only. Examples are banking, transport, communications etc.

II.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
Question 1. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) GDP at market price = GDP at factor cost plus net indirect taxes.
(b) NNP at factor cost = NNP at market price minus indirect taxes.
(c) GNP at market price = GDP at market price plus net factor income from abroad.
(d) None of them.
Answer. (a)

Question 2. National income differs from net national product at market price by the amount———–.
(a) current transfers from the rest of the world
(b) net indirect taxes
(c) national debt interest
(d) it does not differ
Answer. (b)

Question 3. Net national product at factor cost is————-.
(a) equal to national income
(b) less than national income
(c) more than national income
(d) sometimes less than national income and sometimes more than it
Answer.  (a)

Question 4. The net values added method of measuring national income is also known as—————-.
(a) net output method
(b) production method
(c) industry of origin method
(d) all of the above
Answer. (d)

Question 5. Identify the item which is not a factor payment:
(a) Free uniforms to defense personnel
(b) Salaries to the members of Parliament
(c) Imputed rent of an owner occupied a building .
(d) Scholarships given to the students of scheduled caste
Answer. (d)

Question 6. Mixed income of the self-employed means
(a) gross profits received by proprietors
(b) rent, interest and profit of an enterprise
(c) combined factor payments which are not distinguishable
(d) wages due to family workers
Answer. (c)

Question 7. Demand for final consumption arises in ——————-.
(a) household sector only
(b) government sector only
(c) both household and government sectors
(d) neither in households nor in government sector
Answer. (c)

Question 8. Demand for intermediate consumption arises in—————— .
(a) consumer households
(b) government enterprises only
(c) corporate enterprises only
(d) all producing sectors of an economy
Answer. (d)

Question 9. Which one of the following options is an economic activity?
(a) Listening to music on the radio.
(b) Teaching one’s own son at home.
(c) Medical facilities rendered by a charitable dispensary.
(d) A housewife doing household duties.
Answer. (c)

Question 10. Net value added is equal to—————– .
(a) payments accruing to factors of production
(b) compensation to employees
(c) wages plus rents
(d) value of output minus depreciation
Answer. (a)

Question 11. Per capita national income means:
(a) NNP/population
(b) Total capital population
(c) Population NNP
(d) None of them
Answer. (a)

Question 12. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) If national income rises, per capita income must also rise
(b) If population rises, per capita income must fall.
(c) If national income rises, welfare of the people must rise.
(d) None of them
Answer. (d)

III. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3-4 Marks)
Question 1. Distinguish between domestic product and national product. When can domestic product be more than national product? [CBSE (Al) 2009]
OR
Differentiate between Domestic Income (NDPFC) Vs National Income (NNPFC).
Answer. 

Domestic product will be greater than national product when net factor income from abroad is negative.

Question 2. Differentiate between Gross Domestic Product at Market Price Vs National Income.
Answer. 

Question 3. Differentiate between National Income at constant price and national income at current price?
Answer. 

Question 4. Distinguish between real and nominal gross domestic product.[CBSE(AI) 2010]
Or
Discuss any two differences between GDP at constant prices and GDP at current Prices.[CBSE Sample Paper 2016]
Answer. 

Question 5. Explain how ‘externalities’ are a limitation of taking gross domestic product as an index of welfare. [CBSE Foreign 2011]
Answer. 

1. When the activities of somebody result in benefits or harms to others with no payment received for the benefit and no payment made for the harm done, such benefits and harms are called externalities.
2. Activities resulting in benefits to others are positive externalities and increase welfare; and those resulting in harm to others are called negative externalities, and thus decrease welfare.
3. GDP does not take into account these externalities.
4.  For example, construction of a flyover or a highway reduces transport cost and journey time of its users who have not contributed anything towards its cost. Expenditure on construction is included in GDP but not the positive externalities flowing from it. GDP and positive externalities both increase welfare. Therefore, taking only GDP as an index of welfare understates welfare. It means that welfare is much more than it is indicated by GDP.
5.  Similarly, GDP also does not take into account negative externalities. For examples, factories produce goods but at the same time create pollution of water and air. River Yamuna, now a drain, is a living example. The pollution harms people. The factories are not required to pay anything for harming people. Producing goods increases welfare but creating pollution reduces welfare. Therefore, taking only GDP as an index of welfare overstates welfare. In this case, welfare is much less than indicated by GDP.

Question 6. Explain how “Non-Monetaiy exchanges’ are a limitation in taking gross domestic product as an index of welfare.[CBSE(AI) 2011]
Answer. 

1. There are many goods and services which are left out of estimation of national income on account of practical estimation difficulties e.g., services of housewives and other members, own account production, etc.
2.  These are left on account of non¬’ availability of data and problem in valuation.
3. It is generally agreed that these items contribute to economic welfare.
4. So, if we depend only on GDP, we would be underestimating economic welfare.

Question 7. Explain how distribution of ‘Gross Domestic Product’ is a limitation in taking gross domestic product as an index of welfare.[CBSE Delhi 2010, 2011]
Answer. 

1. All people do not earn the same amount of income. Some earn more and some earn less. In other words, there is unequal distribution of income.
2. At the same time, it is also true that in the event of rise in ‘per capita real income’ all are not better off equally. ‘Per capita’ is only an average. Income of some may rise by less and of some by more than the national average. In case of some it may even fall.
3. It means that the inequality in the distribution of income may increase or decrease.
4. If it increase it implies that rich become more rich and the poor become more poor.
5. Utility of a rupee of income to the poor is more than to the rich. Suppose, the income of the poor declines by one rupee and that of the rich increases by one rupee. In such a case, the decline in welfare of the poor will be more than the increase in welfare of the rich.
6.  Therefore, if the rise in per capita real income inequality increases, it may lead to a decline in welfare (in the macro sense).

Question 8. State the various components of the income method that are used to calculate national income.[CBSE Sample Paper 2014]
Answer. 

1. Compensation of employees: The amount earned by employees from their employer, whether in cash or in kind or through any other social security scheme is known as compensation of employees.
2. Operating Surplus: It is the sum of income from property and income from entrepreneurship.
3. Mixed Income: Income of own account workers (like farmers, doctors, barbers, etc.) and unincorporated enterprises (like small shopkeepers, repair shops) is known as mixed income.
   Note: (i) To estimate amount of factor payments made by each producing unit.
   (ii) To add all factor incomes/payments within domestic territory to get domestic income, i.e., NDPFC.
   NDPFC = Compensation of employees + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
4.  Net factor income from Abroad(NFIA): NFIA is the difference between income earned by normal residents from rest of the world and similar payments made to Non residents within the domestic territory. Addition of NFIA to NDPFC to get NY, i.e., NNPpc.
   NNPFC = NDPFC + NFIA

Question 9. Define double counting. How can the problem of double counting be avoided?
Answer.  If a single transaction is recorded twice or more than twice in the calculation of national income, then it is known as double counting.
The problem of double counting is solved by value added method. Theoretically to avoid double counting there may be two alternative ways:

1. Final Product Approach
2.  Value Added Approach

1. Final Product Approach: According to this, value of only final products, i.e. which go for final consumption or capital formation should be included. But in practical application of this approach double counting still creeps in as every producer treats the product he sells as final whereas the same might have been used as intermediate product by the buyer.
2.  Value Added Approach: Value added method is most effective in avoiding double counting. According to this, instead of taking value of final goods, only value added at each stage of production by a producing unit is taken. Value added of a firm by subtracting intermediate consumption from value of output.

IV. TRUE OR FALSE
Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
Question 1. In a closed economy, gross national product is always equal to gross domestic product.
Answer.  True: When net factor income from abroad is zero i.e., income from abroad is equal to income to abroad.

Question 2. Gross investment can be equal to net investment.
Answer.  True: It is possible when depreciation is zero.

Question 3. Domestic Income of a country can be more than its National income.
Answer. True: It can happen when NFIA is negative i.e., factor income paid to abroad is more than factor income received from abroad.

Question 4. Market price is always more than factor cost.
Answer. False: Market price can be less than factor cost if net indirect taxes (NIT) are negative. Market price can also be equal to factor cost if NIT is zero.

Question 5. Measurement of national income at current prices provides a reliable base of comparison.
Answer.  False: National Income at ‘Constant Prices’ provides a reliable base of comparison.

Question 6. Nominal GDP can never be less than Real GDP.[CBSE Sample Paper 2010]
Answer.  False: Nominal GDP can be less than real GDP, if prices in the current year are less than the prices in the base year.

Question 7. Net capital gains from the sale of property is a part of domestic factor income.
Answer.  False: It is not a part of domestic factor income. It is. a sale of property and not of factors.

Question 8. Change in stock is not a part of Capital formation.
Answer. False: Change in stock is a part of domestic capital formation.

Question 9. Brokerage paid on sale of shares and income from shares purchased is not a part of national income.
Answer.  False: Brokerage paid on sale of shares or any other item is a part of national income.

Question 10. Salary of Pakistan worker, working in Indian Embassy is not a national income of India.
Answer.  True: It is an expenditure made by- Indian Embassy. It is a part of Indian domestic income.

Question 11. Income tax paid is not a part of national income.
Answer.  False: Income tax paid is part of national income. It is included in profit and individual income.

Question 12. Income from imputed rent of self- occupied houses is a part of national income.
Answer.  True: It is an estimated amount of . rent. If rented to any other person, he would receive the amount of rent.

Question 13. Net profit of any Bank of India’s branch in USA will not be included in Indian National income.
Answer.  False: Net profit of any Bank of India at USA branch is a part of national income of India.

Question 14. Exports do not form a part of domestic factor income.
Answer.  False: Exports are made from domestic production. It is a part of domestic factor income.

Question 15. Gross domestic product at market price includes net factor income from abroad and net indirect taxes.
Answer.  False: GDPMP does not include net factor income from abroad but includes net indirect taxes.

Question 16. Gross National Product is always less than Gross National expenditure.
Answer. False: Gross national product is always equal to gross national expenditure.

Question 17. Exports are a part of net factor income from abroad.
Answer.  False: Exports are a part of domestic income. Exports are sent from home production.

Question 18. Real GDP includes domestic income at current prices.
Answer.  False: Real GDP is taken at some constant prices. It does not have the influence of price fluctuations.

Question 19. National disposable income includes current transfers income of government.
Answer.  False: National income includes income of government sector in the form of receiving of taxes.

Question 20. Private income does not include net factor income from abroad.
Answer.  False: Private income is a national concept. It also includes net factor income from abroad.

Question 21. Personal income does not include income from personal taxes.
Answer.  False: Personal income includes personal taxes, but not corporate taxes.

Question 22. Personal disposable income is equal to aggregate consumption and savings.
Answer. True: Personal disposable income can be disposed upon consumption and savings both.

Question 23. Private income includes earned incomes of private sector from all sources.
Answer.  False: Private income includes both earned income (factor income) as well as unearned income (transfer income) of private sector from all sources.

Question 24. National disposable income is the disposable income of private sector.
Answer.  False: It is the disposable income of the whole country (public sector and private sector).

Question 25. Travelling allowance paid by employer is a part of national income.
Answer.  False: Travelling allowances are paid by an employee and then recovered from employer. It is not a part of national income

Question 26. Consumption of food grains by farmer himself is not a part of national output.
Answer.  False: It is a part of domestic output. It is a part of national income.

Question 27. Sale of second hand car is not included in national income.
Answer.  True: It’s original sale has already been included in national income of previous year. If done it will be case of double counting.

Question 28. Rent received by an American from Reliance Industries with respect to building located in India will neither be included in national income nor in domestic income of India.
Answer.  False: Such rent will be included in domestic income of India as building is located within the domestic territory of India

Question 29. Purchase of car by a consumer is a part of gross domestic capital formation.
Answer.  False: It is a part of private final consumption expenditure.

Question 30. Goods produced for self-consumption will be included in national income.
Answer.  True: Such goods contribute to the current output and their imputed value will be included in national income.

Question 31. Gross domestic capital formation is always greater than gross fixed capital formation. [CBSE Sample Paper 2010]
Answer.  False: Gross domestic capital formation can be less than gross fixed capital formation if change in stock is negative.
Note: As per CBSE guidelines, no marks will be given if reason to the answer is not explained.

V. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(6 Marks)
Question 1. Calculate GNP at FC from the following data by

1. income method, and
2. expenditure method. [CBSE 2002]

Answer. 

1. NDPFC = Compensation of employees (Wages and salaries + Employer’s contribution towards social security scheme) + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
   = [(i) + (viii)] + (iii) + (ii)
   = [800 + 100] + 600 + 160 = 900 + 600 + 160 = 1660 Crore GNPFC = NDPFC + Depriciation (Gross capital formation – Net capital Formation) + Net Factor Income from abroad = 1660 + [(H) – (nil) + (6c)]
   = 1660 + [330-300] + (-20)]
   = 1660 + 30 – 20 = 1670 Crore
2.  GDPMP = Government final consumption expenditure (Public final consumption expenditure) + Private final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic Capital formation + Net export (Export – Import)
   = (xiii) + (xii) + (v) + [(x) – (xi)]
   = 450 + 1000 + 330 + [30 – 60]
   = 1750 Crore .
   GNPFC = GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad – Net Indirect Tax = 1750 + (be) – (xiv)
   = 1750 + (- 20) – 60 = 1750 – 20 – 60 = 1670 Crore

Question 2.Calculate “Gross National Product at Factor Cost” from the following data by (a) Income method, and (b) Expenditure method:[CBSE 2009]

Answer. NDPFC = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus( profit + Rent + Interest + Mixed Income
= (iv) +[(iii) + (v) + (viii)] + 0 = 800 + [400 + 250 + 150]
= 800 + 800 = 1600 Crore GNPFC = NDPFC + Depreciation (Consumption of fixed Capital) + Net factor Income from abroad = 1600 + (vii) + (x)
= 1600 + 60 + (-10) = 1650 Crore GDPMP = Government final consumption expenditure + Private final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic capital formation (Net domestic capital formation + consumption of fixed capital) + Net export = (x) + (i) + [(ii) + (vii)] + (xi)
= 500 + 1000 + [200 + 60] + (- 20)
= 500 + 1000 + 260 – 20 = 1740 Crore GNPFC = GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad – Net Indirect Tax
= 1740 + (x) – (xii)
= 1740 + (-10] – 80 = 1650 Crore

Question 3. From the following data, calculate (a) Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost and (b) Factor Income To Abroad:[CBSE 2010]

Answer.  (a) NDPFC = Compensation of employees + Operating surplus (Profit + Rent + Interest) + Mixed income
= (i) + P) + (v) + M] + 0 = 800 + [200 + 150 + 100]
= 800 + 450 = 1250 Crore Note: Gross domestic capital formation = Net fixed capital formation + Depreciation + Change in stock (vii) = (viii) + Depreciation + (ix)
300 = 200 + Depreciation + 50 Depreciation = 300 – 250 = 50 GDPFC = NDPFC + Depriciation = 1250 + 50 = 1300 Crore (b) GNPMP = GDPFC + NFIA (Factor income from abroad – Factor income paid to abroad) + Net indirect tax (iv) = 1300 + [(x) – Factor income paid to abroad] + (xi)
1400 = 1300 + (60 – Factor income paid to abroad) + 120 1400 = 1480 – Factor income paid to abroad Factor income paid to abroad = 1480 – 1400 = 80 Crore

Question 4. Calculate (a) Private Income and (b) Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost: [CBSE 2013, C, Set-I]

Answer.  Personal Disposable Income = Personal income – Direct taxes paid by households – Miscellaneous receipts of government
(xi) = Personal Income – (iv) – (i)
200 = Personal income – 30 – 5 Personal Income = 235 Arab Private Income = Personal Income + Retained profits (Savings of private corporate sector) + Corporate Tax = 235 + (iii) + (ii)
= 235 + 10 + 20 = 265 Arab „ Private income = NNPFC – Income from Domestic Product Accruing to Public Sector (Income from Property and Entrepreneurship accruing to government Administrative Departments + Saving of Non Departmental Enterprises) + National Debt interest + Current transfers from Government + Net Current transfers from rest of the world ,
265 = NNPFC – [(x) + (ii)] + (viii) + (ix) + (vii) ]
265 = NNPFC – (12 + 3) + 15 + 8 + 4
NNPFC = 265 + 15 – 27 = 253 Arab
GDPFC = NNPFC + Consumption of fixed capital – Net factor income from abroad
= 253 + (xii) – [-(v)]
= 253 + 11 + 6 = 270 Arab

Question 5. Calculate (a) Private Income and (b) National Income:

Answer. Personal Disposable Income =Personal Income – Direct Taxes paid by households – Miscellaneous receipts of Government
(i) = Personal Income -(v)- (iii)
120 = Personal income – 15 – 4 Personal Income =139 Arab (Billion) Private Income = Personal Income + Undistributed profits of private sector + Corporate Tax = 139 + (vii) + (vi)
= 139 + 3 + 6 = 148 Arab Private income = NNPFC – Income from Domestic Product Accruing to Public Sector (Income from Property and Entrepreneurship accruing to Government Administrative Departments + Saving of Non-Departmental Enterprises) + National Debt interest + Current transfers from government + Net Current transfers from rest of the world
148 = NNPFC – [(ii) + (ix)] + (viii) + (xi) + (iv) ,
148 = NNPFC-(5+ 15) + 16 + 2+ 10
NNPFC = 148 + 20 – 28 = 140 Arab

Question 6. Find out Gross National Product at Market price and Net National Disposable Income from the following:
Answer.  GDPMP = Government final consumption expenditure+Private final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic Capital formation (Net domestic Fixed capital formation + consumption of fixed capital + Change in stocks (closing stock – opening Stock) + Net Export = (vi) + (ii) + {(ix) + (vii) + [(iv) – (i)]} + (-viii) = 300+ 1000+ {150+ 30 + [40-50]}+ (-20) = 300 + 1000 + 170 – 20 = 1450 Arab GNPMP = GDPMP + Net factor income from abroad = 1450 + (-v)
= 1450 +[- (-10)] = 1460 Arab NNPFC = GNPMP – consumption of fixed capital – net indirect tax = 1460 – (vii) – 0 = 1460 – 30 = 1430 Arab
NNDI = NNPFC + NIT + Net current transfer from rest of the world (abroad) = 1430 + 0 + (-iii)
= 1430 + (-5) = 1425 Arab

VI. HIGHER ORDER THINKING SKILLS
Question 1. Explain the components of NFIA.[3-4 Marks]
Answer.  There are three components of NFIA.

1.  Net Compensation of Employees: The net compensation of employees receivable from the rest of the world is equal to the difference between compensation of employees received by resident workers who are living temporarily abroad or are employed abroad , and similar payments made to non- residents workers that are temporarily staying or are employed within the domestic territory of the country.
2. Met Income From Property and Entrepreneurship: Net income from property and entrepreneurship is equal to the difference between the income received by way of interest, rent and profits by the residents of a country and similar payments made to the rest of the world.
3. Net Retained Earnings of Resident Companies Abroad: Retained earnings refers to the undistributed profits of the companies. Resident companiesft.e. companies belonging to one country and working in the domestic territory of some other country) retain a part of their profits for further investment abroad. Likewise, foreign companies and their branches retain a part of their profits in the countries of their operation.

The difference between the retained earnings of resident companies located abroad and retained earnings of the foreign companies located in a country is equal to the net retained earnings from abroad.
Note: It must be noted that NFIA is zero in a closed economy as such economy does not deal with the rest of the world sector.

Question 2. Differentiate between National income and Private income. [3-4 Marks]
Answer. 

VII. VALUE BASED QUESTIONS
Question 1. Why do non market economic activities, like

1.  Services of housewives
2. Voluntary services and
3.  Leisure time activities

help in the flow of goods and services of a country. But why are these not included in the estimation of national income? [ 1 Mark]

Answer.  They are not included in national income, because of non-availability of data and problem in measuring the proper monetary values of these services.
Value : Implication of knowledge.

Question 2. The given set of prices which is used for finding out real per capita income, should change frequently. Why? [ 1 Mark]
Answer. If the given set of prices used for assessing real per capita income changes frequently, then virtually what we get is nominal per capita income and this defeats the purpose of using or calculating the real per capita income.
Value : Critical thinking

Question 3. Why comparing the GDPs of various nations might not tell you which nation is better off? [ 1 Mark]
Answer. The well being of nation or standard of living of people is measured by per capita income (GDP / Total Population) and distribution pattern of income not only by GDP.
Value : Critical thinking

Question 4. GDP Calculation do not directly include the social costs of environmental damages, for example, global warming, acid rain. Do you think these costs should be included in GDP? Why or Why not? [ 1 Mark]
Answer.  Yes, because people’s well-being is affected by these environmental damages. No, it is very difficult to assess real damages in monetary terms.
Value : Awareness about social cost of GDP.

Question 5. GDP growth rate in India for the last few years is more than 6% but still more than 28% of population is lying below poverty line. Explain any two factors responsible for it. [ 1 Mark]
Answer.  There are two factors,

1. Unequal distribution of GDP
2. Rise in price level Value : Social awareness

Question 6. Should we take real per capita income as an index of economic welfare? If not, why? [1 Mark]
Answer. Real per capita income cannot be taken as an index of economic welfare because there are many items and transactions relating to national income that have no connection with real GDP such as production of defence goods. Also it does not take into account any transaction related to illegal activities, black money and production of services for self-consumption.
Value : Critical thinking

Question 7. Rakesh pays Rs 1,000 towards premium on his full life policy with the LIC. Is this a part of compensation of employees? [1 Mark]
Answer. No, any contribution made by an employee himself to any insurance scheme is not a part of compensation to employee. Value: Analytic

Question 8. How will you treat Rs 20,000 earned per month by Mr Rajesh against hiring out his bus to a neighboring school?[1 Mark]
Answer. Income earned by way of lease is rental income, and hence form part of operating surplus and is included in national income.
Value: Analytic

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Macro Economics National Income and RelatedAggregates appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Contemporary South Asia

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Identify the country:
(a) The struggle among pro-monarchy, pro-democracy groups and extremists created an atmosphere of political instability.
(b) A landlocked country with multi¬party competition.
(c) The first country to liberalise the economy in the South Asian region.
(d) In the conflict between the military and pro-democracy groups, the military has prevailed over democracy.
(e) Centrally located and shares borders with most of the South Asian Countries.
(f) Earlier the island had the Sultans as the head of state. Now, it is a republic.
(g) Small savings and credit cooperatives in the rural areas have helped in reducing poverty.
( h ) A landlocked country with a monarchy.
Answer. (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan
(c) India (d) Pakistan
(e) India (f) Maldives
(g) India (h) Nepal

2. Which among the following statements about South Asia is wrong?
(a) All the countries in South Asia are democratic.
(b) Bangladesh and India have signed an agreement on river-water sharing.
(c) SAFTA was signed at the 12th SAARC Summit in South Asian politics.
(d) The US and China play an influential role in South Asian politics.
Answer. (a) All the countries in South Asia are democratic.

3. What are some of the commonalities and differences between Bangladesh and Pakistan in their democratic experiences?
Answer. Bangladesh has been the part of Pakistan itself. Both of these countries bear some similarities and differences as follows:
Commonalities
1. Both Bangladesh and Pakistan were under a military rule.
2. At both the places, the struggle for democracy took place in their own way.
3. Pakistan’s administration began under the command of General Ayub Khan and gave up due to dissatisfaction among people giving way to Yahya’s military rule and continued with the army rule though elections were held by military rulers to give a democratic shape to their own rule.
4. In the same way, Bangladesh drafted its own constitution to begin with democracy. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman formed presidential setup by abolishing all the parties except Awami Legue. But after his assassination the new military ruler Zia-ur-Rahman formed his own party and won elections in 1979. Later on he was also assassinated and another military leader Lt. Gen. H.M. Ershad took over. Differences
1. In Pakistan, military, clergy and land-owning aristocrats dominated socially to overthrow elected government whereas in Bangladesh the leaders and their party members dominated for the same.
2. Pro-military groups have become more powerful due to conflict with India in Pakistan whereas in Bangladesh, pro-military groups are powerful due to friendship and encouragement of India.

4. List three challenges to democracy in Nepal.
Answer. The three challenges to democracy in Nepal were the result of a triangular conflict between-
1. the monarchist forces
2. the democrats
3. the Maoists
These challenges created massive, countrywide, pro-democracy protest in April 2006.

5. Name the principal players in the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. How do you assess the prospects of the resolution of this conflict?
Answer. The principal players in the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka were Sinhala and Sri Lankan Tamils.
After its independence, politics in Sri Lanka was dominated by the interests of Sinhala community who was hostile to Tamils, who migrated from India to be settled there. Sinhalese presumed Sri Lanka to be belonged to them only, hence no concession should be given to Tamils. This created militant Tamil nationalism
i. e. ‘Ethnic conflict’.
Despite the revenges of internal conflict Sri Lanka has maintained democratic political system and registered considerable economic growth and high level of human development.

6. Mention some of the recent agreements between India and Pakistan. Can we be sure that the two countries are well in their way to a friendly relationship?
Answer. Although Indo-Pakistan relations seem to be the story of endemic conflict and violence, there have been a series of efforts to manage tensions and build peace under the various agreements:
1. Agreed to undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
2. Social activists and prominent personalities have collaborated to create an atmosphere of friendship.
3. Leaders have met at summits to better understanding.
4. Bus routes have been opened up between these two countries.
5. Trade between the two parts of Punjab has increased substantially in the last five years.
6. Visas have been given more easily. No, despite the above mentioned agreements and initiatives, we can not be sure that both the countries are well in their way to friendship, still some areas of conflict exist there to be sorted out,

7. Mention two areas each of cooperation and disagreement between India and Bangladesh.
Answer. Disagreement
1. Differences over the sharing of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters.
2. Illegal immigration to India.
3. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory.
4. Not to export natural gas to India.
Cooperation
1. Economic relations have been improved considerably within last ten years.
2. Bangladesh is the part of India’s ‘Look East’ policy to link up with southeast Asia via Myanmar.
3. Cooperated on the issues of disaster management and environment.
4. Cooperation on identifying common threats and being more sensitive to each other’s needs.

8. How are the external powers influencing bilateral relations in South Asia? Take any one example to illustrate your point.
Answer. The external powers influence bilateral relations in South Asia because no region exists in the vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers:
1. China and the US remain key players in South Asian politics.
2. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
3. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
4. The US enjoys good relations with both India and Pakistan and works as a moderator in Indo-Pak relations.
5. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have increased the depth of American participation. . _
6. The large South Asian economy remains in the US and the huge size of population and markets of the region give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace.

9. Write a short note on the role and the limitations of SAARC as a forum for facilitating economic cooperation among the South Asian Countries.
Answer. Role of SAARC: Role of SAARC can be identified as follows:
1. ‘South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation’ (SAARC) is a regional initiative among South Asian states to evolve cooperation since 1985 onwards.
2. It consists of seven members to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to free trade zones for wThole south Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected on economic development of its member states to reduce their dependencies on the non-regional powers.
Limitations: SAARC is growing slowly due to political differences among its member states—
1. Only the conflicts led to bilateral issues as Kashmir problem between India and Pak.
2. Some of the India’s neighbours fear that India intends to dominate them by influencing their societies and politics.
3. SAARC members are from among the developing or least developing countries which creates insufficiency of funds.

10. India’s neighbours often think that the Indian government tries to dominate and interfere in the domestic affairs of the smaller countries of the region. Is this a correct impression?
Answer. No, the impression is not correct because India makes efforts to manage its neighbours beyond its size and powers which can be justified on following grounds-
1. India often feels exploited by its neighbours.
2. On the other hand, India’s neighbours fear that India wants to dominate them regionally but India is centrally located who shares borders with other countries geographically, which should be accepted on mutual understanding.
3. India avoids political instability in its neighbouring states so that outsiders should not take advantage of influence in the region.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Fill in the blanks:
The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by the members of in the year
Ans. SAARC, 2004.

2. Whose mediation resolved the Indus River water dispute between India and Pakistan? 
Answer. The World Bank.

3. How long did East and West Pakistan remain together?
Answer. From 1947 to 1971.

4. What was the reason for the formation of SAARC?
Answer. The states of South Asia recognised cooperation and friendly relations among themselves which gave birth to the formation of SAARC for mutual trust and understanding among its member states.

5. What is the full form of SAARC?
Answer. SAARC: South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.

6. Mention present status of Sri Lanka.
Answer. Sri Lanka has maintained a democratic political system alongwith a considerable economic growth i.e. Sri Lanka is one of the first developing countries to control population growth rate, liberalised economy and bears highest per capita Gross Domestic Product despite ongoing conflicts.

7. What does the MDP stand for?
Answer. MDP stands for Maldivian Democratic Party.

8. Who took the command over Pakistan after its first constitution was framed?
Answer. General Ayub Khan.

9. What does SPA stand for?
Answer. SPA stands for Seven Party Alliance to protest against monarchy in Nepal.

10. What was the former name of Sri Lanka?
Answer. Ceylon.

11. Mention changes that occurred in Maldives.
Answer. 1. Transformed into a republic with a presidential form of government in 1968.
2. In June 2005, parliament voted unanimously to introduce multi¬party system.
3. Democracy strengthened after 2005 elections.

12. What is meant by Geo-politics?
Answer. Geo-politics refers togetherness of countries who are bound with each other geographically and their interests are also interlinked politically and economically.

13. What do you mean by South Asia?
Answer. South Asia signifies a group of seven countries i.e. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and the Maldives who stand for diversity in every sense but still constitute one geo¬political space.

14. How did LTTE emerge?
Answer. LTTE emerged 1983 onwards on the negligence of Tamil interest by Sri Lanka government. Hence, ‘Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam’ (LTTE) took birth demanding a seperate state for Tamil in Sri Lanka.

15. What does SAFTA stand for?
Answer. SAFTA: South Asian Free Trade Area Agreement.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Mention the names of member states of SAARC.
Answer. India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Maldives.

2. Mention any two objectives of SAARC.
Answer. 1. To provide an integrated programme for regional development.
2. To accelerate economic growth, social progress in the region.

3. “Democracy in South Asia has expanded the global imagination of democracy”. Do you agree? Justify. 
Answer. The various countries in South Asia have experienced mixed record of democracies and the people also share an aspiration for democracy to be flourished not only in rich or developed countries but in developing and underdeveloped countries also which can be drawn from the examples of Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives, because—
1. Every ordinary citizen, rich or poor belonging to different religions view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
2. They prefer democracy over any other form of democracy and think that democracy is suitable for their country.

4. Explain the problems that India have with Pakistan.
Answer. India have following problems with Pakistan:
1. The problem of Kashmir on the issues of Pak occupied Kashmir (Pok) and Line of Control (LOC). India claims Kashmir to be its integral part and Pakistan refuses to accept it. Hence, wars took place in 1965 and 1971, but issue remained unsettled.
2. Problems over starting issues like control of Siachin glacier and over acquisition of arms involved both the states acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against each other in 1990s.
3. Pakistan government has been blamed for using a strategy of low key violence by helping Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against India.
4. Pak’s spy agency Inter Services Intelligence (ISI) is alleged to involve in various anti India campaigns.

5. “Military rule and democracy are the two sides of a coin in Pakistan”. Examine the statement.
Answer. Military rule and democracy co-exist or are the two sides of a coin can be examined with the following facts:
1. After the implementation of first constitution in Pakistan, General Ayub Khan took the command, but was overthrown by military general Yahya Khan due to dissatisfaction of rule.
2. Again in 1971, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto formed an elected government which was later removed by General Zia-ul- Haq in 1977.
3. 1982 onwards, pro-democracy movements took place resulting an elected democratic government in 1988 under leadership of Benazir Bhutto, replaced by Nawaz Sharif.
4. Nawaz Sharif was again removed by General Pervez Musharraf in 1999 and in 2005, he got himself elected as president but was later dethroned by the court.

6. What is Indus River Water Treaty? Mention its significance also.
Answer. India and Pakistan signed Indus River Water Treaty by the mediation of the world bank in 1960 over the issue of sharing of rivers of the Indus basin. This treaty has been survived despite many military conflicts between these two countries. .

7. Why did India help Bangladesh to get independence and how?
Answer. Bangladesh was created by the support of India because:
1. West Pakistan did not allow Awami League, an East Pakistani Party to form government despite winning all the seats.
2. East Pakistanis rebelled against and were suppressed by the army of West Pakistan, resulting large scale migration into India.
3. This created huge refugee problem for India.
4. Hence, India supported the demand of East Pakistanis financially and militarily.
5. In December 1971, a war took place between India and Pakistan and ended with the surrender of Pakistani forces by forming Bangladesh as an independent country.

8. Mention some points of agreement between India and Nepal.
Answer. India and Nepal enjoy the following agreements:
1. Allow their citizens to travel and work without visas and passport.
2. India is the largest aid giver to Nepal to provide financial and technical assistance in areas of trade, scientific cooperation, common natural resources and electricity generation.

9. Mention the features of SAFTA.
Answer. South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:
1. Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole south Asia.
2. To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

10. Mention some other conflicts in South Asia except with that of India.
Answer. 1. Nepal and Bhutan as well as Bangladesh and Myanmar have disagreement over the migration of ethnic Nepalese into Bhutan and Rohingyas into Myanmar.
2. Bangladesh and Nepal bear some differences over the future of Himalayan river water.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Despite the mixed record of democratic experience, the people of all the countries of South Asia share the aspiration of democracy.
Answer. The various countries in South Asia have experienced mixed record of democracies and the people also share an aspiration for democracy to be flourished not only in rich or developed countries but in developing and underdeveloped countries also which can be drawn from the examples of Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives, because:
1. Every ordinary citizen, rich or poor and belonging to different religions view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy.
2. They prefer democracy over any other form of democracy and think that democracy is suitable for their country.

2. Describe any two major issues of conflicts between India and Pakistan leading to the war of 1971.
Answer. The 1947-48 war resulted in the division of the province into Pakistan occupied Kashmir (Pok) and the Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir divided by the Line of Control (LOC). Pakistan claims Kashmir to be its part but India presumes it to be its integral part. Hence, these conflicts led to war in 1971 and India won but the issues remain unsettled.

3. Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971.
Ans. 1. India supported the demand of East Pakistan financially and militarily.
2. The war of 1971 made Pakistani forces to surrender in East Pakistan.
3. Bangladesh was formed as an independent country.
4. Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.

4. Explain India’s changing relationship with Pakistan.
Answer. Although Indo-Pakistan relations seem to be story of endemic conflict and violence, there have been a series of efforts to manage tensions and build peace under the various agreements:
1. Agreed to undertake confidence building measures to reduce the risk of war.
2. Social activists and prominent personalities have collaborated to create an atmosphere of friendship.
3. Leaders have met at summits to create better understanding.
4. Bus routes have been opened up between these two countries.
5. Trade between the two parts of Punjab has increased substantially in the last five years.
6. Visas have been given more easily. Despite above mentioned agreements and initiatives, we cannot be sure that both the countries are well on their way to friendship, still some areas of conflict exist there to be sorted out.

5. Highlight any two issues of cooperation as well as confrontation each between India and Bangladesh.
Or
Explain any two points of conflict between India and Bangladesh.
Answer. Co-operation:
1. Economic relations have been improved considerably in last ten years.
2. Bangladesh is the part of India’s ‘Look East’ policy to link up South East Asia via Myanmar.
3. Both the countries have cooperated regularly on the issues of disaster management and environment.
Confrontation:
1. Bear differences over several issues including the sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputra river water.
2. India is unhappy on the issues of denial of illegal immigration, refusal to allow Indian troops and not to export natural gas to India.

6. What is meant by SAARC? How can peace and cooperation be enhanced through it?
Answer. SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation for mutual trust and understanding among states of South Asia.
Role of SAARC:
1. SAARC is a regional initiative among South Asian states to evolve cooperation since 1985 onwards.
2. It consists of seven member’s to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to form free trade zones for whole South Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected on economic development of its member states to reduce their dependencies on the non-regional powers.

7. Name the countries included in South Asia. How can peace and cooperation be enhanced in this region?
Answer. Countries included in South Asia are India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. South Asian countries are diverse in every sense, still constitute one geo¬political space by enhancing peace and cooperation in the following way-
1. People in all these countries share an aspiration of fair democracy.
2. South Asian members recognise the importance of cooperation and friendly relations among themselves.
3. SAARC is the regional initiative to evolve cooperation among member states.
4. SAARC members have signed South Asia Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) to free trade for the whole of south Asia.

8. How was democracy restored in Nepal over monarchy? Explain 
Answer. Nepal was a Hindu kingdom in the past and then a constitutional monarchy in the modern period for many years-
1. Throughout this period, the political parties and common people wanted to establish democracy, but the king retained full control with the help of army and restricted expansion of democracy.
2. The king accepted new democratic constitution in 1990 due. to pro-democracy movement but again in 2007, due to triangular conflict of monarchists, democrats and maoists, king abolished the parliament.
3. A massive countrywide pro¬democracy protest took place and achieved first major victory to force king to restore the house of representatives.
4. But Nepal’s transition to democracy is not complete. It is moving towards the framing of constituent assembly to France and its constitution.

9. Why did India and Nepal experience differences between themselves?
Ans. India and Nepal experience differences between themselves due to the following reasons-
1. Indian government expressed displeasure at the warm relationship between Nepal and China.
2. India is unhappy on inaction of Nepal government against anti-Indian elements.
3. The Maoist movement in Nepal is a security threat to India giving rise to Naxalite groups in various states of India from Bihar in the North to Andhra Pradesh in the South.

10. Mention some features of Indo-Bhutan relationship.
Answer. India does not have any major conflict with the Bhutanese government.
1. The efforts made by Bhutanese monarch to weed out the gurillas and militants from north-eastern India that operate in the country have been helpful to India.
2. India is involved in big hydroelectric projects in Bhutan and remains the Himalayan Kingdom’s biggest source of development aid.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with Bangladesh remaining democracy, in the Post Cold War period. Pakistan began the post cold war period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and-has been run by a military regime since then. Till 2006, Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position, from the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.

Questions
1. How did Pakistan begin with Post Cold War period?
2. Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
3. Why these findings are significant?
Answer.
1. Pakistan began with post cold war period with successive democratic government under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events, no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. China and the United States remain key players in South Asian politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.

Questions
1. Which two countries have been referred to as outside powers?
2. Which are the two Asian giants and why they have been called so?
3. China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan is a major irritant for which country and why?
Answer.
1. The US and China.
2. India and China, because both of them have been considered as rising economic powers in the world.
3. India, because China has been seen as a contributor to Pakistan’s nuclear programme.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Assess the positive and negative aspects of India’s relations with Bangladesh.
Answer. Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from 1947 to 1971. It consisted of the partitioned areas of Bengal and Assam from British India. The people of this region resented the domination of Western Pakistan and the imposition of Urdu language. Soon after the partition, they began protests against the unfair treatment meted out to the Bengali culture and language. They demanded autonomy for the eastern region. But the government dominated by the West Pakistan leadership refused their demand. The Pakistan army tried to suppress the mass movement of the Bengali people. Thousands were killed by the Pakistan army. This led a large scale migration into India, creating a huge refugee problem for India. The government of India supported the demand of the people of East Pakistan for their independence and helped them financially and militarily. This resulted in a war between India and Pakistan in December 1971 that ended in surrender of the Pakistan forces in East Pakistan and the formation of Bangladesh as an independent country.

2. How is the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) a major regional initiative by South Asian States to evolve co-operation through multilateral means? Assess.
Answer. Role of SAARC:
Role of SAARC can be identified in the following ways:
1. ‘South Asia Association for Regional Co-operation’ (SAARC) is a regional initiative among South Asian States to evolve cooperation since 1985 onwards.
2. It consists of seven members to encourage mutual harmony and understanding.
3. SAARC has initiated SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) to form free trade zones for whole South Asia for collective economic security.
4. SAARC has projected economic development of its member states to reduce their dependencies on the non-regional powers.
South Asian free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:
1. Formation of free trade zone for whole South Asia.
2. To lower trade tarrifs by 20%.
3. To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

3. Like India why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact that both the countries share a common part?
Or
Explain the factors responsible for Pak’s failure in building a stable democracy.
Or
Describe any two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan which can pave the way for establishing a lasting democratic setup over there?
Or
“Since 1947 Pakistan has been experimenting with democratic system and the military rule”. In the light of above statement explain any two reasons why democratic system has not been stable there?
Answer. The following factors are responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy:
1. The lack of genuine international support for a democratic rule in Pakistan has encouraged to military to continue its dominance. The US and other countries have also supported military rule due to fulfilling their own interests.
2. Pakistan’s conflict with India has made paramilitary groups more powerful which have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed, that Pakistan’s security would be harmed by selfish minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence army stay in power is justified.
3. The social dominance of military, clergy, and owning aristocracy has led to frequent overthrow of elected governments and the establishing of military governments.
4. Global Islamic Terrorism and their apprehension that Pakistan’s nuclear arsenal might fall into hands
of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistan was seen as the protector of western interests in West Asia and South Asia.
The two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan that can pave the way for establishing a lasting democratic set up over there are:
1. Pakistan bears a courageous and entirely free press.
2. Pakistan enjoys strong human rights movement.

4. What are the major differences between SAARC and European Union as an alternative centres of poor?
Answer. 1. The European Union bears economic political-diplomatic and military influence all over the region and its closest neighbours whereas SAARC is limited towards its South Asian Region only.
2. The member states of European Union are maximum from among the developed countries while SAARC members are from among least developed countries (LOCs)
3. The EU behaves like a nation state by having its own anthem and currency but SARRC does not enjoy these.
4. The EU performance as an important bloc in international economic organisations such as WTO but SAARC has initiated SAFTA only to cooperate economically among its member states.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
Al. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the equations speak about?
3. “I’m always good at calculations”. What does this represent?
Answer.
1. Dual role of Pakistan’s ruler Pervez
Musharraf as the president and as army General. ,
2. These equations speak about dominance of one person militarily more rather than only president.
3. It shows the nation that Musharraf wants to command the country militarily and administratively both to strengthen his power because president’s survival is not easy without military support.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Which animals do represent Sinhala and LTTE?
3. What does Sri Lankan leadership speak in the cartoon?
Answer.
1. Sri Lanka’s ethnic conflict between LTTE and Sinhala.
2. Sinhala by Lion, LTTE by Tiger.
3. Sri Lankan leadership is supposed to balance both Sinhala hardliners and Tamil militants while negotiating peace.

B. On a political outline map of world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. A landlocked country with multi-party competition.
2. Centrally located and shares borders with most South Asian Countries.
3. Earlier the island had Sultan as head, now its a republic.
4. A landlocked country with a monarchy.
5. Country, where military has prevailed over democracy
Answer.
1. Bhutan
2. India
3. Maldives
4. Nepal
5. Pakistan

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Contemporary South Asia appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 6 International Organisations

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the veto power:
(a) Only the permanent members of the Security Council possess the veto power.
(b) It’s a kind of negative power.
(c) The Secretary General uses this power when not satisfied with any decision.
(d) One veto can stall a Security Council resolution.
Answer. (a) Correct (b) Correct
(c) Wrong (d) Correct
(e) India (f) Maldives
(g) India (h) Nepal

2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the way the UN functions:
(a) All security and peace related issues are dealt within the Security Council.
(b) Humanitarian policies are implemented by the main organs and specialised agencies spread across the globe.
(c) Having consensus among five permanent members on security issues is vital for its implementation.
(d) The members of the General Assembly are automatically the members of all other principal organs and specialised agencies of the UN.
Answer. (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

3. Which among the following would give more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council?
(a) Nuclear capability
(b) It has been a member of the UN since its inception.
(c) It is located in Asia.
(d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system.
Answer. (d) India’s growing economic power and stable political system.

4. The UN agency concerned with the safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology is:
(a) The UN Committee on Disarmament
(b) International Atomic Energy Agency
(c) UN International Safeguard Committee
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (b) International Atomic Energy Agency

5. WTO is serving as the successor to which of the following organisations:
(a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) UN Development Programme
Answer. (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs

6. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The prime objective of UN is
(b) The highest functionary of the UN is called
(c) The UN Security Council has permanent and non permanent members.
(d) is the present UN Secretary General.
Answer. (a) to maintain peace and security
(b) Secretariat
(c) 5, 10
(d) Ban-ki-Moon

7. Match the principal organs and agencies of the UN with their functions:
A. 1. Economic and Social Council
2. International Court of Justice
3. International Atomic Energy Agency
4. Security Council
5. UN High Commission for Refugees
6. World Trade Organisation
7. International Monetary Fund
8. General Assembly
9. World Health Organisation
10. Secretariat
B. (a) Oversees the global financial system.
(b) Reservation of international peace and security.
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member countries.
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology.
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.
(i) Providing good health for all.
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
Answer. 1. Economic and Social Council—
(c) Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member
countries.
2. International Court of Justice—
(e) Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
3. International Atomic Energy Agency—
(d) Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology
4. Security Council—
(b) Reservation of international peace and security
5. UN High Commission for Refugees—
(f) Provides shelter and medical help during emergencies.
6. World Trade Organisations—
(j) Facilitates free trade among member countries.
7. International Monetary Fund—
(a) Overseas the global financial system.
8. General Assembly—
(g) Debates and discusses global issues.
9. World Health Organisation—
(j) Providing good health for all.
10. Secretariat—
(h) Administration and coordination of UN affairs.

8. What are the functions of Security Council?
Answer. Its main function is to maintain peace and security in the world and the other functions are as follows:
1. The Security Council recommends methods to adjust disputes among nations.
2. Security Council can take military action if required.
3. Security Council elects the judges of International Court of Justice and appoints the Secretary General by recommending to the General Assembly.
4. Security Council can apply economic sanction also to stop any aggression.
5. The Security Council can investigate the disputes in case a friction arises.

9. As a citizen of India, how would you support India’s candidature for the permanent membership of Security Council? Justify your proposal.
Answer. As a citizen of India, we may support India’s candidature for the permanent membership of Security Council in the following manner:
1. India is the most populous country in the world with one-fifth of world population.
2. India is world’s largest democracy.
3. India’s economic emergence on the World Stage.
4. India is a regular financial contributor to the UN.
5. India signifies a growing importance in world affairs in conduct of its foreign policy.
6. India participated in all the initiatives of the UN.

10. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN.
Answer. The following are the question marks in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN:
1. How big an economic and military power may qualify to become UNSC membership?
2. What level of budget contribution should be enabled?
3. No guarantee to be effective as Council Member in respect for democracy and human rights.
4. Why should the issue of equitable representation decided by geography? Why not by levels of economic development?
5. Why not to give more seats to members of developing world?
All the above mentioned criteria which were adopted bud not universally accepted. Hence, the difficulties were involved.

11. Though the UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation. What makes the UN an indispensable organisation?
Answer. 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international organisations such as the UN.
2. To enforce cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the world,, the UN and its specialised agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the best possible way.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing related wars and miseries, despite the nations require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace and understanding.

12. “Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council”. Do you agree with this statement? Give arguments for or against this position.
Answer. Yes, we agree with the statement because Security Council plays a crucial role in functioning of the UN. In today’s scenario power equations have been changed with the disintegration of USSR and many new countries are entering into the UN:
1. The UN charter has given a privileged position to permanent members to bring stability all over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
2. Except permanent members enjoy veto power to be placed in a valuable position.
3. Permanent members category is from industrialised developed country which should be balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members.
4. Hence, Security Council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more effective i.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of contribution to peace keeping initiatives.

MORE QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Who is present Secretary General of the United Nations?
Answer. Ban-Ki-Moon from South Korea.

2. Name any two member states of the European Union who are permanent members of the UN Security Council.
Answer. Britain and France

3. What is the main objective of the United Nations?
Answer. To prevent international conflict and to facilitate cooperation among states.

4. Mention any two agencies of the United Nations.
Answer. 1. International Monetary Fund.
2. World Health Organisation.
Ans. Amnesty International is an NGO, which was established to campaign for protection of human rights all over the world. Its objective is to promote respect for all the human beings and human rights in the universal declaration of Human Rights.

5. How many member countries have got veto power in the UN Security Council and why?
Answer. Five permanent member countries i.e France, Russia, UK, the US, China got veto power because they have been emerged as industrialised developed countries to stall any decision.

6. Mention any two advantages of having international organisation in the world?
Answer. 1. To help countries in the matters of conflicts and differences.
2. To make the countries cooperate and create better living conditions for humanity.

7. State any two objectives of the UN.
Answer. 1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To facilitate cooperation among member countries by avoiding conflicts and war.

8. State any two objectives of Human Rights watch.
Answer. 1. To draw global media’s attention to human rights abuses.
2. To help in building international coalitions like the campaigns to ban land-mines, to stop the use of child soldier, and to establish international criminal court.

9. What reforms in the UN are required?
Answer. Following reforms are required in the UN:
1. Reform of the organisation’s structures and processes.
2. A review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction of the organisation.
3. Reforms are required due to certain limitations to the UN i.e. only five members on permanent basis in the UN Security Council and their veto power, dominance of few powerful countries etc.

10. Discuss the resolution adopted by General Assembly in 1992 over the reform of the UN Security Council.
Answer. In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution, which reflected three main complaints:
1. The UN Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
2. Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few7 powers.
3. It lacks equitable representation. Considering above mentioned demands for restructuring of the UN on 01 January 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry into how the UN should be reformed.

11. What is the veto power? Should it be modified?
Answer. The veto power is a negative vote to stall any decision by five permanent members of UN Security Council. Sometimes the moves have been made to modify this but it is presumed to have a danger to lose interest by great powers, and without their support and involvement such organisation would become ineffective.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the U.N.
Answer. In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main complaints—
• The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
• Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
• It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?
1. India’s nuclear weapon capabilities
2. If India is included, some emerging powers (Brazil, Germany, Japan, South Africa) will also be accommodated.
3. France and the US advocate that Africa and South America must be represented for they do not have any representation in the present structure.

2. What steps should be taken to make the UN more relevant in the changing context?
Answer. (a) Creation of Peace Building Commission.
(b) Acceptance of responsibility of international community in case of failures of national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
(c) Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
(d) An agreement to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Countries have conflicteand differences with each other. That does not necessarily mean they must go to war to deal with their antagonisms. They can instead discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions, indeed, even though this is rarely noticed most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war. The role of an international organisation is not a super-state with authority over its members. It is created by and responds to states. It comes into being when states agree to its creation. Once created, it can help member states resolve their problems peacefully.

Questions
1. Is this necessary to engage into wars during conflicts among countries?
2. Is an international organisation a super state?
3. What is the significance of international organisation?
Answer.
1. No, instead countries can discuss contentious issues to find peaceful solutions.
2. No, it is created by and responds to states and comes into being when study agrees to its creation.
3. To help member states to resolve problems peacefully without going to war.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
By 2006, the UN had 192 member states. These included almost all independent states. In the UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each. In the UN Security Council, there are five permanent members. These are the US, UK, Russia, France, China. These states were selected as permanent members as they were most powerful immediately after the Second World War and because they constituted the victors in the war.

Questions
1. How many member states were there in the UN 2006?
2. Name five permanent members of UN Security Council.
3. Why these states were selected as permanent?
Answer.
1. There were 192 member states in the UN by 2006.
2. The UK, US, China, Russia and France are the permanent members.
3. Because they were most powerful immediately after the Second World War and constituted the victors in the war.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Describe any six criteria for the new membership of Security Council as suggested after 1997.
Answer. A new member, as suggested after 1997, should be
(i ) A major economic power
(ii) A major military power.
(iii) A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
(iv) A big nation in terms of its populations.
(v) A nation that respects democracy and human rights
(vi) A country that would make the Council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic system, and culture.

2. Examine the role played by India in the implementation of UN policies and programmes.
Answer. 1. India believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in the changing world.
2. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation among states.
3. India believes that the development
should be central to the UN’s agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of international peace and security.
4. India debates more representation in Security Council may enjoy greater support in world community.
5. India has major concern about restructuring of UN Security Council.
6. India supports the role of developing countries should be represented in Security Council in decision making.

3. How far did the UN perform its role successor fully in maintaining peace in the world? Explain.
Answer. 1. Interdependence and globalisation is not possible without the international organisations such as the UN.
2. To enhance cooperation on the issues of poverty, unemployment, environmental degradation, crime rate etc.
3. To provide financial assistance to developing countries to stabilise economy all over the world, the UN and its specialized agencies are always required.
4. The UN works as a forum to solve any international dispute among nations and sort out the best possible.
5. Hence, though the UN has failed in preventing any related wars and miseries, despite the nations require its continuation due to above mentioned reasons to promote international peace and understanding.

4. Suggest any six steps since 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.
Answer. In September 2005, the UN celebrated its 60th anniversary and leaders decided to make it more relevant in the changing context by following steps:
1. Creation of Peace Building Commission.
2. Acceptance of the responsibility of the international community in case of failures of national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
3. Establishment of a Human Rights Council (Operational Since 19 June 2006).
4. Agreements to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
5. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
6. Creation of a Democracy Fund.
7. An agreement to wind up the Trusteeship Council.

5. Can the UN serve as a balance against the US dominance?
Answer. No, the UN can not serve against the US dominance in a comfort zone because:
1. The US has been the only superpower after 1991 and may ignore international organisations economically and militarily.
2. Its veto power can stop any move damaging its interests.
3. The US enjoys a considerable degree of say in the selection of the UN Secretary General.
Besides the above mentioned grounds, the UN is playing an effective role to argument against the US attitudes and policies and makes compromises and concessions even or the part of the US. The EU performs as an important bloc in International Economic Organisations such as WTO but SAARC has initiated SAFTA only to cooperate economically among its member states.

Picture/Map Based Questions[5 Marks]
Al. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Who is the person being commented in the cartoon?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer.
1. It represents role of the UN on attack on Lebanan by Israeli forces.
2. The UN Secretary General.
3. It conveys message on relevance of the UN as immediate follow-up was not there by Israeli forces despite passing a resolution from the UN.

2. Study the picture  given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What type of crisis does the cartoon show?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer.
1. A humanitarian crisis in Darfur, Sudan.
2. Starvation, genocide, horror etc.
3. ‘A Big Helping of Words’ only because during these crises, the international organisations performed debates, speeches on these but no actual aid or support was reached to peoples.

B. On a political outline map of the world locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. Five permanent members of UN Security Council and symbolise them as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2. Locate and label peace keeping operations.
Answer.
1. 1. France 2. Russia
3. The UK
4. The US
5. China
2. (A) Cyprus 1964
(B) Lebanon 1978
(C) Israel 1974
(D) Sudan 2005
(E) East Timor 2006

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science International Organisations appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 7 Security in the Contemporary World

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Match the terms with their meaning:
1. Confidence Building Measures (CBMs)
2. Arms Control
3. Alliance
4. Disarmament
(a) Giving up certain types ofweapons.
(b) A process of exchanging information on defence matters between nations on a regular basis.
(c) A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against military attacks.
(d) Regulates the acquisition of development of weapons.
Answer. (i)-(b); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(a).

2. Which among the following would you consider as a traditional security concern/non-traditional/not a threat?
(a) The spread of chikungunya/dengue fever
(b) Inflow of workers from a neighbouring nation.
(c) Emergence of a group demanding nationhood for their region.
(d) Emergence of a group demanding autonomy for their region.
(e) A newspaper that is critical of the armed-forces in the country.
Answer. (a) Non-traditional (b) Non-traditional !(c) Traditional id) Not a threat
(e) Not a threat

3. What is the difference between traditional and non-traditional security? Which category would the creation and sustenance of alliances belong to?
Answer.

Creation and sustenance of alliances belong to traditional notion of security.

4. What are the differences in the threats that people in the third world face and those living in the First World face?
Answer. The threats are different in the third world and first world peoples because their regions are changed, hence they face different security challenges.in the following manner:
1. The newly independent countries faced the military conflicts even with their neighbouring states.
2. These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbours, but also from within.
3. Internally, new states worried about threats from separatist movements which wanted to form independent countries.
4. Sometimes, the external and internal threats merged.
5. For the new states, external wars with neighbours and internal wars posed a serious challenge to their security.

5. Is terrorism a traditional or non- traditional threat to security?
Answer. Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to wound the peace and order in the country:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are usually terrorised to be it as a weapon against national government and other parties in the conflict.
3. Terrorism involves hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other crowded places.
4. After a terrorist attack on World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001, the other governments and public also are paying more attention to terrorism.

6. What are the choices available to a state when its security is threatened, according to traditional security perspective?
Answer. Traditional security perspective emphasises on compromises to limit the violence by giving following three choices to the state if its security is threatened:
1. To surrender when actually confronted by war, but they will not advertise this as the policy of country.
2. To prevent the other side from attacking by promising to raise the costs of war to an unacceptable level.
3. To defend to protect itself when war actually breaks out so as to deny the attacking country its objectives and to turn back or to defeat the attacking forces altogether
4. Hence, state’s security policy is to prevent war which is called deterrence and with limiting or heading war called defence.

7. What is Balance of Power? How could a state achieve this?
Answer. ‘Balance of Power’ is a balance between bigger and smaller countries by cooperating with each other economically and technologically. A smaller country is always suspicious to break out a war from bigger or powerful country. Hence, they maintain a balance of power to build up one’s military power together with economic and technological power-to protect one’s own security.

8. What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning military alliance with its specific objectives.
Answer. Objectives:
1. Alliance building is important component of traditional security to threats to deal between states and nations to deter or defend against military attacks.
2. Alliances are formalised in written treaties and identification of who constitutes the threats.
3. Alliances are formed to increase their effective power relative to another alliance.
4. Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interest change. Example-The US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in 1980s, but later attacked them when Al-Qaeda, a group of Islamic militants, led by Osama Bin Laden launched terrorist strikes against America on 11th September 2001.

9. Rapid environmental degradation is causing a serious threat to security. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.
Answer. Yes, we agree with the statement because in some situations one country may have to disproportionately bear the brunt of a global problem i.e. environmental degradation causing a serious threat to security, for example, due to global warming, a sea level rise of 1.5-2.0 meters would flood 20% of Bangladesh, inundate most of Maldives and threaten nearly half the population of Thailand, Hence, international cooperation is vital due to global nature of these problems.

10. Nuclear weapons as deterrence or defence have limited usage against contemporary security threats to states. Explain the statement.
Answer. Nuclear weapons have limited usage due to arms-control method of cooperation. One of the arms-control treaty was the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 to regulate the acquisition of nuclear weapons. As per this treaty those countries that had fasted and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

11. Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the arguments?
Answer. India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad components i e :
1. To strengthen its military capabilities because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is
surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998 was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions:
(a) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

12. Read the cartoon below and write a short note in favour or against the connection between war and terrorism depicted in this cartoon.

Answer. Terrorism is non-traditional threat to security as it is goal oriented political

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Define security.
Answer. Security is an essence for existence of human life to protect from threats either external or internal.

2. What is meant by disarmament?
Answer. Disarmament bounds states to give up certain kinds of weapons to avoid mass- destruction through signing various treaties.

3. Mention any two human rights in political field. 
Answer. 1. Freedom of speech and expression.
2. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.

4. Define cooperative security.
Answer. Cooperative security is the involvement of international cooperation depending on the nature of the threat and the willingness and ability of countries to respond.

5. Which is the greatest danger to a security as per traditional notion of security?
Answer. It is from military threats which lies in another country to endanger the core values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integration of a country.

6. Why human security is more important in the contemporary world than territorial security?weapon. It is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
2. Civilians are targeted to be terrorised to use it as a weapon into this war.
3. Even, the US superpower could not escape itself from terrorism and it became a global phenomenon i.e. terrorist attack on World Trade Tower on 11th September 2001
Answer. Human security is about the protection of people more than protection of states because, during the last 100 years more people have been killed by their own governments than by foreign armies:
1. Protecting citizens from foreign
attack ‘
2. Security from violent threats
3. Security from threats to human dignity.

7. What is Global Security?
Answer. Global Security implies protection from threats which may have effect on people and states globally. It emerged in 1990 to respond global warming, terrorism, health epidemics etc.

8. What is Global Poverty?
Answer. Global Poverty signifies a condition available in the states to be suffered from low incomes and less economic growth i.e. developing or underdeveloped countries.

9. Is the same notion of security applicable to all the states?
Answer. All states do not experience the same threats at a time, hence security is grouped into two as per requirements:
(a) Traditional conception
(b) Non-traditional conception

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Suggest any one effective step which would limit war or violence between countries.
Answer. An effective step may be in the form of cooperative security only that involves international cooperation which may be bilateral, regional, continental or global which depends on the nature of the threat and the willingness, and ability of countries to respond to limit war or violence cooperative security place at national and international levels.

2. Highlight any two threats of a country’s security at per traditional notion of security. 
Or
Explain traditional concept of security.
Answer. The “Traditional Notion of Security” covers both the external and internal threats of a country’s security. External threats consist of four components i.e. military threats, threat of war, balance of power, alliance building. Internal threats include maintenance of internal peace and order and recognise cooperative security to limit violence.

3. Write a note on Human Security.
Answer. Human Security refers to the protecting people more than protection of states which includes:
1. To protect citizens from foreign attack.
2. To secure people from violence.
3. To protect from individual economic threats.
4. To protect human dignity also.

4. What is military threat?
Answer. Military threat refers to military action from another country to endanger the core values of country’s sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity.Military action often targets the men and women i.e. ordinary citizens.

5. Mention some human rights.
Answer. Human rights are the basic conditions which an individual is supposed to be entitled as a human being for all round
development. These rights have been categorised as follows:
1. Political rights
2. Freedom of speech and expression
3. Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.
4. Economic rights
5. Social and civil rights
6. Rights of indigenous minorities

6. Human security stresses on “freedom from want” and “freedom from fear”. Justify the statement.
Answer. 1. ‘Freedom from want’ refers to economic equality i.e. equal opportunity and economic privileges.
2. ‘Freedom from fear’ refers to protection from hunger, disease, natural disaster, military threats, genocide and terrorism.

7. Explain Non-traditional concept of security.
Answer. Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover the states only but also the individual and communities.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Explain any four components of India’s security strategy.
Answer. (a) To strengthen its military capa¬bilities:
(i) India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971, 1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries.
(b) To strengthen international norms and institutions:
(i) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(ii) It used non-alignment to help to carry out an area of peace outside the blocs.
(c) To meet security challenges within country:
(i) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(ii) India has made efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
(d) To develop its economy:
(i) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(ii) A democraticallj^ elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

2. Identify and explain any four new sources of threats to security.
Answer. Four new sources of threats to security can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism is a war against democracy and a crime against humanity. It refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against national government. It has become a global phenomena because even superpower is not free from terrorist attacks.
2. Human rights are those basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human being. These rights include political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil rights and rights of indigenous people to lead as honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to a country’s security because severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue etc. diseases spread across countries through migration business, tourism and military operations.

3. How is global poverty a source of insecurity? Explain.
Answer. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries. It is a source of insecurity because:
1. Half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries- India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia, considered developing countries and even in poorest countries population is expected to triple in next 50 years.
2. Globally, this disparity contributes to the gap between the northern and southern countries of the world.
3. Poverty in south has also led a large migration to seek a better economic opportunities in the north.
4. All these created international political friction as international law and norms make a distinction between migrants and refugees as they do not get ready to accept migrants.

4. Which third weapon both the superpowers did not want to give up under the concept of disarmament?
Answer. Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of weapons i.e. the 1972 Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and 1992 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) banned the production and possession of these weapons. Despite the US and Soviet Union were not ready to give up the third type of weapons of mass-destruction namely nuclear weapons.

5. “The secure states do not imply the secure people in itself’. Examine the statement.
Answer. The secure states are supposed to protect their people from individual in security also rather the territorial security only. Hence they are required to provide security from foreign attack hunger, diseases and natural disasters etc. because it destructs the people rather more than a war.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The US and Soviet’Union signed a number of other arms control treaties including the Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II) and the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START). The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons, those countries that had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons; rather, it limited the number of countries that could have them.

Questions
1. What is arms control treaty?
2. Was NPT an arms control treaty? Why?
3. What was the intention behind regulation of NPT?
Answer.
1. To regulate the acquisition or development of wTeapons among countries.
2. Yes, because it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons to protect world from large seat destruction.
3. It did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Global poverty is another source of insecurity. World population-now at 650 crore-will reach 700 to 800 crore within 25 years and many eventually level out at 900 to 1000 crore. Currently, half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries — India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia. Among the world’s poorest countries, population is expected to triple in next 50 years whereas many rich countries will see population shrinkage in that period, high per capita income and low population growth make rich states or rich social groups get richer, whereas low incomes and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor states and poor groups get poorer. puui O ta tco CUJ.IL puux gi u upo get puui d.

Questions
1. Name the countries expected to occur half the world’s population growth.
2. Mention two reasons to make rich states more richer.
3. What makes poor countries more poorer?
Answer.
1. India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh, Indonesia.
2. (i) High per capita income (ii) Low population growth.
3. Low income and high population growth.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. What is meant by Security? Mention any four components of Indian security strategy.
Answer. At its most basic, security implies freedom from threats. Human existence and the life of a country are full of threats. We generally say that only those things that threaten ‘core values’ should be regarded as being of interest in discussions of security. Thus, security relates only to extremely dangerous threats — threats that could so endanger core values that those values would be damaged beyond repair if we did not do something to deal with the situation.
India’s security strategy has four broad components which have been used in a varying combination from time to time: (i) The first component was strengthening its military capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours — Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962. Since it is surrounded by nuclear-armed countries in the South Asian region, India’s decision to conduct nuclear tests in 1998 was justified by the Indian government in terms of safeguarding national security.
(ii) The second component of India’s
security strategy has been to strengthen international norms and international institutions to protect its security interests.
(iii) The third component of Indian security strategy is geared towards meeting security challenges within the country. Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, the Punjab and Kashmir among others have from time to time sought to break away from India. India has tried to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system.
(iv) There has been an attempt in India to develop its economy in a way that the vast mass of citizens are lifted out of poverty and misery and huge economic inequalities are not allowed to exist.

2. Give a comparative analysis of Indian expenditure on traditional and non- traditional security.
Answer. India spends more on traditional security than non-traditional because
(i) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(ii) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(iii) India’s first tested nuclear device in 1974.
Though India has made efforts to develop its economy and an individual’s security from poverty but still it is lagging behind even now and we are supposed to make more efforts.

3. Mention and explain the components and India’s security strategy. 
Answer. India has faced traditional military and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders. Its security strategy has four broad components i.e.:
1. To Strengthen its Military Capa¬bilities:
Because:
(a) India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours, as Pakistan in 1947-48,1965,1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
(b) In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
(c) India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To Strengthen International Norms and International Institu¬tions:
(a) India’s first Prime Minister J.L. Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
(b) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non- discriminatory non-proliferation regime to enjoy same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
(c) It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of place outside the blocs.
(d) India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To Meet Security Challenges
within the Country:
(a) Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
(b) India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To Develop its Economy:
(a) India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
(b) A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

4. Explain the areas of operation of non- traditional notion of security.
Answer. Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide range of threats affecting human existence:
1. It does not cover only the states but
also the individuals and communities also.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.
Its sources can be identified as follows:
1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against national government.
2. Human Rights refer to basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human being as political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil rights to lead an honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to country’s security because severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (ARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue diseases spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations.

5. Write a note on Arms control.
Answer. Arms control regulates the acquisition or development of weapons by adopting following measures:
1. The Anti Ballistic Missiles Treaty in 1992 stopped the US and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles to limit large scale production.
2. Other arms control treaties were also signed i.e. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START), Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty and Nuclear non-proliferation treaty (NPT) to limit the weapons which many bring large scale destruction.
3. NPT regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons in 1968.
4. NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited number of countries that could have them.

Picture Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the pigeon and man with goods symbolise?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answer.
1. The movement of Peace Keeping Force i.e. pigeon (White) a symbol of peace and an army personnel is flying it.
2. Pigeon symbolises peace and a man with goods to maintain peace at a place where threat has occurred.
3. Peace Keeping Forces are also supposed to bear arms to initiate peace.

2.Study the picture given below and answer the questions as that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Is it any different from our country?
3. What message does this cartoon convey?
Answer.
1. The US’s massive expenditure of defence and lack of money for peace related issues.
2. Our country spends a lot on peaceful initiations first as well as make efforts to find out a peaceful solution first.
3. This cartoon conveys message that the countries are ready to spend on military rather than on peaceful initiation.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Security in the Contemporary World appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1.Which among the following best explains
the reason for growing concerns about
the environment?
(a) The developed countries are concerned about projecting nature.
(b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats.
(c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become persuasive and has reached a dangerous level.

2. Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the Earth Summit:
(a) It was attended by 170 countries, thousands of NGOs and many MNCs.
(b) The Summit was held under aegis of the UN.
(c) For the first time, global environmen¬tal issues were firmly consolidated at the political level.
(d) It was a summit meeting.
Answer. (a) Correct (b) Wrong
(c) Correct (d) Wrong

3. Which among the following are true about the Global Commons?
(a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the Global Commons.
(b) The Global Commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.
(c) The question of managing the Global Commons has reflected the North- South divide.
(d) The countries of the North are more concerned about the protection of the global Commons than the countries of the South.
Answer. (a) The Earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer space are considered as a part of global commons.

4. What were the outcomes of Rio-Summit?
Answer. 1. Rio-Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21.
2. It gave the concept of sustainable development to be combined economic growth with ecological responsibility.
3. Rio-Summit developed various contentious issues like Commons, Global Commons in global politics of environment.

5. What is meant by Global Commons? How are they exploited and polluted?
Answer. The areas or regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and region, common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere, Antarctic Ocean floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to
1. Vague scientific evidences, their lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management area out space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

6. What is meant by ‘Common but differentiated responsibilities’? How could we implement the idea?
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibili¬ties mean that the state shall cooperate in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earth’s ecosystem. As the states have common but differ¬entiated responsibilities over various contributions of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the tech-nological and financial resources they command.
We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:
1. The Rio-Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nations Framework convention on climatic change (UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common but differentiated responsibilities;
3. An international agreement known Kyoto Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

7. Why have issues related to global environmental protection become the priority concern of states since the 1990s?
Answer. Issues related to global environmental protection became the priority concern of states since the 1990s because at global level, the environmental issues drew attentions of various states at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio-de-Janerio, Brazil in June 1992 through Agenda 21:
1. Rio-Summit 1992 dealt with climatic change, bio-diversity and forestry.
2. Agenda 21 combined economic growth with ecological responsibilities.
3. Kyoto Protocol set targets for greenhouse emissions. The above mentioned conferences and summits raised the environmental issues at the global level to take steps by various states to check environmental degradation in a co-operative manner.

8. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save Planet Earth. Substantiate the statement in the light of the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with ozone depletion and global warming whereas southern states (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stand equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing counties are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing coun¬tries must be taken into consider¬ations in the process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

9. The most serious challenge before the states is pursuing economic development without causing further damage to the global environment. How could we achieve this? Explain with a few examples.
Answer. The economic development can be achieved even without damaging global environment by following practices:
1. In June 1992, Earth Summit provided some conservative measures for sustainable growth without damaging environment anymore.
2. The Antarctic Treaty of 1959 covered Global Commons for mutual economic development.
3. Kyoto protocol cut greenhouse emissions from industrialised countries to protect environment and to develop industries also.
4. Resource Geopolitics allocates and ‘ distribute natural resources among
the nation states of global arena for sustainable development of nations. Hence, the above mentioned practices protect the global environment and even though the states are developing we could achieve this challenge only if we follow the provisions and practices mentioned in all these conferences and summits.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. What does the UNEP stand for?
Answer. UNEP stands for the United Nations Environment Programme to hold international conferences to promote coordination to effective response to environmental problems.

2. What is Agenda 21?
Answer. Agenda 21 is a list of developed practices ecological responsibility to promote sustainable development.

3. What do you mean by Global Commons?
Answer. Global Commons are the common governance by international community over the areas or regions which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state or authority.

4. What is UNFCCC?
Answer. The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention Climate Change (UNFCCC) provides that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of equity and in accordance with the common but differentiated responsibilities.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save environment. 
Answer. (i) India’s National Auto-fuel Policj7 mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
(ii) The Electricity Act of2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.

2. Mention any two outcomes of Rio- Summit.
Answer. 1. It provided a consensus to combine economic growth with ecological responsibility for sustainable development.
2. It recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which induced climatic change, bio¬diversity, forestry and development practices.

3. Give any two environmental concerns of global politics.
Answer. 1. Ozone layer depletion is an alarming concern for ecosystem.
2. Loss of fertility of agricultural land • due to extreme use of fertilizers and overgrazed grasslands.

4. Explain the most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people.
Answer. The most obvious threat to the survival of indigenous people is the loss of land
which was occupied by their ancestrals. The loss of land referred to a loss of their economic resource also.

5. How did Earth Summit draw attention of global politics towards environmental issues?
Answer. The Earth Summit drew attention of global politics towards environmental issues because it produced conventions to deal with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21 which combined economic growth with ecological responsibility known as ‘Sustainable Development’ as well as Earth Summit laid stress on the cooperation of states to conserve, protect, restore the health and integrity of the earth’s ecosystems.

6. Mention the major problems of ecological issues.
Answer. 1. Common environmental agenda could not get common consensus due to vague scientific methods.
2. Management of outer space is influenced by North-South inequalities.
3. Technology and industrial development are also the issues over earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.
4. Ozone hole over Antarctic also revealed the opportunity as well as dangers inherent in tackling global environment problems.

7. What is Kyoto Protocol?
Answer. 1. Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement signed in 1997 in Kyoto for setting targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions.
2. Certain gases like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydro-fluoro Carbons etc. are considered responsible for global warming.
3. This global warming may rise the global temperature to have catastrophic consequences for life on earth.

8. What do you mean by common property?
Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over a natural resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members’ rights and responsibilities through mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned forest land appropriately fit the description of common property.

9. What is ‘Resource Geopolitics’?
Answer. ‘Resource Geopolitics’ is concerned with allocation of distribution of natural resources among the nation states of global arena:
1. It is about who gets what, when, where and how.
2. Inter state rivalry and western geopolitical thinking about resources have been dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power.

10. Is there any difference between the prospectives adopted by the rich and the poor nations to protect the Earth? Explain. 
Answer. Yes, the rich and the poor nations adopted different prospectives to protect the earth at Rio-Summit:
1. The rich countries were known as Global North whereas the poor countries were called Global South.
2. Northern states showed concern with ozone depletion and global warming whereas southern states showed
? concern for economic development and environmental management.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. What is meant by common property resources? Explain with examples.
Answer. Common property refers to the rights and duties of a group together over natural resources with the following norms:
1. The group members enjoy rights and duties both over nature, levels of use and the maintenance of a given resource.
2. In India, many village communities have defined members’ rights and responsibilities through mutual understanding.
3. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of sacred groves on state owned forest level appropriating fit the description of common property.

2. Explain the meaning of global commons. Give any four examples of global commons. 
Answer. The areas of regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and require common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere. Antarctic Ocean Floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to:
1. Vague scientific evidences, these lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
2. North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management over outer space.
3. Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

3. Describe any four steps taken by India to improve the environment.
Answer. The Indian government is participating in global efforts through a number of programmes:
1. India’s National Auto-fuel policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles.
2. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
3. Electricity Act, 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
4. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India is making real efforts.
5. India is also keen to launch a national mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

4. Define indigenous population. Highlight any two problems of such people.
Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as comprising the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them. The following problems are faced by such people:
1. They lost their lands which belonged to them only for a long time.
2. The loss of land refers to a loss of an economic resource base.
3. Issues related to the rights of the indigenous communities have also been neglected in domestic and international politics for long.

5. Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to environment.
Answer. Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to Save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:
1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with Ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern States (Developing) warn to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stands equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility onwards.
5. The developing countries are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto Protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing coun¬tries must be taken into considerations in the process of development, appli¬cation and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.
All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

6. Explain India’s stand on environmental issues. What steps have been suggested by India in this respect?
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this contravens the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose restrictions on India when the country’s rise per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to still represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes i.e. National Auto fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001 etc.

7. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.
Answer. Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking following steps:
1. More focus should be on afforestation
i. e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from populous/residential areas.

8. What do you mean by environmental movements? Explain.
Answer. Environmental movements are the movements of a group which are environmentally conscious to challenge environmental degradation to work at both the national and international levels or local levels:
1. These movements raise new ideas and long term vision of what we should not do in our individual and collective lines.
2. These environmental movements may be diverse in nature i.e. the forest movements of the south, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa and India are faced with enormous pressures.
Categories of Environmental Movements:
1. Forest Movements
2. Movement against mining corporation and mineral industry (water pollution)
3. Anti Dam Movements against the construction of mega dams riot to disturb channels of rivers.

9. Oil is an important resource in global strategy that affects the geopolitics and global economy. Comment.
Answer.  Oil is the resource which generates immense wealth, hence it creates political struggles involving industrialised countries to adopt various methods to ensure steady flows of oil:
1. These include deployment of military process near exploitation sites and along sea lanes of communications.
2. The stockpiling of strategic resources.
3. They support multinational companies by making favourable international agreements.
4. The global economy relied on oil as a portable and indispensable fuel, hence, the history of petroleum is the history of war and struggle.
5. It created conflict between Iraq and Saudi Arabia as Iraq’s known reserves are second only to Saudi Arabia and since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual reserves might be far larger.

10. Water is a crucial resource to global politics. Explain with examples.
Or
Explain the water wars with examples.
Answer. Water is a crucial resource relevant to global politics. Regional variations and increasing scarcity of fresh water in some parts of the world point to the possibility of disagreements over shared water resources as a leading source of conflicts in 21st century, which is known as water wars:
1. Water wars may create violent conflict due to disagreement of countries over sharing rivers i.e. a typical disagreement is a downstream state’s objection to pollution, excessive irrigation, or construction of dams which degrade the quality of water available to downstream states.
2. States have used force to seize fresh water resources i.e. 1950, struggle between Israel, Syria and Jordan and 1960s over attempts by each side to divert water from the Jordan and Yarmuk rivers.
3. The more recent threats between Turkey, Syria and Iraq over the construction of Dams on Euphrates river.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes. For example, India’s National Auto¬fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency. Similarly, the Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts. The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012. And India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.

Questions
1. How India has participated in global efforts to protect environment?
2. What are Energy Conservation Act and Electricity Act?
3. Mention the efforts made by Indian government for biodiesel.
Answer.
1. It has launched a number of programmes i.e. Auto Fuel Policy, Energy Conservation Act 2001, Electricity Act 2003 to protect environment.
2. The Energy Conservation Act was passed in 2001 to outline initiatives to improve energy efficiency and Electricity Act, passed in 2003 to encourage the use of renewable energy by the Indian government as a conservation programme.
3. The Indian government is keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it, and the history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle. Nowhere is this more obviously the case than in West Asia and Central Asia, West Asia, specifically the Gulf region, accounts for about 30 per cent of global oil production. But it has about 64 per cent of the planet’s known reserves, and is therefore the only region able to satisfy any substantial rise in oil demand. Saudi Arabia has a quarter of the world’s total reserves and is the single largest producer. Iraq’s known reserves are second only to Saudi Arabia’s. And, since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual resei*ves might be far that actual reseiVes might be far larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.

Questions
1. Which region has much potential for oil production?
2. Which area is supposed to have far larger reserves than actually it has?
3. Why the history of petroleum is called the history of war and struggle?
Answer.
1. West Asia especially the Gulf region enjoys much more potential for oil production.
larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.
2. Iraqi territory is supposed to be fully explored.
3. The global economy relied on oil for much of 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The common wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Explain the meaning of‘global commons’. How are environmental concerns becoming important in global politics?
Answer. ‘Commons’ are those resources which are not owned by anyone but rather shared by a community. This could be a ‘common room’, a ‘community centre’, a park or a river. Similarly, there are some areas or regions of the world which are located outside the sovereign jurisdiction of any one state, and therefore require common governance by the international community. These are known as ‘global commons’. They include the earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor and outer space.
Although environmental concerns have a long history, awareness of the environmental consequences of economic growth acquired an increasingly political character from the 1960s onwards. The Club of Rome, a global think-tank, published a book in 1972 entitled Limits to Growth, dramatising the potential depletion of the earth’s resources against the backdrop of rapidly growing world population. International agencies began holding international conferences and promoting detailed studies to get a more coordinated and effective response to environmental problems. Since then, the environment has emerged as significant . issue of global politics.
The growing focus on environmental issues within the arena of global politics was firmly consolidated at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janerio, Brazil, in June, 1992.
This was also called the Earth Summit. The Summit was attended by 170 states, thousands of NGOs and many multinational corporations. The Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of development practices called ‘Agenda 21’. But it left unresolved considerable differences and difficulties. There was a consensus on combining economic growth with ecological responsibility. This approach to development is commonly known as ‘sustainable development’.

2. Explain the concept of “common but differentiated responsibilities”. How and where was it emphasised upon?
Or
States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment. Analyse the statement giving suitable examples.
Answer. Common but differentiated responsibilities mean that ‘the states shall cooperate in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the earth’s eco system. As the states have common but differentiated responsibilities over various contribution of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and financial resources they command. We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:
1. The Rio Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nation’s Framework Convention on Climatic Change
(UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common but differentiated responsibilities.
3. An international agreement known by its Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

3. Analyse India’s stand on any three environmental issues. Or
Analyse India’s stand on environmental issues.
Answer. India plays a dominating role among the Asian countries on environmental issues:
1. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002 which emphasised to follow the principle common but differentiated responsibility.
2. India feels this convention is the very spirit of UNFCCC. Neither does it seem fair to impose restrictions on India when the country’s rise in per capita carbon emissions by 2030 is likely to still represent less than half the world average.
3. The Indian government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel which makes India to have one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
4. The Indian government is also participating in global efforts through a number of programmes i.e. National Auto Fuel Policy, Electricity Act 2003, Energy Conservation Act, 2001, etc.

4. Explain any three environmental concerns in global politics.
Answer. Some environmental issues have been considered as the global issues:
1. Natural resources are being depleted i.e. cultivable area has not been sustained any more, agricultural land lost fertility and grass lands have been overgrazed.
2. Waterbodies have suffered a depletion and pollution both.
3. A steady decline in ozone layer also poses a threat to ecosystem and human health.
4. Natural forests stabilize the climate, moderate water supply and habitat various species also which are also being lost creating destruction to biodiversity through industrial pollution etc.
5. Due to land based activities, coastal pollution is also increasing which affects fisheries.

5. Mention the rights of indigenous peoples.
Answer. The UN defines indigenous population as the descendants of people who inhabited the present territory of a country’at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of world and overcome them. The rights of indigenous people can be summarised as follows:
1. Indigenous people speak of their struggles, agenda and fights like social movements.
2. Their voices in world politics call for the admission of indigenous people to the world community as equals.
3. Many of the present day island states in the Oceania region (including Australia, New Zealand) were inhabited by various indigenous people over the course of show for thousands of years.
4. Indigenous people appeal to government to create indigenous nations with an identity of their own.
5. The World Council of indigenous people was formed in 1975. The council became the first of 11 indigenous NGOs to receive consultative status in the UN.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the picture represent?
2. Why do you think the fingers are designed like chimneys and the world made into a lighter?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. It represents ‘Industrial Pollution’ commenting on ‘Global warming’.
2. Fingers denote pollution coming out of chimneys from industries and the lighter represents burning and depleting of natural resources.
3. This picture draws the attention of the world towards industrial pollution, if it continues on, flora and fauna will be depleted which will create an imbalance to ecosystem.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Which countries are being shown here?
3. What message does this picture convey?
Answer.
1. The cartoon represents the methods adopted by industrialised countries to fulfil their essentials from weaker sections.
2. The stronger country like the USA and the weaker nation like Iraq.
3. Resources are the real strength of a nation and neo-colonialism play politics to obtain it.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Environment and Natural Resources appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 9 Globalisation

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1.Which of the st atements are ‘True’ about
globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is purely an economic phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation began in 1991.
(c) Globalisation is the same thing as westernisation.
(d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.
Answer. (d) Globalisation is a multi-dimensional phenomenon.

2.Which of the statements are ‘True’ about
the impact of globalisation?
(a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(ib) Globalisation has had a uniform impact on all states and societies.
(c) The impact of globalisation has been confined to the political sphere.
(d) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.
Answer. (a) Globalisation has been uneven in its impact on states and societies.
(b) Globalisation inevitably results in cultural homogeneity.

3. Which of the statem ents are ‘True’ about
causes of globalisation?
(a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) Globalisation is caused by a particular community of people.
(c) Globalisation originated in the US.
(d) Economic interdependence alone causes globalisation.
Answer. (a) Technology is an important cause of globalisation.
(b) It originated in the US.

4. Which statements are ‘true’ about
globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is only about movement of commodities.
(b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(c) Services are an insignificant part of globalisation.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.
Answer. (b) Globalisation does not involve a conflict of values.
(d) Globalisation is about worldwide interconnectedness.

5. Which of the statements are False about globalisation?
(a) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth.
(b) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity.
(c) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisa¬tion.
(d) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation.
Answer. The statements (b) and (d) are false about globalisation.

6. What is worldwide interconnectedness? What are its components?
Answer. The worldwide interconnectedness implies to interlink the world through free flow of goods and services, technology, ideas and people across the globe to extend globalisation. This contains three components:
1. Capital Flow: It is the flow of resources through loans or business investments among the countries.
2. Trade Flows of Goods: It refers to exchange of goods among countries.
3. Labour Flow: It refers to ‘Brain drain’ by creating favourable conditions for employment.

7. How has technology contributed to globalisation?
Answer. Technical equipments as cell phone, internet, telephone and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.

8. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation?
Answer. The impact of changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces the state capacity i.e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime concern to set down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on the decisions taken by government because their own interest fulfillment also depends on government policies.
4. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.
5. State also withdraws from many of its welfare functions taken place at the level of economic and social well¬being.
6. To some extent developing countries have received a boost as a result of globalisation and became more strong and powerful clue to emergence of new technology.

9. What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?
Answer. (A) Economic Implications of Globalisation (Positive)
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
(B) Negative Economic Implications
1. Economic globalisation has created diverse opinion all over the world as to benefit only a small section of society.
2. It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. developed countries
have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their own citizens.
3. It has created disparities among states also by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
Impact of Globalisation on India
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investment have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities.

10. Do you agree with the argument that globalisation leads to cultural heterogeneity?
Answer. Cultural consequences do not assume to lead to cultural heterogeneity only. All cultures accept outside influences all the time. Some external influences may be negative even to reduce our choices. Sometime external influences enlarge the choices or modify our culture without overwhelming the traditions
i. e. the burger is not a substitute for a masala dosa, blue jeans can go well with a homespun Khadi-Kurta (a nique new combination by external influences). Hence, it can be said that globalisation does not lead cultural heterogeneity every time but it is supportive to promote cultural outlook and cultural homogenisation.

11. How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on globalisation?
Answer. Impact of Globalisation on India:
1. More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
2. India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves
i. e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
3. Foreign Direct Investments have also been increased.
4. It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export oriented activities. India in turn impacting:
1. Through responding to 1991 financial crisis, Indian economy was liberalised to attract foreign direct investment.
2. India introduced new trade policy reforms to remove tariffs and restrictions imposed on imports.
3. Under industries, it abolished licensing system exempting few specified industries only.
4. Banking operations by private sectors were permitted to expand in the country.
5. To promote globalisation, India has adopted an open economy.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. To what extent does globalisation provide opportunities as well as challenges?
Answer. Globalisation creates new jobs in industries and MNCs and increases the volume of trade in goods and services. As a challenge it reduces the capacity of state to take decisions on their own.

2. Define Globalisation.
Answer. Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on interdependence.

3. What is WSF?
Answer. WSF is the World Social Forum, a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists .

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1 .“Welfare State is getting replaced by market.” Analyse the reason for this change. 
Answer. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity. All over the world, the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well¬being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own.

2. How far is it correct to say that powers of states have actually increased due to globalisation?
Answer. To some extent globalisation increases the activities of state to help in development of economy as well as state capacity has received a boost also with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of state to collect information about its citizens.

3. What are two thrust areas of Globalisation?
Answer. Globalisation has two thrust areas:
1. Liberalisation provides freedom of trade and investment, eliminate restrictions imposed on external trade and payments and expand technological progress to globalise faster.
2. Privatisation permits MNCs to produce goods and services inside the country to attract FDI.

4. Which factors have contributed to the process of globalisation?
Answer. Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors.
2. Role of international organisations like JMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and privatisation.
4. Technological innovations.

5. Mention positive impact of globalisation.
Answer. 1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital ‘investment’.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts Foreign Direct Investment also.

6. Mention negative impact of globalisation.
Answer. 1. Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
2. The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
3. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
4. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
5. Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modern methods of cultivation.

7. Can we say that Globalisation is only an economic dimension?
Answer. No, globalisation is not only an economic dimension because it is a multi¬dimensional concept having political, economic and cultural manifestations. Globalisation is the process of exchange of ideas, capital, commodities and people.

8. “ Globalisation is a multidimensional concept”. Justify the statement.
Answer. Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other countries based on interdependence. It is a multidimensional concept having political, economic, cultural manifestations. It is the process of exchange of ideas, capital commodities and people.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Mention any four political consequences of globalisation.
Answer. Political consequences are positive and negative both as:
Negative Aspects
1. Globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is the ability of government to do what they do.
2. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.
3. Sometimes state withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well being.
4. Market becomes prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities in place of welfare.
Positive Aspects
1. The primary status remains unchallenged basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and strong.

2. Explain any two economic consequences of globalisation.
Answer. 1. Positive Economic Consequences
(a) It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
(b) It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries,
(c) The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
2. Negative Economic Consequences
(а) It has created diverse opinion all over the world so as to benefit only a small section of society.
(b) It does not have equality at par the movement of people across the globe i.e. Developed countries have carefully guarded their borders with visa policies to ensure job security to their own citizens.

3. What is globalisation? Highlight any three causes of globalisation.
Answer. Globalisation is integration of an economy with other economies alongwith the free flow of trade and capital. Process of globalisation is the result of:
1. Historical factors
2. Role of International Organisations like IMF and WTO.
3. Liberalisation and Privatisation
4. Technological innovations.

4. Explain any two positive and two negative effects of globalisation.
Answer. I. Positive Effects (Any two).
1. Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
2. It attracts private foreign capital investment.
3. It creates new job opportunities.
4. It raises standard of living.
5. It increases production efficiency and healthy competition.
6. It attracts foreign Direct Investment also.
2. Negative Effects:
1. It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
2. Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.

5. Explain any four consequences of globalisation.
Answer. 1. Economic Consequences
(a) It has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
(b) The restrictions imposed by other countries on allowing imports have beenreduced.
2. Cultural Consequences
(a) The rise of uniform culture called as cultural homogenisation.
(b) Global culture is the imposition of western culture on rest of the world.
3. Political Consequences
(а) In place of welfare state it is the market to become the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
(b) The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.
4. Others
(а) The left wing protests against economic liberalisation.
(b) Indian social forum also raised voices against globalisation.

6. “Globalisation has shifted power from nation states to global consumers.” Justify the statement. 
Or
What is the impact of globalisation on state’s sovereignty?
Answer. The impact of changing role of state in developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:
1. Globalisation reduces state capacity i. e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime determinant to down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on decision taken by governments because their own interest fulfillment depends on government policies.
4. The old Welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.

7. What is meant by globalisation? Explain any three cultural consequences of globalisation.
Answer. Globalisation is integration of an economy with the other economies alongwith the free flow of trade and capital. Its cultural consequences can be summed up as follows:
1. The rise of uniform culture as cultural homogenisation.
2. Global culture is imposition of western culture of rest of the world.
3. Sometimes, external influences enlarge the choices or modify over culture without overwhelming the traditions.

8. Does globalisation lead to ‘cultural ho-mogenisation’ or ‘cultural heterogeniza- tion’ or both? Justify.
Answer. Globalisation leads to both:
1. Though cultural homogenisation is an arena of globalisation the same process generates the opposite effect also which prompts each culture to dominate over other culture resulting into heterogenisation.
2. Globalisation leads to the rise of uniform culture known as cultural homogenisation i.e. the influence of western culture.
3. The differences among powers remain the same despite the exchange of cultures. Hence it may be said that cultural exchange is only one of many processes.

9. A militant group issued a statement threatening college girls who wear western clothes’. Analyse.
Answer. This statement refers to the cultural implications of globalisation in the form of fear of a defence group about the imposition of western culture to lead a shrinkage of rich cultural heritage.

Passage Based Questions[5 Marks]
1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of government to do what they do. All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well-being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. At the same time, globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. States continue to be important. Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens. With this information, the state is better able to rule, not less able. Thus, states become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.

Questions
1. How does globalisation effect on state capacity?
2. How have multinational companies effected the states?
3. How does the old welfare state react to globalisation?
Answer.
1. It reduces state’s capacity and ability of government to do what they do.
2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of government to take decision on their own.
3. The old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions i.e. maintenance of law and order and security of its own citizens.

2. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Advocates of economic globalisation argue that it generates greater economic growth and well-being for larger sections of the population when there is de-regulation. Greater trade among countries allows each economy to do what it does best. This would benefit the whole world. They also argue that economic globalisation is inevitable and it is not wise to resist the march of history. More moderate supporters of globalisation say that globalisation provides a challenge that can be responded to intelligently without accepting it uncritically. What, however, cannot be denied is the increased momentum towards inter-dependence and integration between governments, businesses, and ordinary people in different parts of the world as a result of globalisation.

Questions
1. What is economic globalisation?
2. How does economic globalisation benefit the whole world?
3. How does the moderate supporters of globalisation view it?
Answer.
1. Economic globalisation generates great or economic growth and well being for larger section of population when there is deregulation.
2. Economic globalisation gives opportunities to countries to do best in their economy.
3. Moderate supporters of globalisation view it as a challenge to be responded intelligently without accepting it uncritically.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Explain globalisation. How has technology contributed in promoting globalisation? 
Answer. Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds — ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows.
While globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element. There is no doubt that the invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip in more recent years has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism. So also today we should expect that technology will affect the way we think of our personal but also our collective lives.
The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely by technological advances. The pace of these flow may vary.

2. Explain any three benefits of globalisation with examples.
Answer. 1. Economic Benefits
1. It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
2. It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
3. The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
4. This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.
2. Technological Benefits
Technical equipments as telephone, internet, telephone and microchip have contributed to globalisation by exchanging ideas, capitals and people to make convenient to move from one place to another at a fast pace to stimulate the process of globalisation.
3. Political Benefits
1. The primary status remains unchallenged on the basis of political community.
2. To some extent developing countries have received a boost to become more powerful and strong.

3. Assess any three basics on which globalisation is being resisted in India.
Answer. Resistance to globalisation in India has come from different quarters:
1. Left using protests to economic liberalisation was voiced through political parties as well as through forum like the Indian Social Forum.
2. Trade Unions and farmer’s interests have also organised protests against MNCs.
3. The patenting of certain plants like Neem by American and European firms has also generated protests.
4. Resistance has come from political parties also in the form of objecting to various cultural influences like availability of foreign T.V. channels provided by cable networks, celebration of Valentine’s Day and Westernisation of dress code.

4. How do the critics view the process of globalistion?
Answer. Globalisation has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its critical arguments can be categorized as:
1. Economic 2. Political
3. Cultural
1. Economic:
(a) Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
(b) It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
(c) Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing nations.
2. Political:
(a) Welfare functions of the state has been reduced.
Picture Based Questions
(b) Sovereignty of states has been affected.
(c) States have become weak to take their own decisions.
3. Cultural:
(a) People lose their age old values and traditions.
(b) The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
(c) It leads to shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Picture Based Questions[5 Marks]
1.Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon comment?
2. What is referred under the title ‘Yesterday’?
3. What message does the title ‘Today’ convey?
Answer.
1. Cartoon comments on the changing scenario due to globalisation.
2. It refers to earlier conditions of developing countries who were starving due to less growth in their economy.
3. Globalisation opened doors for new entrants from developing nations and resulted into brain drain.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Globalisation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 2 Era of One Party Dominance

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Choose the correct option to fill in the
blanks.
(a) The First General Elections in 1952 involved simultaneous elections to
the Lok Sabha and………….
(The President of India/State Assemblies/Rajya Sabha/The Prime Minister)
(b) The party that won the second largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first
elections was the …………
(Praja Socialist Party/Bharatiya Jana Sangh/Communist Party of India/Bharatiya Janata Party)
(c) One of the guiding principles of the ideology of the Swatantra Party was………
(Working class interest/protection of Princely States/Economy free from State control/Autonomy of States within the Union)
Answer. (a) State Assemblies
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Economy free from state control.

2. Match the following

Answer. (a)—(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(w), (d)-(iii)

3. Four statements regarding one-party dominance are given below. Mark each of them as true or false:
(a) One-party dominance is rooted in the absence of strong alternative political parties
(b) One-party dominance occurs because of weak public opinion.
(c) One-party dominance is linked to the nation’s colonial past.
(d) One-party dominance reflects the absence of democratic ideals in a country.
Answer. (a) True, (b) False, (c) True, (d) False

4. If Bharatiya Jana Sangh of the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different? Specify three differences each for both the parties.
Answer. 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh:
The policies of Bharatiya Jana Sangh were based on the principles as follows:
(a) It replaced secular concept by the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
(b) No cultural and educational rights as this party opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
(c) It focused on the reunity of India and Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
2. Communist Party of India:
Communist Party of India would have been different on the principles as follows:
(а) It worked for proportional representation in the govern-ment.
(б) This party followed communist ideology in various policies.
(c) It emphasised on a control over electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.

5. In what sense was the Congress an ideological coalition? Mention the various ideological currents present within the Congress.
Answer. The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups alongwith their identity holding different beliefs:
1. It accommodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates and the rights and the left with all other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
Ideological currents present within the Congress:
(a) In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
(b) Some of these like “Congress Socialist Party” later seperated from the Congress and became on opposition party.

6. Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?
Answer. No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:
1. The key role of Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
2. The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
3. Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same manner again and again.
4. Congress party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
5. Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress strengthened ideals of democracy and held unity and integrity of the country.

7. Bring out three differences each between Socialist Parties and the Communist Party and between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party.
Answer. 1. Differences between Socialist Parties and Communist Party:

2. Differences between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party:

8. What would you consider as the main differences between Mexico and India under one party domination?
Answer. There was a difference between one party domination in India and Mexico. In Mexico, this was a one party system only not dominance because:
1. In India, the Congress party dominated on behalf of popular consensus but Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) (in Spanish) ruled on behalf of perfect dictatorship.
2. In India, free and fair elections took place, where the losing of election was also fair but it Mexico, elections were based on malpractices, dominated by PRI.

9. Take a political map of India (with State outlines) and mark:
(a) Two states where Congress was not in poiver at some point during 1952-67.
(b) Two states where the Congress remained in power through this period.
Answer. Map is attached and marked as:
(a) 1. Kerala (Travancore-Cochin)
2. Madras (Travancore-Cochin)
(b) 1. Punjab or U.P.
2. Rajasthan or West Bengal.

10. Read the following passage:
“Patel, the organisational man of the Congress, wanted to purge the Congress of other political groups and sought to make of it a cohesive and disciplined political party. He … sought to take the Congress away from its all-embracing character
and turn it into a close-knit party of disciplined cadres. Being a ‘ r list he looked more for discipline than for took too romantic a view of “eariging on the movement,” Patel’s idea of transforming the Congress into strictly political party with a single ideology and tight discipline showed an equal lack of understanding of the eclectic role that the Congress, as a government, was to be called upon to perform in the decades to follow.”—Rnjni Kotl c – 1
(а) Why does the author think that Congress should not have been a cohesive and disciplined party?
(b) Give some examples of the eclectic
role of the Congress party in the early years.
(c) Why does the author say that Gandhi’s view about Congress future was romantic?
Answer. (a) Because she wanted to take the Congress away from its all embracing character and turn it into a close knit party of disciplined caders.
(b) These examples are in the form of social and ideological coalition of Congress:
(i) It provided a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to participate in national movement.
(ii) Congress party represented a rainbow like social coalition representing diversity of India including various castes, religions and languages.
(c) Because Gandhiji believed in hand- in-hand characteristic of national movement led by Congress which attracted various sections groups and society to form a social and ideological coalition in Congress.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark]
1. Which political party laid emphasis on the idea of one party, one culture and one nation?
Answer. Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

2. Which political party of India had leaders like A.K. Gopalan, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, and S.A. Dange?
Answer. Communist Party of India.

3. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?
Answer. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.

4. In which year was the Election Commission of India set up and who was the first chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer. 25 January 1950, Sukumar Sen.

5. Name the founder president of the Congress Socialist Party. What name was given to this party after 1948?
Answer. The founder president of the Congress Socialist Party was Acharya Narendra Dev and after 1955 it came to be known as Socialist Party.

6. Differentiate between one party dominance and one party system.
Answer. One party dominance refer to representation on behalf of popular consensus alongwith free and fair elections i.e. Congress in India whereas one party system refers representation based on malpractice, fraud etc. to ensure winning of a particular party.

7. When and why was the electronic voting machine used in India for the first time?
Answer. The electronic voting machine was used in India in 1990 for first time for more accuracy and fair dealing while counting as well as it helps to check Booth capturing and other malpractices.

8. How did socialist party origin?
Answer. The founder president of the Congress socialist party was Acharya Narendra Dev and after 1955 it came to be known as Socialist Party.

9. Define faction.
Answer. Faction are the groups formed inside the party i.e. coalitions made in Congress created various factions which were based on either ideological considerations or personal ambitions.

10. When and by whom PRI was founded?
Answer. The ‘Institutional Revolutionary Party’ (PRI) was founded in 1929 by Plutareo Elias Calles in Mexico which represented the legacy of Mexican Revolution.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. How did the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections help in establishing a democratic set-up in India?
Answer. The first general election was the first big test of democracy in a poor and illiterate country. Till then democracy had existed only in the prosperous countries. By that time many countries in Europe had not given voting rights to all women. In this context India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky. India’s general election of 1952 became a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world. It was no longer possible to argue that domocratic elections could not be held on conditions of poverty or lack of education. It proved that democracy could be practised anywhere in the world. The next two general elections strengthened democratic set-up in India.

2. Highlight any two features of ideology of Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Answer. 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh laid emphasis on ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh called for reunity of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.

3. Explain the major difference of ideology between that of Congress and the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Answer. The major difference of ideology between Congress and the Bharatiya Jana Sangh was that Bharatiya Jana Sangh emphasised on one party country. One culture, one nation i.e. a Hindu nation or Hindutva whereas Congress formed ideological and social coalitions accommodating social diversities.

4. State any two ideologies of the Swatantra Party.
Answer. Swatantra Party was founded by Senior Congress leader C. Rajgopalachari in August 1959:
1. The party believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.
2. This party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed to cooperative farming.

5. How has the method of voting changed from the first General Election of 1952 to the General Election of 2004?
Answer. 1. In the first General Election a box was placed inside each polling booth for each candidate with the election symbol of the candidate. Each voter was given a blank ballot paper to drop into the box, they wanted to vote for.
2. After first two elections, this method was changed. Now ballot paper carried the names and symbols of candidates and the voter stamped against the name of candidate to vote for.
3. In 2004, Electronic Voting Machine were introduced to press the button according to choice of the voter containing the name of candidate and symbol of political party.

6. When was Communist Party emerged?
Answer. The Communist Party emerged in 1920 in different parts of India. It took the inspiration from Bolshevik revolution in Russia. The important leaders of CPI were A.K. Gopalan, S.A. Dange, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, P.C. Joshi, Ajay Ghosh etc.

7. “India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky”. Justify the statement.
Answer. Because:
1. Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
2. The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
3. Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

8. Mention the aims and goals of Socialist Party of India. Why the party could not prove itself as an effective alternative to the Congress?
Answer. Aims and goals of socialist party of India:
1. The Socialist Party believed in the ideology of democratic socialism to be distinguished from Congress and Communists both.
2. It criticised Congress for ignoring the workers and peasants.
It became difficult for socialist party to prove itself as an effective alternative to Congress because Congress Party declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society in 1955.

9. What were the reasons for dominance of one party system in India?
Answer. The dominance of Congress in India was due to following reasons:
1. Congress was identified with the freedom struggle for building national unity and solidarity.
2. Congress was associated with Mahatma Gandhi’s name.
3. It had a broad based manifesto to include the various section of society.
4. Congress bore a popular appeal of charismatic leader like Mahatma Gandhi, J.L. Nehru, Sardar Patel, Indira Gandhi etc.
5. Congress focused on building role of the party.

10. How did India’s first general elections of 1952 become a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world?
Answer. Because:
1. These elections were competitive among various parties.
2. The participation of people was encouraging also.
3. The results were declared in a very fair manner, even to be accepted by the losers in a fair manner.
4. This experiment of India, proved the critics wrong also.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Describe the organisation of Congress Party as a social and ideological coalitions.
Or
“For a long time Congress Party had been a social and ideological coalition”. Justify the statement. 
Answer. 1. It accommodated the revolutionary conservative, extremist and moderates with all other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in national movement.
3. In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties were allowed to co-exist within the Congress.
4. Some of these like ‘Congress Socialist Party’ later separated from the Congress and became an opposition party.

2. How was one party dominance of India different from the other examples of one party dominance in the world?
Or
Examine the comparative analysis of nature of Congress dominance.
Answer. India is not the only country to have dominance of one party but we have some other examples also for the same. But the dominance of one party in India does not compromise democratic spirit of constitution whereas other nations have compromised it:
1. In countries like China, Cuba and Syria are permitted to be ruled by one party only by the constitutional provisions.
2. Myanmar, Belarus, Egypt also experience one party system due to legal and military measurer.
3. In India, Congress dominates on behalf of free and fair elections based on democracy where the losing of other party is also fair.

3. “In India, hero-worship, plays a part in its politics unequalled in magnitude by the part it plays in the politics of any other country But in politics, hero-worship is a sure road to degradation and eventual dictatorship”.Babasaheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Analyse the statement.
Ans. The above mentioned statement speaks of accommodating diversities by the leader of India which was a challenging path to democracy. Our leaders wanted to represent politics as a way of solution of problems in place of making politics a problem.

4. Examine the dominance of Congress in the first three General Elections.
Answer. I. In the first election Congress won 364/489 seats as per expectations.
2. The Communist Party next to Congress won only 16 seats.
3. Congress scored higher in state elections also except Travancore- Cochin (Kerala), Madras and Orissa.
4. Hence, country ruled at national and state level both by declaring Pt. J.L. Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India.
5. In second and third elections also, Congress maintained the same position in Loksabha by winning of three fourth seats in the years 1957 and 1962 respectively.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength. Firstly, a coalition accommodates all those who join it. Therefore, it has to avoid any extreme position and strike a balance on almost all issues. Compromise and inclusiveness are the hallmarks of a coalition. This strategy put the opposition in a difficulty. Anything that the opposition wanted to say, would also find a place in the programme and ideology of the Congress. Secondly, in a party that has the nature of a coalition, there is a greater tolerance of internal differences and ambitions of various groups and leaders are accommodated. The Congress did both these things during the freedom struggle and
continued doing this even after Independence. That is why, even if a group was not happy with the position of the party or with its share of power, it would remain inside the party and fight the other groups rather than leaving the party and becoming an ‘opposition’.

Questions
1. What do you mean by a faction?
2. How did coalition-like character affect the nature of Congress Party?
3. How did Congress avoided to increase number of ‘opposition’?
Answer.
1. Factions are the groups formed inside the party based on either ideological considerations or on personal ambitions and rivalries.
2. Coalition-like character of Congress accommodated all social diversities and maintained a balance on almost all issues. Even a proper space for the programmes and ideology of opposite parties was also given. In such a way Congress showed greater tolerance towards internal differences.
3. Alongwith its coalition-like character, Congress did not let the groups to leave the party to become an opposition.

2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
The socialists believed in the ideology of democratic socialism which distinguished them both from the Congress as well as from the Communists. They criticised the Congress for favouring capitalists and landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants. But the socialists faced a dilemma when in 1955 the Congress declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society. Thus it became difficult for the socialists to present themselves as an effective alternative to the Congress. Some of them, led by Rammanohar Lohia, increased their distance from and criticism of the Congress party. Some others like Asoka Mehta advocated a limited cooperation with the Congress.

Questions
1. Mention the ideology of Socialists.
2. Name some leaders of the Socialist Party.
3. Why did it become difficult for socialists to present themselves as an effective alternative to the Congress?
Answer.
1. Socialists believed in the ideology of democratic socialism to be distinguished from Congress as well as from Communists.
2. Ram Manohar Lohia, Ashok Mehta and Acharya Narendra Dev, Jayaprakash Narayan etc.
3. Because in 1955, Congress declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. Describe the various steps taken to hold the first general elections in India. How far these elections were successful?
Answer. The first general elections had to be postponed twice and finally held from October 1951 to February 1952:
1. These elections were referred to as 1952 elections because most parts of country voted in January 1952.
2. It took six months for campaigning, polling and counting to be completed.
3. Elections were competitive because there were on an average more than four candidates for each seat.
4. The level of participation was en-couraging to vote out in the election.
5. The results were declared and accepted as fair even by losers to prove critics wrong.
These elections were successful:
1. The losing of the parties was also accepted as fair.
2. These elections became a landmark in the history of democracy.
3. It was no longer possible to argue that democratic elections could not be held in conditions of poverty or lack of education. Instead, it can be practised anywhere in the world.

2. Why was Congress considered as a social and ideological coalition in independence days? Explain.
Answer. The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups alongwith their identity holding different beliefs:
1. It accommodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates and the right and the left with all other shades of the centre.
2. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interacts and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
Ideological currents present within the Congress:
(а) In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
(b) Some of these like ‘Congress Socialist Party”, later separated from the Congress and became an opposition party.

3. How was the one party dominance in India different from the one party system in Mexico? In your opinion which of the two political systems is better and why?
Answer. There was a difference between one party domination in India and Mexico. In Mexico, this was a one party system only not dominance because:
1. In India, the Congress Party dominated on behalf of popular consensus but Institutional Revolu-tionary Party (PRI) (in Spanish) ruled on behalf of perfect dictatorship.
2. In India, free and fair elections took place, where the losing of election was also fair but in Mexico, elections were based on malpractices, dominated by PRI.
In our opinion one party dominance¬like India is better because this sort of dominance:
1. Accommodates social diversities.
2. Encourage large number of parti-cipation.
3. Ensures democratic spirit as well as maintains the same.
4. Bear respect even for opposition.

4. How did opposition parties emerge in India? What was their importance?
Answer. Some of the diverse opposition parties had come into existence before the
first general elections in 1952 as non-Congress parties which succeeded to gain only a taken of representation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. These parties maintained a democratic character of the system:
1. These offered a criticism based on principles to keep ruling party under check.
2. These parties groomed the leaders also to play a crucial role in shaping the country.
3. In the early years, these was a lot of respect between leaders of Congress and opposition parties i.e. interim government included even opposition leaders like Dr. Ambedkar, Jayaprakash Narayan, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee into the cabinet.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
A. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What does the term ‘Tug of war’ refer to?
3. Who has been shown on the branches of tree?
Answer.
1. Cartoon represents dominance of Congress which is being tug by opposition parties to throw Congress out of power.
2. ‘Tug of war’ refer to pulling out the Congress by criticism and mentioning its weaknesses in an honest and justified manner.
3. Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru alongwith his colleagues in the cabinet.

Bl. In the outline political map of India given below, five States have been marked as A, B, C, D and E. With the help of the information given below, identify them and write their correct names in your answer book along with the serial number of the information used and the related alphabet in the map.

Questions
(i) The State to which C. Rajagopalachari, the first Indian Governor-General of India, belonged.
(ii) The State where the first non-Congress Government was formed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad.
(iii) The State to which Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, the Union Minister for Food and Agriculture (1952-54) belonged.
(iv) The State which faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-1967.
(v) The State which led the country to White Revolution through Dairy Cooperative Movement.
Answer.
A — (iv) Bihar B — (iii) Uttar Pradesh C — (v) Gujarat D — (i) Tamil Nadu C — (a) Kerala

2. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. Two states where Congress was not in power at some point during 1952-67.
2. Two states where the Congress remained in power through this period.
Answer.
1. (i) Jammu & Kashmir (ii) Kerala
2. (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Maharashtra

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Era of One Party Dominance appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 3 Politics of Planned Development

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
(a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.
(b) It supported state-ownership of industry.
(c) It was made by some leading industrialists.
(d) It supported strongly the idea of planning.
Answer. (a) It was a blueprint for India’s economic future.

2. Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of India’s development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Cooperative farming
(d) Self sufficiency
Answer. (b) Liberalisation.

3. The idea of planning in India was drawn from
(a) The Bombay plan
(b) Experiences of the Soviet bloc countries
(c) Gandhian vision of society
(d) Demand by peasant organisations
(i) (b) and (d) only
(ii) (d) and (c) only
(iii) (a) and (b) only
(iv) All the above
Answer. (iv) All of the above.

4. Match the following:

Answer. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

5. What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of Independence? Has the debate been resolved?
Answer. At the time of independence, development was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.
1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists, socialists and Pt.
J.L. Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during national movement.
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
(a) Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
(b) Agricultural development should take place or
(c) Rural poverty should be alleviated.

6. What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one?
Answer. The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by Young Economist
K.N. Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Its main thrusts were as follows:
1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
3. It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
4. It aimed to increase level of National Income.
The first five year plan differed from the second five year plan:
(a) TheSecondFiveYearPlanstressed on heavy industrialisation.
(b) Second Five Year Plan wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First Five Year Plan.

7. What was the Green Revolution? Mention two positive and two negative consequences of the Green Revolution.
Answer. Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase production through high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation—
1. The government offered high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better irrigation facilities at subsidised prices to farmers.
2. The government fixed the prices also to purchase the produce of farmers at a given price.
Positive Consequences:
(i) In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
(ii) It resulted in the rise of what is called the ‘Middle peasant sections’ who were farmers with medium size holdings who benefitted from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of country.
Negative Consequences:
(i) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(ii) It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by raising availability of foodgrains in country. On the other hand it increased polarisation between the classes and regions like Northern States
i. e. Punjab, Haryana, West-UP become agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

8. State the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation and agricultural development at the time of the Second Five Year Plan.
Answer. At the time of Second Five Year Plan, some controversial issues rose in reference of relevancy of agriculture over industry.
1. Second Five Year Plan emphasised on industry in place of agriculture or rural India.
2. J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian Economist proposed an alternative blueprint to emphasise on rural industrialisation.
3. Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, Chaudhary Charan Singh also commented that the planning leading to creation of prosperity in Urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare. Others debated that without an increase in industrial sector poverty could not be alleviated:
(i) India planning did not have an agrarian strategy to boost the production of food grains.
(ii) It also proposed programmes of community development and spent large sums on irrigation project and failure was not that of policy but of its non¬implementation because of the politics of land owning classes.
(in) Besides, they also argued that every if the government had spent more money on agriculture it would not have solved the massive problem of rural poverty.

9. “Indian policy makers made a mistake by emphasising the role of state in the economy. India could have developed much better if private sector was allowed a free play right from the beginning”. Give arguments for or against this proposition.
Answer. No, the above statement is not perfectly true because state’s intervention was mandatory to regulate country’s economy
after independence immediately. Indian did not follow either capitalist model of development or socialist model completely. Instead she adopted the model of‘mixed economy’ to be criticised from the right and the left:
(i) Private sector lacked enough space and stimulus to grow.
(ii) Licensing and permits for investment in private sector created hurdles for private capital accumulation.
(iii) The state control beyond the limits led to inefficiency and corruption. State control was emphasised:
1. State helped the private sector to make profits by intervening only in those areas where the private sector was not prepared to go.
2. Instead of helping the poor, the states intervention ended up creating a new class that enjoyed the privileges of higher salaries without much account-ability.

Q10. Read the following passage:
“In the early years of Independence,
two contradictory tendencies were already well advanced inside the Congress Party. On the one hand, the national party executive endorsed socialist principles of state ownership, regulation and control over key sectors of the economy in order to improve productivity and at the same time curb economic concentration. On the other hand, the national Congress government pursued liberal economic policies and incentives to private investment that was justified in terms of the sold criterion of achieving maximum increase in production”.
—Francine Frankel
(a) What is the contradiction that the author is talking about? What would be the political implications of a contradiction like this?
(b) If the author is correct, why is it that the Congress was pursuing this policy? Was it related to the nature of the opposition parties?
(c) Was there also a contradiction between the central leadership of the Congress party and its state level leaders?
Answer. (a) The author is talking about contradiction regarding adoption of development models either socialist or capitalist. Political implications of this contradiction may result the differences among party members itself and government can issue licensing and permits in more complicated manner.
(b) Congress was pursuing this policy as a sole criterion of achieving maximum increased in production. Yes, it was related to the nature of opposition parties to be pursued liberal economic policies and incentives to private investment.
(c) No, there was not a contradiction between the central leadership of the Congress Party and its state level leaders because state emphasised on states’ ownership, regulation and control over key sectors improve productivity whereas control leadership pursued liberal economic policies and incentives to private investment.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [ 1 Mark]
1. Who was the founder of Indian Statistical Institute?
Answer. P.C. Mahalanobis to initiate Second Five Year Plan to support industrialisation and positive role of public sector.

2. What is ‘Left’ and ‘Right’ in politics?
Answer. These refer to position of concerned party in the group. The left signifies to favour the poor and downtrodden section of society through government politics whereas the ‘Right’ favours free economy in the market not to be intervened unnecessarily by the government.

3. What is ‘Development’?
Answer. Development refers to the process of improving living standard of country people and economic level in reference of industrialisation and modernisation to be judged by the improvements in the quality of life.

4. Mention the primary responsibilities of India immediately after independence.
Answer. 1. Development of agriculture
2. Poverty alleviation of rural and urban level both.
3. Social and economic redistribution.

5. Why did India adopt planning?
Answer. Because:
1. To bring a socio-economic changes.
2. It was to provide a controlled and faster growth rate.
3. To resolve contradictions between societies.

6. What is composition of Planning Commission of India?
Answer. 1. It consists Prime Minister as its Chairman.
2. Some ministers or incharges of economic portfolios.
3. The members of Planning Commission have a high public image alongwith an administrative and educational background.

7. Mention the various interests associated with Orissa Reserved Iron Resource.
Answer. The reserved iron resource of Orissa is an important investment destination due to rise a global demand of Iron. The state government signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with both international and domestic steel makers in order to bring in capital investment and employment opportunities.

8. What are the key conflicts associated with Orissa reserved Iron Resources?
Answer. 1. These iron resources lie in some most underdeveloped and predominant tribal districts.
2. Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their name and livelihood.
3. The environmentalist feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial activities.

9. What was Bombay Plan?
Answer. Bombay Plan was drafted in 1944 in the want of states to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investment through a joint proposal of a section of the big industrialist for setting up a “Planned Economy”.

10. What are the objectives of planning?
Answer. 1. To make economy self reliant and self generating through planned strategies.
2. To activate distributive justice among various sectors of economy.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks)
1. Differentiate between the main objectives of the First and Second Five Year Plans.
Answer. 1. Objectives of First Five Year Plan:
(a) It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
(b) It aimed to increase level of National Income.
2. The First Five Year Plan differed from the Second Five Year Plan:
(a) The second five year plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
(b) Second five year plan wanted to bring quick structural transformations in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like first five year plan.

2. Differentiate between the capitalist and socialist models of development.
Answer. The capitalist model of development refers to the strategies in which the private sectors are prioritised in place of social welfare whereas socialist model of development aims at public sector and planning to establish egalitarian society.

3. What is meant by decentralized planning?
Answer. Decentralized planning is designed to involve the peoples through voluntary citizens organisation in making plans at the panchayats, blocs and districts level. Its example is the ‘Kerala Model’.

4. Highlight the two areas on which the First Five Year Plan focused.
Answer. The first five year plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. Raj with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Its main thrusts were as follows:
1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal Dam.

5. Which are the two models of development? Which model of development was adopted by India?
Answer. Two models of development are the capitalist and socialist models of development, India adopted the elements from both these models together to be known as “Mixed Economy”.

6. What were the fears of tribal population of Orissa and environmentalist about setting up industries in tribal areas?
Answer. 1. These iron resources lie in some most underdeveloped and predominant tribal districts.
2. Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their home and livelihood.
3. The environmentalists feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial activities.

7. What is the meaning and importance of economic planning in Indian context?
Answer. Economic planning in India refers do a systematic regulation of economic activities by government to reduce the wastage of time and resources:
1. Economic planning helps to achieve national goals in a continuous process of development.
2. It is a rational process to associate with the future needs and goals to evaluate alternate proposals also.

8. What was Kerala Model?
Answer. Kerala model is an example of decentralised planning at the state level:
1. It is the initiative taken by Kerala for planning and development strategies.
2. It targeted on education, health, land reform, effective food distribution and poverty alleviation.
3. Kerala model initiated to implement Panchayati Raj, blocs and district level of government.

9. Which state was prone to food crisis in the early years of independence?
Answer. Bihar was prone to food crisis in the early years of independence
1. It was due to a near famine situation.
2. The food shortage was very much acute in all districts of Bihar.
3. Food shortage led to acute and widespread malnutrition.
4. The zoning policies of government prohibited trade of food across states, which reduced availability of food in Bihar.

10. Who was J.C. Kumarappa?
Answer. 1. J.C. Kumarappa was originally known as J.C. Cornelius.
2. He was an economist and chartered accountant.
3. He was the follower of Mahatma Gandhi to apply Gandhian Principles of Economic Policies.
4. He was the author of ‘Economy of Permanence’ and a member of planning commission.

11. What is Plan Holiday?
Answer. 1. Plan Holidays is a gap between two five years plan, i.e. 1979-1980 and 1990-92.
2. It was a stop gap arrangements by the provisions of annual plans.
3. Plan holidays took place due to change in government to be locked in development-goals and priorities etc.
4. Those five year plans were supposed to be reviewed and changed by the succeeding government.

12. What results were revealed by Planned Economy?
Answer. 1. Big industrialists continued to benefit.
2. The land owning classes became politically powerful.
3. Land reforms could not take place effectively.
4. The early initiatives for planned development were realising the goals of economic development.

13. Which methods were used to implement the development process in a mixed economy?
Answer. 1. Planning and governmental regulation to control economy.
2. Licensing, subsidies, progressive taxing, price control and reforfhs etc. were also implemented.
3. To make a significant role of public sector.
4. To ensure a political democracy.

14. What is ‘Mixed Economy’?
Answer. Mixed economy is an economy to co-exist private and public sector both:
1. Both the sectors work within invisible lands of market forces and visible lands of planning set by government.
2. ‘State own’ means of production to aim social welfare and ‘private own’ means of production to be regulated by states.

15. How did Indian lay down the foundation of future economic growth?
Answer. 1. Some of the largest developmental projects in India’s history were undertaken during this period to include mega dams like Bhakra- Nangal and Hirakud for irrigation and power generation.
2. Heavy industries were started in the public sector like steel plants, oil refineries, manufacturing units and defence production etc.
3. Infrastructure and communication were also improved.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. Explain any two merits and two demerits each of the Green Revolution.
Answer. Two Merits of the Green Revolution:
(i) The Green Revolution ensured food sufficiency in the country. In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
(ii) The Green Revolution resulted in the rise of middle peasant sections.
These were farmers with medium size holding, who benefited from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of the country.
Two Demerits of the Green Revolution:
(i) The Green Revolution delivered only moderate agricultural growth and raised the availability of food in the country but also increased polarisation between classes and regions.
(ii) Some regions like Punjab, Haryana and Western UP became agriculturally prosperous while others remained backward.

2. List any two merits and two demerits of Green Revolution.
Or
What is Green Revolution? Highlight any two of its effects?
Answer. Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture especially in foodgrains like wheat and Rice to increase production:
1. Production was increased by the use of high yielding varieties of seeds.
2. Scientific irrigation and fertilisers were also applied.
Merits of Green Revolution:
(а) The government offered various irrigational facilities at a subsidised prices.
(б) It resulted in the rise of ‘Middle Peasant Section’ who soon emerged politically influential.
Demerits of Green Revolution:
(a) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(b) It increased polarisation between the classes and regions like northern states i.e. Punjab, Haryana, West UP, became agriculturally rich but other remained backward.

3. How was Planning Commission of India : set up? Mention its scope of work.
Answer. Planning Commission was set up as:
1. It consists Prime Minister as its chairman.
2. Some ministers or incharges of economic portfolios.
3.The members of planning commission have a high public image alongwith an administrative and educational background.
Its scope of work:
1. To bring socio-economic change.
2. It was to provide a controlled and faster growth rate.
3. To resolve contradictions between societies.

4. describe the main functions of planning commission of India.
Answer. Planning commission was set up in 1950 by a cabinet resolution as an extra constitutional body:
1. It look advisory in nature but it is very powerful to be known as economic cabinet of country.
2. Planning commission prepares a document to have plan for income and expenditure for five year plans.
3. Planning commission prepares strategies to provide adequate means of livelihood for every man and woman.
4. It also ensures not to concentrate wealth and means of production into few hands only.

5. What was the protest against Posco plants in Orissa?
Answer. In Orissa, Posco is the state plant. The government of Orissa signed a Memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Korean Company for enhancement of the plant. But this displaced many workers working in the plant.
Hence, the workers demonstrated outside Korean Company’s office to cancel the memorandum. This demonstration was organised by Rashtriya Yuva Sanghtan and Navmirmana Samithi.

6. Which part of constitution helps the planning commission to ensure socio¬economic justice? 
Answer. The directive principles of state policy ensure the welfare through securing and protecting them from any kind of social, economic and politieal industries:
1. Men and women equally have the right to adequate means of livelihood.
2. Prevent concentration and means of production into the few hands only.
3. Equal distribution of resources.

7. What do you know about land reforms in India during planning period?
Answer. 1. Zamindari system was abolished to release land from big landlord who were least interested in agriculture.
2. Lands were consolidated to bring small pieces together to increase the farm size.
Drawbacks:
1. Despite a ‘ceiling’, people with excess land managed to violate the laws.
2. The tenants, who worked on
someoneelse’s land were given greater legal security which rarely implemented.
3. Landowners were very powerful and wielded considerable political influence.

8. What is meant by White Revolution in Gujarat?
Answer. The White Revolution in Gujarat was started by ‘Varghese Kurien’ known as milkman of India to launch Gujarat Cooperative Milk and Marketing Federation Ltd., which further launched ‘AmuF.
Amul is a dairy cooperative movement based in ‘Anand’ town of Gujarat to become a unique appropriate model for rural development and poverty alleviation.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
It was in Bihar that the food-crisis was most acutely felt as the state faced a near-famine situation. The food shortage was significant in all districts of Bihar, with 9 districts producing less than half of their normal output. Five of these districts, in fact, produced less than one- third of what they produced normally. Food deprivation subsequently led to acute and widespread malnutrition. It was estimated that the calorie intake dropped from 2200 per capital per day to as low as 1200 in many regions of the
state (as against the requirement of2450 per day for the average person.). Death rate in Bihar in 1987 was 34% higher than the number of deaths that occurred in the following year. Food prices also hit a high in Bihar during the year, even when comp
states. For wheat and rice the prices in the state were twice or more than their prices in more prosperous Punjab. The government had ‘honing” policies that prohibited tra.de of food across states* tins reduced the availability of food in Bihar dramatically. In situations such as this, the poorest sections of the so. . most.
Questions
1. What is food-crisis?
2. What were the reasons of food crisis in Bihar?
3. What do you understand by ‘Zoning’ policies of government?
Answer.
1. When any state or country face the problem of insufficiency of food in the region or food shortage is known as food crisis.
2. (i) Famine situation occurred there.
(ii) Food prices also hit a high in Bihar than other states.
(iii) Government policies of‘Zoning1 also caused it.
3. Zoning policies of government prohibit trade of food across the states which reduced the availability of food in Bihar.

2.Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Decentralized Planning: It is not necessary that all planning always lias to be centralised; nor is it that planning is only about big industries and large projects. The ‘Kerala modle’ is the name given to the path of planning and development charted by the Stats of Kerala .There has been a focus model on education, health, land refoiin, effective food distribution, and poverty alleviation. Despite low per capita incomes,
and a relatively weak industrial base, Kerala achieved nearly total literacy,long life expectency ,low infant and female mortality, low birth .rates and Mgb access to medical care. Between 1987 and 1991, the government launched the New Democratic Initiative which involved campaigns for development (including total literacy especially in science and environment) designed to involve people directly in development activities through voluntary citizens’ organisations. The State has also taken initiative to involve people in making plans at the Panchavat, block and district level.
Questions
1. What is meant by decentralisation?
2. Which state is the best example for this?
3. Which methods were used by state of Kerala for decentralisation?
Answer.
1. Decentralisation shares the powers even among the states and its subordinate units to run the administration in efficient manner i.e. at the Panchayats, blocs and district level.
2. Kerala which is known as ‘Kerala Model’ also.
3. 1. Campaigning for development
especially in Science and environment.
2. To involve people in making plans at Panchayat, blocs and district level.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. What was Green Revolution? Mention its any two positive and two negative consequences.
Answer. Green Revolution was introduced to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase food production through high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation. Positive Consequences:
1. In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
It resulted in the rise of what is called the ‘Middle Peasant Sections’
who were farmers with medium size holdings who benefitted from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of country. Negative Consequences:
(i) This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
(ii) It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by raising availability of foodgrains in country. On the other hand it increased polarisation between the classes and regions like Northern States i. e. Punjab, Haryana, West-U.P. became agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

2. Explain the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation agricultural development at the time of second five year plan.
Answer. At the time of second five year plan, some controversial issues rose in reference of relevancy of agriculture over industry:
1. Second five year plan emphasised on industry in place of agriculture or rural India.
2. J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian Economist proposed an alternative blueprint to emphasise on rural industrialisation.
3. Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, Chaudhary Charan Singh also commented that the planning was leading to creation of prosperity in Urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare.
Others debated that without an increase in industrial sector poverty could not be alleviated:
1. India planning did not have agrarian strategy to boost the production of foodgrains.
2. It also proposed programme of community development and spent large sums on irrigation projects and failure was not that of policy but of its non-implementation because of the politics of land owning classes.
3. Besides they also argued that even if the government had spent more money on agriculture, it would not have solved the massive problems of rural poverty.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
Al. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What message does the cartoon convey?
2. Name the person who is making efforts to balance both the sectors.
3. How was both these sectors balanced?
Answer.
1. Cartoon is trying to make balance between the private and public sector to maintain the growth of an economy adopted by India.
2. Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, the then Prime Minister of India.
3. Pt. Nehru made a balance between both the sectors by adopting the model of mixed economy to co-exist the private and public sector.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. About which state the clipping is talking about?
2. What is food-crisis?
3. What were the main reasons for food- crisis?
4. Is India now sufficient in food production?
Answer.
1. Bihar
2. Food crisis is unavailability of sufficient food or food shortage.
3. (i) High prices of food items.
(ii) Zoning policy of government.
4. Yes, due to Green Revolution foodgrain production has been increased upto maximum extent.

B. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. The state prone to food crisis during independence days!
2. The state adopted decentralisation.
3. The state where people protested against POSCO plants.
4. The state where White Revolution took place.
Answer.
1. Bihar 2. Kerala
3. Orissa 4. Gujarat

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Politics of Planned Development appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 1 Challenges of Nation Building

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which among the following statements
about the partition is incorrect?
(a) Partition of India was the outcome of the “two-nation theory”.
(b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.
(c) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
(d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border.
Answer. (d) The scheme of partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border.

2. Match the principles with instances:


Answer. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

3. Take a current political map of India (showing outlines of states) and mark the location of the following Princely States,
(a) Junagadh (b) Manipur
(c) Mysore (d) Gwalior.
Answer. Please see the Map attached at the end of the chapter. The places are marked as 3(a), 3(b), 3(c) and 3(d).

4. Here are two opinions:
Bismay: “The merger with the Indian State was an extension of democracy to the people of the Princely States.” Inderpreet: “I am not so sure, there was force being used. Democracy comes by creating consensus. ”
What is your opinion in the light of accession of Princely States and the responses of the people in these parts?
Answer. Accession of Princely States and merger with Indian union was to expand democracy all over the country because princely states never enjoyed their political rights. Indian government central government used force to extend democracy to some extent as this was mandatory to have a uniform base in the country.

5. Read the following very different statements made in August 1947: “Today you have worn on your heads a crown of thorns. The seat of power is a nasty thing. You have to remain ever wakeful on that seat… you have to he more humble and forbearing… now there will be no end to your being tested. ”
-M.K, Gandhi “India will awake to a life of freedom…. we step out from, the old to the new…. we end, today a period of ill fortune and India discovers herself again. The achievement we celebrate today is but a step, an opening of opportunity …”,
-Jawaharlal Nehru Spell out the agenda of nation building that flows from these two statements. Which one appeals more to you and why?
Answer. These two statements focus on the agenda of secularism, democracy, sovereignty and freedom. It focuses on the path which will lead to the real development and prosperity of our country. The first statement appeals to me more than the second one because it invokes the countrymen to remain awake, alert and conscious as it is not the end of our struggle. The time to build the nation initiates now.

6. What are the reasons being used by Nehru for keeping India secular? Do you think these reasons were only ethical and sentimental? Or were there some prudential reasons as well?
Answer. Reasons for keeping India secular:
1. All the Muslims did not leave India during participation, some muslims stayed in India as a minority and Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with them in a very civilised and dignified manner.
2. He advocated security and democratic rights of Muslims as a citizen of India.
No, these reasons were not only ethical and sentimental, but there were some prudential reasons also as:
1. India’s secular nature cherished its long term goals and principles
like socialism, equality, liberty and fraternity.
2. Secularism stops any single faith to become superior and inferior to those who practicised another religion. Hence it considers all citizens equal irrespective of religious affiliation.

7. Bring out two major differences between the challenge of nation building for eastern and western regions of the country at the time of Independence.
Answer. The two major differences between eastern (Bengal) and Western (Punjab) regions can be summed up as follows:
1. These regions were the muslim majority provinces to be joined. Hence, it was decided that new country Pakistan will comprise two territories i.e. West and East Pakistan.
2. Secondly, there was a problem of minorities on both sides of border (East and West). Lakhs of Hindus and Sikhs in areas of Pakistan and Muslims on the Indian side of Punjab and Bengal found themselves trapped with no option except to leave their homes.

8. What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? What was its most salient recommendation?
Answer. The State Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by central government to look into the matter of redrawing of boundaries of state:
1. The commission evolved that states’ boundaries should reflect the boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity.
2. The State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which resulted the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
3. Its most salient recommendation was the formation of linguistic states i.e. to reorganise states on the basis of accommodation of their languages to prepare a uniform base for the nation.

9. It is said that the nation is to large extent an “imagined community” held together by common beliefs, history, political aspirations and imaginations. Identify the features that make India a nation.
Answer. India proved herself through all stages of three challenges at the time of nation building like:
1. India is a secular country where people speak different languages and follow different cultures and religions to be recognised as a nation of unity in diversity with common faith and beliefs.
2. Political aspiration ensures demo¬cratic setup based on parliamentary form of government creating political competition in a democratic framework.
3. India’s imaginations established a welfare state on the principle of equality and special protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religions as well as cultural communities.

10. Read the following passage and answer the questions below:
“In the history of nation-building only the Soviet experiment bears comparison with the Indian. There too, a sense of unity had to be forged between many diverse ethnic groups, religious, linguistic communities and social classes. The scale-geographic as well as demographic was comparably massive. The raw material the state had to work with was equally unpropitious: a people divided by faith and driven by debt and disease.”
—Ramachandra Guha
(a) List the commonalities that the author mentions between India and Soviet Union and give one example for each of these from India.
(b) The author does not talk about dissimilarities between the two experiments. Can you mention two dissimilarities?
(c) In retrospect which of these two experiments worked better and why?
Answer. (a) Commonalities between India and Soviet Union:
(i) Both the nations shaped the nation on linguistic basis.
(ii) To promote welfare motives, the economic and technological developments took place in India also.
(iii) States were divided on the grounds of geographical boundary and strength of populations also in both the nations.
(b) Dissimilarities:
(i) Soviet Union was divided into 15 independent republics/countries to be disintegrated.
(ii) India maintained its unity and integrity even among diversified nature of states and peoples without any more division.
(c) The Indian experiment worked better to promote linguistic and cultural plurality without affecting unity and integrity of the nation though India adopted some diplomatic measures to make country united.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Markl
1. Name the leader who played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states to join the Indian Union.
Answer. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

2. What is meant by Two Nation Theory?
Answer. Two Nation Theory was propounded by Muhammad Ali Jinnah to create separate state for Muslims.

3. Mention the main recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953.
Answer. The main recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission was to organise states on language basis and the boundaries of states could also reflect the linguistic aspects.

4. Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1960?
Answer. Gujarati and Marathi

5. Name any four princely states that resisted their merger with the Indian Union?
Answer. Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur.

6. How many princely states consisted at the time of independence of India?
Answer. 565 princely states.

7. What was meant by princely states?
Answer. Princely states were ruled by princes who employed some form of control over their internal affairs under the supremacy of the British.

8. What was the basis of the report of States Reorganisation Commission?
Answer. States Reorganisation Commission Report was based on the distribution of boundaries of states on language basis to reflect linguistic aspects.

9. Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956?
Answer. States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

10. Whose speech was known as ‘tryst with destiny’?
Answer. ‘Tryst with destiny’ speech was delivered by the first Prime Minister of independent India Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru while addressing special session of constituent Assembly as the midnight of 14-15 August 1947.

11. Name the states which decided to remain independent in place of joining India.
Answer.  Travancore, Junagadh, Hyderabad and Bhopal decided to remain independent.

12. In which Congress Session proposal for linguistic principles of reorganisation was accepted?
Answer. Nagpur Congress Session of 1920.

13. Name the movement which demanded the separate province for Andhra region.
Answer. The Vishalandhra movement demanded that Telugu speaking areas should be separated from Madras Province of which they were a part and be made into a separate Andhra Province.

14. Why did Amritsar and Kolkata become communal zones?
Answer. Amritsar and Kolkata became communal zones because Muslims did not wish to move into area of Hindus and Sikhs majority and on the other hand Hindus and Sikhs also wanted to stay away from the areas of Muslim predominance.

15. Define Globalisation.
Answer. Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on interdependence.

16. What is WSF?
Answer. WSF is the World Social Forum, a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
1. Identify any two consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
Answer. 1. Communal Riots took place as the people of one community were killed and maimed by the people of other community in the name of religion.
2. People went through immense sufferings as they were forced to abandon their homes and to secure temporary shelter in the refugee camps. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of border.

2. Mention any two challenges that India faced just after independence.
Answer. (i) Challenge to shape a nation
(ii) Challenges to establish democracy.
Or
(iii) Challenge to ensure the development and well being of the entire society.

3. Name the original states from which the following states were carved out.
(a) Meghalaya (b) Gujarat
Answer. (a) Assam (1972) (b) Bombay (1960)

4. Explain the role played by Sardar Patel in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
Answer. Sardar Patel negotiated with the rulers of princely states and diplomatically merged most of them into the Indian Union i.e. there were 26 small states in today’s Orissa and 14 big states and 119 small states in today’s Gujarat.

5. Which state got divided on bilingual basis?
Answer. Bombay got divided on bilingual basis consisting of Gujarat and Marathi speaking people. After popular agitation, the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960.

6. Name the leader who advocated separate state of Andhra Pradesh by observing fast unto death and participation in Salt Satyagraha.
Answer. The leader Potti Sriramulu of Madras resigned from government job to participate in Salt Satyagraha and advocated equality in the society and demanded entry of dalits in temples of Madras as well as observed fast unto death since 19 October 1952 to create separate state of Andhra Pradesh

7. What was government’s approach towards the integration of princely states was based on three considerations?
Answer. 1. Most of the princely states willingly wanted to join Indian Union.
2. The government wanted to accommo¬date plurality by adopting flexible approach in dealing with the demand of the region.
3. The central government was so much concerned towards integration and consolidation of territorial boundaries of Indian nation.

8. Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the time of independence?
Answer. Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of independence:
1. Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims only.
2. There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’.

9. “India got independence under very difficult circumstances rather than any other country”. Justify the statement.
Answer. India got independence in 1947 under very difficult circumstances:
1. Freedom came with the partition of the country.
2. The year 1947 became the year of unprecedented violence and trauma.
3. Still our leader faced all these challenges in an appreciable manner by accommodating regional diversities also.

Short Answer Type Questions [4 Marks]
1. How was the princely state of Manipur acceded to India?
Answer. Due to integration of princely states, Maharaja of Manipur Bodhachandra Singh signed the Instrument of Accession with the India Government on the assurance to be maintained the internal autonomy of Manipur:
1. The state became a constitutional Monarchy after it conducted elections in 1948 to become first state to hold elections based on ‘Universal Adult Franchise’.
2. But sharp differences arose in Legislative Assembly over the question of merger of Manipur with India while the state congress wanted the merger other political parties were opposed to this.

2. Describe briefly any four problems faced in the process of partition of India.
Answer. The process of partition had been started in 1940 when Muslim League Propounded Two Nation Theory. This process involved various problems:
1. Areas were supposed to be distributed on the basis of religions majority i.e. Muslim majority areas built Pakistani territory and rest stayed with India. It created communal riots in country.
2. No single belt of muslim majority was the part of British India. They were concentrated in East and West. Hence, it was decided that Pakistan will comprise two territories namely East and West Pakistan separated by long expansion of India territory.
3. All muslim majority areas did not want to be merged with Pakistan
i. e. it was opposed in NWFP. But ultimately NW.FP was made to merge with Pakistan.
4. Another problem belonged to minorities on both sides of border
i. e. Lakhs of Hindus and Muslims and Sikhs from both the sides were left with no option except to leave their homes.

3. Name the states divided on the basis of sub-regional culture.
Answer. In the late 20th century, some states sub-regions raised the voice for separate states accommodating their regional culture on the ground of complaints of regional imbalances. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Uttaranchal were created in 2000 on the basis of separate regional culture only.

4. Explain three challenges which independent India faced during the process of Nation Building.
Answer. India had to face many challenges immediately after she got independence, which can be summed up as follows:
1. Challenge to Shape a Nation: India was divided among various states at the time of independence. Hence a great challenge arose to unity and integrate country into one bond Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took upon himself to integrate these states either wilfully or diplomatically to be completed into different stages.
2. To Establish Democratic Setup: India constituted representative democracy based on parliamentary form of government and it was a great challenge to develop these democratic practices in the nation.
3. To Ensure Development and Well Being of the Society: Indian polity made herself to achieve welfare goods with the environment of effective economic policies and eradication of poverty and unemployment.

5. What problems were involved at the integration of princely states during nation building?
Answer. Integration of princely states possessed many difficulties in front of nation builders:
1. British announced to lapse of British
Paramountcy over princely states with the end of their rule over India.
2. British government took the view that all these states were free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent wilfully. It became a hindrance for unity of nation.
3. Ruler of Travancore declared the states an independent one.
4. Nizam of Hyderabad and Bhopal also followed Travancore.
5. These responses created a possibility of division of country in place of unity and democracy.

6. Write a short note on the people’s movement of Hyderabad.
Answer. Hyderabad was the largest princely state of India under the rule of Nizam. One of the world’s richest person. Nizam wanted Hyderabad to be an independent state. But the people of Hyderabad were not happy with the rule of Nizam due to his non-democratic practices. Hence, various section of society agitated against him:
1. The peasants in Telangana region particularly rose voice against him.
2. Women also joined the movement in large number.
3. The communist and Hyderabad congress were in the forefront of movement.
4. Nizam responded by unbashing a Razakars paramilitary force on people.
5. Ultimately, the central government had to order the army to tackle and in 1948, Indian army moved in control the Nizam’s forces.
All the above mentioned situations led to an accession of Hyderabad.

7. What was the significance of linguistic reorganisation of Indian states to the nation building?
Answer. In the initial years it was felt that linguistic states may foster separatism and create pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only:
1. Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
2. Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional linguistic claims of all regions.
3. Linguistic reorganisation provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of nation.
4. Linguistic states promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Passage Based Questions [5 Marks]
1. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel, India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period, immediately after Independence, played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of Princely States in bringing most of them into the Indian Union.

Questions
1. Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
2. Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?
3. What makes the role of Sardar Patel a historic one? Explain.
Answer.
1. The Indian National Congress has been referred to as the interim government.
2. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress because it was of the view that the states should be free to adopt any course they liked.
3. Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following Independence. He negotiated with the rulers of princely states firmly but diplomatically and brought most of them into the Indian Union.

2. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
We should begin to work in that spirit and in course of time all these angularities of the majority and minority communities, the Hindu community and the Muslim community-because even as regards Muslims you have Pathans, Punjabis, Shias, Sunnis and so on and among the Hindus you have Brahmins, Vaishnavas, Khatris, also Bengalees, Madrasis, and so on-will vanish. … You are free; you are free to go to your temples, you are free to go to your mosques or to any other place of worship in this State of Pakistan. You may belong to any religion or caste or creed-that has nothing to do with the business of the State.
—Mohammad Ali Jinnah

Questions
1. Do you think that Jinnah’s statement contradicts the theory which was the basis of creation of Pakistan? Justify your answer.
2. What is the essence of Jinnah’s statement in this passage?
3. To what extent did Pakistan live up to Jinnah’s expectations in this passage?
Answer.
1. Jinnah’s statement does not con-tradict the ‘Two Nations’ Theory’ as he aimed at the creation of separate state for Muslims without any interference in other communities like Pathans, Punjabis, Shias and Sunnis.
2. The essence of Jinnah’s statement in this passage is his secular outlook regarding the protection and promotion of every community by giving freedom to practices one’s own beliefs (religiously).
3. Pakistan did not live up to Jinnah’s expectations because Pakistan became an orthodox Muslim country that did not respect interests of another communities after indepen-dence.

3. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument.. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it.
—Jawaharlal Nehru

Questions
1. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru want to deal with the muslim minority in a civilised way?
2. Why this minority should be given the security and rights-on the same footing as 20 all others in a democratic system?
3. If this minority was not provided security and rights w’hat kind of scenario is envisaged?
Answer.
1. Because India adopted democracy which commit equal rights and opportunities to each and every human being in place of dividing them.
2. It was argued by Jawaharlal Nehru not only for ethical and sentimental reasons but prudential reasons also to realise long cherished goals and principles as socialism, equality, and fraternity.
3. If this minority was not provided security and rights it may effect:
1. Basic nature of democratic system.
2. It is against secular nature of India.
3. It may effect India’s foreign policy also.
4. It may threat to other minorities also.
5. Most important it may lead to disintegration of the nation.

Long Answer Type Questions [6 Marks]
1. What forced the Union Government of India to appoint the State Reorganisation Commission in 1953? Mention its two main recommendations. Name any four new states formed after 1956.
Answer. 1. State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 by central Government to rearrange the boundaries of states.
2. Its main recommendations were to organise states on language basis as well as the boundaries of state could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
3. The Madras province under British India created following linguistic states:
(a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
(b) Tamilnadu (Tamil)
(c) Kerala (Malayalam)
(cl) Karnataka (Kannad)
4. The state Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which created 14 states and 6 Union territories.

2. Explain any three challenges faced by India at the time of its independence.
Answer. India had to face many challenges immediately after she got independence, which can be summed up as follows:
1. Challenge to Shape a Nation: India was divided among various states at the time of independence. Hence a great challenge arose to unify and integrate country into one bond. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took upon himself to integrate these states either wishfully or diplomatically to be completed into different stages.
2. To Establish Democratic Set up: India constituted representative democracy based on parliamentary form of government and it was a great challenge to develop these democratic practices in the nation.
3. To Ensure Development and Well Being of the Society: Indian polity made herself to achieve welfare goals with the evolvement of effective economic policies and eradication of poverty and unemployment.

3. How did the reorganisation of states take place in India after its independence? Explain.
Answer. 1. In the initial years it was felt that linguistic states may foster seperatism and create pressures on newly founded nation, but India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only.
2. State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in 1953 central Government to rearrange the boundaries of states.
3. Its main recommendations were to organise states on language basis as well as the boundaries of states could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
4. The State Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which created 14 states and 6 union territories.
5. Linguistic states enhanced demo¬cratic practices.
6. Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional and linguistic claims of all regions.

4. Explain any three consequences of partition in India.
Answer. 1. In the name of religion, people of one community killed and mained people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Kolkata and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. People went through social sufferings also be forced to abandon their homes especially minorities, who took shelter in refugee camps.
3. To preserve the honour of family, many women were killed even many children were separated from their family and if crossed borders, they did not have any home.
4. The partition did not only divide property, assets or liabilities but also the government employees and the railways etc.

5. Assess the role played by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in nation building.
Answer. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is also known as ‘Iron man of India’, became India’s Deputy Prime minister and Home minister during integration of princely states. He played a historic role in negotiating the rulers of princely states and diplomatically brought most of them in Indian Union. It was very complicated which required skilful persuation i.e. there were 26 small states in today’s
Orissa, Saurashtra region of Gujarat had 14 states with 119 small states etc.

Picture/Map Based Questions [5 Marks]
Al. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. What does this picture represent?
2. Mention some consequences of partition.
3. Which year is being denoted in the picture?
Answer.
1. This picture represents the painful scene of partition of country when people were supposed to leave their homes.
2. (i) Communal Riots (ii) Social Sufferings
(iii) Administrative Concerns and Financial Strains.
3. The year of 1947, most abrupt, unplanned year in the history.

2. Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions
1. Identify the person in the centre of the cartoon and mention the challenge surrounding him.
2. What does the picture actually refer?
3. How did India avoid all these conflicts?
Answer.
1. The person is the first Prime Minister of India Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru, who faced the first and foremost challenge of integration of princely states and formation of linguistic states.
2. The picture refers the problem of reorganisation of states on linguistic basis with the fear of disintegration in the country.
3. India identified and respected regional demands of the people and enhanced democracy by providing some autonomy to the states also.

B. On a political outline map of India locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

Questions
1. Name and mark the original state from . which the following states were carved out.
(a) Gujarat (b) Meghalaya (c) Haryana (d) Chhattisgarh
2. Name and mark the countries reorganised on religious grounds.
3. Demarcated boundaries of these countries by geographical zones.
Answer.
1. (a) Gujarat (from Bombay)
(b) Meghalaya (from Assam)
(c) Haryana (from Punjab)
(d) Chhattisgarh (from Madhya Pradesh)
2. (a) India (b) Pakistan
3. (a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh

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NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Political Science Chapter 5 Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System

 TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

1. Which of these statements about the 1967 elections is/are correct?
(a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many states.
(b) Congress lost both Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
(c) Congress lost majority in the Lok Sabha but formed a coalition government with the s upport of some other parties.
(d) Congress retained power at the Centre with an increased majority. Ans. (a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many states.
Answer. (a) Congress won the Lok Sabha elections but lost the Assembly elections in many states.
(c) Congress lost majority in the Lok Sabha but formed a coalition government with the support of some other parties.