NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 1

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 2

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 3

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 4

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 6

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sanchyan Hindi Chapter 5

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science – Chapter 12: Electricity

Page 200

What does an electric circuit mean?
Electric circuit is a continuous and closed path made of conducting wires, through which the electric current flows. It comprises a cell, ammeter, voltmeter, plug key, etc.
Define the unit of current.
SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
Ampere is the flow of electric charges through an area at the rate of one coulomb per second, i.e. if 1 coulomb of electric charge flows through a cross-section of wire for 1 second, then it would be equal to 1 ampere.

Page 202

Question 1:
Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Answer:
Cell or battery eliminator.

Question 2:
What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
Answer:
As we know that V = W / q
Thus, the potential difference between two points is one volt when one joule of work is done to carry a charge of one coulomb between the two points in the electric field.

Question 3:
How much energy is given to one coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Answer:

Page 209

Question 1:
On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
Answer:
Resistance of a conductor depends upon:
(i) Resistivity of the material.
(ii) Length of the conductor.
(iii) Cross-sectional area of the conductor.

Question 2:
Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or thin wire of the same material when connected to the same source? Why?
Answer:
The current flows more easily through a thick wire than through a thin wire because the resistance of thick wire is less than that of a thin wire as R ∝ 1/A.

Question 3:
Let the resistance of an electrical component remains constant while the potential difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current through it?
Answer:

Hence, the current through an electrical component also becomes half of its previous value.

Question 4:
Why are the coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Answer:
The coils of electric toaster and electric iron are made of an alloy rather than a pure metal because of the following reasons;
(i) The resistivity of an alloy is higher than that of a pure metal.
(ii) It has high melting point and does not oxidise.

Question 5:
Use the data in Table 12.2 of NCERT book to answer the following:
(a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?
(b) Which material is the best conductor? ‘
Answer:
(a) Iron because its resistivity is less than mercury.
(b) Silver is the best conductor as it has least resistivity.

Page 213

Question 1:
Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor, a 8 Ω resistor and a 12 Ω resistor and a plug key, all connected in series.
Answer:

Question 2:
Redraw the circuit of the above question, putting in an ammeter to measure the current through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the voltage across the 12 resistor. What would be the reading in the ammeter and the voltmeter?
Answer:

Total resistance of the circuit = R
Since all the three resistors are connected in series, so, the equivalent resistance R is equal to the sum of all resistance.
R = 5 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω = 25 Ω

Page 216

Question 1:
Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel.
(a) 1 Ω and 10⁶ Ω
(b) 1 Ω , 10³ Ω and 10⁶ Ω
Answer:
Equivalent resistance in parallel combination of resistors is always less than the least resistance of any resistor in the circuit.
Hence, in both the given cases, the equivalent resistance is less than 1 Ω.

Question 2:
An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all three appliances and what is the current flows through it?
Answer:

Question 3:
What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of connecting them in series ?
Answer:
Advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel:
(i) When the appliances are connected in parallel with the battery, each appliance gets the same potential difference as that-of battery which is not possible in series connection.
(ii) Each appliance has different resistances and requires different currents to operate properly. This is possible only in parallel connection, as in series connection, same current flows through all devices, irrespective of their resistances.
(iii) If one appliance fails to work, other will continue to work properly.

Question 4:
How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of (a) 4 Ω (b) 1 Ω?
Answer:
(a) In order to get 4 Ω, resistance 2 Ω should be connected in series with the parallel combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω.

Question 5:
What is (a) the highest (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combination of four coils of resistances 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
Answer:
(a) The highest resistance is secured by combining all four coils of resistance in series.
R_s = 4 Ω+ 8 Ω + 12 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω
(b) The lowest resistance is secured by combining all four coils of resistance in parallel.

Page 218

Question 1:
Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
Answer:
The cord of an electric heater is made up of metallic wire such as copper or aluminum which has low resistance while the heating element is made up of an alloy which has more resistance than its constituent metals. Also heat produced ‘H’ is

H = I²Rt

Thus, for the same current H oc R, so for more resistance, more heat is produced by heating element and it glows.

Question 2:
Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 C of charge in one hour through a potential difference of 50 V.
Answer:

Question 3:
An electric iron of resistance 20 Q takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
Answer:
Given R = 20 Ω, I = 5 A, t = 30 s
H = I²Rt = (5)² x 20 x 30 = 15000 J = 1.5 x 10⁴ J

Page 220

Question 1:
What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?
Answer:
Electric power determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current.

Question 2:
An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy consumed in 2 h.
Answer:
Given I = 5 A, V = 220 V, t = 2 h Power,
p = VI = 220 x 5 = 1100 W
Energy consumed = Vlt = Pt
= 1100 x 2 = 2200 Wh

TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS

Question 1:
A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R’, then the ratio R/R’ is

Answer:

Question 2:
Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
(a) I²R
(b) IR²
(c) VI
(d) V^2/R
Answer:
(b) P = V^2/R = I²R = VI Option (b) does not represent electrical power.

Question 3:
An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
Answer:

Question 4:
Two conducting wires of same material and of equal lengths and diameters are first connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Answer:

Question 5:
How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?
Answer:
A voltmeter is connected in parallel across any two points in a circuit to measure the potential difference between them with its +ve terminal to the point at higher potential and -ve terminal to the point at lower potential of the source.

Question 6:
A copper wire has a diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 X 10^-8 Ωm. What will be the length of this wire to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled?
Answer:

Question 7:
The values of the current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V across the resistor are given below:

Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
Answer:

Question 8:
When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Answer:

Question 9:
A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω, respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?
Answer:
Since all the resistors are in series, the same current, 0.67 A flows through the 12 Ω resistor.

Question 10:
How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
Answer:

Question 11:
Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 Ω , so that the combination has a resistance of (i) 9 Ω , (it) 4 Ω .
Answer:
(i) When two 6 Ω resistances are in parallel and the third is in combination to this, the equivalent resistance will be 9 Ω.

(ii) When two 6 Ω resistances are in series and the third is in parallel to them, then it will be 4 Ω.

Question 12:
Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum allowable current is 5 A?
Answer:
Since, N bulbs of power P each connected in parallel will make the total power of NP,

Question 13:
A hot plate of an electric oven connected to 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 Q resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the currents in the three cases?
Answer:

Question 14:
Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of the following circuits.
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors, and
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors.
Answer:

Question 15:
Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
Answer:

Question 16:
Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Answer:
Energy consumed by 250 W TV set in 1 h = 250 x 1 = 250 Wh.
Energy consumed by 1200 W toaster in 10 min = 1200 X 1/6 = 200 Wh.
∴ Energy consumed by TV set is more than the energy consumed by toaster in the given timings.

Question 17:
An electric heater of resistance 8 f2 draws 15 A from the service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
Answer:

Question 18:
Explain the following.
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(e) Why are copper and aluminum wires usually employed for electricity transmission?
Answer:
(a) It has high melting point and emits light at a high temperature.
(b) It has more resistivity and less temperature coefficient of resistance.
(c) (i) All appliances do not get same potential in series arrangement.
(ii) All appliances cannot be individually operated.
(d) R ∝ =1 / Area of cross – section.
(e) They are very good conductors of electricity.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1:
Three 2 Ω resistors, A, B and C are connected as shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy and can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.
Answer:

Question 2:
Should the resistance of an ammeter be low or high? Give reason.
Answer:
The resistance of an ammeter should be low so that it will not disturb the magnitude of current flowing through the circuit when connected in series in a circuit.

Question 3:
How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Answer:
The fuse wire is always connected in series with the live wire or electrical devices. If the flow of current exceeds the specified preset value due to some reason, the heat produced melts it and disconnects the circuit or the device from the mains. In this way, fuse wire protects the electrical appliances.

Question 4:
What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical circuit comprising a resistor made up of a metallic wire, the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the ammeter decreases to half when the length of the wire is doubled. Why?
Answer:
The resistance offered by a metallic wire of unit length and unit cross-sectional area is called electrical resistivity.

Hence, when the length of wire is doubled, the resistance becomes double and current decreases to half.

Question 5:
A current of 1 ampere flows in a series circuit containing an electric lamp and a conductor of 5 Ω when connected to a 10 V battery. Calculate the resistance of the electric lamp.
Now if a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in parallel with this series combination, what change (if any) in current flowing through 5 Ω conductor and potential difference across the lamp will take place? Give reason.
Answer:

Question 6:
Why is parallel arrangement used in domestic wiring?
Answer:
Parallel arrangement is used in domestic wiring because
(i) Each appliance gets the same voltage as that of the mains supply.
(ii) If one component is switched off, others can work properly.
(iii) Fault in any branch of the circuit can be easily identified.

Question 7:
B_1, B₂ and B₃ are three identical bulbs connected as shown in figure. When all the three bulbs glow, a current of 3A is recorded by the ammeter A.

(i) What happens to the glow of the other two bulbs when the bulb B j gets fused?
(ii) What happens to the reading of A₁ ,A₂ , A₃ and A when the bulb B₂ gets fused?
(iii) How much power is dissipated in the circuit when all the three bulbs glow together?
Answer:
(i) Since B₁ ,B₂ and B₃ are in parallel, the potential difference across each of them will remain same. So when the bulb B₁ gets fused, B₂ and B₃ have the same potential and continues with the same energy dissipated per second, i.e. they will glow continuously as they were glowing before.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 8:
Three incandescent bulbs of 100 W each are connected in series in an electric circuit. In another circuit, another set of three bulbs of the same wattage are connected in parallel to the same source.
(а) Will the bulb in the two circuits glow with the same brightness? Justify your answer.
(b) Now let one bulb in both the circuits get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue to glow in each circuit? Give reason.
Answer:

(a) The bulbs in the two circuits will not glow equally bright as the current through them is not the same.

(b) As one bulb fuses, the other bulbs in the series circuit will not glow because the circuit becomes an open circuit. While the rest of bulbs in parallel circuit will continue to glow without getting disturbed because in parallel combination, current gets additional paths to flow.

Question 9:
Find out the following in the electric circuit given in figure:


Answer:

(e) No difference, since the ammeters are connected in series and same current will pass through them, so reading of both ammeters will be same.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Pre-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1

Periodic Assessment 1

Suggested Syllabus

Unit 1 : India and the Contemporary World – II (History) 20 Marks

Themes
In sub-unit 1.1 students are required to choose any two themes. In that sub-unit, theme 3 is compulsory and for second theme students are required to choose any one from the first two themes.
Sub-unit 1.1 : Events and processes : Any two of the following themes:

1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe :
   (a) The growth of nationalism in Europe after the 1830s.
   (b) The ideas of Giuseppe Mazzini, etc. .
   (c) General characteristics of the movements in Poland, Hungary, Italy, Germany and Greece. (Chapter 1).

2. The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China: Factors leading to Growth of Nationalism in Indo-China.
   (a) French colonialism in Indo-China.
   (b) Phases -of struggle against the French,
   (c) The ideas of Phan Chu Trinh, Phan Boi Chau, Ho Chi Minh.
   (d) The Second World War and the liberation struggle,
   (e) America and the Vietnam war. (Chapter 2)

3. Nationalism in India:
   (a) Impact of First World War, Khilafat, Non-Cooperation and Differing Strands within the Movement,
   (b) Salt Satyagraha.
   (c) Movements of peasants, workers, tribals.
   (d) Limits of Civil Disobedience,
   (e) The Sense of Collective Belonging. (Chapter 3)

Map Work

A. History – Outline Political Map of India.
Lesson-3 Nationalism in India – (1918 – 1930) For locating and labelling / Identification.

1. Indian National Congress Sessions:
   Calcutta (September, 1920)                   Madras (1927)
   Nagpur (December, 1920)                     Lahore (1929)

2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement:
   (Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement)
   (i) Champaran (Bihar) – Movement of Indigo Planters
   (ii) Kheda (Gujarat) – Peasant Satyagraha
   (iii) Ahmedabad (Gujarat) – Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha
   (iv) Amritsar (Punjab) – Jallianwala Bagh Incident
   (v) Chauri Chaura (U.P.) – Calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement
   (vi) Dandi (Gujarat) – Civil Disobedience Movement

Unit 2 : Contemporary India – II (Geography) 20 Marks

Themes

1. Resources and Development : Types – natural and human; need for resource planning, natural resources, land as a resource, soil types and distribution; changing land-use pattern; land degradation and conservation measures. (Chapter 1)
2. Water Resources: Sources, distribution, utilisation, multi-purpose projects, water scarcity, need for conservation and management, rainwater harvesting. (One case study to be introduced). (Chapter 3)

Map Work

B. Geography – Outline Political Map of India
Chapter 1: Resources and Development
Identification only: Major soil types.

Chapter 3: Water Resources
Locating and labelling

Dams :
(1) Salal
(2) Bhakra Nangal
(3) Tehri
(4) Rana Pratap Sagar
(5) Sardar Sarovar
(6) Hirakud
(7) Nagarjuna Sagar
(8) Tungabhadra (Along with rivers)

Unit 3 : Democratic Politics – II (Political Science) 20 Marks

Themes
1 & 2. Power Sharing & Federalism:

Why and how is power shared in democracies? How has federal division of power in India helped national unity? To what extent has decentralisation achieved this objective? How does democracy accommodate different social groups? (Chapter 1 & 2)

Unit 4 : Understanding Economic Development (Economics) 20 Marks
Themes

1. Development: The traditional notion of development: national income and per-capita income. Growth of national income – critical appraisal of existing development indicators (PCI, IMR, SR and other income and health indicators). The need for health and educational development: Human Development Indicators (in simple and brief) as a holistic measure of development.

Sample Paper 1

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

1.A Name two secret societies founded by Giuseppe Mazzini.  [1]
OR
1.B Who was the founder of Hoa Hao movement in Vietnam?

2. When did Gandhi-Irwin pact take place? [1]

3. What are two types of resources on the basis  of origin?  [1]

4. Which soil is ideal for growing cotton? [1]

5. Water covers about what percent of the earth’s surface?        [1]

6. In which country majoritarianism led to civil  war?          [1]

7. What does HDI stand for? [1]

8. A How was Italy unified? Explain. [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three steps taken by the French to achieve their aim to exploit the natural resources of Vietnam.

9. What was the objective of the Simon Commission? Why was it opposed in India? [3]

10. Explain any three steps that can be taken to solve the problem of land degradation. [3]

11. Explain the role of human in resource development. [3]

12. Describe three traditional methods of rainwater harvesting practised in India. [3]

13. Give three reasons for civil war in Sri Lanka. [3]

14. Describe horizontal and vertical power sharing in modem democracies. [3]

15. Describe any three features of federalism. [3]

16. Explain any three social indicators of development. [3]

17. What do you mean by Human Development Index? What are its three components? [3]

18. Mention any three characteristics of development. [3]

19. A How was the formation of the nation-state the result of a long-drawn-out process in Britain? Explain.   [5]

OR

19.B How did the battle against French colonialism become a part of the battle for independence of Vietnam? Explain.

20. How did the sense of collective belonging and nationalism develop in India? Explain. [5]

21. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaim the dams as the temples of modem India? [5]

22. Describe the different forms of power sharing in modem democracies. Give an example of each type.        [5]

23. Describe any four features of federalism? [5]

24. Differentiate between national income and per capita income. Critically examine existing development indicators.       [5]

25. How are economic development and human development related to each other? Explain. [5]

26. Locate and label the following items on the given outline political map of India. [½ + ½ = 1]
(i) Dandi (ii) Kheda

27. Two features A and B qre marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [½ + ½ = 1]

(A) The place where Congress session was held in 1929.

(B) The place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.

28. Locate and label the following on the given map of India.
(i) Salal Dam
(ii) Tehri Dam
(iii) River Mahanadi

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law.

(28.2) Name the place of Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha in 1917.

(28.3) On which river is Hirakud Dam located?

(28.4) Name an area of Red Soil.

(28.5) In which state is Tehri Dam located?

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CBSE Sample Papers for Pre-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 2

1.A When did the French Revolution begin?               [1]

OR

1. B How was the maritime silk route useful for Vietnam? [1]

2. Name two prominent leaders of the Khilafat Movement. [1]

3. What is a ubiquitous resource? [1]

4. Name a conventional source of energy. [1]

5. On which river is Sardar Sarovar dam built? [1]

6. Which two languages are mainly spoken in Belgium? [1]

7. Which organisation publishes Human Development Report? [1]

8.A How did the French Revolution affect other parts of Europe? [3]

OR

8.B Describe the major protest which erupted in Saigon Native Girls School.

9. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to launch a nationwide struggle or Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act? Explain any three reasons. [3]

10. Explain the importance of conservation of resources. [3]

11. Explain any three steps that can be taken to solve the problem of land degradation. [3]

12. What do you mean by rainwater harvesting? [3]

13. Explain two reasons why power sharing is desirable.        [3]

14. Explain how Belgium was able to solve her ethnic problem.        [3]

15. Explain the role of judiciary in implementing federalism. [3]

16. What are the three components of Human Development Index (HDI)? Explain. [3]

17. Why are public facilities needed for the development of the country? Explain three points. [3]

18. What is development? What are the two aspects of development?     [3]

19. A Describe the process of unification of Germany. [5]

OR

19.B Describe the major problems in the field of education for the French in Vietnam.

20. “Nationalism spreads when the people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.”Support the statement.     [5]

21. List any three disadvantages and two advantages of multipurpose river projects. [5]

22. Bring out the main features of the Belgian model of governance. [5]

23. Analyse the disadvantages of decentralization. [5]

24. “For development people look at a mix of goals.” How? Explain with suitable examples. [5]

25. How can more jobs be created in the field of education? Explain with examples. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [½+ ½= 1]
(i) Lahore
(ii) Amritsar

27. Two features A and B are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.   [½+ ½= 1]
(A) The place where Congress session was held in 1927.
(B) The place where Congress session was held in September 1920.

28. Locate and label the following on the given map of India.

(i) River Narmada
(ii) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(iii)River Tungabhadra

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Name the place where Pooma Swaraj resolution was passed.

(28.2) Name the place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.

(28.3) Name a state of alluvial soil.

(28.4) Where is Sardar Sarovar dam located?

(28.5) Which river is called as Dakshin Ganga?

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CBSE Sample Papers for Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1

Periodic Assessment 2

Suggested Syllabus

Unit 1 : India and the Contemporary World – II (History) 20 Marks

Themes

Sub-unit 1.2: Livelihoods, Economies and Societies.
Any one of the following themes:

4. The making of a Global World:
   (a) The Pre-modem world
   (b) The nineteenth century global economy, colonialism
   (c) The Inter-war economy (Great Depression)
   (d) Rebuilding the world economy.

5. The Age of Industrialization:
   (a) Proto-industrialisation and pace of industrial change
   (b) Life of workers
   (c) Industrialization in the colonies
   (d) Early Entrepreneurs & workers
   (e) The peculiarities of industrial growth (f) Market for goods.

6. Work, Life & Leisure:
   (a) Development of modern cities due to Industrialisation in London and Bombay
   (b) Housing and land reclamation
   (c) Social changes in the cities
   (d) Cities and the challenge of the environment

Unit 2 : Contemporary India – II (Geography) 20 Marks

4. Agriculture : Types of farming, major crops, cropping pattern, technological and institutional reforms; their impact; contribution of agriculture to national economy-employment and output.
   Note : Content of pg no. 44-47 of NCERT Textbook is to be deleted. (Chapter 4)

5. Minerals and Energy Resources: Types of minerals, distribution (Note : on map only) use and economic importance of minerals, conservation, types of power resources: conventional and non- conventional, distribution and utilisation, and conservation. (Chapter 5)

Map Work

Chapter 4: Agriculture:
Identification only
(a) Major areas of rice and wheat.
(b) Largest / Major producer states of sugarcane; tea; coffee; rubber; cotton and jute.

Chapter 5: Mineral and Energy Resources:

Minerals: (Identification only)

Unit 3 : Democratic Politics – II (Political Science) 20 Marks

3 & 4. Democracy and Diversity & Gender, Religion and Caste:

Are divisions inherent to the working of democracy? What has been the effect of caste on politics and of politics on caste? How has the gender division shaped politics? How do communal divisions affect democracy? (Chapter 3 & 4)

5. Popular Struggles and Movements

(Note : Ch-5 is to be done as project work only and will not be evaluated in theory)

Unit 4 : Understanding Economic Development (Economics) 20 Marks

2. Sectors of the Indian Economy: *Sectors of Economic Activities; Historical change in sectors; Rising importance of tertiary sector; Employment Generation; Division of Sectors – Organized and Unorganized; Protective measures for unorganized sector workers.
   (Chapter 2)
3. Money and Credit : Role of money in an economy: Formal and Informal financial institutions for Savings and Credit – General Introduction; Select one formal institution such as a nationalized commercial bank and a few informal institutions; Local moneylenders, landlords, chit funds and private finance companies. (Chapter 3)

(Note : Ch-3 will also be evaluated in theory).

Sample Paper 1

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

1.A Which precious metal discovered from mines of Peru and Mexico enhanced Europe’s wealth? [1]

OR

1.B Who improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen and patented the new engine in 1781?

OR

1.C Which cities were considered as Presidency cities during British India?

2. What is commercial farming?        [1]

3. Name the three cropping seasons in India.         [1]

4. Define mineral.     [1]

5. Which is the largest bauxite producing state in India?          [1]

6. Who was the leader of Civil Rights Movement?     [1]

7. In which sector are most of the people employed in India?       [1]

8.A Explain the three types of flows within the international economic exchange during 1815 – 1914. [3]

8.B Why did the East India Company appoint gomasthas in India?

OR

8.C Why were the underground railways referred to as the ‘Iron Monsters’?

9.A What is meant by the Bretton Woods system? Explain.           [3]

OR

9.B Explain the miserable conditions of Indian weavers during the East India Company’s regime in the 18^th century.

9.C Why did the population of London expand from the middle of the 18^th century?

10.A Give two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability. [3]

OR

10.B Explain the impact of First World War on Indian industries.

OR

10.C Highlight any three problems faced by people who migrated to Bombay (Mumbai).

11. Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth. [3]

12. What are the uses of limestone? Mention any two states which are major producers of limestone. [3]

13. What are the different forms of power sharing? Explain. [3]

14. How does communalism create problems in politics? [3]

15. Which factors have led to the weakening of caste hierarchy in India? [3]

16. How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?               [3]

17. Explain how public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation. [3]

18. Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India?                                                     [3]

19. A How  is culture a great agent of globalisation? Explain with example.   [5]

OR

19.B Describe any four impacts of Manchester imports on the cotton weavers of India.

OR

19.C Describe any four new types of entertainment that came up in the 19^th century in England for the common people.

20.A What was the impact of First World War on the socio-economic conditions of the world? Describe any four points.    [5]

OR

20.B Describe the main features of pre-colonial trade.

OR

20.C “The city of London had a powerful migrant population.” Explain the reasons.

21. Distinguish between intensive subsistence farming and commercial farming. [5]

22. Is political expression of social division in democracy beneficial? Explain. [5]

23. How does communalism take various forms in politics? Explain. [5]

24. Why is the tertiary sector growing so rapidly in India? Explain it with four                        [5]

25. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development? [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.
(i) Uran
(ii) Narora

27. Two features A and B are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [½ + ½= 1]
(A) Iron ore mine.
(B) Mica producing area.

28. Locate and label the following items on the given outline political map of India. [3]
(i) Namrup thermal power plant
(ii) Kaiga nuclear power plant
(iii) Kalpakkam

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28.  [5]

(28.1) Name one major rice producing state.

(28.2) Name the largest producer state of rubber.

(28.3) Name an iron ore mine in Karnataka.

(28.4) Name one mica mine in Jharkhand.

(28.5) Where is Digboi oilfield located?

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 10

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 11

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 12

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 13

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishHindiSanskritRD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 14

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NCERT Solutions For Class 9 Sparsh Hindi Chapter 15

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CBSE Sample Papers for Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 2

1.A Which was the fabled city of gold? [1]

OR                                            .

1.B Who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta (Kolkata) and when?

2. What is mixed farming? [1]

3. What is sericulture? [1]

4. Where is the largest solar plant located in India? [1]

5. What are petrochemicals? [1]

6. How do social differences originate? [1 ]

7. Name the two sectors on the basis of ownership of enterprises. [1]

8.A Which were the chief colonial powers in the 19th century? Give examples with their colonies. [3]

OR

8.B Name any two earliest Indian entrepreneurs. Explain their contribution.

OR

8.C Who was William Hornby? Explain his contribution.

9.A Who were the earliest colonisers of America? How did they colonise? [3]

OR

9.B Who was a gomastha? Explain his job.

OR

9.C What do you mean by chawls?

10.A When was the indentured labour system abolished? Why? [3]

OR

10.B What do you understand by the term Industrial Revolution?

OR

10.C Explain the problems associated with migrant population in London.

11. What are millets? Why are they considered important food crops in India? [3]

12. ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’Justify. [3]

13. When does a social difference become a social division? [3]

14. What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one?       [3]

15. Do you agree with the view that casteism has not disappeared from Indian society?          [3]

16. Distinguish between public sector and private sector. [3]

17. Explain the three main aims of MNREGA. [3]

18. What are various sources of income of banks? [3]

19.A Discuss why the Europeans were motivated to establish colonies? [5]

OR

19.B Explain the miserable conditions of Indian weavers during the East India Company’s regime in the 18th century.

OR

19.C Describe how industrialisation changed the social status of women.

20.A How is culture a great agent of globalisation? Explain. [5]

OR

20.B How did the Industrial Revolution in England affect India’s economy?

OR

20.C How is a large city a threat and an opportunity? Explain.

21. Explain four points of distinction between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. [5]

22. Is political expression of social divisions in democracy beneficial? [5]

23. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of decentralisation. [5]

24. Distinguish between primary sector and secondary sector by giving four points. [5]

25. Differentiate between formal and informal sources of credit. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [½+ ½ = 1]
(i) Ramagundam
(ii) Vijayawada

27. Two features A and B are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [½+ ½ = 1]
(A) Coal mine
(B) One oilfield

28. Locate and label the following items on the given outline political map of India.
(i) Tuticorin
(ii)Talcher
(iii) Kakrapara

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28.   [5]

(28.1) Name one major wheat producing state.

(28.2) Name the largest producer state of coffee.

(28.3) Name an iron ore mine in Maharashtra.

(28.4) Name one coal mine in Jharkhand.

(28.5) Where is Kalol oilfield located?

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Post-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1

Periodic Assessment 3

Suggested Syllabus

Unit 1 : India and the Contemporary World – II (History) 20 Marks
Sub-unit 1.3: Everyday Life, Culture and Politics.
Any one of the following themes:

7. Print Culture and the Modern World:
   (a) The History of print in Europe,
   (b) The growth of press in the nineteenth century India,
   (c) Relationship between print culture, public debate and politics. (Chapter 7)

8. Novels, Society and History:
   (a) Emergence of the novel as a genre in the west,
   (b) The relationship between the novel and changer; in modern society,
   (c) Early novels in nineteenth century India,
   (d) A study of two or three major writers. (Chapter 8)

Unit 2 : Contemporary India – II (Geography) 20 Marks

6. Manufacturing Industries: Types, spatial distribution (Note : on map only), contribution of industries to the national economy, industrial pollution and degradation of environment, measures to control degradation. [Note : Content mentioned on page no. 74-75 of NCERT, Geography Textbook i.e. Aluminium Smelting, Chemical Industries, Fertiliser Industry, Cement Industry is not required to be delivered in classroom during instruction.]
7. Life Lines of National Economy: Importance of means of Communication and transportation, Trade & Tourism (Chapter 7)

Map Work
Chapter 6: Manufacturing Industries:

Chapter 7: Lifelines of National Economy:
Identification Only: Golden Quadrilateral, North-South Corridor, East-West Corridor
National Highways:

International Airports:
Amritsar (Raja Sansi)
Delhi (Indira Gandhi International)
Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji)
Thiruvananthapuram (Nedimbacherry)
Chennai (Meenambakkam)
Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose)
Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)                                                                                                            .
(Note : Item of Locating and Labelling may also be given for Identification.)

Unit 3 : Democratic Politics – II (Political Science) 20 Marks

6. Political Parties: What role do political parties play in competition and contestation? Which are the major national and regional parties in India? (Chapter 6)
7. Outcomes of Democracy: Can or should democracy be judged by its outcomes? What outcomes can one reasonably expect of democracies? Does democracy in India meet these expectations? Has democracy led to development, security and dignity for the people? What sustains democracy in India? (Chapter 7)
8. Challenges to Democracy: Is the idea of democracy shrinking? What are the major challenges to democracy in India? How can democracy be reformed and deepened? What role can an ordinary citizen play in deepening democracy? (Chapter 8)

Unit 4 : Understanding Economic Development (Economics) 20 Marks

4. Globalisation and the Indian Economy: Production across countries, Foreign trade and Interaction of Markets, what is Globalization? Factors, WTO, Impact, Fair Globalization (Chapter 4)

5. Consumer Rights: ***How consumer is exploited (one or two simple case studies), factors causing exploitation of consumers; rise of consumer awareness; how a consumer should be in a market; role of government in consumer protection. (Chapter 5)

SAMPLE PAPER 1

1.A Name the person who started the Protestant Reformation? [1]

OR

1.B Who wrote the novel ‘Hard Times’?

2. Where was the first jute mill in India set up?   [1]

3. When was TISCO established? [1]

4. Which is the longest highway of India? [1]

5. Give an example of tidal port in India? [1]

6. Name the three types of party system. [1]

7. Name any two multinational companies. [1]

8.A Explain any three features of the first printed Bible.  [3]

OR

8.B Why did novels become popular among women? Write three points.

9.A State any three points of importance of penny chapbooks. [3]

OR

9.B Describe any three features of Bengali novels of the 19^th

10.A “The print culture created the conditions within which the French Revolution occurred.”Support the statement with three arguments.    [3]

OR

10.B What led Chandu Menon to write ‘Indulekha’?

11. Describe any three main features of the chemical industry. [3]

12. Explain any four major problems faced by Indian railways. [3]

13. “The elimination of flaws of political parties seem difficult but not impossible.” Justify. [3]

14. Describe three main features of federalism in India. [3]

15. Describe any three major challenges to democracy in India. [3]

16. Enumerate any three features of multinational corporations. [3]

17. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain. [3]

18. Highlight any three duties of consumers. [3]

19.A How did Hindu religious texts benefit from printing?   [5]

OR

19.B “Premchand’s novels are filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all strata of society.”
Support the statement by giving suitable examples.

20.A How did print culture affect women in the 19^th century India? Explain. [5]

OR

20.B Describe the popular themes on which women writers in England wrote in the 19^th century.

21. Why are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation?               [5]

22. Explain how political parties are still in the grip of some serious challenges. [5]

23. “Democracy is a better form of government.” Support the statement with three              [5]

24. Explain the relative importance of tertiary sector in India. [5]

25. Explain the factors which gave birth to the consumer movement in India. [5]

26. On the given outline political map of India, locate and label the following textile centres. [½ + ½= 1]
(i) Madurai (ii) Ahmedabad

27. Two features A and B are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [½ + ½= 1]
(A) A software technology park of Rajasthan
(B) A software technology park of Punjab

28. Locate and label the following features on the given outline political map of India.
(i) Kandla port
(ii) Paradip port
(iii) Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee (Raja Sansi) International Airport

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Name a cotton textile centre of Tamil Nadu.

(28.2) Name a software technology park of Rajasthan.

(28.3) Name a tidal port in Gujarat.

(28.4) In which state is Paradip Port located?

(28.5) Where is Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee (Raja Sansi) International Airport located?

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CBSE Sample Papers for Post-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2

Sample Paper 2

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

1.A Who published the ‘Sambad Kaumudi’?     [1]

OR

1.B Who wrote the novel ‘Oliver Twist’?

2. Which city has emerged as the electronic capital of India? [1]

3. What is an industry? [1]

4. Which is the longest highway of India? [1]

5. When was the first railway line of India started? [1]

6. Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)? [1]

7. Name a slogan related with welfare of consumers. [1]

8.A What were the difficulties faced by manuscripts in India? [3]

OR

8.B Mention three characteristics of early Hindi novels.

9.A Explain the main features of the first printed Bible? [3]

OR

9.B Describe any three features of Bengali novels of the 19^th  Century.

10.A How did print introduce debate and discussion? Explain any three points. [3]

OR

10.B Assess the contribution of Premchand towards Hindi novels.

11. Describe various methods of rainwater harvesting in India. [3]

12. Explain three major problems faced by Indian railways. [3]

13 ‘No system is ideal for all countries and all situations.’ Explain. [3]

14. Explain how can democracy accommodate diversity? [3]

15. Explain three foundational challenges faced by democracy. [3]

16. Describe the impact of globalisation on the lives of consumers. [3]

17. “In spite of numerous benefits, there are many problems that globalisation still faces.” Support the statement.           [3]

18. Highlight any three duties of consumers. [3]

19.A Describe the progress of print in Japan.   [5]

OR

19.B Discuss how the novel affected women readers.

20.A Describe how print culture led to rise of nationalism in India in the 19^th Century.  [5]

OR

20.B Discuss the main features of the novels of Thomas Hardy.

21. Explain the importance of textile industry in India. [5]

22. Discuss the merits and de-merits of two-party system. [5]

23. Examine the effect of communalism on politics. [5]

24. Describe any four functions of Reserve Bank of India. [5]

25. Explain the factors which gave birth to the consumer movement in India. [5]

26. On the given outline political map of India, locate and label the following. [½ + ½ = 1 ]
(i) Salem                                              (ii) Surat

27. Two features A and B are marked on the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of given information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map.  [½ + ½ = 1 ]
(A) An iron & steel plant of Odisha
(B) A software technology park of Andhra Pradesh

28. Locate and label the following features on the given outline political map of India.
(i) Tuticorin Port
(ii) Bokaro
(iii) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport

Note : The following questions are for the blind candidates only in lieu of question numbers 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Name a cotton textile centre of Uttar Pradesh.

(28.2) Name a software technology park of Andhra Pradesh.

(28.3) Name a port in Tamil Nadu.

(28.4) In which state is Rourkela steel plant located?

(28. 5) Where is Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport located?

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Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 1 (Solved)

Question 1A:
Greece had been part of which empire since the fifteenth century? [1]
Answer:
Ottoman Empire
OR
Question 1B:
Who were called colons in Vietnam?
Answer:
French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 2A:
Which famous English poet organized funds for the Greek war of independence and went to fight in the war? [1]
Answer:
Lord Byron.

OR

Question 2B:
Which country established her power in Vietnam during the early phase of twentieth century?
Answer:
France.

Question 3:
Name two states where red soil is found. [1]
Answer:
Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Question 4:
How much percentage of world’s surface area is occupied by freshwater? [1]
Answer:
2.5 per cent.

Question 5:
Jhumming agriculture is popular in which part of India? [1]
Answer:
Northeastern states of India.

Question 6:
In which year Sri Lanka became an independent country? [1]
Answer:
Sri Lanka became an independent country in 1948.

Question 7:
Which method is used to find out if an adult is undernourished? [1]
Answer:
Body Mass Index (BMI) method.

Question 8A:
How was Italy unified? Explain. [3]
Answer:
The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler. King Victor Emmanuel II, to unify the Italian states through war. Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat. By a tactful diplomatic alliance with France engineered by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Regular troops and a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of United Italy.

OR

Question 8B:
Explain any three steps taken by the French to achieve their aim to exploit the natural resources of Vietnam.
Answer:
(i) The French built canals and drained land in the Mekong area to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works, built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed export of rice to international markets. By 1931, Vietnam had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
(ii) The French followed rice production with infrastructure projects to help transport goods for trade, military garrisons and to control the whole region.
(iii) The construction of Trans-Indo-China rail network began to link northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China. The final link with Yunan was completed by 1910. A second line was built, linking Vietnam to Siam.

Question 9:
What was the objective of Simon Commission? Why was it opposed in India? [3]
Answer:
The effects of the worldwide economic depression in the late 1920s were severely felt in the countryside in India. Against this background the new Tory government in Britain constituted a statutory commission under Sir John Simon. Set up in response to the nationalist movement, the Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes. But the problem was that the Commission did not have a single Indian member. Ail members were British. When the Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan, ‘Go Back Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, opposed it and participated in the demonstrations.

Question 10:
Why does the pattern on net sown area vary from one state to another? [3]
Answer:
On account of the vast expanse of India, its relief, climate, soil and socio-economic set-up vary from region to region. The pattern of net sown area is over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana. Geographical conditions like climate and soil here are favourable for cultivation Further, due to agricultural advancement through Green Revolution, more areas have been brought under cultivation. On the other hand, less than 10 per cent of the total area is net sown area in Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Topographical constraints, unfavourable climate and socio-economic reasons account for the low proportion or net sown areas in these states.

Question 11:
Which type of soil is ideal for growth of cotton? What arc the main characteristics of this type of soil? [3]
Answer:
Black soil, primarily of the Deccan Trap region, is ideal for the growth of cotton. This soil type is also known as black cotton soil for this reason.
Black soil is well known for its moisture or water retentive capacity because it is clayey in nature. It is rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime but generally poor in phosphoric contents.
On account of its clayey nature, black soil develops deep cracks in the hot dry season. This aids proper aeration of the soil. This soil becomes sticky when wet and difficult to work unless tilled immediately after the first shower during the pre-monsoon period.

Question 12:
Distinguish between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals. Give examples.
Answer:
Metallic minerals can be classified into ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.

Question 13:
Describe the power-sharing mechanism in Lebanon. [3]
Answer:
As per the agreement :
(i) President must belong to the Maronite sect of Catholic Christians.
(ii) The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni Muslim community.
(iii) The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox Christian sect and that of the Speaker for Shia Muslims.
(iv) The Christians agreed not to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek unification with Syria.

Question 14:
Why is it said that a positive attitude towards diversity and willingness to accommodate it do not come about easily? [3]
Answer:
This is so because people who feel marginalised, deprived and discriminated have to fight against the injustices. But when such a fight takes the democratic path, demands are made in a peaceful manner based on constitutional methods. But sometimes social differences can take the form of unacceptable level of social inequality and injustice. The struggle against such inequalities sometimes takes the path of violence and defiance of state power. However, it is proved by history that democracy is the best way to fight for recognition and to accommodate diversity.

Question 15:
Discuss the ways in which social divisions are reflected in a democracy. [3]
Answer:
(i) In a democracy, it is natural that political parties talk about the social divisions and make different promises to different communities.
(ii) They look after the representation of various communities and make policies to redress the grievances of the disadvantaged communities.
(iii) Social divisions affect voting in most countries. People from one community tend to prefer some party more than others.

Question 16:
How are economic development and human development related to each other? [3]
Answer:
Human development refers to the process of improvements in human beings. People become human resources when investments in them are made in the form of health and education. Life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate, per capita GDP are important indicators of human development. Economic development will be sustainable if resources are managed in such a way that future generations do not suffer and have at least the same which present generations have.

Question 17:
What does Human Development Index (HDI) indicate? By whom is HDI prepared? [3]
Answer:
Human Development Index (HDI) : It makes rating of all countries on a scale of 0 to 1. 0 indicates the lowest human development and 1 indicates the highest human development. Two important points about HDI are :
(i) It measures relative and not absolute level of human development.
(ii) The main emphasis of HDI is on goals, i.e. longevity, knowledge and standard of living (expressed in real per capita income).
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been preparing HDI since 1990.

Question 18:
What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain with the help of an example. [3]
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is a situation where the number of workers engaged in a job is much more than required. If some of them are withdrawn from the job, the total production will not fall. It means that marginal productivity of such workers is zero.
Let us understand it with the help of an example. Laxmi owning about 2 hectares of land is growing crops. All the five members of the family work on the plot throughout the year. Suppose they produce 20 quintals of foodgrains. Now suppose instead of 5, only 3 members work next year and the output is still 20 quintals. It means that three members were enough to work. The other two members are then said to be disguisedly unemployed.

Question 19A:
A What is globalisation? Explain. [5]
Answer:
Globalisation is generally associated with the free movement of capital, goods, technology, ideas and people across the globe. Globalisation in a broader sense also includes cultural exchanges between different countries of the world.
In modem world, globalisation has acquired special significance due to development of Internet technology and telecommunication. Therefore, globalisation involves the following features :
(i) Economic freedom to trade internationally.
(ii) Migration in search of employment and a better life.
(iii) Cultural exchange like the spread of Buddhism and knowledge.
The interlinking of the world is a continuous process from the past. In modem days, interlinking is faster and involves more people. In other words, the world is shrinking in terms of communication and trade.

OR

Question 19B:
What were the positive effects of industrialization on Britain?
Answer:
The political, social and economic life of the people was affected by industrialization. Industrialization was adopted slowly by the people, but when they did, it spread to many cities and towns. Variations existed in terms of wealth and figures. Till the mid-nineteenth century, about 10 per cent of the urban population were extremely poor.
Life improved after the 1840s due to massive building activities involving urbanisation, road construction, railways, tunnels, drainage and sewers. Most of the labourers were occupied in these activities. The number of workers employed in transport industry doubled after the 1840s.

OR

Question 19C :
Discuss how Bombay (Mumbai) emerged as the prime city of India.
Answer:
Bombay (Mumbai) was the most important city of India. Its size expanded from the late nineteenth century and population grew from 6,44,405 in 1872 to nearly 1,500,000 in 1941. It passed into the hands of Britain in 1661 as a dowry to King Charles II from his Portuguese bride. The English East India Company shifted its base from Surat in Gujarat to Bombay (Mumbai).
Bombay (Mumbai) was initially a major outlet of cotton textiles from Gujarat. In the nineteenth century, large quantities of raw materials such as cotton and opium passed through it. By the end of the nineteenth century, it became the centre of administrative and industrial control in western India. The importance of Bombay (Mumbai) grew due to maritime trade and as a junction head of two major railways.

Question 20A :
What did the spread of print culture in the 19^th century India mean to : [5]
(a) women (b) the poor?
Answer:
(a) Women :
(i) Women’s reading increased due to education at home and later, in women’s schools.
(ii) Many journals were written for women by women. They contained everything that would interest a woman — household hints, fashions, rituals. Novels in vernacular languages (Hindi, Urdu, Bengali, Tamil and Marathi) highlighted the miserable conditions of women in society. They spoke against denial of education to women, supported widow remarriage and national movement. They serialized stories and provided entertainment to women.
(b) The Poor : Public libraries were opened in big towns, cities and big villages, which made reading accessible to the general public. Some millworkers of Kanpur wrote books about the desperate conditions of the poor. Chief among them were Kashibaba, who wrote Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938 against the caste and class distinctions. By the 1930s, Bangalore (Bengaluru) cotton workers also set up libraries to educate themselves.

OR

Question 20B :
Describe in brief the role of novels in popularising the sense of belongingness to a common nation.
Answer:
(i) Imagining a heroic past was one way in which the novels helped in popularising the sense of beloging to a common nation.
(ii) Another was to include various classes in the novels so that they could be seen to belong to a shared world. Premchand’s novels, for example, were filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all levels of society.
(iii) The novels promoted an understanding of different people, different values and different communities. Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay’s Anguriyo Binimoy (1857) was the first historical novel written in Bengali. It glorifies Shivaji and his many battles against the clever and treacherous Aurangzeb, the Mughal ruler. Shivaji became a nationalist figure fighting for the freedom of the Hindus.

Question 21 :
Name the ore from which aluminium is obtained. Why is aluminium considered to be an important metal? Name the areas which have rich deposits of the ore of aluminium. [5]
Answer:
Aluminium is obtained mainly from bauxite. Though several ores contain aluminium, it is from bauxite, a reddish-brown, residual clay-like substance, that alumina and later aluminium is obtained. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
Aluminium is considered to be an important metal because of its properties and wide variety of uses.
(i) It combines the strength of metals such as iron with extreme lightness. So it is used for manufacturing of aircrafts and transport vehicles.
(ii)It has great malleability. It is used for construction purposes to make door, windows, rods and for making utensils.
(iii)It also has quality of good conductivity and is used in electrical conductors.
Rich deposits of bauxite, the ore of aluminium, are found mainly in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Odisha is the leading producer accounting for about 45 per cent of the total bauxite production in the country.

Question 22 :
How does democracy lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens? Explain. [5]
Answer:
(i) Democracies accommodate various social divisions. For example, Belgium has peacefully solved her ethnic problems and resolved social differences.
(ii) All democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct competition, i.e. conduct elections, power-sharing, etc. This reduces the possibility of tensions, due to social divisions, turning violent or explosive.
(iii) Democracy teaches people to respect the differences and resolve conflicts among different groups peacefully. In non-democratic countries, rulers either turn a blind eye to or suppress internal differences. For example, Sri Lanka. The plus point of a democratic regime is its ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts.
(iv) A democracy is not just a rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that the government represents the general view.
(v) A democratic government ensures that the rule by the majority does not become autocratic in terms of religion, race or linguistic group etc. It tries that in case of every election, different persons and groups can form a majority. It tries to see that every citizen has a chance to be in majority at some point of time and is not barred on the basis of birth. All these things ensured by a democratic regime lead to a peaceful and harmonious life.

Question 23 :
Discuss the merits and demerits of two-party system and multi-party system. [5]
Answer:
In some countries, there are only two main parties and power changes hands between them only.
They are the only ones who can win seats in elections. There may be other parties and they may win a small number of seats, but never enough to form a government. The United States of America and United Kingdom are examples of the two-party system. In a multi-party system, three or more parties have a chance to win elections and gain control of the government. In the former system, there are more than two distinct, officially recognized groups called political parties. In a multi-party system, groups come to power on their own strength or in alliance with others. Ir India various parties have come together in a coalition. In India, there have been three major alliances in the 2004 parliamentary elections as no single party got an absolute majority. This system is followed in India, France and Denmark. This system gives a chance to various interests and concerns, to gain representation.
This system can sometimes lead to instability, as many parties cannot pull together.

Question 24 :
Differentiate between formal and informal sources of credit. [5]
Answer:

Question 25 :
Explain any four ways in which multinational corporations have spread their production and interaction with local producers in various countries across the globe. [5]
Answer:
The multinational corporations have spread their production and interaction with local producers in the following ways :
(i) Setting up production jointly with local companies. They provide money for additional investments like buying new machines for faster production. For example : Cargil Foods, a very large MNC (USA), has bought smaller Indian companies such as Parekh Foods.
(ii) The MNCs provide efficient managerial and advanced technology for faster production and efficient use of resources.
(iii) They have increased their investments over the past 15 years. They provide employment opportunities to the masses. The local companies supplying raw material to these industries have prospered.
(iv) Many food processing multinational companies such as Pepsi, Coca-Cola have taken over Indian markets in cold drinks and food products. This helps in greater choice for consumers with a variety of goods at cheap prices.

Question 26 :
Locate and label the following in the given outline political map of India. [1]
Answer:
(i) Amritsar
(ii) The place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.

Question 27 :
Two features A and B are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [1]
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1929.
(B) The place where Non-Cooperation Movement was called off.
Answer:
(A) Lahore
(B) Chauri-Chaura

Question 28 :
Locate and label the following items on the given map with appropriate symbols. [3]
Answer:
(i) Narora Nuclear Power Station
(ii) Surat Textile Centre
(iii) Tuticorin Seaport

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Name the place where Congress session was held in December, 1920.
(28.2) Name the place where the Satyagraha of cotton mill workers took place.
(28.3) In which state is Kalpakkam Nuclear power plant located?
(28.4) Name the southern terminal station of North-South Corridor.
(28.5) In which state is Rawat Bhata Nuclear Power Plant located?
Answer:
(28.1) Nagpur
(28.2) Ahmedabad
(28.3) Tamil Nadu
(28.4) Kanniyakumari
(28.5) Rajasthan

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