Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 2 (Solved)

Question 1A:
Who remarked, ‘When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’? [1]
Answer:
Mettemich remarked.

OR

Question 1B:
How many countries comprise the Indo-China? [1]
Answer:
Indo-China comprises three countries, i.e., Vietnam, Laos and Cambodia.

Question 2A:
Name the allegory of the French nation in the 19^th century. [1]
Answer:
Marianne, a popular Christian name which underlined the idea of a people’s nation.

OR

Question 2B:
Who was Paul Bernard?
Answer:
Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy maker who believed that economy of the colonies needed to be developed.

Question 3:
Minerals are deposited and accumulated in strata of which rocks? [1]
Answer:
Sedimentary rocks.

Question 4:
Which soil is also known as Regur? [1]
Answer:
Black soil.

Question 5:
Which is the largest multi-purpose project of India? [1]
Answer:
Bhakhra Nangal is the largest multi-purpose project of India.

Question 6:
Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians? [1]
Answer:
Dutch language.

Question 7:
What are non-renewable resources? [1]
Answer:
Resource which are not replenished by nature and get exhausted. For example, minerals.

Question 8A:
Why were the 1830s called the years of great economic hardship in Europe? Give any three reasons. [3]
Answer:
The 1830s were called the year of great economic hardship in Europe.
(i) During the first half of the nineteenth century there was an enormous growth of population requiring lakhs of jobs. Due to the rise of population, unemployment also increased.
(ii) The job seekers or unemployed people migrated from villages to cities for earning bread. The conditions of towns were also worse because of heavy production and cheap rates of products from England (it happened because of Industrial Revolution of England).
(iii) In agriculture, the peasants suffered because of less agrarian facilities and high inflation. The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread poverty.

OR

Question 8B:
Write three main characteristics of Trieu Au, the rebel woman of Vietnam.
Answer:
Trieu Au was one of the most venerated rebel women of Vietnam during the third century CE. She was an orphan and lived with her brother. She resisted Chinese occupation until her death. When she grew up she left home, went into the jungle and organised a large army. At last when her army was crushed she drowned herself instead of surrendering. After her death, she was worshipped as a martyr with a sacred image. Reason behind her worship was her dedication to and sacrifice for her nation.

Question 9:
How and when nationalism captures the hearts and minds of people? [3]
Answer:
When people begin to believe strongly that they are part of the same nation. Also, when they discover common bonds that unite them, when they share the same struggles and have a common folklore, history and culture, then nationalism grips their hearts and minds.

Question 10:
Why are petroleum refineries termed as ‘nodal industries’? [3]
Answer:
Petroleum refineries act as a ‘nodal industry’ for synthetic textile, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries. During fractional distillation of mineral oil, apart from petrol, diesel and kerosene which act as fuel, a number of byproducts like naptha, phyneyl, paraffin wax, asphalt or tar and a number of petrochemicals are obtained. Chemical fertilisers, insecticides and chemicals, artificial fibres and artificial rubber are products of petrochemicals. Thus, petrochemicals, provide raw materials for fertilisers, numerous chemicals, synthetic textiles, synthetic rubber and plastic industries.

Question 11:
Why are metalled roads better than unmetalled roads? What is the role of border roads and national highways in transportation? [3]
Answer:
Metalled roads are made of either cement, concrete or even bitumen of coal are therefore more durable than unmetalled road. Unmetalled roads go out of use in rainy season.
Border roads play an important role in connecting strategically important difficult areas and helps in the economic development of the area. National Highways are the primary road system which links extreme parts of the country.

Question 12:
Why is there a tendency for the sugar mills to shift to and concentrate in the southern and western states in India? Give any three reasons. [3]
Answer:
Three main reasons are as follows :
(i) The cane produced has a higher sucrose content.
(ii) The cooler climate ensures a longer crushing season.
(iii) The cooperatives are more successful in these states.

Question 13:
What are the forms of challenges faced by different countries in respect to democracy? [3]
Answer:
(i) Countries which are not yet democratic face a foundational challenge—making a transition to democracy and establishing democratic governments.
(ii) Many countries face the challenge of expansion. This means applying principles of democracy to all the state, local and regional levels. It means including all social and economic groups including women empowerment.
(iii) All the democracies face the challenge of deepening of democracy. They have to improve and strengthen all institutions of democracy and curb all anti-democratic activities.

Question 14:
Write a short note on one-party system. [3]
Answer:
One-party system is followed in China, North Korea and Cuba. This system was also prevalent in the USSR till its breakup into 15 independent states. They are mostly communist countries. There is no competition in this system. The lone party nominates candidates and the voters have to say “yes” or “no” only against the name of the candidates. They have another choice of not voting at all.
One-party system is popular in communist or authoritarian countries. Supporters of one-party system claim that this system helps the government in mobilising the talents of all citizens towards a common goal.
But this system limits the choices and freedom of the citizens, hence it is not a good system for a democracy. In democracy people must have at least two parties to choose from.

Question 15:
What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities? [3]
Answer:
(i) The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent the general views.
(ii) It is necessary that rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion, race, linguistic group, etc. Different persons or groups should be allowed to form a government as a result of an election conducted.

Question 16:
Which are the two major sources of formal sector credit in India ? Why do we need to expand the formal sources of credit? [3]
Answer:
The two major sources of formal sector credit in India are — commercial banks and cooperative societies.
We need to expand formal sources of credit due to following reasons :
(i) Informal sources of credit exploit the poors resulting in putting them into debt-traps.
(ii) Formal sources of credit are cheaper and thus they help in country’s development.

Question 17:
Describe three features of Self-Help Group (SHG). [3]
Answer:
The features of Self-Help Group (SHG) are :
(i) People form their personal groups for the purpose of savings and also lend money among themselves.
(ii) Rate of interest is lower than informal service providers.
(iii) They can also avail loans from banks if their savings are regular.

Question 18:
How does foreign trade lead to integration of markets across the countries? Give any three examples. [3]
Answer:
Foreign trade is the main channel which connects the markets of various countries. Foreign trade lead to integration of markets across the countries as follows :
(i) Creates opportunities for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets or the markets of their own countries.
(ii) Import of goods from various countries provides choice of goods for consumers beyond the goods that are produced domestically.
(iii) Producers of different countries compete with each other although they are thousands of miles away.

Question 19A:
Write a short note on the developments or innovations in the printing technology in the 19th century. [5]
Answer:
There were a series of innovations in the printing technology in the 19th century.
(i) Richard M. Hoe of New York perfected the power-driven cylindrical press. He could print 8000 sheets per hour. His press was very useful for printing newspapers.
(ii) The late 19th century saw the development of offset press capable of printing six colours at a time.
(iii) Electrically-operated press in the early 20th century increased the rate of printing operations.
(iv) Methods of feeding paper improved, quality of plates became better, machines were fed automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls of colour register were introduced.

OR

Question 19B:
Outline the changes in technology and society which led to an increase in readership of the novel in the 18th century in Europe.
Answer:
Technological improvement and development in printing led to more and more books being printed. More books led to larger sales. In fact, the novels were mass produced and sold rapidly. More books brought the prices down and even the poor could afford them. In the beginning novels were not cheap. One volume of ‘Tom Jones ’ written by Henry Fielding cost three shillings and there were six volumes of the book. The price was more than a labourer could earn in a week. Novels were lent out by circulating libraries and publishers made profit.

Question 20A:
Discuss why the Europeans were motivated to establish colonies. [5]
Answer:
Europe became the centre of world trade by the nineteenth century, mainly sustained by colonies.
Colonisation of Americas was motivated more by the greed of wealth and search for a better life. On the other hand, colonisation of Asian and African countries was also motivated by conditions in Europe, caused by the Industrial Revolution and greed for economic and political dominance of the world.
Many factors motivated the Europeans to establish colonies :
(i) Some Europeans left for America seeking better life, and some were dissenters and prisoners.
(ii) The Industrial Revolution created the need for unlimited resources and cheap labour. They needed raw materials to feed the growing industries. They also needed markets for distribution.They needed colonies.
(iii) Missionary zeal of the Jesuits and nationalism inspired further exploration, conversion and territorial expansion.

OR

Question 20B:
How had a series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficiency of each step of the production process in cotton textile industry? Explain.
Answer:
A series of inventions in the 18th century increased the efficiency of each step of the production process in cotton textile industry.
(i) Each step means carding, twisting, spinning and rolling. They enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more and produce stronger threads and yam.
(ii) Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill. Before this, cloth production was carried out within village households. Now costly machines could be set up in the mill and all the mill processes were completed under one roof.
(iii) Spinning jenny devised by James Hargreaves in 1764 speeded up the spinning process and reduced labour demand. By turning one single wheel, a worker could set in motion a number of spindles and spin several threads at a time.
(iv) The steam engine, invented by James Watt in 1781, was used in cotton mills.
(v) Factories came up in large numbers and by 1840, cotton textile became the leading sector in industrialisation. The expansion of railways also helped in production of textile goods.

OR

Question 20C:
Discuss how London emerged as the largest city in the world in the nineteenth century.
Answer:
The city of London became the largest city in the world by the late nineteenth century. It was the most powerful imperial centre by the beginning of the twentieth century. Various factors were responsible for it, as given below :
Causes :
(i) Increase in population. One out of every nine people of England and Wales lived in London. Industrial Revolution started in Britain. The enclosures of farms and abolishment of com laws made many farmers migrate to towns and cities such as London, Manchester and Leeds. Migrants from rural areas were attracted to the textile mills of Manchester and Leeds in large numbers after the 1850s.
(ii) Colonisation and political dominance in global trade led to great wealth and capital, making London the hub of world trade and commerce.
(iii) The population expanded throughout the nineteenth century from one million in 1810 to 4 million in 1880. They constituted aristocrats, administrators, semi-skilled and skilled artisans, workers, traders, beggars, etc.
(iv) Important industries were the dockyards, clothing, footwear, metallurgy, etc.
(v) During the First World War, London began manufacturing motor cars and electrical goods.

Question 21:
Give examples of traditional water harvesting systems prevalent in various parts of India. [5]
Answer:
Traditional water harvesting systems prevalent in various parts of India includes the following
methods :
(i) Diversion channels like ‘guls’ and ‘kuls’ of Western Himalayas are built in hilly and mountain areas for irrigating agricultural fields.
(ii) In hilly areas of Meghalya, bamboo-drip irrigation system taps stream and spring water.
(iii) Inundation channels are constructed to irrigate agricultural fields in the floodplains of Bengal.
(iv) In the arid regions of Rajasthan agricultural fields were converted into rainfed storage structures locally known as ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan. These structures allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil.
(v) Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practised to store drinking water particularly in Rajasthan. In the semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer, almost all the houses traditionally had underground ‘tankas’ or ‘tanks’ for storing drinking water.

Question 22:
What makes India a federation? [5]
Answer:
The Constitution declared India as a Union of states. The following points clearly show that the Indian Union is based on the principles of federalism –
(i) The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union government and the State governments in the three lists—Union, State and Concurrent lists.
(ii) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(iii) This sharing of power is basic to the structure of the Constitution, and it cannot be changed by Parliament; it has to be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.
(iv) In a federation, judiciary solves the disputes between different levels of government. In any such case of a dispute, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.

Question 23:
Do you agree with the view that casteism has not disappeared from Indian society? Discuss. [5]
Answer:
Although the old barriers of caste system are breaking down, casteism still continues to be there in the Indian society. Some of the older aspects of caste system have persisted :
(i) Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
(ii) Untouchability has not ended completely, despite the constitutional provisions to prohibit it.
(iii) Effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages continue to be felt today. For example, the caste groups that had access to education under the old system, have done very well in acquiring modem education as well, while those that were prohibited have lagged behind.

Question 24:
The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in the organized and unorganized sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the questions that follow : [5]

(i) Which is the most important sector that provides most jobs to the people?
(ii) What is the number of persons engaged in the unorganised sector?
(iii) Why is the unorganised sector more important? Give one reason.
(iv) Which is the most important organised sector? Give one reason.
Answer:
(i) The primary sector is the most important sector that provides most jobs to the people.
(ii) The number of person engaged in the unorganised sector is 370 million.
(iii) Unorganised sector is more important because it provides employment to a far greater number of people, specially from lower strata of society, when compared to those employed by the organised sector.
(iv) Tertiary sector is the most important organised sector because it employs more people as compared to primary and secondary sectors. In addition, it is the backbone which further boosts the growth of primary and secondary sectors. For example, infrastructure and communication help in smooth flow of goods and services across the country.

Question 25:
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are these? [5]
Answer:
Two different kinds of people are engaged in service sector. These are
(i) Highly skilled and educated workers in small numbers.
(ii) A very large number of unskilled workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, transport persons (drivers) etc.
Highly educated workers include teachers, lawyers, doctors and people producing other services.
(iii) Highly skilled workers draw bigger salaries and perks than unskilled workers.

Question 26:
Locate and label the following in the given outline political map of India. [1]
Answer:
(i) Champaran
(ii) Kheda

Question 27:
Two features (A) and (B) are marked in the given outline political map of India Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [1]
(A) The centre of calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(B) The place where the Indian National Congress session of September 1920 was held.

Question 28:
Three features A, B and C are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [3]
(A) Terminal station of the East West Corridor.
(B) Oil Field
(C) Thermal Power Plant

Note : The following questions are for blind candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, and 28.  [5]
(28.1) Where was the first peasant Satyagraha held by Gandhiji?
(28.1) Where was the non-cooperation movement called off?
(28.1) Where is the Terminal station of East- West Corridor?
(28.1) Name an oilfield in Gujarat.
(28.1) Name a thermal power plant in Telangana.
Answer:
(28.1) Champaran
(28.1) Chauri-Chaura
(28.1) Silchar
(28.1) Ankeleswar
(28.1) Ramagundam

The post Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 3

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 3 (Solved)

Question 1A:
Which language in Poland came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance? [1]
Answer:
Polish language

OR

Question 1B:
Who was made the first Chairman of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam? [1]
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was made the first chairman of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam.

Question 2A:
When did the struggle for independence of Greece begin? [1]
Answer:
In 1821.

OR

Question 2B:
Name the war that has been called the first television war.
Answer:
War between US and Vietnam has been called the first television war.

Question 3:
The first metro train was set up in which Indian city? [1]
Answer:
Calcutta (Kolkata).

Question 4:
Which state is the largest producer of mineral oil? [1]
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 5:
Which is the major source of irrigation in peninsular India? [1]
Answer:
Tanks are the major source of irrigation in peninsular India.

Question 6:
Who allots a ‘symbol’ to the political parties? [1]
Answer:
The Election Commission allots a symbol to the political parties.

Question 7:
When was MNREGA implemented? [1]
Answer:
In the year 2005.

Question 8A:
In which year was the unification of Italy completed? Mention two features of the unification movement. [3]
Answer:
Unification of Italy took place in 1860. Despite formidable hurdles which beset the path of unification of Italy, the feeling of liberty, equality and patriotism could not remain suppressed among Italians for a long time. Some patriots, supporters of democracy, writers, philosophers and many secret institutions resolved to launch a combined struggle to achieve liberty and liberalism for Italy.

OR

Question 8B:
What were the results of the colonisation of Vietnam by the French?
Answer:
French colonisation was not based only on economic exploitation. It was driven by the idea of a civilising mission and claimed that they would introduce modem civilised life to the Vietnamese. Being a colony all the natural, essential and human resources of Vietnam were exploited. As a result agricultural productivity declined because of that economic exploitation. Educational system was also transformed. Vietnam was subjugated socially, economically and politically.

Question 9:
Explain the two important factors that shaped Indian politics during the 1920s. [3]
Answer:
(i) The first was the worldwide economic depression which brought the agricultural prices crashing down in India. Farmers could not sell their produce and the whole country-side was in turmoil.
(ii) The British constituted a statutory commission in 1927 under Sir John Simon. The aim was to diffuse nationalism aroused by the Non-Cooperation Movement. The Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India. It was an all-white ‘ commission, with not a single Indian member in it.
It set the political world in India on fire and led to Gandhiji starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 10:
Why is mica considered to be an indispensable mineral for the electronics industry? Mention the names of the main mica-producing areas of India. [3]
Answer:
Mica is a non-conductor of electricity. Due to its excellent di-electric strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high voltage, mica is an indispensable mineral for the electrical and electronics industries. Koderma-Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading mica-producing area of India. In Rajasthan, the major mica-producing area is around Ajmer. In Andhra Pradesh, the Nellore mica belt is an important mica-producing area.

Question 11:
Mention any three problems faced by cotton textile industries in India. [3]
Answer:
Three problems faced by cotton textile industries in India are as follows :
(i) Power supply is erratic and machineries are outdated.
(ii) Output of labour is low.
(iii) Facing stiff competition with the synthetic fibre industry.

Question 12:
What is the difference between personal communication and mass communication?
State any two points of importance of mass communication. [3]
Answer:
Personal communication means a communication between two persons either through oral, letter or through telephone etc, while mass communication includes the use of radio, television, press, films etc, for wider public audience. The two points of importance of mass communication are (i) it provides entertainment and (ii) creates awareness among people about various national and international programmes and policies.

Question 13:
How does power sharing help in democracy? Mention three points. [3]
Answer:
(i) Power-sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(ii) It is a good way to ensure the stability of political order and unity of the nation.
(iii) A legitimate government is one where citizens through participation acquire a stake in the system.

Question 14:
What could be the two possible outcomes of politics of social divisions? [3]
Answer:
The two outcomes are :
(i) Political divisions could lead to violence and disintegration of a country. Example: Yugoslavia.
(ii) They could be amicably settled in a democracy where rulers share power, and people think of themselves first as nationalists and then as belonging to a religious or ethnic or linguistic group. Example : India.

Question 15:
Some people think that democracy produces less efficient and effective government. Do you agree with their views? [3]
Answer:
It is true that some delay is bound to take place in democracy as it is based on deliberation and negotiation. It is also true that non-democratic rulers can be very quick and efficient in decision ­making and implementation. But they may take decisions that are not acceptable to the people but are forced on them. On the other hand, because democratic governments follow procedures, its decisions may be more acceptable to the people and more effective. So I do not agree with the view that democracy is a less effective and more inefficient form of government.

Question 16:
What do the banks do with the ‘public deposits’? Describe their working mechanism. [3]
Answer:
Banks accept deposits from the public and use the major portion of these deposits to extend
loans. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. Banks make use of these deposits to meet the loan requirement of the people and thereby earn interest. This is, in fact, the main source of income of the banks. In this way, a bank acts as a mediator between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.

Question 17:
How does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks? Why is this necessary? [3]
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) supervised the banks in the following ways :
(i) It monitors the balance kept by banks for day-to-day transactions.
(ii) It checks that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small borrowers.
(iii) Periodically banks have to give details about lending, borrowers and interest rate to RBI. It is necessary for securing public welfare. It avoids the bank to run the business with profit motive only. It also keeps a check on interest rate of credit facilities provided by bank. RBI makes sure that the loans from the banks are affordable and cheap.

Question 18:
Explain any three ways in which MNCs set up or control production in other countries. [3]
Answer:
Multinational Corporations (MNCs) set up their factories or production units close to markets where they can get desired type of skilled or unskilled labour at low costs along with other factors of production. After ensuring these conditions MNCs set up production units in the following ways :
(i) Jointly with some local companies of the existing country.
(ii) Buy the local companies and then expand its production with the help of modem technology.
(iii) They place orders for small producers and sell these products under their own brand name to the customers worldwide.

Question 19A:
Write down important causes and effects of the Second World War. [5]
Answer:
The Second World War started in 1939 and continued up to 1945.
Causes :
Many factors had caused the Second World War. The Great Depression of 1929, failure of the League of Nations, rise of dictatorship in Germany and Italy under Hitler and Mussolini respectively were some of the important causes.
Effects :
(i) About 3 per cent of the world’s population perished.
(ii) Two crucial developments shaped the post-war scenario. They were :
(a) The emergence of USA and the USSR as superpowers.
At least 6 million people died, and millions more were injured. Most of the deaths took place outside the battlefields. More civilians than fighting soldiers died. Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devastated and several cities destroyed by aerial bombings. It caused enormous economic devastation and social disruption. Reconstruction was long and difficult.
(b) The establishment of international organisations like the UNO and others to maintain peace and stability.

OR

Question 19B:
Explain any three problems faced by the Indian weavers by the turn of the 19^th century.
Answer:
The three problems faced by weavers by the turn of the 19th century were :
(i) Decline in export market : By the 1860s insufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality affected the Indian weavers. Due to the American Civil War, the supply of raw cotton from USA had stopped. Britain turned to India for new cotton export. This resulted in price rise and the Indian weavers suffered. In the beginning of the 19th century, there was a sharp decline in Indian export of cotton piece exports. In 1811-12, 33% of exports were made price goods. In 1850-51, it was no more than 3%.
(ii) The British started dumping mill-made and machine-made British goods in India. British exports to India for textile goods increased from 31% to over 50% in the 1870s. The local markets collapsed as they were glutted with Manchester imports. Machine-made goods were sold at lower prices and Indian weavers could not compete with them.
(iii) Another problem cropped up for weavers. At the end of the 19th century, India started producing cotton textiles in factories and punished the weavers for delays in supply, often beating and flogging them. The weavers lost the power to bargain for prices and sell to different buyers. The Company paid them a miserably low price. The loans tied them to the Company. It led to deserted villages and migration to other cities.

OR

Question 19C:
How did the development of cities influence the ecology and environment in the late nineteenth century? Explain by giving an example of Calcutta (Kolkata).
Answer:
City development everywhere has been at the expense of ecology and environment. To accommodate factories, housing and other institutions, natural features are either transformed or flattened out. Large quantities of refuse and waste products pollute air and water, and excessive noise becomes a feature of urban life.
In the late 19th century, use of coal in homes and industries raised serious problems. For example, in Calcutta, inhabitants inhaled grey smoke, particularly in winter. Since Calcutta was built on marshy land, the fog and smoke combined to generate a thick black smog. High levels of pollution were a result of the huge population using dung and wood as fuel in their daily life.
Main polluters were the industries that used steam engines run on coal. The introduction of the railway in 1855 brought a new dangerous pollutant – coal from Raniganj. It had a high content of ash. Calcutta became the first Indian city in 1863 to get smoke nuisance legislation.

Question 20A:
What were the problems in reading handwritten manuscripts in India? [5]
Answer:
The handwritten books were very expensive and very fragile. They were difficult to carry and had to be handled carefully. They were also not easy to read as the script was written in many styles. Because of this difficulty they were not widely read. Teachers dictated them from memory and the students wrote them down. Students learnt not to read the manuscripts but only wrote them. Though, in pre-colonial period, Bengal had many village primary schools, the manuscripts were not used in everyday life. Thus, students became literate without ever actually reading the texts.

OR

Question 20B:
Explain any three reasons for the popularity of the novel in the 18th century.
Answer:
Novels became popular from the 18th century in Europe.
(i) The number of readership increased as new groups of lower middle-class people such as shopkeepers and clerks, along with the traditional aristocratic and gentlemanly classes in England formed the new readership for novels.
(ii) As readership grew, markets for books expanded, the earnings of authors increased. They now had the freedom to experiment with different literary styles. They were no longer dependent on the patronage of the aristocrats. The novel allowed flexibility in form of writing. Samuel Richardson’s Pamela was an epistolary novel; Walter Scott wrote historical novels and Henry Fielding wrote Tom Jones and called himself a founder of this new province of writing. The different styles and experiments added to the popularity of the
(iii) Third and most important was that technological improvements brought down the price of books. The novel became the first mass produced item to be sold. The world created by novels was absorbing, believable and seemingly real. People could read them in private or in public and have a group discussion.

Question 21:
Mention four geographical requirements each for the growth of tea and sugarcane. [5]
Answer:
Tea is the main beverage crop of India. Four geographical requirements for its growth are :
(i) The tea plant grows best in tropical and subtropical climate.
(ii) Tea bushes require warm and moist and frost-free climate with temperature between 20°C to 30°C and annual rainfall of 150 to 250 cm.
(iii) Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.
(iv) Deep, fertile, well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter are ideal for its growth. Hence, gently rolling topography in uplands is favourable for its cultivation.

Four geographical conditions required for growth of sugarcane are :
(i) Sugarcane grows best in tropical and subtropical climate. It is an annual crop requiring a year for maturing.
(ii) It grows well in hot and humid climate with temperature of 21 °C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm.
(iii) Frost is injurious for the plant and rainfall before ripening decreases sucrose content. Hence, frost-free weather and short, cool, dry winter during ripening and harvesting are favourable.
(vi) It can grow in a variety of soils, but clayey alluvial soil of northern plains and black soil in south are ideal for its growth.

Question 22:
How can you say that power-sharing is more effective today than it was in the early years after the Constitution came into force? [5]
Answer:
In the early years, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the states. But in the states where the rival parties ruled, the central government often misused its power to dismiss the state governments. This undermined the spirit of federalism.
But after 1990, there was a rise of regional parties in many states of the country. It was at this time that since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties, including several regional parties to form a government at the Centre. This led to the era of coalition governments – a new culture of power-sharing and respect for the autonomy of state governments.

Question 23:
How does communalism create problems in politics? [5]
Answer:
(i) The way one uses religion in politics is communal politics. It creates problems when one sees religion as the basis of the nation.
(ii) When one religion considers itself superior to other religions.
(iii) When there is discrimination against the followers of the other religion.
(iv) When state power is used to help one religion to dominate other religious groups.
(v) When the demands of one religious group are in opposition to others.

Question 24:
Distinguish between primary sector and secondary sector. [5]
Answer:

Question 25:
What is tertiary sector? Who are employed in this sector? [5]
Answer:
This is the third sector of economy on the basis of occupation. People provide various kinds of services like transports, communication, banking etc. Another name for the tertiary sector is service sector. Two different kinds of people are engaged in service sector. These are :
(i) Highly skilled and educated workers in small numbers.
(ii) Very large number of unskilled workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, transport persons (drivers), etc.
Highly educated workers include teachers, lawyers, doctors and people producing other services.

Question 26:
Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
Answer:
(i) Chauri – Chaura
(ii) Calcutta (Kolkata)

Question 27:
Two features A and B are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [1]
(A) The place from where the movement of Indigo planters was started.
(B) The place where Indian National Congress session in 1927 was held.
Answer:

Question 28:
Locate and label the following items on the same map with appropriate symbols.
(i) Mohali – Software Technology Park
(ii) Bokaro – Iron and Steel Industry
(iii) Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27 and 28. [5]

(28.1) Where was Congress Session of September 1920 held?
(28.2) Name the place where first Satyagraha of Gandhiji took place.
(28.3) Name the state where Bhadravati Iron and Steel Plant is located.
(28.4) In which state is the Kandla Seaport located?
(28.5) Name an important port in Orissa (Odisha).
Answer:
(28.1) Calcutta
(28.2) Champaran
(28.3) Karnataka
(28.4) Gujarat
(28.5) Paradip

The post Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8th Sanskrit Chapter 9 सप्तभगिन्यः 

अभ्यासः

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Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 4 (Solved)

Question 1A:
Who was described by Metternich as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’? [1]
Answer:
Giuseppe Mazzini

OR

Question 1B:
Name a woman warrior in Vietnam who shot down a jet with just twenty bullets.
Answer:
Nguyen Thi Xuan

Question 2:
What were the demands of peasants during the Non-Cooperation Movement? [1]
Answer:
The peasants demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question 3:
Name two conventional sources of energy. [1]
Answer:
Coal and Petroleum

Question 4:
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in which state? [1]
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 5:
When was the Food Corporation of India established? [1]
Answer:
It was established in 1965.

Question 6:
Define the two-party system? [1]
Answer:
A two-party system is a system where two major political parties dominate politics and government.

Question 7:
What is globalization? [1]
Answer:
It is the process of rapid integration or inter-connection between countries.

Question 8.A:
Briefly trace the process of German unification. [3]
Answer:
In the 1800s, nationalist feelings were strong in the hearts of the middle-class Germans. They united in 1848 to create a nation-state out of the numerous German States. But the monarchy and the military got together to repress them and they gained support from the landowners of Prussia (the Junkers) too. Prussia soon became the leader of German unification movement. Its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process with support from Prussian army and Prussian bureaucracy. The unification process was completed after Prussia won wars with Austria, Denmark and France over seven years time. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

OR

Question 8.B:
Explain any three main features of Tonkin Free School.
Answer:
Like other colonisers, the French also thought that they were on a civilising mission.
(i) Thus, the Tonkin Free School was opened to give Western education.
(ii) The school taught science, hygiene and French, other than the common subjects. For these three subjects the students had to attend evening classes and also pay separately.
(iii) The students were not only made to attend these classes but they were asked to sport modem looks too. A typical example of this was that Vietnamese were asked to cut off their long hair and adopt a short hair cut which was absolutely against their culture.

Question 9:
Explain the idea of Satyagraha. [3]
Answer:
Gandhiji said ‘Satyagraha’ was not passive resistance but it called for intensive activity. Physical force was not used against the oppressor, nor vengeance was sought. Only through the power of truth and non-violence, an appeal was made to the conscience of the oppressor. Persuasion, not force, would make the oppressor realise the truth. This ‘dharma’ of non-violence and truth united people against the oppressor and made them realise the truth.

Question 10:
State the importance of petroleum as an energy resource. Mention any four oil fields of India. [3]
Answer:
Petroleum is the next major energy source in India after coal. Petroleum provides fuel for heat and lighting, lubricants for machinery and raw materials for number of manufacturing industries – synthetic textiles, fertiliser and numerous chemical industries.
(i) Mumbai High.
(ii) Ankeleshwar, Gujarat.
(iii) Digboi, Assam. (iv) Bassien, Arabian Sea.

Question 11:
Distinguish between an integrated steel plant and a mini steel plants stating three points of distinction. [3]
Answer:
(i) An integrated steel plant is larger than a mini steel plant.
(ii) Mini steel plants use steel scrap and sponge iron while integrated steel plant use basic raw materials, i.e. iron ore for making steel.
(iii) Mini steel plant produces mild and alloy steel while integrated steel plant produces only steel.

Question 12:
Write a short note on (i) Personal written communication (ii) Telecom network of India. [3]
Answer:
(i) Personal written communication includes cards and envelopes which is also called first class mail.
(ii) India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia. Excluding urban places more than two thirds of the villages in India have already been covered with Subscriber Trunk Dialling (STD) telephone facility. The development of space technology with communication technology has made integrated development of telecom network successful.

Question 13:
What is meant by national parties? State the criteria for recognizing a party as national and state party. [3]
Answer:
Political parties in India are recognized as ‘National’ or ‘State’ party by the Election Commission of India.
There are some countrywide parties which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
A party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.
A party that secures at least 6 per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party.

Question 14:
Why are democracies unable to reduce economic inequalities? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal right in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, there are growing economic inequalities. A few of the rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining and sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

Question 15:
Is the combination of social divisions with politics always explosive? Substantiate with examples from India. [3]
Answer:
The combination of social divisions with politics is not always explosive. Rather in a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these. This leads to the strengthening of democracy. For example, in India, the provision of reservation for certain classes as given in our constitution is a political expression for the welfare of those exploited for centuries.

Question 16:
What are the various social indicators of development? [3]
Answer:
Although the level of income is important indicator of development, it is an inadequate measure of the level of development. Other social indicators are :
Health and Education : People become human resource when investments are made in their health and education.
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males. An ideal sex ratio should be more or less equal number of males and females. Sex ratio in favour of males indicates sex discrimination which goes against development.

Question 17:
Explain the ‘decent standard of living.’ [3]
Answer:
Minimum items to enable human beings to survive and to keep body and soul together are water, food and shelter. But a certain level of comfort above that has always been considered necessary for a “decent” standard of living. Just how much space there is between necessity and decency depends upon the society’s opinion which changes all the time. Decent standard of living can be expressed in terms of per capita GDP.

Question 18:
What is organised sector? Describe its working conditions. [3]
Answer:
Organised Sector : This sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular. They are registered by the government and have to follow the rules and regulations. These people have job security.
Working Conditions :
(i) Fixed working hours in organized sector : In organized sector working hours are fixed. If employee is working after the fixed time, he would be paid extra money for it.
(ii) Wage structure divided under various heads : The wage structure is divided under various heads like provident fund, gratuity and various allowances. Employees get pension after retirement in organized sector.

Question 19.A:
How is culture a great agent of globalization? Explain with example. [5]
Answer:
Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Religion was perhaps one of the most important commodities carried along the Silk Route. Buddhism reached China from India along the northern branch of the route. The Karakoram passes were used as a means by the missionaries to explore the faiths and scriptures.
Art, literature and philosophical ideas were exchanged and in the process, it affected the cultures of different countries to which the route branched out. Even Christian missionaries travelled along the Silk Route to Asia, followed by Muslim preachers a few centuries later. The long rule of British in India also left an indelible western influence in different ways.

OR

Question 19.B:
Describe the nexus between merchants and cotton textile producers in proto-industry.
Answer:
In the proto-industrial stage, cotton textile was produced in the following ways :
(i) Merchant clothier bought wool from stapler, the person who sorted wool according to its fibres.
(ii) Then, he took the wool to spinners to produce spun yams.
(iii) Yam (threads) were finally given to the weavers for weaving and the fullers who gathered cloths by pleating and finally sent to dyers for colouring.
As a result, a close relationship between town and countryside developed in which a network of commercial exchange existed between merchants and farmers.

OR

Question 19.C:
What forms of entertainment were available in nineteenth century in England to provide leisure activities for the people?
Answer:
Cultural events increased as a form of leisure as London expanded in the middle of the eighteenth century.
(i) During the Annual London Season, the wealthy Britishers celebrated mostly by patronising operas, theatres and classical music performances. The London Season was a traditional celebration time for upper class after the Christmas and Easter festivals.
(ii) The pubs were meeting places where drinks were served, news were exchanged and debates on different issues were discussed especially by the working class.
(iii) Libraries, art galleries, museums, etc, were established in the nineteenth century and they increased historical sense and pride in British identity and achievements.

Question 20.A:
What was the role of cartoons and caricatures in new forms of publications?
Answer:
By the 1870s, cartoons and caricatures appeared in many journals and newspapers. They commented on social and political issues. By making fun of certain beliefs, they aroused the public and made them think about certain rules of society and the role of imperial rulers. Some caricatures made fim of the educated Indians’ fascination for everything western in tastes, clothes, etc. Some, on the other hand, expressed fear of change of any kind. In the field of politics they lampooned the behaviour and attitude of imperial rulers. The imperial rulers returned the compliment by making fun of and caricaturing the nationalists. Cartoons and caricatures typically suggested that the monarchy remained absorbed only in sensual pleasures while the common people suffered immense hardships. This literature circulated underground and led to the growth of hostile sentiments against the monarchy.

OR

Question 20.B:
What were the main themes of the novels in the 19th century? [5]
Answer:
In the 19th century, the Industrial Revolution had changed the society. Factories came up and the rich kept all the profits and became richer. The poor had a miserable time. There was unemployment and people roamed on streets in search of jobs. Novelists wrote critically about the deplorable condition of the poor. Charles Dickens described these conditions in his novel ‘Hard Times ’ and ill-treatment of children in workhouses in his novel ‘Oliver Twist’. His novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coke town, a fictitious industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery, smoking chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all looked the same. Here workers are known as ‘hands’, as if they had no identity other than as operators of machines. Dickens criticised the greed for profits.

Question 21:
Distinguish between Intensive Subsistence Farming and Commercial Farming.
Answer:

Question 22:
How can religion influence politics? [5]
Answer:
(i) Gandhiji believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from all religions.
(ii) Ideas, ideals and values drawn from different religions can play a role in politics. These can have a good moral effect on politics.
(iii) People should have the freedom to express in politics their needs, interest and demands as a member of a religious community.
(iv) People who hold political power should see that discrimination and oppression do not take place due to religion.
(v) Religious sentiments should not be exploited for electoral gains.

Question 23:
In which way does the language policy in India help our country avoid the situation that Sri Lanka is in today? [5]
Answer:
Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Although Hindi was identified as the official language but there were many safeguards to protect other languages. According to the Constitution, the use of English for official purpose was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi-speaking states demanded that the use of English should continue. The central government decided to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Hindi is not imposed on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
In Sri Lanka, the major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74%) and the Tamil-speakers (18%). In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. Due to this, and other reasons, the relations between the Sinhala and the Tamil communities got strained over time.

Question 24:
Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain the role of government in this sector. [5]
Answer:
Construction of roads, bridges, railways, harbours, generating electricity, providing irrigation through dams, health, education etc. are a few examples of public sector activities.
Government has taken up these activities because these require a huge amount of investment which is beyond the capacity of the private sector. Several things are needed by the society as a whole which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost. Even if they do provide these things, they would charge a high rate for their use.
Let us further understand this with the help of an example. Selling electricity at a price which covers the full cost of generation may push up the cost of production in industries. Many units, specially small scale units, might have to shut down. Government here steps in by producing and supplying electricity at rates which these industries can afford. So the government has to bear a part of the cost.

Question 25:
Discuss the need of service sector. [5]
Answer:
Service sector is the most important sector of economy today. This sector amply complements and aids the other two sectors of the economy. Following are the needs of service sector :
(i) Production of goods is concentrated but the consumers are scattered all over the world.
(ii) Goods are produced in large quantities but the consumers purchase them in small qualities.
(iii) There is wide gap of distance, time, risk and knowledge between the production and consumption of goods.
(iv) Primary and secondary sectors cannot develop without the service sector.
(v) Service sector helps in transportation of goods from factory to market and in allied activities, like banking insurances, etc.

Question 26:
Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) The place where Congress session was held in September, 1920.
(ii) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement began.

Question 27:
Two features A, B are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [1]
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1929.
(B) The place where Non-Cooperation Movement was called off.
Answer:

Question 28:
Locate and label the following items on the same map with appropriate symbols.
(i) Marmagao port
(ii) Bokaro steel plant
(iii) Talcher thermal power plant

Note: The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27 and 28. [5]
(28.1) Where did Jallianwala massacre take place?
(28.2) Where did Gandhiji break the Salt Law?
(28.3) In which state is Paradip port situated?
(28.4) Where is Meenmbakkam International Airport located?
(28.5) Which power plant is located at Neyveli?
Answer:
(28.1) Amritsar
(28.2) Dandi
(28.3) Odisha
(28.4) Chennai
(28.5) Thermal power plant

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The post Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 5

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SAMPLE PAPER 5 (Solved)

Question 1.A:
When was Ireland forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom? [1]
Answer:
In 1801

OR

Question 1.B:
To control Southeast Asia, in which year Japan occupied Vietnam?
Answer:
1940

Question 2.A:
Why did Germania wear a crown of oak leaves? [1]
Answer:
Because the German Oak stands for heroism.

OR

Question 2.B:
Name a Hollywood movie which reflected the moral confusion that the US-Vietnam war had caused in the US? [1]
Answer:
‘Apocalypse’ (1979) by John Ford Cappola.

Question 3:
Name two public sector industries. [1]
Answer:
(i) Bharat Heavy Electronic Ltd. (BHEL)
(ii) Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL)

Question 4:
Where was the first jute mill in India set up? [1]
Answer:
At Rishra near Kolkata in 1859.

Question 5:
Where is Naharkatiya oil refinery situated? [1]
Answer:
Assam.

Question 6:
What is the most distinctive feature of democracy? [1]
Answer:
The most distinctive feature of democracy is that its examination never gets over. As it passes one test, it produces another test.

Question 7:
Which sector has the largest number of underemployed persons? [1]
Answer:
Primary Sector.

Question 8.A:
Explain the role of women in the nationalist struggles of Europe. [3]
Answer:
The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this, they were denied suffrage during the elections to the Assembly. When the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St. Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

OR

Question 8.B:
What was Phan Chu Trinh’s objective for Vietnam? How were his ideas different from those of Phan Boi Chau?
Answer:
The objectives of the two nationalists, Phan Chu Trinh and Phan Boi Chau, were different from each other.
Phan Chu Trinh (1871 – 1926) did not want to resist the French with the aid of monarchy. He was influenced by the Western idea of democracy and wanted to set up a democratic republic of Vietnam.
Phan Boi Chau (1867 – 1940) went on to form a revolutionary society with Prince Cuong De. So, we can say that Phan Boi Chau favoured monarchy and Phan Chu Trinh favoured a republic.

Question 9:
What was the cause of disagreement between the Congress-led Non-Cooperation Movement and the peasants’ and workers’ movements? [3]
Answer:
The Congress under Gandhiji believed in achieving ‘Swaraj’ by peaceful means and total non-violence. He believed Satyagraha, truth and non-violence. He believed in non-cooperation with British regime.
The peasants and workers, though believed in Gandhi’s Swaraj, khadi and boycott, did not believe in non-violence. They turned violent to gain their aims, which went against the Congress creed. The violence at Chauri-Chaura led to suspension of the Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 10:
Explain the importance, occurrence and distribution of petroleum in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) Petroleum is the next major energy source in India after coal.
(ii) Petroleum occurrence in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps in the rock formations of the tertiary age.
(iii) About 63 percent of India’s petroleum production is from Mumbai High, 18 percent from Gujarat and 16 percent from Assam. Ankleshwar is the most important oil field of Gujarat while Assam is the oldest oil producing state in India.

Question 11:
How are agriculture and industries interdependent on each other? Explain any three points. [3]
Answer:
Agriculture and industry go hand in hand.
(i) The agro-industries have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
(ii) Agriculture needs pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, etc, which creates demand for industry to produce such items.
(iii) Competitiveness of manufacturing industries as well as efficiency of production processes are both improved.

Question 12:
How do physical and economic factors influence the distribution pattern of Indian railway network? Explain with examples. [3]
Answer:
The distribution pattern of the railway network in India has been greatly influenced by physical and economic factors.
Level lands of the Northern Plains of India with high density of population, rich agricultural resources and greater industrial activity have favoured the development of railways in this region. The region, therefore, has the densest network of railways in India.
The rugged terrain of the Himalayan mountain region in the north and the north-eastern states with sparse population and lack of economic opportunities are unfavourable for construction of railway lines and railway network is lacking in these regions.

Question 13:
Political parties are rightly called the government in disguise. Justify the statement in reference to democratic politics by giving four arguments. [3]
Answer:
(i) Parties contest elections. In most democracies elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties.
(ii) A party reduces a vast multitude of opinions into a few basic positions which it supports. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the ruling party.
(iii) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Most of the members of a legislature belong to a party and they go by the direction of the party leadership.
(iv) Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

Question 14:
Bring out any three arguments in support of democracy as a better form of government as compared to dictatorship. [3]
Answer:
Democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean but a democratic government is people’s own government. This is not true in case of dictatorship.
In a democratic government citizens have fundamental rights and duties but in dictatorship it is not so.
In a democratic form of government, the decision making process is slow. Because it follows the procedures and its decisions are more acceptable to the people. This is not seen in the dictatorship type of government.

Question 15:
What could be the two possible outcomes of politics of social divisions? [3]
Answer:
The two outcomes are :
(i) Political divisions could lead to violence and disintegration of a country. Example: Yugoslavia.
(ii) They could be amicably settled in a democracy where rulers share power, and people think of themselves as nationalists and then as belonging to a religious or ethnic or linguistic group. Example : India.

Question 16:
In what ways does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks? Why is it necessary? [3]
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loan. For example, we have seen that the banks maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the cash balance. Similarly, the RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit making businesses but also to small cultivators, small scale industries etc.

Question 17:
Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples. [3]
Answer:
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the government of India. In money transactions, money can be paid for any goods or services one desires. For example : the producer of shoes may want wheat in exchange for his shoes. But he may find it difficult to find a person who is also willing to exchange his wheat for shoes. So simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants is the first and foremost condition to buy and sell the commodity. In money transaction one can buy a commodity whenever one wants it. One does not have to wait for another person to agree to an exchange of goods.

Question 18:
Explain any three ways by which people may be exploited in the market. [3]
Answer:
Consumer may be exploited in the market in the following ways :
(i) Substandard quality : Selling of medicines beyond their expiry date, supply of defective home appliances etc. are examples of activities by traders through which they sell substandard quality of goods.
(ii) Higher prices : Traders sometimes charge a price higher than the Maximum Retail Price (MRP).
(iii) Duplicate Articles : Many false and duplicate products are being sold to the consumers.

Question 19.A:
Trace the origin of Silk Route and describe its significance, [5]
Answer:
The Silk Route is one of the world’s oldest and historically most important trade route which affected the cultures of China, Central Asia and the West. It had many branches leading to different regions, including ancient India. It played an important role as a means of pre-modem trade and cultural exchange between different regions.
The Romans learned about the Silk Route from the Pailhians around 53 B.C.E. They used the word “Seres” or the silk people to refer to the Chinese. The modem word “Silk Route” was coined by a German scholar, von Richthofen, in the nineteenth century. Silk was considered the most precious by the Romans even though it was only one of the many commodities that was traded between China and the world through this route.

OR

Question 19.B:
Explain the miserable conditions of Indian weavers during the East India Company’s regime in the eighteenth century.
Answer:
Once the East India Company established political power, it started asserting monopoly right to trade. It proceeded to develop a system which gave it control to eliminate all competition, control costs and ensure regular supply of cotton and silk goods. It took the following steps.
First, it eliminated the existing traders and brokers and established direct control over the weaver. It appointed a special officer called the ‘gomastha’ to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of the clothes.
Second, it prevented the Company weavers from dealing with other buyers. They advanced loans to weavers to purchase the raw materials, after placing an order. The ones who took loans had to give their cloth to the gomastha. They could not sell it to any other trader.
Weavers took advance, hoping to earn more. Some weavers even leased out their land to devotc- all time to weaving. The entire family became engaged in weaving. But soon there were fights between the weavers and the gomasthas. The latter used to march into villages with sepoys and often beat up the weavers for delays in supply.
In many places like Carnatic and Bengal, weavers deserted their villages. In many places they revolted against the Company and its officials. Weavers began refusing to accept loans after some time, closed down their workshops and became agricultural labourers.

OR

Question 19.C:
Mention various measures taken to decongest London in the I9th and 20th centuries.
Answer:
(i) Rent control to prevent severe housing shortage.
(ii) Building a Green Belt around London as “New Lungs” for the city.
(iii) Building holiday homes in the countryside by wealthy residents of London.
(iv) Ebenezer Howard, an architect and planner, planned “Garden City” full of plants and trees where people could work as well as live. Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker designed the Garden city of New Earswick.
(v) A million houses were built by local authorities.

Question 20.A:
How did the print expose caste and class exploitation? [5]
Answer:
From the late nineteenth century, issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed tracts and essays. Jyotiba Phule, the Maratha pioneer of Tow caste’ protest movements, wrote about the injustices of the caste system in his Gulamgiri (1871). In the twentieth century’, B.R. Ambedkar in Maharashtra and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Madras, better known as Periyar, wrote powerfully on caste and their writings were read by people all over India. Local protest movements and sects also created a lot of popular journals and tracts criticising ancient scriptures and envisioning a new and just future.
Workers in factories were too overworked and lacked the education to write much about their experiences. But Kashibaba, a Kanpur millworker, wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938 to show the links between caste and class exploitation. The poems of another
Kanpur millworker, who wrote under the name of Sudarshan Chakr between 1935 and 1955, were brought together and published in a collection called Sacchi Kavitayen.

OR

Question 20.B:
Describe in brief the role of novels in popularising the sense of belongingness among Indians.
Answer:
(i) Imagining a heroic past was one way in which the novel helped in popularising the sense of belonging to a common nation.
(ii) Another was to include various classes in the novel so that they could be seen to belong to a shared world. Premchand’s novels, for example, were filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all levels of society.
(iii) The novels promoted an understanding of different people, different values and different communities. Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay’s Anguriyo Binimoy (1857) was the first historical novel written in Bengali. It glorifies Shivaji and his many battles against the clever and treacherous Aurangzeb, the Mughal ruler. It describes how Shivaji escaped from the clutches of Aurangzeb. It helped the reader in imagining a nation full of adventure, heroism, romance and sacrifice. Shivaji became a nationalist figure fighting for the freedom of the Hindus.

Question 21:
Why has the water shortage problem aggravated in post-independent India? [5]
Answer:
Intensive industrialisation and urbanisation witnessed in post-independent India have significantly contributed to the exploitation of the available fresh water resources. Industries require huge supply of water for production, cooling of machineries and for power supply in the form of hydroelectricity. Ever increasing urban centres with large and dense population and urban lifestyles have increased the domestic water requirement and power requirement. Individual groundwater pumping devices in housing complexes of big cities have aggravated the problem of depletion of water resources. Agricultural progress in the post-independence era has also eventually led to water scarcity. Irrigation in different forms to increase agricultural production exploits the available surface and groundwater sources excessively. As a result of the above mentioned reasons, the water shortage problem has aggravated in post-independent India.

Question 22:
Politics too influences the caste system. Explain giving five points. [5]
Answer:
Politics in castes takes the following forms :
(i) Each caste tries to widen its base to gain majority. It starts including neighbouring castes or sub-castes which were not in their group earlier.
(ii) Various caste groups form coalition with other castes or communities and thus enter into negotiations.
(iii) Many new caste groups come up in the political field like ‘backward’ and ‘forward caste groups’.
(iv) Politicisation of caste is quite common during elections in our country
(v) Political parties appeal to the caste sentiments to influence voters to vote for them.

Question 23:
Mention some of the suggestions made to reform political parties. [5]
Answer:
(i) Laws made to regulate internal politics of parties.
(ii) It should be compulsory to maintain a register of its members, hold independent inquiry in case of a party dispute and hold open elections to top party posts.
(iii) It should be mandatory to give 1/3 party tickets to women candidates. There should be a quota for women in decision making bodies.
(iv) The government or the state should help parties during elections by funding them.
(v) Expenses for petrol, paper, telephone etc. can be given. Cash can be given on the basis of votes secured by the party in the last elections.

Question 24:
Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important than other sectors in India? Give four reasons. [5]
Answer:
Tertiary sector has become important in India due to
(i) Basic services like hospitals, education, post and telegraph, courts etc. are the responsibility of the government.
(ii) Demand for services such as transport, trade, storage has increased with the development of primary and secondary sectors.
(iii) Demand for tourism, shopping, private schools, private hospitals etc. increased with the increase in the level of income.
(iv) Rapid growth of service sector also benefited from external demand such as software industry and call centre services.

Question 25:
The workers in the unorganized sector need protection on the following issues: wages, safety and health. Explain with examples. [5]
Answer:
In unorganized sectors workers are exploited by the private individuals because their aim is to earn more profit. They are not concerned with the safety and health of the employees. They also pay low wages to increase their profits. In such a type of organization working conditions are not good. So the protection of their rights is necessary. They can take the help of labour laws and courts. Outdated and obsolete machines installed in factories play havoc with health of workers. These need upgradation. Government should make laws and strictly implement them for benefit of workers.

Question 26:
Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Lahore (ii) Amritsar

Question 27:
Two features A and B are marked in the given outline political map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. [1]
(A) The place where the movement of indigo cultivators took place.
(B) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1927.

Answer:
(A) Champaran
(B) Madras

Question 28:
Locate and label the following items on the same map with appropriate symbols. [3]
(i) Kanpur – Cotton Textile Industry
(ii) Bhadravati – Iron and Steel Plant
(iii) Paradip – Seaport on eastern coast

Note : The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27 and 28. [5]
(28.1) Where was the 1929 session of Congress held?
(28.2) Name a thermal power plant in Orissa (Odisha).
(28.3) In which state Amritsar is situated.
(28.4) Naharkatia is famous for what?
(28.5) Where is Bokaro steel plant located?
Answer:
(28.1) Lahore
(28.2) Talcher
(28.3) Punjab
(28.4) Oilfield
(28.5) Jharkhand

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The post Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

MODEL TEST PAPER 1 (Unsolved)

1.A Which class dominated the Frankfurt Parliament? [1]

OR

1.B In which year for the first time French troops landed in Vietnam?

2. Who led the peasants in Awadh during the Non-Cooperation Movement? [1]

3. Khetri mines in Rajasthan is famous for which mineral? [1]

4. Define strip cropping. [1]

5. Which are the main oilfields in Gujarat? [1]

6. Explain the term ‘Defection’. [1]

7. Define private sector. [1]

8.A Who was Count Camilo De Cavour? State any two of his contributions.  [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three impact of Great Depression of the 1930s on Vietnam.

9. Why did Gandhiji call off the Non-Cooperation Movement? [3]

10. Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. [3]

11. Explain any three factors that affect the location of industries in a region. [3]

12. Explain any three major problems faced by Indian Railways. [3]

13. Explain how Belgium was able to solve her ethnic problems. [3]

14. Do you think reforms can be forced on political parties by legal actions?[3]

15. Explain three foundational challenges faced by democracy. [3]

16. In what ways, the Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of banks. [3]

17. Describe three features of a Self-Help Group (SHG). [3]

18. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement. [3]

19.A Explain how print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India. [5]

OR

19.B Describe the development of novels in South India.

20.A Describe the effects of spread of print culture on poor people in the 19th century India. [5]

OR

20.B How did novels in India create pan-Indian identity?

21. Give four points of distinction between Rabi and Kharif crops. [5]

22. How can you say that different tiers of government in India enjoy separate jurisdiction? [5]

23. What is meant by the term ‘secularism’? Mention any two provisions of the Indian Constitution which makes India a secular state.  [5]

24. Why has tertiary sector become the target producer in India over the last 30 years? Give four reasons.      [5]

25. Distinguish between organised sector and unorganised sector. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Kheda
(ii) Dandi

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(i) The centre of calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) The place where the Indian National Congress Session of September 1920 was held.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) Woollen textile – Jamnagar
(ii) Software technology park – NOIDA
(iii) Visakhapatnam seaport

Note : The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, and 28.        [5]
(28.1) Where did Gandhiji break the Salt law?
(28.2) In which state is Kheda situated?
(28.3) In which state is Kandla port situated?
(28.4) Where is Meenambakkam International Airport located?
(28.5) Which power plant is located at Neyveli?

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The post CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

MODEL TEST PAPER 2 (Unsolved)

1.A Who celebrated the Polish national struggle through his operas and music? [1]

OR

1.B How many countries comprise the Indo-China?

2.A What happened to the Frankfurt Parliament in the end? [1]

OR

2.B Who was Paul Bernard?

3. Name the oldest refinery in India. [1]

4. What is Bangar? [1]

5. Which water harvesting system is most popular in Meghalaya? [1]

6. Define a national party. [1]

7. How does globalisation help? [1]

8.A What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity among the French people?           [3]

OR

8.B Describe the role of women in the Vietnamese struggle during the US intervention.

9. Mention any three efforts made by Gandhiji to get Harijans their rights. [3]

10. Which are three major forms of coal? Write the main characteristic of each                     [3]

11. Mention any two challenges faced by the jute industry in India. State any one step taken by the government to stimulate its demand.       [3]

12. Which are the three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country? [3]

13. What is a pressure group? Give a few examples. [3]

14. What is the function of the Opposition Party? [3]

15. How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government? [3]

16. Write the functions of money. [3]

17. How has the Internet helped in globalization? [3]

18. What is the difference between consumer protection council and consumer court? [3]

19.A What are MNCs? Describe their functions. [5]

OR

19.B Why did some industrialists in 19th century in Europe prefer hand labour over machines? Explain.

20.A Describe the relation between ‘print and dissent’. [5]

OR

20.B Describe the themes of Thomas Hardy’s novels giving two examples.

21. Explain briefly any four features of intensive subsistence farming in India. [5]

22. Why does the exact balance of power between the Centre and the State governments vary from one federation to another? Explain with two examples.     [5]

23. Why is it necessary to have secularism in India? [5]

24. Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important than other sectors in India? Give four reasons. [5]

25. Explain the rights given under COPRA for the redressal of grievances. [5]

26. Locate and label the following items on the outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Nagpur
(ii) Kolkata

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Champaran

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) Surat – Cotton textile centre
(ii) Hyderabad – Software technology park
(iii) Silchar

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28. [5]
(28.1) From which place did Gandhiji start his Dandi March?
(28.2) When was the resolution of ‘Puma Swaraj’ passed?
(28.3) Name an iron and steel plant of Andhra Pradesh.
(28.4) Name the westernmost terminal station of East-West corridor.
(28.5) Name an iron and steel plant in West Bengal.

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The post CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 3

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

MODEL TEST PAPER 3 (Unsolved)

1.A When did the English Parliament seize power from the monarchy? [1]

OR

1.B When did the NLF occupy the presidential palace in Saigon that resulted in the unification of Vietnam?

2.A Name the allegory of the French nation in the 19th century. [1]

OR

2.B Who established the Vietnamese Communist Party?

3. Where is the largest steel plant in India located? [1]

4. What do you mean by ‘polar pani’? [1]

5. What is Blue Revolution? [1]

6. What do you mean by Federal Government? [1]

7. Explain ‘Right to choose’. [1]

8.A How did the Greek war of Independence mobilize nationalist feeling among the educated elite across Europe? Give three points.        [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three limitations of the French Education Policy in Vietnam.

9. Explain the circumstances in which Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowed down in cities.  [3]

10. What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India.               [3]

11. Explain any three types of pollution caused by industries.                                                       [3]

12. What is the significance of National Highways?                                                                     [3]

13. Describe the three main elements of democracy?                                                                   [3]

14. State any two advantages of a multi-party system. In what way is an alliance different from a coalition government?  [3]

15. Examine the three challenges to democracy. [3]

16. Why are poor households still dependent on informal sources of credit? Explain any three reasons.      [3]

17. How do banks play a positive role by acting as intermediaries between depositors and borrowers?    [3]

18. What is the Right to Information Act, (2005)? How does it help the consumers? [3]

19.A How did the world economy take shape? Discuss four features. [5]

OR

19.B How did the East India Company establish a system of management and control over Indian trade?

20.A Describe the new spirit of individualism that emerged in the industrial cities. [5]

OR

20.B Discuss the emergence of novels in South India in the 19th century.

21. State any four characteristics of commercial farming in India. [5]

22. Explain two achievements and two difficulties of Local Self Government in India. [5]

23. Do the ‘caste’ and ‘vote bank’ factors completely control the elections in India? Explain. [5]

24. Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain the rationale behind it. [5]

25. The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on various issues. Explain with examples. [5]

26. Locate and label the following items on the outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Nagpur                                           (ii) Kheda

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(A) The place where the Satyagraha of cotton mill workers was held.
(B) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1929.

28. Locate and label die following items on the map.
(i) Mohali – Software Technology Park
(ii) Bokaro – Iron and Steel Industry
(iii) Kalpakkam – Nuclear Power Plant

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28. [5]
(28.1) In which state the Jallianwala Bagh Incident took place?
(28.2) Where did Gandhiji break the Salt Law?
(28.3) Name the software technology park in Odisha.
(28.4) Name the state where the Rawat Bhata Nuclear Plant is located.
(28.5) At which place is a major iron and steel plant located in Tamil Nadu?

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The post CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi…

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 4 (Unsolved)

1.A Who remarked, ‘when France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’? [1]

OR

1.B In which year the Tonkin Free school was started in Vietnam to provide western education?

2.A What was the nature of Conservative regimes set up in 1815? [1]

OR

2.B Who was Confucious?

3. What is lignite? [1]

4. Define hydrological cycle. [1]

5. Where is the largest steel plant of India located? [1]

6. What is a multi-partly system? [1]

7. Define ‘right to be informed’. [1]

8.A What was the reaction to the Napoleonic Code?   [3]

OR

8.B Why did French policy-makers want to educate the people of Vietnam? Explain.

9. Why did the industrialists and industrial workers lose interest in the Civil Disobedience Movement?    [3]

10. Explain any three measures for the conservation of minerals. [3]

11. How do industries create water and noise pollution? Mention their consequences. [3]

12. Mention any three merits of road transportation with reference to India. [3]

13. Explain three positive outcomes of democracy. [3]

14. How do political parties shape public opinion? Explain with three examples. [3]

15. Describe the major challenges to democracy in India. [3]

16. Mention three characteristics each of the formal and informal sources of credit in India. [3]

17. Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers. [3]

18. Who is a consumer? Explain five duties of a consumer. [3]

19.A Give two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability. [5]

OR

19.B How did proto-industraialisation lead to Industrial Revolution?

OR

19.C How did Baron Haussmann rebuild Paris?

20.A How did the spread of print culture contribute to the French Revolution? [5]

OR

20.B ‘It was with the writing of Premchand that the Hindi novel achieved excellence.’ Elucidate.

21. How has intensive industrialisation put a great pressure on existing fresh water resources in India? Explain with two examples for each. [5]

22. How can you say that different tiers of government in India enjoy separate jurisdictions? Explain. [5]

23. State different forms of communal politics with one example each. [5]

24. What does the history of developed countries indicate about the shifts that have taken place between sectors?      [5]

25. Explain the relative importance of the three sectors of economy. [5]

26. Locate and label the following items on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Nagpur                                            (ii) Champaran

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(A) The place where Jaillianwala Bagh incident occurred.
(B) The place where demand for comple independence was made.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.          [3]
(i) Kaiga Nuclear Power Station.
(ii) Tuticorin seaport.
(iii) Salem Iron and Steel Plant.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28.
(28.1) Where was the 1929 session of Congress held?
(28.2) Name a thermal power plant in Odisha.
(28.3) Who started Civil Disobedience Movement?
(28.4) Digboi is famous for what?
(28.5) In which state is Bokaro steel plant located?

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The post CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 5

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 5 (Unsolved)

1.A What was the main intention behind the congress of Vienna? [1]

OR

1.B For what purpose Scholars Revolt was started in Vietnam in 1868?

2.A Which class led the revolutions of (1830-1848) in Europe? [1]

OR

2.B When and where a peace settlement took place which ended Vietnamese conflict with the US?

3. What is the main difference between weathering and erosion? [1]

4. In which state is Mawsynram located? [1]

5. Which fibre crop originated in India? [1]

6. What should be the main focus of political reforms?                   [1]

7. Which is the single largest source of credit in rural India?        [1]

8.A Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans?   [3]

OR

8.B Describe the influence of China on Vietnamese culture and life.

9. Describe briefly any three economic effects of Non-Cooperation Movement. [3]

10. “Modem means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation.” Explain. [3]

11. Explain any three factors responsible for the location of cotton textile industry in Mumbai and Ahmedabad.  [3]

12. Name any three major iron ore belts found in India. Write main feature of each.                         [3]

13. Describe any two features of democracy. [3]

14. Examine any three features on the basis of which maximum number of countries claim to practise democratic politics.   [3]

15. Explain any two reforms implemented in our country to improve the political parties. [3]

16. Mention any three ways which the multinational corporations use to spread their production. [3]

17. How has the improvement in technology stimulated the globalization process? Explain with examples.   [3]

18. Why should credit at reasonable rates be available to all? Describe any three reasons. [3]

19.A ‘Despite repressive measures, nationalist newspapers grew in numbers in all parts of India.’ Discuss. [5]

OR

19.B Discuss the emergence of novel in South India.

20.A Discuss the impact of depression on Indian agriculture. [5]

OR

20.B Describe the peculiarities of industrial growth in India during the 19th century.

OR

20.C Describe the celebration during the ‘London Season’.

21. After Independence, what steps were taken by the government to increase agricultural production? [5]

22. Mention three measures that have strengthened federalism in India. [5]

23. What are the effects of communalism on politics? [5]

24. Describe various sources of credit available in rural India. [5]

25. What do you mean by underemployment? Give three reasons for underemployment with examples. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(A) Place where the Congress session was held in 1927.
(B) Place where the Congress session was held in September, 1920.

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(i) Dandi (ii) Kheda

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) An iron ore mine in Jharkhand
(ii) Mica mine in Andhra Pradesh
(iii) Nuclear Power Station, Kaiga.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28.  [5]

(28.1) Where did Gandhiji break the Salt Law?
(28.2) In which year Mahatma Gandhi came to India from South Africa?
(28.3) Name the software technology park in Punjab.
(28.4) Name the state where the Rawat Bhata Nuclear Plant is located.
(28.5) At which place is a major iron and steel plant located in Tamil Nadu?

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The post CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 6

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 6 (Unsolved)

1.A Who was he chief architect of the unification of Germany? [1]

OR

1.B According to Paul Bernard what were the barriers to economic growth in Vietnam?

2.A Who was Giuseppe Garibaldi? [1]

OR

2.B Who was Phan Boi Chau?

3. Define water scarcity. [1]

4. Name any two Rabi crops. [1]

5. Name the oldest oil refinery in India. [1]

6. What is the moral reason for power sharing? [1]

7. Which agency develops standards for goods and services?                                                      [1]

8.A How did the Balkan region become a source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871? Explain in three points.           [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three objectives of the Vietnamese students of ‘Go East Movement’? (1919)? Explain any three reasons.  [3]

9. Why do we need to conserve our mineral resources? Explain any three methods of conservation of minerals.  [3]

10. Why is iron and steel industry termed as basic industry? [3]

11. What are Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways? Mention any two objectives of this project.

12. The North-South and East-West corridors join which terminal cities?           [3]

13. Explain any three features of democracy.                 [3]

14. Mention the factors which led to the rise of political parties.         [3]

15. Explain any three features that are common in all democratic set-ups   of the           [3]

16. Why should credit at reasonable rates be available to   all? Describe any three                [3]

17. Explain the term ‘trade barrier.’ Give example. [3]

18. How are the logos ISI, Agmark or Hallmark helpful to consumers? Explain. [3]

19.A Describe any five factors that led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalization.  [5]

OR

19.B Why could Manchester never recapture its old position in the Indian market after the First World War? Explain.

OR

19.C “City development occurred everywhere at the expense of ecology and environment”. Substantiate your answer with suitable examples.

20.A Explain with examples the impact of print culture on Indian woman. [5]

OR

20.B How did novels produce a sense of Pan-Indian belonging? Explain with examples.

21. Define plantation agriculture. Explain any four characteristics of plantation agriculture. [5]

22. Highlight the steps taken by Government of India towards making it a successful federation. [5]

23. “It is not politics that gets caste ridden but it is the caste that gets politicised.” How far the statement is correct or incorrect, explain.  [5]

24. Define the term ‘Unorganised Sector.’ Mention any six disadvantages of working in this sector. [5]

25. How can workers in the unorganized sector be protected? Explain. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) Ahmedabad (ii) Chauri-Chaura

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(i) The place of peasants satyagraha in Gujarat,
(ii) The place where salt satyagraha ended.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) Marmagao port.
(ii) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport.
(iii) Narora Nuclear Power Station.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28. [5]

(28.1) Who led the Bardoli Satyagraha?
(28.2) In which year Non-Cooperation Movement was started?
(28.3) Name the western terminal station of East-West corridor.
(28.4) In which state is NOIDA located?
(28.5) Name a seaport in Andhra Pradesh.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 7

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 7 (Unsolved)

1.A Who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of democratic and social republics?         [1]

OR

1.B Write the earlier name of Thailand.

2.A Give another term for civil code of 1804.        [1]

OR

2.B Who was Nhat Linh?

3. Name any two steps for conservation of water.       [1]

4. India ranks first in production of which crop?        [1]

5. What are called ‘placer deposits’?                  [1]

6. Explain federalism.                        [1]

7. What is the right to redressal?        [1]

8.A State the ideas of Mazzini which led to the rise of nationalism in Italy.     [3]

OR

8.B What was the dilemma faced by the French while educating the Vietnamese?

9. What was the Rowlatt Act? Explain the reactions of the people against this Act.   [3]

10. State the importance of petroleum as an energy resource. Mention any three oil fields of India. [3]

11. Why does the north-eastern part of the Peninsular Plateau region have the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries?   [3]

12. Write a short note on the Golden Quadrilateral and the North-South and East-West corridors. [3]

13. Explain three challenges before the countries which do not have a democratic form of government.    [3]

14. In which three ways has multi-party system strengthened democracy in  India?                        [3]

15. Which three conclusions can be drawn out from outcomes of democracy?          [3]

16. Describe any three ways in which flexibility in the labour laws help companies. [3]

17. Explain the term ‘debt-trap’. Why is it more rampant in rural areas? Give two reasons. [3]

18. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending?      [3]

19.A How did the global transfer of disease in the pre-modem world help    in the colonisation of the Americans? [5]

OR

19.B Explain the impact of the First World War on industrial production in India,

OR

19.C Explain any five sources of entertainment for the common people of London in the nineteenth century.

20A. Martin Luther remarked “Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.” Explain his remarks in the light of the religious reforms that took place in Europe.   [5]

OR

20.B “Premchand’s novels are filled with powerful characters from all levels of society.” Justify the statement.

21. Define the term resource. Mention the classification of resources on the basis of status of development. Write two main features of each.  [5]

22. Explain the importance of local self-government in the light of decentralization. [5]

23. Evaluate the role of constitutional provisions in making India a secular state.           [5]

24.
(i) Which state has the highest literacy rate?
(ii) Which state has the highest per capita income?
(iii) Which state has highest infant mortality rate?
(iv) What conclusion do you draw from the data?

25. What is sustainable development? Explain it with an example of water. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India.
(i) Dandi
(ii) Kheda

27. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1929.
(ii) Bardoli — The place of ‘no tax campaign’.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) Tarapur Nuclear Power Station
(ii) Tuticorin Port
(iii) Silk industry in Jammu & Kashmir

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28.             [5]
(28.1) Name the place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
(28.2) Which is the place, where ‘Indigo Planters Movement’ started?
(28.3) Name the nuclear plant located in Uttar Pradesh.
(28.4) Name the iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh.
(28.5) Which is the major seaport of southernmost part of India?

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CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 8

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 8 (Unsolved)

1.A When and by which treaty Greece was recognized as an independent nation? [1]

OR

1.B In which part of Vietnam Ho Chi Minh and the Communists established their power after the split of Vietnam?

2.A Out of the seven states of Italy, which one was ruled by an Italian princely house? [1]

OR

2.B Name the Hollywood movie which supported the US-Vietnam war.

3. What is soil erosion? [1]

4. Which river is called the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’? [1]

5. What is Blue Revolution? [1]

6. Give one reason why democracy is considered a better form of government. [1]

7. Which standard certification is issued to industries? [1]

8.A What does the term ‘Liberalism’ mean? What did it mean to different classes and people? [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three conditions of the contract on the basis of which indentured Vietnamese labour worked.

9. What was the impact of the First World War on the economic conditions in India? [3]

10. Explain three factors that make minerals extraction viable. [3]

11. Explain any three factors that influence the location of an industry. [3]

12. What are the advantages of waterways as a means of transport? Mention the names of three national waterways in India.        [3]

13. Why do we need a political party? [3]

14. What are the characteristics of a political party? [3]

15. How does a democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government? [3]

16. What was the need of SHGs in rural areas? [3]

17. In what ways has competition affected workers, Indian exporters and foreign MNC in the garment industry?    [3]

18. How has liberalization of trade and investment policies helped the globalization process? [3]

19.A Explain the effects of the Great Depression of 1929 on the Indian economy. [5]

OR

19.B How did the hand loom cloth production expand steadily in the twentieth century? Explain.

OR

19.C Explain any five sources of entertainment which came up in the 19^th century in England to provide leisure activities.

20.A How did print encourage the reading of religious texts among the Hindus? Explain. [5]

OR

20.B How did novels in British India help colonial administrators and Indians both? Explain.

21. Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced’. Justify the statement by giving four measures to conserve the energy resources.     [5]

22. Analyse the consequences of the Act passed in Sri Lanka in 1956 to establish Sinhala supremacy. [5]

23. What factors have brought about a change in the Indian caste system in modem times? Explain. [5]

24. The earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even one person.” How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development? Explain. [5]

25. Differentiate between underemployment and disguised unemployment with the help of examples. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given political outline map of India. [1]
(A) Champaran
(B) Nagpur

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(i) The place where Sardar Patel led a Satyagraha for the farmers.
(ii) The place where Civil Disobedience Movement started.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map. [3]
(i) Raniganj coal fields
(ii) Bokaro Steel Plant
(iii) Visakhapatnam Port.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28.           [5]
(28.1) Name the place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1927.
(28.2) Which is the place where Noncooperation Movement was called off?
(28.3) Name the nuclear plant located in Tamil Nadu.
(28.4) Name the iron and steel plant located in Odisha.
(28.5) Name a major seaport located on the Western coast of India.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 9

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 9 (Unsolved)

1. For the first time when did people of India celebrate Independence Day prior to 15th August 1947?       [1]

2. During which movement Mahatma Gandhi persuaded people to wear Khadi and give up drinking?    [1]

3. What are the main types of railway gauges? [1]

4. Define hydrological cycle. [1]

5. Which is a major metallic mineral obtained from veins and lodes? [1]

6. Name any two national parties in India. [1]

7. Define ‘credit’.

8.A Write a short note on the ‘Treaty of Vienna’. [3]

OR

8.B Why did the French think colonies necessary?

9. Why did Mahatma Gandhi choose ‘Salt Tax’ to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement? [3]

10. Mention any three reasons or factors of cotton textile industry localisation. [3]

11. What are the negative impacts of industrial development on environment? [3]

12. Why is the manufacturing sector considered the backbone of development? [3]

13. What do you mean by ‘defining moments’ of democracy? [3]

14. Why do people prefer democracy? Explain with three reasons. [3]

15. Explain three negative outcomes of democracy. [3]

16. What are Special Economic Zones (SEZs)? Why is the  government setting  up SEZs?                [3]

17. There are many rules and regulations regarding consumer protection but they are often not followed. Why?     [3]

18. How can globalisation be more fair?                                                                                         [3]

19.A What is meant by Balkan? Why did it turn into perennial source of tension and proved the battlefield of First World War?      [5]

OR

19.B Who was Ho Chi Minh? State his contribution in the freedom movement of Vietnam.

20. Explain the main factors which gave rise to Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930. [5]

21. Classify roads into six classes according to their capacity. What is the role of National Highway Authority of India?      [5]

22. “Political parties are rightly called the government in disguise.” Justify the statement with reference to democratic politics by giving five arguments.    [5]

23. Describe the various outcomes of democracy. [5]

24. Describe the factors which have enabled globalization in India with examples. [5]

25. Why is money transaction system better than barter system? Explain with examples. [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(A) Place where Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place
(B) Place where Congress session was held in 1927.

27. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(i) The place remembered for the no-tax campaign
(ii) The city Where the decision was taken in Congress session to launch Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movement.

28. ocate and label the following items on the map.
(i) A cotton textile centre of Gujarat.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(iii) A nuclear power plant in Rajasthan.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28. [5]
(28.1) In which state is Surat situated?
(28.2) Name the place where Congress session of December, 1920 was held.
(28.3) Name a basic industry.
(28.4) Name the nuclear power plant in Karnataka.
(28.5) Name the eastern terminal point of East-West Corridor.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Final Board Exams Class 10 Social Science – Paper 10

(For Annual Board Examinations to be held in and after March 2018 and onwards)
Based on the latest syllabus and design of the Question Paper released by the C.B.S.E., New Delhi.

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

 MODEL TEST PAPER 10 (Unsolved)

1.A When did the French Revolution start? [1]

OR

1.B Name the scholar who called the US-Vietnam war ‘the greatest threat to peace, to national self determination, and to international cooperation.’

2.A When was the new German empire proclaimed? Who was its head? [1]

OR

2.B Who was made the first chairman of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam?

3. Why is coal mining hazardous? [1]

4. What is full name of NTPC. [1]

5. Most of the sugar mills are located in which two states? [1]

6. Why is there an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world? [1]

7. Give any one right of a consumer. [1]

8.A Explain any three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in the 18th and 19th centuries.      [3]

OR

8.B Explain any three characteristics of the ‘Tonkin Free School’ in Vietnam.

9. Explain any three facts about the new economic situation created in  India  by   the First  World War.    [3]

10. How is energy an indispensable requirement of our modem life? Explain with three [3]

11. Why is roadways considered more important than railways in India? [3]

12. How does textile industry occupy a unique position in Indian economy? Explain. [3]

13. Explain the chief characteristics of democracy. [3]

14. Explain the ideological and support base of Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M).               [3]

15. How do democratic governments ensure transparency? Explain. [3]

16. Describe the advantage of ‘Self Help Groups’ for the poor. [3]

17. Explain the terms of credit with  example.   [3]

18.“There is a need for rules and regulations to ensure protection for consumers.” Give arguments in support of the statement.   [3]

19.A Explain the effects of the Great Depression of 1929 on the Indian economy. [5]

OR

19.B Explain the process of industrialisation in Britain during the nineteenth century.

OR

19.C Explain any five sources of entertainment for the common people of London in the 19^th Century ^.

20.A Explain with examples the impact of print culture on Indian women. [5]

OR

20.B Explain the aspects of Premchand’s writings that make them special.

21. Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources of energy. Give five examples. [5]

22. What is horizontal distribution of power? Explain any two advantages of this form of power sharing.              [5]

23. Elaborate three elements of the Belgian model of power sharing. [5]

24. Explain any two ways to increase the income and employment in the rural and semi-rural areas. [5]

25. What is meant by economic development? Describe the two bases of measuring economic development of a country?           [5]

26. Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India. [1]
(A) Champaran
(B) Dandi

27. Locate and label the following items on the map. [1]
(i) Nagpur              (ii) The place where Complete Independence resolution was passed.

28. Locate and label the following items on the map.
(i) Barauni oil refinery.
(ii) Rawat Bhata : Nuclear Power Station.
(iii) Visvesvarayya Iron and Steel Plant, Bhadravati.

Note : The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 26, 27, & 28. [5]
(28.1) Violence at which place led to the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(28.2) Name the Satyagraha led by Gandhiji in 1918.
(28.3) Name the major seaport in Goa.
(28.4) Name a nuclear power plant in Karnataka.
(28.5) Name a port located on the eastern coast of India.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Pre-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Communicative English – Paper 1

Periodic Assessment 1

Suggested Syllabus

Reading Skills

Question 1:
A factual passage of 300-350 words with 8 very short answer type questions.

Question 2:
A discursive passage of 350-400 words with 4 short answer type questions and 4 very short type questions (2 for vocabulary and 2 for comprehension)

Writing Skills with Grammar

Question 3:
Formal letters: complaint and inquiry

Question 4:
Writing a short story

Question 5:
Gap filling

Question 6:
Editing or omission

Question 7:
Sentence reordering or sentence transformation

Literature Textbook and Extended Reading Text

Question 8:
One out of two extracts from prose and poetry with 4 very short answer type questions.

Question 9:
Four short answer type questions (Two Gentlemen of Verona, Mrs Packletide’s Tiger, The Frog and the Nightingale and The Mirror)

Question 10:
One out of two long answer type questions (Two Gentlemen of Verona, The Frog and the Nightingale)

Question 11:
One out of two very long answer type questions
Diary of a Young Girl – Chapter 1 to 7
The Story of My Life – Chapter 1 to 8

Sample Paper 1

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SECTION A : READING                                   (20 MARKS)

Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :         [8]
The outer solar system is the name of the planets beyond the asteroid belt. The planets in the outer solar system are called gas giants because they are made up of gas and ice. Other than the sun, the gas giants contain ninety-nine per cent of the mass in our whole solar system!
The first stop of our tour of the outer solar system is the fifth planet, Jupiter. It’s bigger than three hundred Earths! Made up of hydrogen and helium and a few other gases, there are violent wind storms that circle around Jupiter. The most famous storm is called the Great Red Spot. Jupiter has sixty-three known moons and a faint ring around it too.
Next in our space neighbourhood comes Saturn. It is most well-known for the series of beautiful rings that circle it. They are made up of tiny bits of frozen dirt and ice. Like Jupiter, Saturn is made of mostly hydrogen and helium. It is smaller though, at only ninety-five times the size of Earth. Saturn has sixty two moons!
Uranus is the seventh planet. The planet and its twenty-seven moons orbit very far from the sun. In addition to helium and hydrogen, Uranus ’ atmosphere also contains ammonia ice and methane ice. It is a very cold planet, with no internal heat source. Uranus is tipped over and orbits the sun on its side at a ninety-degree angle! The twenty-seven moons it has orbit from top to bottom, instead of left to right like our moon.
The eighth planet is Neptune. Like Uranus, Neptune is made up of hydrogen, helium, ammonia ice and methane ice. Unlike Uranus, Neptune does have an inner heat source. It radiates twice as much heat as it receives from the sun. The most distinctive quality Neptune has is its blue colour Thirteen moons and very faint rings circle around Neptune.
Pluto is beyond Neptune and was considered a planet after its discovery in 1930. In 2006 Pluto was demoted and reclassified as a dwarf planet. Pluto exists in the Kuiper belt. That’s just a fancy name for the band of rocks, dust, and ice that lay beyond the gas giants. Scientists have found objects bigger than Pluto in the Kuiper Belt.

by Leslie Cargile

(a) What is the outer solar system? [1]
(b) What circles around Jupiter? [1]
(c) Which two gases make up most of Jupiter and Saturn? [1]
(d) What substances make up Saturn’s rings? [1]
(e) How many moons does Uranus have? [1]
(f) Name the very cold planet. [1]
(g) What is the most distinctive quality of Neptune? [1]
(h) In which year Pluto was demoted and reclassified as a dwarf planet? [1]

Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :       [12]
Although everybody has a creative spark, the potential is not always fully utilised. How does one recognise those who are developing their creative energies to the fullest? Mad painters and tormented poets are only comic stereotypes of the creative personality. The essential traits of creativity are found among a wide variety of less conspicuous creative people in all walks of life. Unfortunately, the structure of our social and educational environment does not always promote its growth.
Generally speaking, creative people often believe their purpose in life is to discover and implement the inter-relatedness of things to make order out of disorder. They also see problems where others see none and question the validity of even the most widely accepted answers. Creative persons are compulsive problem seekers, not so much because they thrive on problems, but because their senses are attuned to a world that demands to be put together, like a jigsaw puzzle scattered on a table.
Several tests now in use reveal that highly creative people are much more open and receptive to the complexities of experience than are less creative people. Highly creative people aren’t afraid to ask what may seem to be naive or silly questions. They ask questions like, “Why don’t spiders get tangled up in their own webs?” and “Why do dogs turn in circles before lying down?” Such questions may seem childlike and in a way they are. Children have not yet had their innate creative energies channelled into culturally acceptable directions and can give full rein to their curiosity, the absolute pre-requisite for full creative functioning, in both children and adults.
Unlike children, creative people appear to have vast stores of patience to draw upon. Months, years, even decades can be devoted to a single problem.
The home that encourages inquisitiveness contributes to creative development. The teacher who stresses questions rather than answers and rewards curiosity rather than restricting it, is teaching a child to be creative.
To be extremely intelligent is not the same as to be gifted in creative work. The quiz kids are often referred to as geniuses. They would undoubtedly score high in memory functions. But it is doubtful whether they are also fluent in producing ideas. Contrary to popular myths that glorify youth, more creative achievements are likely to occur when people grow older. While memory may falter with age, creativity is ageless.

(a) How do creative people think? [2]
(b) What kind of questions do they ask? Why? [2]
(c) How is intelligence different from creativity? [2]
(d) What is the role of a teacher in creative development? [2]
(e) Which single feature makes creative people unlike children? [1]
(f) The quiz kids are often referred to as geniuses.   Why?                       [1]
(g) Find the word in paragraph 4 which means the same of ‘forbearance’.                        [1]
(h) An antonym of ‘foolish’ in para 6 is ………… [1]

SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR                     (30 MARKS)

Question 3:
Write a letter in about 120 words to the Editor of a national daily highlighting continued practice of using animals in roadside shows and as beasts of burden.   [8]

Question 4:
Write a short story in about 200-250 words with the given outline.            [10]
Hints : An old rich lady becomes blind – calls in a doctor – agrees to pay large sum if cured, but nothing if not – her eyes bandaged – doctor removes something every day – eyes cured – doctor asks for payment – lady refuses to pay – says cure not complete – doctor takes the matter to court – judge asks why she does not pay – she say sight not restored – she cannot see her furniture – judge decides the case in her favour.

Question 5:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate words from the given options. [4]
Isaac Newton was born (a) ___________ Woolsthorpe in Lincolnshire on Christmas Day in1642.  He was named after his father who (b)_____________ a few months before Isaac was born. Isaac’s mother remarried (c)__________ he was two years old and he (d)___________ brought up by his grandmother.

Question 6:
The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correct word in the answer sheet against the correct blank number.    [4]

Question 7:
Rearrange the following jumbled up words into meaningful sentences.                                      [4]
(a) respect / said that / demanded / it / but / is / given / is not
(b) if / something / then / in return for / should be / it is so / it
(c) self-respect / come out of / something / has / our / self / is our / that
(d) Oliver Twist / workhouse / in / was / born / a

SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT       (30 MARKS)

Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :    [4]
They were childish enough, and in many ways quite artless. Jacopo was lively as a squirrel. Nicola s smile was steady and engaging. Yet in both these boyish faces there was a seriousness which was far beyond their years.
(a) Why does the narrator call them ‘childish’ and ‘artless’?
(b) Contrast the two different styles of Nicola and Jacopo.
(c) What brought about a ‘seriousness’ which was far ‘beyond their years’ on their boyish faces?
(d) Find out the exact meaning word of ‘stable’ in the above lines.

OR

“Yes, ” the frog replied. “You see,
I’m the frog who owns this tree
In this bog I’ve long been known
For my splendid baritone
i  And, of course, I wield my pen
For Bog Trumpet now and then ”

(a) What bits of information does the frog give to the listener?
(b) Give two reasons why the frog wants to make an impression on the nightingale.
(c) What does the frog’s speech reveal about its character?
(d) Whose voice is being considered splendid in these lines?

Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words :                                                      [8]
(a) Why did the two boys survive only on black bread and figs, despite making a decent earning?
(b) How did the creatures of Bingle bog react to the nightingale’s singing?
(c) Why were the narrator and his companion impressed by the two boys?
(d) Do you think the nightingale is ‘brainless’? Give reasons for your answer.

Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120  words  :                                 [8]
You are Lucia, the ailing sister of the two boys. Write a letter two your friend about your past life and your present situation, as you are on the way to recovery, with the help of your younger brothers.

OR

What does the poet wish to convey in the poem ‘The Frog and the Nightingale’?

Question 11:
Answer  one of the following questions in about 200-250 words  :                               [10]
Anne says, “Memories mean more to me than dresses.” Explain with examples. What does it tell you about Anne?

 OR

Give Anne’s views about her boyfriends and her parents. What do they tell you about Anne herself?

OR

Draw up a character sketch of Helen as a little girl before she started her education in a formal way.

OR

Discuss Helen Keller’s love for nature by giving evidence from the text.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Pre-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Communicative English – Paper 2

Sample Paper 2

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SECTION A : READING                                   (20 MARKS)

Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :                                         [8]
Dolphins are highly intelligent marine mammals and are part of the family of toothed whales that include orcas and pilot whales. They are found worldwide, mostly in shallow seas of the continental shelves, and are carnivores, mostly eating fish and squid. Dolphin colouration varies, but they are generally grey in colour with darker backs than the rest of their bodies. Dolphins consume a variety of prey including fish, squid and crustaceans.
It is difficult to estimate population numbers since there are many different species spanning a large geographic area. Like bats, dolphins use echolocation to navigate and hunt, bouncing high pitched sounds off of objects, and listening for the echoes. Most species live in shallow areas of tropical and temperate oceans throughout the world. Five species live in the world’s rivers. Dolphins are well known for their agility and playful behaviour, making them a favourite of wildlife watchers. Many species will leap out of the water, spy-hop (rise vertically out of the water to view their surroundings) and follow ships, often synchronizing their movements with one another. Scientists believe that dolphins conserve energy by swimming alongside ships, a practice known as bow-riding. Dolphins live in social groups of five to several hundred. They use echolocation to find prey and often hunt together by surrounding a school of fish, trapping them and taking turns swimming through the school and catching fish. Dolphins will also follow seabirds, other whales and fishing boats to feed opportunistically on the fish they scare up or discard. To prevent drowning while sleeping only half of the dolphin s brain goes to sleep while the other half remains awake so they can continue to breathe!
Dolphins are highly social animals, often living in pods of up to a dozen individuals, though pod sizes and structures vary greatly between species and locations. In places with a high abundance of food, pods can merge temporarily, forming a superpod, such groupings may exceed 10,000 dolphins. Membership in pods is not rigid, interchange is common. Dolphins can, however, establish strong social bonds. They will stay with injured or ill individuals.
(a) How has the writer described dolphins? [1]
(b) They are part of which family? [1]
(c) What is the normal diet of dolphins?    [1]
(d) How do dolphins navigate?                   [1]
(e) What are dolphins most known for? [1]
(f) How do dolphins conserve energy?          [1]
(g) How do they find their prey?              [1]
(h) How do they prevent drowning while sleeping? [1]

Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :                                       [12]

1. In the early nineteenth century surgical operations were cruelly painful. Patients were tied to the operation table with strong straps to prevent them from struggling. They were given doses of whisky to blunt their pain as much as possible. But this did not help them very much. Often, when a patient cried out aloud in agony, the surgeon hurried the operation.
2. ‘Is there nothing that will help patients feel no pain? ’ Dr. James Simpson thought. 7 must search for a painkiller until I find one. ’And the more operations he saw, the more resolute he became.
3. Simpson had to carry out two kinds of tasks. First, he had to find a chemical that could lesson or kill pain when the operation took place. Then, he had to be sure that the painkiller would not kill the patient as well, or harm the patient s health. But how could he make sure of this? He could not use his patients or other people in experiments. It might be perilous. So he decided to experiment on himself and on some friends who volunteered to help.
4. One day, Simpson showed his friends a new chemical called chloroform. Simpson gathered as much information as he could about it and decided to test it. He, followed by two of his friends, began to inhale it. When they had inhaled it for some time, the three men became unconscious. They saw nothing, heard nothing and felt nothing.
5. It was Simpson who came to himself first. The chloroform had done him no harm at all and he was happy and excited about it. Soon his friends too felt quite well. Now Simpson knew how to make operations completely painless.
6. Simpson and his friends successfully tested chloroform on 4 May 1847. But it did not bring relief to any patient till 1855. Most doctors refused to use it. They said they did not know what injury it might do to their patient’s health. Many religious groups were also against the use of chloroform. They felt that God had good reasons for giving his creatures pain.
7. Anaesthetics are now very common. Does anyone remember Simpson and the great work he did? Perhaps not, but he lives every time a patient has an operation and feels no pain.
   (a) How did doctors in the early nineteenth century deal with pain during surgeries? [2]
   (b) What was Dr Simpson’s challenge? Why did he decide to experiment on himself and his volunteer friends instead of his patients? [2]
   (c) How did Simpson’s discovery revolutionise the science of medicine? [2]
   (d) Why did most doctors as well as many religious groups initially oppose Dr Simpson’s innovation?     [2]
   (e) Simpson tried the chloroform on himself first. What did it show about his character?    [1]
   (f) Find out the synonym of ‘risky’ in the paragraph 3? [1]
   (g) Why did the three men become unconscious? [1]
   (h) What is the meaning of the expression ‘came to himself’? [1]

SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR                     (30 MARKS)

Question 3:
You are the Sports Secretary of your school. Write a letter to a sports  dealer  asking for information regarding sports items that your school wants to purchase.         [8]

Question 4:
Write a short story in about 200-250 words with the given outline.                                     [10]

Hints : School Annual Day-English Play prepared with great efforts — the   main  actor  lost his voice — panic — commotion — prompter suggested to read the lines from behind the curtain — no one guessed — acting and speaking — perfect synchronisation — All’s well that ends well!

Question 5:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate words from the given options. [4]
Over 35,000 different species of spiders (a) _____________  almost everywhere in the world. Spiders are carnivorous and sometimes eat (b)___________ spiders. Most spiders use poison to kill or paralyse their prey. All spiders (c)_____________ poison and are very dangerous (d)__________ small insects.

Question 6:
The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correct word in the answer sheet against the correct blank number. [4]

Question 7:
Rearrange the following jumbled up words into meaningful sentences.                                     [4]
(a) enjoyable and / educative hobby / is an / birdwatching
(b) go on a bird trail / merge with the surroundings / clothes that / when you / wear dull coloured
(c) that would / avoid any jerky / disturb a bird /or loud movements
(d) field guide / to help you identify / take a / unfamiliar birds

SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)

Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :                              [4]

Mothers carrying their babies home through the jungle after the day s work in the fields hushed their singing lest they might curtail the restful sleep of the venerable herd-robber.
(a) What were the steps taken by the mothers for the animal?
(b) Point out the literary device in ‘venerable herd-robber’.
(c) How did all this care benefit the animal?
(d) Which figure of speech is used in this passage?
OR
In me she has drowned a young girl, and in me an old woman Rises toward her day after day, like a terrible fish.
(a) What does the word ‘drowned’ indicate?
(b) How has ‘she’ drowned a young girl in the mirror?
(c) How does ‘she’ react when ‘she’ looks at her face reflected in the mirror?
(d) Why does ‘she’ behave like a terrible fish?

Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words :             [8]
(a) Why did Mrs. Packletide give up big-game shooting?
(b) What do you think the ‘terrible fish’ in the last line symbolises? What is the poetic device used here?
(c) How did Louisa Mebbin blackmail Mrs. Packletide?
(d) Why does the mirror appear to be a lake in the second stanza? What aspect of the mirror do you think is being referred to here?

Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words :                                              [8]
Suppose you are one of the villagers of the village who is taking part in that hunting expedition and you are surprised by seeing all the display of wealth and money which leads to a false victory. Write a diary entry of all that happened and express your feelings for false ego.
OR
Imagine you are the lady in the poem ‘Mirror’ and pen down your feelings about your changing reflection in the mirror and how it has troubled you.

Question 11:
Answer one of the following questions in about 200-250 words :              [10]
Compare and contrast the behaviour and attitude of Mr and Mrs van Daan.

OR

Describe in your words the picture Anne draws of the Nazis. What is her final comment on them in the chapter?

OR

Helen was an inquisitive child. How can we say so?

OR

Comment on the academic progress of Helen even though she was differently abled.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Mid Term Exam Class 10 Communicative English – Paper 1

Periodic Assessment 2
[Periodic Assessment 2 is based on the main points of the syllabus of Periodic Assessment 1 and the following syllabus.]

Suggested Syllabus

Reading Skills

Question 1:
A factual passage of 300-350 words with 8 very short answer type questions.

Question 2:
A discursive passage of 350-400 words with 4 short answer type questions and 4 very short type questions (2 for vocabulary and 2 for comprehension)

Writing Skills with Grammar
Question 3:
Formal letters: placing an order and letter to the editor

Question 4:
Writing a short story

Question 5:
Gap filling

Question 6:
Editing and omission

Question 7:
Sentence reordering or sentence transformation

Literature Textbook and Extended Reading Text

Question 8:
One out of two extracts from prose and poetry with 4 very short answer type questions.

Question 9:
Four short answer type questions (The Letter, A Shady Plot, Not Marble, Nor the Gilded Monuments and Ozymandias)

Question 10:
One out of two long answer type questions (The Dear Departed)

Question 11:
One out of two very long answer type questions
Diary of a Young Girl – Chapter 8 to 13
The Story of My Life – Chapter 9 to 16

Sample Paper 1

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SECTION A : READING                                   (20 MARKS)

Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :                                    [8]

Whales are normally gentle. Jacques Cousteau in his book, ‘The Whale: Mighty Monarch of the Sea ’, testified to the whale s self-control. In all his years of diving, he says, “not a single man has been hurt during our sometimes hazardous whale encounters. Indeed, whales show every sign of wishing to spare man from harm. ”

Many whales exhibit strong family ties. The young ones remain with their parents for up to 15 years or more. Like reindeer and other nomadic land mammals, such migrating species as humpbacks and grey whales live in herds, or pods, and travel seasonally between feeding and breeding grounds.

In times of stress, whales look after one another. A group migrates at the speed of the slowest baby. When a member is wounded or sick, the others refuse to abandon it. They may cradle it between them or support it on their backs, so it can breathe. A whole loyal group could easily be killed off by whalers.

Maternal instincts are also highly developed. Because a calf is born underwater, the mother must get it to the surface before it drowns. Often another whale will help. The mother nudges it gently until the baby is confident with its swimming usually after about 30 minutes. If the calf is stillborn, she may support it on her back until it literally rots away.

Mother whales behave like human beings. They have been seen fondling their babies. Their flippers are used like hands to clasp, coax and discipline. Jacques Cousteau describes in his book an incident in which a mother swam after her calf and pushed it away from a ship. She then struck it several times with her flippers. “The blows had every appearance of being slaps and were obviously administered to teach the baby not to confuse a ship s hull with a mother s stomach ”.

(a) How are whales regarded as by Jacques Cousteau? [1]

(b) To what does the writer testify his book? [1]

(c) What do whales always show in every encounter with them? [1]

(d) How do they exhibit their strong family ties?               [1]

(e) How do they behave in times of stress? [1]

(f) What happens when a member is wounded or sick? [1]

(g) What happens when a calf is born? [1]

(h) Why are mother whales compared to human beings? [1]

Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

1. Slowly, but surely, two Indian rockets were bom at Thumba. They were christened Rohini and Menaka, after the two mythological dancers in the court of Indra, the king of the sky. The Indian payloads no longer needed to be launched by French rockets. Could this have been done but for the atmosphere of trust and commitment which Prof. Sarabhai had created? He made every man feel directly involved in problem solving. By the very fact of the team members’ participation, the solutions becante genuine and earned the trust of the entire team resulting in total commitment towards implementation.
2. Sarabhai was matter-of-fact. He used to talk with us in an honest and objective manner. Sometimes I found him making things look more positive than they actually were, and then charming us by his almost magical powers of persuasion. When we were at the drawing board, he would bring someone from the developed world for a technical collaboration. That was his subtle way of challenging each one of us to stretch our capabilities.
3. At the same time, even if we failed to meet certain objectives, he would praise whatever we had accomplished. Whenever he found any one of us attempting a task for which he did not have the capability or skill, Prof. Sarabhai would reassign activity in such a way so as to lower pressure and permit better quality work to be performed. By the time the first Rohini-75 rocket was launched from TERLS on 20 November 1967, almost each one of us was in his own groove.
4. Early next year, Prof. Sarabhai called me urgently in Delhi. By now I was accustomed to Prof. Sarabhai’s working methods. He was always full of enthusiasm and optimism. In such a state of mind, sudden flashes of inspiration were almost natural. On reaching Delhi, I contacted Prof. Sarabhai’s secretary and was asked to meet him at 3.30 a.m. at Hotel Ashoka. Delhi being a slightly unfamiliar place, with an unfriendly climate for someone like me, conditioned to the warm and humid climate of South India, I decided to wait in the hotel lounge after finishing my dinner.
5. I have always been a religious person and I maintain a working partnership with God. I was aware that the best work required more ability than I possessed and therefore I needed help only God could give me. I made a true estimate of my ability, raised it by 50 per cent and put myself in God’s hands. In this partnership, I always received all the power I needed, and have actually felt it flowing through me. Today, I can affirm that the kingdom of God is within you in the form of this power, to help achieve your goals and realise your dreams.
   (a) After whom were the two rockets at Thumba named? [2]
   (b) What kind of atmosphere had Prof. Sarabhai created at work  to achieve his aim? [2]
   (c) What special qualities did Prof. Sarabhai possess? [2]
   (d) What was the writer’s relation with God? [2]
   (e) Why was Delhi an unfamiliar place for the writer? [1]
   (f) How did Prof. Sarabhai react to people who failed to achieve the target?               [1]
   (g) Which word in the passage means ‘enchanting’? [1]
   (h) Which word in the passage means ‘to start to send’? [1]

SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR                          (30 MARKS)

Question 3:
You are Saira Banu, the librarian of your school, AMU Girls’ High School, Aligarh. You have been asked to place an order for some books for the school library. Write a letter to the Sales Manager, Pratham Book House, Main Road, Noida, placing an order for the books that you need.                         [8]

Question 4:
One night you were sleeping soundly when a touch woke you up. Rubbing your eyes in surprise, you saw an alien near your bed. Write a short story in about 200-250 words regarding your visit to their planet in a spaceship.          [10]

Question 5:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate words from the given options. [4]
Today is (a)___________ Independence Day of our country, but there is no independence in my life. My entire life revolves (b)___________ pleasing all other and doing (c)__________ work. There is no time for myself. I have forgotten (d)____________ it means to sit, relax and
have a cup of tea.

Question 6:
The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect word and the correct word in the answer sheet against the correct blank Number. [4]

Question 7:
Rearrange the following jumbled up words into meaningful sentences.                               [4]
(a) star / anywhere / a rarity / another star / it is / near / for a / to come
(b) thieves / postman / catch / a / letters / policemen / the / and / brings
(c) uniforms / postman / blue / wears / policemen / a / the / khaki / a / uniform / and / wear
(d) carry / letters / carries / policemen / a / canes / the / postman / a bag / while / in

SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)

Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :                       [4]
The postmaster didn’t receive his own letter all that day. He worried all night and getting up at three, went to sit in the office. “When Ali comes at 4 o’clock, ” he mused, “I will give him the letter myself. ”
(a) Why was the postmaster waiting for Ali after turning him away earlier?
(b) Which letter is the postmaster waiting for?
(c) What does he ultimately realize?
(d) How did he spend the night?

OR

So till the judgement, that yourself arise
You live in this and dwell in lover’s eyes
(a) What is ‘judgement’? Who delivers it?
(b) Who will survive? How?
(c) Explain — “dwell in lover’s eyes.”
(d) Who is ‘you’ in the above lives?

Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words :                                                            [8]
(a) “Ali displays qualities of love and patience.” Give evidence from the story to support the statement.
(b) Why does the poet refer to Time as being sluttish?
(c) What impression do you form of the postmaster after reading the story, ‘The Letter’?
(d) Describe how the monuments and statues brave the ravages of time.

Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words :                                         [8]

Bring out the irony in the title of the play ‘The Dear Departed’?

OR

Compare and contrast Henry’s character with that of his wife. Support your answer with evidence from the play?

Question 11:
Answer one of the following questions in about 200-250 words :                                          [10]

Why do you think Anne feels distant from her mother? Is her mother entirely to blame? Give reasons.

OR

Mr. van Daan’s behaviour revealed his inflated ego at the dinner table. Discuss the activities which annoyed Anne and other inmates.

OR

How did the visit to Baltimore change Helen’s life in a great way?

OR

What was the significance of the role played by Helen’s mother in her life?

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CBSE Sample Papers for Mid Term Exam Class 10 Communicative English – Paper 2

Sample Paper 2

Strictly based on the Remodelled Scheme of Assessment, the Latest Syllabus and Design of the Question Paper released by the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi effective from academic year 2017-18.

SECTION A : READING                                   (20 MARKS)

Question 1:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :                                   [8]
Eight of the invited countries are in Eastern Europe. Until 1991, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania were part of the Soviet Union. Poland, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Hungary, and Slovenia all had Communist governments. The E-U also offered membership to Malta and the Greek-ruled part of Cyprus.
The planned expansion would be the largest in the E-U’s history. It would create a community of more than 450 million people in twenty-five countries. The expansion also would create an economy of more than nine million dollars. Such an economy would be close to that of the United States.
Intense negotiations took place at the Copenhagen meeting about the financial terms under which new members will join. Candidates for E-U membership had demanded more aid. Most of them are poorer than the average country in Western Europe. They also have shorter histories as democracies and had problems with dishonest governments. Many people in the invited countries did not fully support efforts to join the E-U.
Poland is the largest of the ten candidate countries. It had threatened to sabotage the expansion plans if it did not receive more aid. The agreement calls for the E-U to provide more than forty thousand million dollars in aid to the new members.
The expansion is planned for May, 2004. But first, citizens in each candidate country must approve E-U membership in a series of votes expected next year. E-U members had hoped that a United Nations-negotiated agreement to end the division of Cyprus would be signed during the Copenhagen meeting. Cyprus has been divided between Greek and Turkish Cypriots since 1974. The E-U offered membership to the southern, Greek side of Cyprus. The Turkish north could enter later if it agreed on terms to end the island’s division. Now, only the internationally recognised Greek Cypriot government will receive E-U membership. In another development. Turkey accepted an E-U decision to delay considering the membership until December 2004, at the earliest. E-U leaders said Turkey must make the political and human rights reforms necessary to begin talks about membership.
(a) Where are the eight invited countries situated? [1]
(b) Which two other countries were offered membership by E-U? [1]
(c) Where did intense negotiations take place? [1]
(d) What had candidates for E-U demanded? [1]
(e) What had Poland threatened to do? [1]
(f) What does the agreement call for the E-U to provide? [1]
(g) Mention the period for which expansion is planned. [1]
(h) Between which two countries has Cyprus been divided? [1]

Question 2:
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :        [12]
You seemed at first to take no notice of your school-fellows, or rather to set yourself against them because they were strangers to you. They knew as little of you as you did of them, so that this would have been the reason for their keeping alooffrom you as well, which you would have felt as a hardship. Learn never to conceive a prejudice against others because you know nothing of them. It is bad reasoning, and makes enemies of half the world. Do not think ill of them till they behave ill to you; and then strive to avoid the faults which you see in them. “Never despise anyone at all, ” for contempt implies a triumph over and pleasure in the ill of another. It means that you are glad and congratulate yourself on their failings or misfortunes. “You have hitherto been a spoilt child, and have been used to have your own way a good deal, both in the house and among your playfellows, with whom you were too fond of being a leader; but you have good nature and good sense, and will get the better of this in time. You have now got among other boys who are your equals, or bigger and stronger than yourself and who have some thing else to attend to besides humouring your whims and fancies, and you feel this as a repulse or piece of injustice. But the first lesson to learn is that there are other people in the world besides yourself. The more airs of childish self-importance you give yourself, you will only expose yourself to be the more thwarted and laughed at. True equality is the only true morality or wisdom. Remember always that you are but one among others and you can hardly mistake your place in society. In your father s house you might do as you pleased; in the world you.will find competitors at every turn. You are not born a king’s son, to destroy or dictate to millions; you can only expect to share their fate, or settle your differences amicably with them. You already find it so at school, and I wish you to be reconciled to your situation as soon and with as little pain as you can.

(a) What would you have felt as a hardship? [2]
(b) Why does the writer tell you not to despise anyone? [2]
(c) Give reasons why the writer thinks that you were a spoilt child till now. [2]
(d) What, according to the writer, is true morality or wisdom? [2]
(e) Why do you not take notice of your school-fellows in the beginning? [1]
(f) Give one difference of your position in your father’s house and in the world? [1]
(g) Which word in the first paragraph means ‘distant’? [1]
(h) Which word in the second paragraph means ‘a person who guides’? [1]

SECTION B : WRITING AND GRAMMAR                          (30 MARKS)

Question 3:
Nursery admissions have generated enough controversy since the past two years. Transparency, elimination of the system of interview, minimising the management’s discretion have been some of the suggestions. After the Delhi High Court order to bring out a comprehensive solution to nursery admissions, parents have heaved a sigh of relief. Write a letter to the Editor on the topic ‘Nursery Admissions: A Step in the Right Direction’. Refer to your M.C.B Unit-2 ‘Education’ and write the letter offering vital alternatives. [8]

Question 4:
Write an original short story in about 200-250 words on about how your disobedience of your parent’s advice led to very serious consequences.     [10]

Hints : Advice not to stay out late — or go to a movie — went for an evening show — no transport when you come out — a man in a 3 wheeler offers lift — takes a wrong turn — ask to stop — run into the bungalow — inmates come to your rescue — parents come to fetch you at 12 midnight.

Question 5:
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate words from the given options. [4]
I am sorry to tell you that mother (a) __________ been ill for the past three days. She has been suffering from cough; she has (b)  __________ temperature and requires to lie (c)  __________ . The doctor says she will be better (d) _____ a few days.

Question 6:
The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each sentence. Underline the error and write the correct answer by choosing from the options.

Question 7:
Rearrange the following jumbled up’ words into meaningful sentences..
(a)     is it / that / attracts / so many / to it / about / prayers / people / what?
(b)     offer / peace / of hope / and / of / mind / a lot / prayers.
(c)     anything / the faith / they give / to believe / can / that / happen / you.
(d)     ought / with / honest / heart / offered / prayers / to / be.

SECTION C : LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (30 MARKS)

Question 8:
Read one of the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :             [4]
Curious how that idea for a plot had come to me out of nowhere after 1 had closed inspiration in vain for months! It is healthy to contradict Jenkins.
(a) What did the writer believe?
(b) Why did the writer find it curious?
(c) Why did the writer keep choosing plots?
(d) What do you mean by the phrase ‘in vain’?
OR
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed;
And on the pedestal, these words appear:
My name is Ozymandias, King of Kings;
(a) What is the meaning of ‘stamped’?
(b) Whom does the hand and heart refer to?
(c) How did the king look after his people?
(d) What quality of Ozymandias is revealed in the last line?

Question 9:
Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words :                                [8]
(a) What genre of stories does Jenkins want the narrator to write? Why?
(b) What message is conveyed through the poem, ‘Ozymandias’?
(c) Why does John want the ghost to disappear before his wife appears on the scene? What impression of his wife’s character do you form from his words?
(d) What is your impression of Ozymandias as a king?

Question 10:
Answer one of the following questions in about 100-120 words : [8]
Many years have elapsed. Mr Abel Merryweather passed away some years back. Mrs Slater is old and she realises how greedily she had behaved with her father. She is grief-stricken and regrets her actions. She unburdens her self in a diary-entry. Compose this on her behalf.
OR
As the narrator, write an article on the lesson of love, faith and trust that you have learnt from the two young boys of Verona.

Question 11:
Answer one of the following questions in about 200-250 words :                                         [10]
What is Anne’s cure for despair and unhappiness? Explain it fully and state the impression it creates on you.

OR

Compare and contrast Anne and Margot.

OR

Why did Helen regret the loss of Mr. Anagnos’ friendship? What was his stand on Helen’s innocence?

OR

How did the ‘terrible experience’ related to ‘The Frost King’ leave lasting impression on Helen’s mind? Discuss.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Pre-Mid Term Exam Class 10 Hindi A – Paper 1

सावधिक मूल्यांकन – 1
सुझावित पाठयक्रम

सैंपल प्रशनपत्र – 1
(Periodic Assessment-1)

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